Sie sind auf Seite 1von 13

Microbiology – 5 MCQs each on Virology and Immunology

131. Of the followings, smallest virus is

a) FMD virus b) Fowl pox virus


c) Ranikhet disease virus d) Avian leucosis virus

132. Double stranded RNA is contained by

a) Retroviruses b) Reoviruses
c) Poxviruses d) Parvoviruses

133. Coggin’s test is used to diagnose

a)Yellow fever b)Equine infectious anemia


c) Equine arteritis d)Equine herpesvirus infection

134. Following FMD serotypes have been detected in India

a) O b) A
c) C d) All of above

135. Infectious pustular vulvovaginitis is caused by

a) BHV-1 b) BVD virus


c) Bovine mammilitis virus d) None of above

136. Main immunoglobulin protecting mucosal surfaces is

a) IgM b) IgG
c) IgA d) All of above

137. Following enzymes can be used in ELISA.

a) Alkaline phosphatase b) Penicillinase


c) HRPO d) All of above

138. The test based on Delayed hypersensitivity is/are

a) Tuberculin b) Johnin
c) Mallein d) All of above

139. The reference serological test for Rabies diagnosis is

a) FAT b) AGPT
c) Agglutination d) ELISA
140. T lymphocytes get maturity in

a) Liver b) Spleen
c) Thymus d) Bursa of Fabricius

141. Viruses that exist in cells and cause recurrent disease are considered

a) Oncogenic b) Cytopathic
c) Latent d) Resisitant

142. The general steps in viral multiplication cycle are

a) Absorption, penetration, replication, maturation and release


b) Endocytosis, penetration, replication, assembly and lysis
c) Absorption, uncoating, replication, assembly and budding
d) Endocytosis, penetration, replication, maturation and exocytosis

143. In dog, canine Adenovirus infection produces

a) Pink eye b) Blue eye


c) Pearly eye d) None

144. Biological vector for Bluetongue virus is

a) Aedes b) Culicoides
c) Anopheles d) House fly

145. Double stranded segmented RNA virus with 10-12 segments is the features of
family

a) Reoviridae b) Retroviridae
c) Orthomyxoviridae d) Paramyxoviridae

146. First anti-rabies vaccine was developed by

a) Edward Jenner b) Louis pasteur


c) Robert Koch d) Robert Hook

147. Separation of RBCs from virus is called

a) Elution b) HA
c) HI d) Eclipse

148. Viruses are having

a) Only DNA b) Only RNA


c) Either DNA or RNA d) Both RNA and DNA
149. Clinical manifestation of canine parvo virus infection is

a) Mycocarditis in pups b) Haemorrhagic diarrhoea


c) Leukopenia d) All of above

150. The viral agent produces diaphagic fever, respiratory distress, nervous
symptoms and hard pad disease in dog

a) Canine distemper virus b) ICH Virus


c) Rabies virus d) Rubella Virus

151. Chicken pox in man is caused by

a) Pox virus b) Herpes virus


c) Adenovirus d) All of above

152. Swine influenza virus associated with current pandemic in human is

a) H1N1 b) H2N2
c) H3N2 d) H5N1

153. Virus neutralisation test can be performed

a) Only in tissue culture b) Only in animals


c) Only in chicken embroys d) All of the above

154. Reverse transcriptase is used by

a) Adeno viruses b) Papova viruses


c) Herpes viruses d) Hepadena viruses

155. Universal system of viral taxonomy does not include

a) Order b) Phylum
c) Family d) Genus

156. Sanger was awarded Nobel Prize for developing a revolutionary technique
known as
a) Cloning b) ELISA
c) PCR d) Sequencing

157. All member of genus contain non segmented viruses except

a) Filovirus b) Lyssa virus


c) Morbilli virus d) Orbi virus

158. Para pox virus is

a) Woven yarn shape b) Cart wheel


c) Helical d) Cup shape
159. Avian Influenza virus associated with current outbreak in India belongs to

a) H1N1 b) H5N1
c) H2N3 d) None of above

160. Which of the pox is zoonotic

a) Orf b) Sheep pox


c) Chicken pox d) Fowl pox

161. Scrapie is an example of

a) Viral disease b) Bacterial disease


c) Fungal disease d) Prion disease

162. Which of the following is an antiviral agent

a) Chloramphenicol b) Acyclovir
c) Cephalexin d) Fluoroquinolones

163. Which of the following viruses has been provisionally eradicated from India

a) Polio b) FMD
c) Rinderpest d) Bluetongue

164. Which one of the following viruses do not cause skin infection

a) Rabbit pox virus b) Herpes virus


c) Canine distemper virus d) Reo virus

165. Which one of the following viruses infect gastro-intestinal tract

a) African Swine fever virus b) Rabies


c) Papilloma d) Sheep pox

166. Which one of the following is not an arbo virus

a) Yellow fever virus b) Marek’s disease virus


c) Dengue virus d) Equine Encephelomyelitis

167. Rabies virus travels in body through

a) Blood b) Lymph
c) Nerves d) Muscles

168. Canine parvovirus is excreted principally in

a) Saliva b) Faeces
c) Urine d) Nasal Discharge
169. EDS-76 is caused by

a) Adenovirus b) Circovirus
c) Herpees virus d) Paramyxovirus

170. Birna virus have genome consisted of

a) 2 segements b) 3 segements
c) 4 segements d) No segments

171. It is used as a cryo-preservative for preservation of cell line

a) PBS b) Eagle’s MEM


c) Potassium chloride d) DMSO

172. You will preferably attempt to isolate Marek’s Disease Virus from a diseased
bird from

a) Feather Follicle b) Liner


c) Nerve trunk d) Eye secretion

173. Fowl Adenovirus is considered to be causal agent of

a) EDS b) Leechi disease


c) Gumboro disease d) Infectious Bronchitis

174. The DNA virus family consisting of circular genome is

a) Poxviridae b) Adenoviridae
c) Asfarviridae d) Papovaviridae

175. Which one of the following consists of SS plus stand Linear RNA

a) Picornaviridae b) Parvoviridae
c) Paramyxoviride d) Reoviridae

176. Which of the following statements about Marek’s Disease is not True

a) MD and Leucosis can occur in the same bird


b) MDV belongs to alpha Herpesvirinae
c) MD is lymphoproliferative disease
d) MDV is transmitted in ova

177. Retroviral genome is

a) SS RNA b) Linear (+) Sense


c) Diploid d) All of the above
178. Bovine viral diarrhoea virus belongs to the family

a) Herpesviridae b) Rhabdoviridae
c) Flaviridae d) None of above

179. The smallest virus of vertebrates known is

a) FMDV b) Canine Parvovirus


c) Rinderpest virus d) Porcine circovirus

180. Which one of the following consist of double stranded RNA as genome

a) Rinderpest virus b) Bluetongue virus


c) Rous sarcoma virus d) Canine distemper virus

181. The No. of RNA segments in Bluetongue virus is

a) 11 b) 12
c) 10 d) 13

182. Which one of the following is not antigenically related to other three viruses

a) Rinderpest b) Measles
c) Canine distemper d) Mumps

183. Corona and Rota virus are associated with which of the following disease

a) Diarrhoea b) Abortion
c) Tracheal infection d) Skin infection

184. The classification of Herpesviridae family into subfamily is based on

a) Biological properties b) Nucleotide sequence


c) Phylogenetic analysis d) All of above

185. The largest RNA genome is contained in which of the following viruses

a) Transmissible Gastroenteritis virus of swine


b) Vesicular stomatitis virus
c) Rotavirus
d) Avian influenza virus

186. Which of the following is an onco gene

a) gag b) pol
c) em d) sre
187. Cell free virus in Marek’s Disease is found in

a) Feather follicles b) Nerve cells


c) Epithelial cells d) Lymphoblastoid cells

188. Hard pad disease occurs due to virus belonging to the family

a) Herpesviridae b) Paramyxoviridae
c) Parvoviridae d) Adenoviridae

189. Genus Thogoto virus belongs the family

a) Orthomyxoviridae b) Paramyxoviridae
c) Parvoviridae d) Adenoviridae

190. DNA inhibitors can inhibit replication of

a) Picorna virus b) Reovirus


c) Retrovirus d) Orthomyxovirus

191. Which is mosquito-borne viral disease of man and animals.

a) Rift vally fever b) Q-fever


c) Undulent fever d) Swine fever

192. PPR is also known as

a) Pseudorabies of cattle b) Pseudorinderpest of small ruminant


c) Pseudorinderpest of cattle d) All of the above

193. Which virus has A, O, C and Asia 1 serotypes

a) Vesicular stomatitis b) RP virus


c) FMD virus d) Rota virus

194. Which route is employed for cultivation of Bluetongue virus

a) CAM b) Allontoic
c) Yolk sac d) Intraembryonic

195. ILT virus is cultivated in chick embryo by

a) CAM route b) Allantoic route


c) Yolk sac route d) Amniotic route

196. Orbivirus belong to family

a) Herpesviridae b) Reoviridae
c) Retroviridae d)Togaviridae
197. Fowl pox virus is antigenically similar to

a) Ranikhet disease virus b) Pigeon pox virus


c) Orf virus d) Vaccinia virus

198. Which animal is NOT susceptible to vesicular exanthema virus

a) Pig b) Horse
c) Cow d) All of the above

199. Chicken pox virus primarily affect

a) Chicken b) Turkey
c) Ducks d) None of the above

200. Rabies virus is excreted in high concentration through

a) Saliva b) Milk
c) Urine d) Occulo nasal discharge

201. Vesicular exanthema virus does not grow in

a) Mice b) Chick embryo


c) Guinea pig d) All of the above

202. Reservoir host for equine encephalomyelitis virus is

a) Wild birds b) Leopard frogs


c) Rodents d) All of the above

203. Replication of Papilloma virus is restricted to

a) Epithelial cells b) Nerve cells


c) Fibroblasts d) RE cells

204. Most sensitive technique for antigen detection in adeno virus infection is

a) ELISA b) Immunofluorescence
c) PCR d) AGID

205. The clinical form of IBR in cattle is

a) Respiratory b) Enteric
c) Genital d) All of the above

206. Chicken anaemia virus is transmitted by

a) Contact b) Inhalation
c) Vertical d) Both A and C
207. The number of segments present in the genome of rota virus is

a) 10 b) 11
c) 12 d) none of the above

208. Rift valley fever virus belongs to the family

a) Reo viridae b) Bunya viridae


c) Flavi viridae d) Toga viridae

209. Avian sarcoma virus was discovered by

a) Ellerman and Bang b) Rous


c) Beijerinck d) Stanley

210. The bacteriophages were first discovered by

a) Loeffler and frosch b) D’Herele


c) Twort d) Both b and c

211. MD virus is antigenically related to

a) Herpes Virus of Turkey b) Duck Plague Virus


c) Duck enteritis virus d) ILTV

212. African Swine Fever belongs to the family of

a) Adenoviridae b) Herpesviridae
c) Poxviridae d) Iridoviridae

213. Elementary bodies of Fowl-pox are called as

a) Bollinger bodies b) Borrel bodies


c) Paschen bodies d) Giant cells

214. Rabies virus is

a) Viscerotropic b) Neurotropic
c) Dermotropic d) None

215. Virus that induce neoplasm in birds is

a) IBV b) IBDV
c) ILTV d) MDV

216. Synonym for Pseudorabies is

a) Duckplague b) SV-40
c) Epidemic tremor d) Mad-itch
217. The largest and most complex of all animal viruses are

a) Arbovirus b) Poxviruses
c) Picornavirus d) Herpesviruses

218. Best method of preservation of cell lines is

a) Lyophilization b) - 200 C
c) - 800 C d) - 1960 C

219. Virus specific antibody neutralizes

a) Whole virion b) Nucleic acid only


c) Protein coat only d) Envelope only

220. Adenoviruses have the following numbers of capsomeres

a) 162 b) 240
c) 440 d) 252

221. Seller’s stain is used for

a) Capsule b) Flagella
c) Negribodies d) Metachromatic granules

222. Chemical nature of interferon is

a) Glycoprotein b) Lipid
c) Polysaccharide d) All of above

223. Interferon is formed by

a) T- Lymphocyte b) Fibrolblasts & Epithelial cells


c) Leucocytes d) All of above

224. For DNA synthesis the enzyme required is

a) DNA polymerase b) RNA polymerase


c) Reverse transcriptas d) None of above

225. Direct method of virus detection in cell culture is

a) CFT b) HA
c) FAT d) AGPT

226. The following virus families have enveloped viruses except

a) Poxviridae b) Herpesviridae
c) Paramyxoviridae d) Orthomyxoviridae
227. The property of elution of RBCs is found in

a) Myxovirus b) Togavirus
c) Parvovirus d) Adenovirus

228. Routine diagnosis of RP is done by

a) Animal inoculation b) AGPT


c) CFT d) Both b and c

229. The natural host of Malignant Catarrhal Fever virus is

a) Cattle b) Sheep
c) Pig d) dog

230. ILT is disease of

a) Young chickens b) Growing chickens


c) Layers d) None of above

Key of answers to the MCQs of Virology

131. –a
132. –b
133. –b
134. –d
135. –a
136. –c
137. –d
138. –d
139. –a
140. –c
141. –c
142. –a
143. –b
144. –b
145. –a
146. –b
147. –a
148. –c
149. –d
150. –a
151. –a
152. –a
153. –
154. –
155. –
156. –
157. –
158. –
159. –b
160. –
161. –d
162. –b
163. –c
164. –d
165. –a
166. –b
167. –c
168. –b
169. –a
170. –a
171. –
172. –a
173. –b
174. –d
175. –a
176. –d
177. –d
178. –c
179. –d
180. –b
181. –b
182. –d
183. –a
184. –d
185. –c
186. –d
187. –a
188. –b
189. –a
190. –c
191. –a
192. –c
193. –c
194. –d
195. –a
196. –b
197. –b
198. –b
199. –b
200. –a
201. –d
202. –d
203. –a
204. –c
205. –d
206. –d
207. –b
208. –b
209. –a
210. –d
211. –a
212. –d
213. –b
214. –b
215. –d
216. –d
217. –b
218. –d
219. –a
220. –d
221. –c
222. –a
223. –d
224. –b
225. –c
226. –
227. –a
228. –d
229. –a
230. –b