All in One Source For Grade 11

ALL IN ONE SOURCE FOR GRADE 11 (2
ND SEM ONLY)
WAG NIYO NA AKONG PASALAMATAN KASE KONTI LANG ANG AMBAG KO DYAN HAHAHAHA SHOUTOUT
SA MGA OLD/NEW
STUDENTS NG AMA PATI NA RIN MISMO SA AMA BRANCH NA NAGARAL MABUHAY PO KAYO : )
BAED-ENGL2112 READING AND WRITING SKILLS (WEEK 1-20)
Identify the topic sentence in the following paragraph:
(A) Gone with the Wind is not just Scarlett O’Hara’s story; it is also the story of another remarkable
woman, Melanie Wilkes. (B) The author
describes Melanie as having “the face” of a sheltered child who had never known anything but simplicity
and kindness, truth and love, a
child who had never looked upon harshness or evil, and would not have recognized them if she saw
them.” (C) Strangely enough, the
qualities that weakened Melanie in Scarlett’s eyes—loyalty, naivete, and simplicity—actually proved to
make Melanie a strong person.
Select one:
a. A
b. C
c. A and B
d. B and C
e. A and C
f. B
This is the stage where you polish the order of your ideas and filter the information needed to get your
point across and correct any
mechanical errors.
Select one:
a. Pre-writing
b. Organizing
c. Writing
d. Editing
e. Revising
Type TRUE if the given statement is correct and FALSE if it is incorrect.
The final draft does not require editing or revising.
Answer:
FALSE
This stage in the writing process narrows your topic into the most important and relevant.
Select one:
a. Editing
b. Revising
c. Organizing
d. Pre-writing
e. Writing
Which of the following statements is not true?
Select one:
a. In clustering, you enclose a subject in a circle or underline it and then link it to other ideas using lines
b. Learning to write is a sequential process.
c. You must start thinking about writing a completely unfamiliar topic and explore it along the way.
d. Editing is the stage where you go over your written work to look for errors in grammar.
IDENTIFICATION.
This refers to the set of basic questions that can start the exploration of your topic.
Answer:
Journalists' Questions
Fill in the blank with the appropriate transition word. Choose from the given set of words below.
Improvements in health, education and trade are essential for the development of poorer nations.
__________, the governments of richer
nations should take more responsibility for helping the poorer nations in such areas.
Select one:
a. Despite
b. Because of
c. With this in mind
d. However
e. Since
Arrange the following sentences to form a comprehensive paragraph.
1.Guerrilla movements can exist only when they have some support from the people in their area of
operations
2.The greater the support the more effective the guerrillas become
3.This is because in all lands where a strong, ideologically motivated guerrilla force looks in struggle with
the government, ultimate victory
goes to the side which succeeds in rallying people
4.Conversely, when the people deny or withdraw their support, the guerrilla lose their ability to
disengage, disappear and exist and shortly
are down and wipe out
5.The decisive factor in the twilight war in South Vietnam is the support of the rural masses
Read the following jumbled paragraph and answer the succeeding question:
(A) For the first time however, the waters of Laguna de Bay are serving a new and different purpose. (B)
Today, these lands can be planted
to palay during off-season. (C) They are being harnessed to water rice field along the shores which are
idle during the dry season. (D) Fish
abound in its waters and its shores have been favorable breeding ground for ducks. (E) Laguna de Bay
has, for centuries, been a major
source of livelihood for people living along its shores.

Which is the most fitting 4th sentence for the given paragraph?
The correct answer is: B
(A) Gone with the Wind is not just Scarlett O’Hara’s story; it is also the story of another remarkable
woman, Melanie Wilkes. (B) The author
describes Melanie as having “the face” of a sheltered child who had never known anything but simplicity
and kindness, truth and love, a
child who had never looked upon harshness or evil, and would not have recognized them if she saw
them.” (C) Strangely enough, the
qualities that weakened Melanie in Scarlett’s eyes—loyalty, naivete, and simplicity—actually proved to
make Melanie a strong person.
The correct answer is: C
Read the following jumbled paragraph and answer the succeeding question.
(A) Guerrilla movements can exist only when they have some support from the people in their area of
operations. (B) This is because in all
lands where a strong, ideologically motivated guerrilla force looks in struggle with the government,
ultimate victory goes to the side which
succeeds in rallying people. (C) Conversely, when the people deny or withdraw their support, the
guerrilla lose their ability to disengage,
disappear and exist and shortly are down and wipe out. (D) The decisive factor in the twilight war in
South Vietnam is the support of the
rural masses. (E) The greater the support the more effective the guerrillas become.
Which is the fitting 3rd sentence in the paragraph?
Improvements in health, education and trade are essential for the development of poorer nations.
__________, the governments of richer
nations should take more responsibility for helping the poorer nations in such areas.
The correct answer is: However
Output is important, but an effective written work is still valued.

Answer: TRUE
A stage in writing where you look for any mechanical errors.
Select one:
a. Writing
b. Rereading
c. Revising
d. Writing the final draft
e. Editing
---- Refer to the given paragraph below, entitled “Picturing Don Quixote”:
Seventeenth-century images emphasized the title character’s pompous folly as well as the often rough-
and-tumble action of many
episodes. The windmill scene, in which Don Quixote mistakes the technology that grinds the grain
produced in the semi-arid Manchegan
landscape for giants, became immediately iconic. The first representation of the scene appears in a
Frankfurt edition of 1648, in which the
windmill sail stabs Don Quixote.
What type of description is used in the paragraph?
The correct answer is: Subjective description
---The term that refers to the consequences or events caused by the climax.
The correct answer is: Falling action
---What type of figure of speech is used in the following sentence?
The lady in the water screamed like a banshee
The correct answer is: Simile
----Read the following narrative essay:
In blistering Nebraska, it was America’s Independence Day. As usual on every Independence Day since I
was five years old, George and
Terry, my two best friends, and I, went on a manly picnic. I diligently carried out my household chores,
packed my picnic bag and off I went
to collect my friends by way of bicycle. It is going to be an awesome day, I thought to myself as I sped
down my neighborhood street on my
beat-up blue Schwinn.
THE writer presented what point of view?
The correct answer is: First person
---Read the following excerpt from the short story, Dead Stars by Paz Marquez Benitez:
Alfredo remembered that period with a wonder not unmixed with shame. That was less than four years
ago. He could not understand those
months of a great hunger that was not of the body nor yet of the mind, a craving that had seized on him
one quiet night when the moon was
abroad and under the dappled shadow of the trees in the plaza, man wooed maid. Was he being
cheated by life? Love--he seemed to have
missed it. Or was the love that others told about a mere fabrication of perfervid imagination, an
exaggeration of the commonplace, a
glorification of insipid monotonies such as made up his love life? Was love a combination of
circumstances, or sheer native capacity of
soul? In those days love was, for him, still the eternal puzzle; for love, as he knew it, was a stranger to
love as he divined it might be.
What narrative device was used in the paragraph?
The correct answer is: Flashback
--- Read the following example of a definition paragraph:
The term protein quality refers to the ratio of essential amino acids (eaa) in a protein in comparison with
the ratio required by the body. A
high quality protein contains eaa in a ratio that matches human requirements. A protein which is lacking
or low in one or more eaa is termed
a low quality protein. The eaa which is in the shortest supply is called the ‘limiting’ amino acid. In
general, animal proteins tend to be high
quality while vegetable proteins tend to be low quality. The exception is soy protein which is quite high
quality.
What is the strategy used in the development of the paragraph?
The correct answer is: Denotation
----Refer to the given paragraph below on The Great Wall of China:
The Great Wall, or Chang Cheng in Chinese, is massive. It begins in the east at the Yellow Sea, travels
near China’s capital, Beijing, and
continues west through numerous provinces. For thousands of miles, it winds like a snake through
China’s varied terrain. Smaller walls
extend from the main wall. According to conservative estimates, the Great Wall’s length is
approximately 2,400 miles, its thickness ranges
from 15-30 feet wide, and it reaches in height to about 25 feet.
What type of description is used in the paragraph?
The correct answer is: Objective description
-----Read the following example of a definition paragraph:
Soren Kierkegaard, another famous existentialist, comprehends absurd as a synonym to paradox. He

defines it as a matter of faith and the
only phenomena that allows a person to believe in self. According to his philosophy, a human being is a
synthesis of opposites: eternal and
temporary, finite and infinite, freedom and obligation. Due to the synthesis of these opposites in an
individual’s consciousness, one
constantly resides in fear and despair (Liam 194). And the more self-consciousness one possesses, the
deeper these feelings are. The
only way for salvation is faith in God and this is where absurd comes in. Kierkegaard refers to the biblical
myth about Abraham and his son
Isaac. According to this legend, God required Abraham to sacrifice his son to Him. In this case,
Abraham’s faith led him to commit a crime;
it transformed a murder into an act of charity and simultaneously, where faith had returned Isaac to his
father alive. Faith cannot be logically
argued, but it works and this is absurd. Individuals are free and this freedom lets them find their own
way to God.
(Source: https://academichelp.net/…/a…/essays/definition/absurd.html…)
What is the strategy used in the development of the paragraph?
The correct answer is: Extensive definition
-----Given the following sentence from the story, Dead Stars:
A round orange moon, "huge as a winnowing basket," rose lazily into a clear sky, whitening the iron
roofs and dimming the lanterns at the
windows.
What is the figure of speech used for the round orange moon?
-----The latin word from which the word "narration" comes
The correct answer is: narrare
Which of the following statements is true?
Select one:
a. Organizing is when you express your thoughts in comprehensible sentences
b. You may choose to find a topic that only a handful people are interested in.
c. Brainstorming shows relationships among a variety of ideas
d. You must come up with all the possible ideas from the pre-writing stage.
Pre-writing requires an
open
mind
In writing a text, these two elements must be present: content and
form

In brainstorming, you must find the related ideas to the topic you have in mind and link it to subtopics.
Answer:
FALSE
True or False: It's best to think of different topics and discover various points of focus so you can keep
your options open before writing.
The correct answer is: False
True or False: In brainstorming, you must find the related ideas to the topic you have in mind and link it
to subtopics.
Learning to write is a
The correct answer is: sequential
A pre-writing strategy which is the process of pouring out all your thoughts nonstop in an exact order,
language and form as you think them.
The correct answer is: Freewriting
Complete the following sentence: "Writing without _________
form and content
Correct is like a human body without skeleton; writing without ___________ is like a skeleton with no
flesh."
The correct answer is: form and content
In writing a text, these two elements must be present: content and
The correct answer is: form
The correct answer is: You must come up with all the possible ideas from the pre-writing stage.
A stage in writing where you look for any mechanical errors.
The correct answer is: Revising
True or False: The final draft does not require editing or revising.

Pre-writing requires an
The correct answer is: open
Which of the following questions is not beneficial in exploring your topic?
Select one:
a. When is the issue most apparent?
b. At what place is the cause or effect of the problem most visible?
c. Why is it an issue or problem at all?
d. How does the issue relate to other public issues?
Read the following narrative essay:
Jerry was the kind of guy you love to hate. He was always in a good mood and always had something
positive to say. When someone
would ask him how he was doing, he would reply, "If I were any better, I would be twins!" He was a
unique manager because he had
several waiters who had followed him around from restaurant to restaurant. The reason the waiters
followed Jerry was because of his
attitude. He was a natural motivator. If an employee was having a bad day, Jerry was there telling the
employee how to look on the positive
side of the situation.”
The writer presented what point of view?
The correct answer is: Second person
Read the following narrative essay:
I can remember my first ascension to a mountain top well. It happened about three years ago, when it
was autumn, and the weather in the
mountains was gloomy. My friends offered me to travel to the western Carpathian Mountains, and after
a short period of hesitation, I
accepted their invitation. There was nothing much to do for me at the time, so I thought a change of
surrounding would only be of use to
me.
What narrative device was used in the paragraph?
The correct answer is: Flashback
A strategy in writing a definition paragraph that shows the evolution of the word and how it was
formed.
The correct answer is: Etymology
True or False: The main aim of descriptive paragraphs is to describe a particular thing as accurately as
possible.
This is one of the terms used in writing narratives that refers to the outcome of the characters’ actions.
The correct answer is: Resolution
IDENTIFICATION:
An example of a dangerous site that children can easily access:
Answer: Pornography websites
Which of the following statements is not true?
Select one:
a. Pornography websites can be easily accessed by children.
b. Internet has become so widespread that it is hard to track the cause of serious problems encountered
by its users.
c. Sensitive information have been falling into the hands of criminals
d. Through right action of individuals, government and businesses, the internet can be made into a safe
place
According to the essay sample, which of these is not a problem specified by the author? (Write the letter
of the correct answer)
a. children can access potentially dangerous sites
b. news and company websites are hacked
c. online fraud
d. websites with unverified authenticity.
Answer: D
Which of the following is not a proposed solution of the author?
Select one:
a. Parents should monitor the online activities of their children
b. Install anti-virus programs that could prevent potential malware.
c. Building of onsite IT security systems for companies
d. Governments ensure adequate legislation and controls over website access
Is the conclusion positive or negative?
Select one:
a. Yes
b. No
c. Neutral
d. The essay does not imply so.
1. Arrange the following sentences to form a coherent paragraph.
[There have been immense advances in technology in most aspects of people’s lives, especially in the
field of education.]. [Nowadays, an
increasing number of students rely on computers for research and to produce a perfect paper for school
purposes. ]. [Others have decided
to leave the original way of learning and to get knowledge through online schools.]. [These changes in
the learning process have brought a
special concern regarding the possible decrease of importance of teachers in the classroom.].
2. Choose the correct transition words for the paragraph from the given choices below. You may use the
same word multiple times.
The correct answer is:
Every four years, the whole world stops to watch international sporting events [such as] the Olympics
and the Football World Cup in which
athletes show their best performance to make their country proud. These sporting occasions have
proved to be helpful in easing
international tension in difficult times when powerful leaders were trying to control the world’s
economy and other governments were
fighting over the land.
The Olympic Games are one of the best examples which prove how sporting events can bring nations
together, at least temporarily. [from]
the ancient History, [when] Greeks and Romans would interrupt battles to participate in the games, to
the more recent international
disputes, when athletes from Palestine and Israel would forget their differences, compete peacefully
and even embrace each other after an
event. [moreover], these popular events have called the world’s attention to the terrible consequences
of wars; [thus] some leaders have
tried to reach agreements to end their disputes and live peacefully.
Similarly, international sporting events show benefits in some developing countries which live in a daily
internal civil war. [for example],
Brazil has a high rate of unemployment, lack of education, hunger, crime, poverty and corruption which
leads to an immense
embarrassment of being Brazilian and a low self-esteem. [however], when the Football World Cup
starts, the Brazilian squad, which is
considered the best team in the world, provokes an amazing feeling of pride in their country. Most
people seem to forget all their problems
and even the criminal activity decreases. They paint roads with the national colors, wear the Brazilian
team shirts and buy national flags.
[moreover], the competition brings families and neighbors together and even rival gangs watch the
games and celebrate peacefully.
[in conclusion], popular sporting events play an important role in decreasing international tensions and
liberating patriotic feelings as history
has shown.
3. Arrange the following sentences to form a coherent paragraph.

[For some people the little green tassels dropping from the trees and the fluffy pink, white, and yellow
blossoms announce the arrival of
allergy season.]. [For others a big, furry dog or a soft feather pillow brings on the sneezes or itchy eyes.].
[Still others are in trouble if they
accidentally eat honey, chocolate, or water chestnuts.]. [Although millions of Americans have allergies,
no one knows definitely how
allergies develop or why some people have them and others do not.]. [ Doctors have made some
progress in diagnosis.]. [Yet allergies
remain a mystery that is only partially understood and only partially treatable.].
4.Which of the following contains the topic sentence?
(A) Today’s world has been divided into developing and industrialized countries which the main
difference between them is the amount of
money that governments apply in important sectors such as education, health and commerce. (B) Most
of the poorer nations are buried in
debts as a result of their unbalanced finances which are reflect in a failed health care, an unstructured
education system and a weak
international trade. (C) This vicious cycle will continue indefinitely unless wealthier nations show interest
in minimizing the worldwide
economic differences, as well as taking more responsibility for assisting less fortunate countries.
The correct answer is: A
5.Choose the proper pattern of arrangement of the following jumbled paragraph.
(A) For the first time however, the waters of Laguna de Bay are serving a new and different purpose. (B)
Today, these lands can be planted
to palay during off-season. (C) They are being harnessed to water rice field along the shores which are
idle during the dry season. (D) Fish
abound in its waters and its shores have been favorable breeding ground for ducks. (E) Laguna de Bay
has, for centuries, been a major
source of livelihood for people living along its shores.
The correct answer is: E, C, A, B, D
6. Which among the set of sentences is most appropriate to be the 4th sentence?
(A) Yet allergies remain a mystery that is only partially understood and only partially treatable.
(B) Still others are in trouble if they accidentally eat honey, chocolate, or water chestnuts.
(C) Doctors have made some progress in diagnosis.
(D) For others a big, furry dog or a soft feather pillow brings on the sneezes or itchy eyes.
(E) Although millions of Americans have allergies, no one knows definitely how allergies develop or why
some people have them and
others do not.
(F) For some people the little green tassels dropping from the trees and the fluffy pink, white, and yellow
blossoms announce the arrival of
allergy season.
The correct answer is: E
7.Which of the following contains the topic sentence?
(A) As an English writer has written, “Providence in her wise disposition has placed these people in a
garden of Eden, where the means of
subsistence are found without much labor, and does not require them to toil and slave to satisfy their
personal wants.” (B) By the yard stick
of human action in temperature countries, the Filipinos do not work hard. (C) Foreign writers have
rashly accused the Filipinos of
“indolence.” (D) The Filipinos take life easy because of the tropical climate and the liberality of nature.
(E) Such may seem the case, but
foreign critics are interpreting it as a manifestation of racial laziness.
A. The correct answer is:
Arrange the following sentences to form a coherent paragraph.
Shakespeare never grows old. Why is that? It’s because he expresses timeless truths with unparalleled
literary excellence. The study of
Shakespeare is essential for a good education.
[The first reason to study Shakespeare is to develop one’s appreciation for great literature].
[Shakespeare’s genius is evident, not only in
his sonnets and other poems, but in some three dozen plays]. [His characters are vivid and his plots
compelling]. [Once you’ve met them,
who can ever forget Hamlet or Lady Macbeth - his grief, or her guilt - or Beatrice and Benedick, and their
humorous banter?] It’s not an
accident that Shakespeare is the most-quoted author in the English language. [He also confers a rich
vocabulary]. [The prestigious Oxford
English Dictionary estimates that Shakespeare “coined” about 1700 words]. [What better way to
develop an appreciation for great literature
than by studying the best?]
[Clearly, there is an enduring value in Shakespeare]. [In addition to his literary gifts, Shakespeare reveals
deep spiritual insights]. [ The
plays of Shakespeare rest upon and express a Biblical worldview]. Although he tapped many sources for
inspiration, his primary source
was Scripture. One researcher has documented over 1,300 Biblical references in Shakespeare, an
average of about forty per play.
Shakespeare wrote from a God-centered, redemptive perspective. The great Biblical themes are all
there.
Given the magnitude of his contribution, it is no wonder that scholars like E. D. Hirsch have insisted on
the importance of reading
Shakespeare to develop a basic, “cultural literacy.” Shakespeare provides a wonderful ‘bridge’ for
discussing the great questions of life, and
for rediscovering the richness in Western civilization.
The works of Shakespeare constitute a rich literary, spiritual and cultural treasure, just waiting for
discovery. Students of Shakespeare are
rewarded for their efforts. But that’s a bonus. It’s like getting paid to play.
B. The correct answer is:
Arrange the following sentences to form a coherent paragraph.
Every four years, the whole world stops to watch international sporting events such as the Olympics and
the Football World Cup in which
athletes show their best performance to make their country proud. These sporting occasions have
proved to be helpful in easing
international tension in difficult times when powerful leaders were trying to control the world’s
economy and other governments were
fighting over the land.
[The Olympic Games are one of the best examples which prove how sporting events can bring nations
together, at least temporarily]. [From
the ancient History, when Greeks and Romans would interrupt battles to participate in the games, to the
more recent international disputes,
when athletes from Palestine and Israel would forget their differences, compete peacefully and even
embrace each other after an event].
[Moreover, these popular events have called the world’s attention to the terrible consequences of wars;
thus some leaders have tried to
reach agreements to end their disputes and live peacefully].
Similarly, international sporting events show benefits in some developing countries which live in a daily
internal civil war. [For example,
Brazil has a high rate of unemployment, lack of education, hunger, crime, poverty and corruption which
leads to an immense
embarrassment of being Brazilian and a low self-esteem]. [However, when the Football World Cup
starts, the Brazilian squad, which is
considered the best team in the world, provokes an amazing feeling of pride in their country]. [Most
people seem to forget all their problems
and even the criminal activity decreases]. They paint roads with the national colors, wear the Brazilian
team shirts and buy national flags.
[Moreover, the competition brings families and neighbors together and even rival gangs watch the
games and celebrate peacefully].
[In conclusion, popular sporting events play an important role in decreasing international tensions and
liberating patriotic feelings as history
has shown].
C. The correct answer is:
Fill in the blanks with the appropriate transition word. Choose one from the given choices below.
Turkish governments have been trying to join the European union for years. Despite all the difficult tasks
that have to be achieved in order
to join the EU, Turkish governments are persistent. Turkish citizens seem to agree with their
governments, too. Why do we insist on
becoming a member of the union then? It is probably because of the differences between the happiness
levels of Turkish and EU citizens.
A study has been conducted on contentment and optimism of people in Turkey and the EU, which
revealed that as a nation we have low
levels of satisfaction and happiness. Nearly two thirds of Turkish people are discontent with their lives,
[while] four fifths of the EU citizens
are satisfied with their lives. Approximately the same results can be observed on people’s thoughts
about their countries’ present and future
conditions. It is obvious that people in the EU are happier than the people in Turkey, [but] why are we
unhappy and pessimistic in contrast
to EU citizens?
There are plenty of reasons for the discontentment of people in Turkey compared to those in EU, [but]
there are some reasons of greater
significance, [such as] differences in income, welfare, and stability.
[first of all], it is known that there is a great gap between the incomes of Turkish and EU citizens. This
means that a person in EU who does
the same job as a person in Turkey will receive a higher salary in Europe than in Turkey. Similarly, an
unemployed person in EU is paid
more or has more pension and social rights than an unemployed person in our country.
[moreover], there is another fact which is a result of earlier ones: there are many people below poverty
line and starvation limit in Turkey.
These conditions lead to dissatisfaction in the country, we cannot be happy when we are starving, can
we?
[furthermore], Turkish economic and government systems lack stability. Considering successive crises
and growths following these, it can
be said that Turkish economy is fluctuating. Just as the economy, government has no sign of continuity.
Each new government blames the
previous governments and changes what they have done. These acts are justified as being necessary
[but] generally lead to nothing but
corruption. Lack of continuity causes confusion, [as] people need time to get used to new conditions. If
you do not give them enough time
and change the conditions again, just like in Turkey, the result will be confusion followed by depression.
[however], in Europe there is a
system that goes on without great disruptions, which means that there is a stable life and a predictable,
better to say a hopeful, future.
As I mentioned before, our persistence in joining the EU may be because of their happiness against our
discontentment. We hope to find
satisfaction, which we could not find alone, in Europe. Considering the fact that neither EU nor any other
unions can grant happiness
without any effort, is it not better that we work for our own benefit, not only to join the EU?
D. Identify the topic sentence.
(A) Most people want to get married and have children. (B) Perhaps they want to leave a trace or
offspring after them, so that they become
somehow “immortal”. (C) And it is commonly said that children are the ultimate bliss in our lives. (D)
Although many people agree with this
statement, to my mind, it is not true
The correct answer is: D
E.Identify the topic sentence.
(A) Everyday in one way or another we are trying to find happiness in a complete chaos, that is what all
we are struggling for. (B) Actually,
temporary happiness is everywhere if we want to find it and search for it. (C) Sometimes it is just as
close as a cute kitten to us, sometimes
giving a hand to someone who is in need of us is enough. (D) Even taking a breath may give somebody
the absolute happiness at times.
(E) But what if we leave temporary happiness alone and decide to construct our lives on basic principles
of permanent happiness? (F)
Certainly these principles depend on one’s characteristics and point of view. (G) In my opinion, social
relations, acceptance and
independence are the most important elements of permanent happiness in life.

The correct answer is: G
F. Identify the topic sentence.
(A) The expansion of the world population is the most important problem that should be solved in order
not to confront in the near future big
social problems such as bad economic circumstances and lack of resources, food and housing. (B) Birth
control, although may lead to
religious, cultural and moral objections, is the fastest way to reduce the population growth rate. (C)
Therefore, governments should begin
programs of birth control even in a compulsory manner due to the fact that group survival is more
important than individual freedom.
The correct answer is: A
Read the given paragraph below:
Differences Between Tokyo and Kyoto
In recent decades, the title of one of the most popular cultures worldwide should be definitely given to
Japan. Millions of people all over the
world study the Japanese language, watch dorama (dramatic TV series on all kinds of topics) or
animation, read and write haiku, and make
pen pals with Japanese people. Countless people buy tickets and fly to the country of the rising sun to
see its wonders with their own eyes.
Among the most popular destinations—mostly because these city names are most known to the
western public—are Tokyo and Kyoto. And
perhaps for an inexperienced traveler, there is a dilemma: where to go? Mostly, people know that Tokyo
is a mega city of the future, and
Kyoto has more to do with ancient culture, traditions, and so on. Basically it is true, but at the same
time, there also exist more subtle
differences one should consider when choosing their destination point in Japan.
The first of them is prices. Tokyo is expensive—as you might expect from the capital of the most
urbanized country in the world (the prices
below are listed in Japanese yen: 1 USD approximately equals 100 yen). So, to grab some inexpensive
snack in Tokyo would cost around
850 yen. Having a three-course meal for two people in a mid-range restaurant, in case you travel with
your spouse, will cost you 5,230
yen. A one-way ticket on Tokyo transport costs you 190 yen, and renting one room apartment outside of
the city center costs 77,853 yen
(and this is probably a weekly price). Just do not expect this apartment to be big and cozy; most likely it
will be tiny, with basic utilities, and
with no central heating (actually, there is no such thing in Japan at all—everyone warms their house up
on their own). If you think of buying
an apartment in Tokyo, forget it—one square meter of a room outside of the city center is around 1
million yen (double the price if you want
to live closer to the city center).
Kyoto is not much cheaper. Although dining in a restaurant is cheaper—only 4,000 yen for two persons
in a mid-range restaurant—
transportation costs are surprisingly higher: 235 yen for a ride (however, if you want to purchase a
monthly pass, it is cheaper to do in
Kyoto rather than in Tokyo: 8,410 yen compared to 10,000 yen). If you think you can save some money
buying food in a market, you are
correct only in particulars: some products in Japan cost a lot of money no matter where you buy them.
For example, white rice costs 850
yen for 1 kg in Kyoto (453 yen in Tokyo). White bread, tomatoes, chicken breasts, and especially cheese
—these are the most expensive
products both in Kyoto and in Tokyo. Speaking of accommodation, renting or buying an apartment in
Kyoto is much cheaper: for a one
room apartment outside of Kyoto’s center, you must pay 48,000 yen to rent, or 300,000 yen per square
meter if you want to buy it
(Numbeo.com).
Tokyo is great to visit if you enjoy hustle and bustle, if you want to feel the heartbeat of a mega-city,
dive into its life, and experience all
those crazy things people in the West usually tell about Japan. Be prepared for the overcrowded subway
— and “overcrowded” is a gentle
way to put it; in fact, you can take a 60-minute ride in the subway, and your feet will not even touch the
floor, because you will be squeezed
between other people so tight that you can even take a nap in this position. Kyoto, on the other hand, is
good to visit for all those who feel
inspired by traditional Japanese culture: haiku, hanami, court customs, the No theater, and so on. In
Kyoto, you will not see amazing
skyscrapers, over 280 subway stations, and the craziness of the famous Shibuya crossing; instead, get
prepared for temples, tea houses,
museums: all things antique and authentic. But, if you want modernity, go to Tokyo, and you will not
feel disappointed—this city already
lives in the future (Go Overseas).
It is difficult to say which city is better for an inexperienced tourist to visit, Tokyo or Kyoto. Kyoto is
cheaper, especially in terms of renting an
apartment, and is more suitable for those looking for the old Japanese culture weaved into sophisticated
palaces made during Heian-jidai.
Tokyo, on the contrary, is an enormous metropolis, with crazy prices, crazy transportation, crazy
everything. The atmospheres are different,
but both of the cities will make you awed, so if you have a chance, you should definitely visit them.
- See more at: https://academichelp.net/samples/academics/essays/compare-contrast/tokyo-vs-

kyoto.html#sthash.JhMF8koN.dpuf
Based on the given example of compare and contrast essay, which of the two cities is cheaper in terms
of dining?
Answer: KYOTO
----What type of definition is used in the given paragraph?
Newton’s First Law: If the total force acting on an object is zero, its center of mass continues in the same
state of motion.
In other words, an object initially at rest is predicted to remain at rest if the total force acting on it is
zero, and an object in motion remains in
motion with the same velocity in the same direction. The converse of Newton’s first law is also true: if
we observe an object moving with
constant velocity along a straight line, then the total force on it must be zero. You may encounter the
term “net force,” which is simply a
synonym for total force
----True or False: The rising action refers to events caused by the climax.
.----Read the following paragraph and identify what type of description is used:
Back in 1999 this fearless athlete posed in this football picture. In the far distance below the cloudless
sky stands an off-white stadium.
Embedded in the center is large, cracked, blue, painted, letters that spell out BISON. Beneath the old
stadium are rows of worn-out
bleachers which are completely empty. Up in front stands the competitor down on one knee. As you
observe more, the sport player is
wearing a blue Bison jersey sporting the number 60. To the left above the freshly trimmed green grass
that engulfs this player’s figure lays
a football. In the center of the picture, you see her pale white face and dark brown eyes. Around these
features you can not help but notice
the bronzed hair; which appears to be pulled back around this slender face. Her stern look shows how
proud she is; nonetheless, all the
confidence she carries on her padded up shoulders. This unique woman is not only elegant and brave;
she is my sister, Margaret Eva Hoyt.
The correct answer is: Subjective description
-----Read the given paragraph below:
your spouse, will cost you 5,230 yen.
A one-way ticket on Tokyo transport costs you 190 yen, and renting one room apartment outside of the
city center costs 77,853 yen (and
this is probably a weekly price). Just do not expect this apartment to be big and cozy; most likely it will
be tiny, with basic utilities, and with
no central heating (actually, there is no such thing in Japan at all—everyone warms their house up on
their own). If you think of buying an
apartment in Tokyo, forget it—one square meter of a room outside of the city center is around 1 million
yen (double the price if you want to
live closer to the city center).
(Numbeo.com).
Based on the given example of compare and contrast essay, which of the two cities is cheaper in terms
of dining?
The correct answer is: Kyoto
------True or False: Descriptive paragraphs may or may not appeal to the five senses of the readers.
----Cause and effect requires a
The correct answer is: coherent
-------The correct answer is:
Based on the sample paragraph, complete the outline:
I. [Personal Computer]
A. [Desktop]
- [permanent location required]
- [more power]
- [more storage]
- [more versatile]
B. [Laptop/notebook]
- [portable]
- [battery-operated]
- [slightly larger than a hardcover book]
II. [Workstation]
A. [enhanced capabilities]
B. [suitable for game development]
III. [Server]
A. [needs optimization]
B. [lots of memory]
IV. [Main frame]
A. [network of terminals]
V. [Supercomputer]
B. [for massive jobs of calculation]
-----Read the given paragraph below:
your spouse, will cost you 5,230 yen.
A one-way ticket on Tokyo transport costs you 190 yen, and renting one room apartment outside of the
city center costs 77,853 yen (and
this is probably a weekly price). Just do not expect this apartment to be big and cozy; most likely it will
be tiny, with basic utilities, and with
no central heating (actually, there is no such thing in Japan at all—everyone warms their house up on
their own). If you think of buying an
apartment in Tokyo, forget it—one square meter of a room outside of the city center is around 1 million
yen (double the price if you want to
live closer to the city center).
(Numbeo.com).

Which of the two cities has the higher cost for transportation?
The correct answer is: Kyoto
=----This refers to the logical transition of one sentence or paragraph to another
The correct answer is: consistency
----
_____ refers to the technique that suggest hints on future events in a story.
The correct answer is: Foreshadowing
----True or False: The subject in a descriptive paragraph may be conveyed in detail through an
explanation of its significance.
The correct answer is: True
--Which of the following statements is not true according to the essay?
The correct answer is: Volunteering is simply "working for free"
--One advantage of volunteering is meeting new people. Which of the following is not one of the
benefits it could yield?
The correct answer is: have companions for future volunteer work
--Which of the following is not said to be a health benefit of volunteering?
The correct answer is: heals the body and mind of any mental and psychological problems
--More and more employers are looking into volunteering experiences than personal skills.
--What is the author's conclusion?

The correct answer is: a summary of all the points that he/she presented in the essay.
--Read the excerpt of a persuasive essay below and answer the following given questions.
So, what makes Southeast Asia a tourism option you should consider?
(1) The first reason is the prices all across the region: they are ridiculously low. (2) One of the first
problems a backpacker needs to solve
after arriving to a new country is accommodation. (3) In Southeast Asia—almost everywhere—

accommodation is so cheap that for the
money a tourist would spend on a hostel in Europe for one week, in this region, he or she could live one
month! (4) See for yourself: if you
go to Cambodia or Laos, a place in a dorm room would cost you somewhere between $2-5 per day. (5) A
night in a Vietnamese hostel will
cost you $8-10. Thailand is probably the most expensive in the list, with prices between $6-13. (6) If you
are not fond of living with a bunch
of unfamiliar people, get ready to pay only $15-20 for a private room. (7) Of course, these prices depend
on cities—larger cities and popular
tourist destinations will naturally be more expensive, but generally, throughout the entire Southeast
Asia, you can find extremely cheap
accommodation easily, especially considering there is no need to book a hostel in advance: basically,
you show up and rent a room/bed in
the spot (NomadicMatt). (8) So, if you are a tourist with a limited budget, worrying about a place to stay
for a couple of weeks, Southeast
Asia is your choice: living here is more than affordable.
(9) By the way, the same refers to food. (10) Almost everywhere around Southeast Asia you will be able
to find quality street food for low
prices. (11) The price for a pack of chewing gum in the United States equals a huge portion of filling,
exotic food in Vietnam.
(12) As well as the “mainland” Asia, the region possesses ancient history and deep culture closely
interconnected with Buddhism. (13) The
ruins of Angkor Wat, Javans, Champa, pagodas of Bagan, millenary temples and shrines—all this and
much more awaits a tourist
discovering this part of Asia. (14) Relics of the past are so numerous that even if you spend a year in the
region, you will probably not be
able to see all of them. (15) Along with the ancient times, Southeast Asia has gone through intense
political and military turmoils during the
recent century. (16) The war in Vietnam, the terror of the Khmer Rouge, the destruction of Laos, Pacific
navy battles, Japanese invasions—
this is just a tiny part of what was going on here not so long ago. (17) Knowing about the hardships
Southeast Asia had gone through, and
witnessing its rapid development now, watching incredible contrasts intertwine and combine, it is
difficult to not fall in love with this place.
(18) Besides, if you are seeking for cultural diversity, Southeast Asia has it all: with such a diversity of
languages, customs, ethnicities,
religious beliefs, lifestyles, and fashions concentrated on such a relatively small piece of land, your
immersion in the atmosphere of this
place will be instant, deep, and impressive (Bootsnall.com).
(19) Yet another good argument for a budget tourist visiting Southeast Asia is the convenience and
affordability of transportation in the
region. (20) Naturally, when you arrive to a new country, you do not want to spend your whole time in
one city—you want to see all of what
this country can offer, and this often implies using public transport, such as trains or buses. (21) Well,
booking transportation in Southeast
Asia is easier and cheaper than in many other regions of the world; every big city is flooded with travel
agencies offering their services for
almost no cost, and even getting to some distant islands is not a problem (Goatsontheroad.com). (22) A
bus is usually the cheapest way to
travel around the region: a 5-6 hours ride by a bus will cost you only $5-8. (23) Overnight buses are
somewhat more costly —$10-15
dollars, depending on distance. (24) As for the transportation within big cities, there is only good news
for a poor tourist. (25) For example,
a bust around Bangkok costs only 10 cents, and the subway, $1. (26) The local train system of Singapore
starts its pricing from $1 as well.
(27) Taxis and minibuses are usually more expensive, but it is possible to bargain with the drivers, so you
can get a price up to two times
lower than the one initially suggested by a cab owner. (Nomadicmatt.com). (28) All of which means, in a
nutshell, that you will be able to see
everything you want, get everywhere, and spend a reasonable amount of money.
(29) Southeast Asia is a unique region with ancient history, rich culture, incredible food, and unique
experiences a traveler can get from
visiting it. (30) With incredibly low accommodation prices, affordable food, and convenient
transportation, this part of Asia is a number one
choice for a budget tourist. (31) Therefore, when planning your next trip, you should definitely consider
going there.
QUESTIONS:
Give the number of the sentence that conveys what is asked. Only one answer is required per question.
Second reason presented by author on why Southeast Asia is a viable tourism option: Answer
9 =10
Correct
An evidence of the second reason presented by the author. Answer
11
Correct
A sentence which gives an evidence of the affordability of transportation in Southeast Asia. Answer
21 =22 =24 =25 =26
Correct
The sentence concluding the first reason presented by the author. Answer
Correct
The sentence concluding the paragraph on the diverse culture of Southeast Asia. Answer
17 =18
Correct
The most common method of discovering a topic.
The correct answer is: Brainstorming
Which step in writing process includes coming up with ideas for you to write?
The correct answer is: Pre-writing
Tell which figure of speech is used in the following sentences.
The leaves of the trees waved in the wind
.The correct answer is: Personification
The sequential flow of ideas in a sentence.
The correct answer is: Coherence
Each level of an outline must have same grammatical structures.
The correct answer is: Parallel structure
_________ is the part of the story where the characters and setting are introduced. It also tells
backstories and other important plot events.
The correct answer is: Exposition
The logical transition of one sentence or paragraph to another.
The correct answer is: Consistency
_________ is the formal definition of a term.
Laughter is music for the soul.
The correct answer is: Metaphor
Her eyes were like fireflies
.The correct answer is: Simile
Which of these statements are supporting details?

I. But they face certain problems which cannot be discussed with his relatives – in whatever relation
they may stand and here is the need of
a friend, of course a true friend. There is no matter which cannot be discussed with a friend.
II. Friendship is seen even among animals.
III. Men of similar moral idea irrespective of social, cultural, educational and financial idea may grow
true friendship.
The correct answer is: Both II and III are supporting details
The correct answer is: Both II and III are supporting details
_________ shows the formation of the word and how it has evolved through time.
The correct answer is: Etymology
There are terms that are defined by the author’s perspective and experiences. What are these terms
called?
The correct answer is: Connotation
Nordquist suggested the structure of paragraphs in a problem-solution essay to serve as a guide on what
to include in that type of essay.
Which of the following is the elaboration of the problems and the search for the solution?
The correct answer is: Problem Paragraph
The most unrestrained method in finding a suitable topic.
The correct answer is: Freewriting
Which of the following is the best test of friendship?
The correct answer is: Adversity
Which step in the writing process includes expressing ideas in sentences and paragraphs?
The correct answer is: Writing
Why are human beings the best creation of God?
The correct answer is: Because human beings have moral feelings.
I’m so hungry I could eat a horse!

The correct answer is: Hyperbole
The time and the place where the story takes place.
The correct answer is: Setting
Which of the following sentences is not coherent?
The correct answer is: Summer is the smell of mowed grass, the sound of outdoor concerts, and the way
grilled hamburgers taste.
The highest point in a story.
The correct answer is: Climax
Which of the following statements is true about the three main principles in developing classification
paragraphs?
I. The specific items identified in paragraphs must belong to one class only to avoid confusion.
II. Classification paragraphs must contain consistency wherein one sentence or paragraph is parallel to
another.
III. Classification paragraphs require the writer to include connected classes/groups to the paragraph to
complete the image of the main
idea.
The correct answer is: All of the statements are correct.
Which step in the writing process includes correcting mechanical errors and filtering the information
needed to get your point across?
The correct answer is: Revising
The technique in finding a writing topic by finding the relationships between ideas.
The correct answer is: Clustering
The element of a paragraph that gives life to the characters and gives sense to the setting.
The correct answer is: Plot
A story cannot be without a foundation. The writer gives the readers a view of what has happened to
the characters in the past and how
they came to be. Which narrative device is used to show these parts of the story?
The correct answer is: Backstory

The intent of dividing items into groups.
The correct answer is: Exclusiveness
Which of the following sentences is the topic sentence of the paragraph?
The correct answer is: Friendship means closeness, association, relationship, and mutual trust – without
any selfish motive.
Which of the following is not true about the topic sentence of a paragraph?
The correct answer is: The topic sentence gives life to the paragraph.
Which step in the writing process includes checking for errors of your work?
The correct answer is: Editing
_________ is the outcome of the events and the character’s actions.
Read the paragraph and answer the following questions.
There are a few places that can boast an act of creation everyday. A newspaper is one of them. Out of
the daily newsroom whirl emerges a
remarkable product. In a matter of hours, thousands of words and pictures are put together in a
cohesive pattern designed to inform,
enlighten, and entertain the reader. To a casual observer, the men and women working in the
newsroom may appear to be running about
aimlessly amid the clatter of typewriters and the continually ringing telephones. Actually, the scurrying
around, the occasional shouting, the
general air of excitement are all part of a controlled procedure. Each editor, reporter, and copyboy has a
designated job, the end result of
which is the newspaper that rolls off the press on time.
1. The topic sentence in the paragraph is sentence number
ANSWER: three =3
2. The type of paragraph development: Answer
descriptive =description
3. Give one signal word from the paragraph, indicating space, location and place. Answer: amid
Which narrative device is used by the writer to present hints to future events?
The correct answer is: Foreshadowing
Based on the paragraph, why are true friendships rarely seen?
The correct answer is: Because true friendships depend upon selection of a friend.
There are terms that are associated with indirectly related words through analogy. What are these
terms called?
The correct answer is: Comparison
He’s as gentle as a bunny.
So, although on the surface volunteering may look like “working for free,” in fact it is a great investment
in one’s future career.
---The correct answer is: Claim of value
Defense mechanisms are numerous, and each person has a set of their own.
---The correct answer is: Claim of fact
Stories about being abducted by aliens are frightening, because knowing the size of the Universe, one
can never be sure that aliens do not
exist, or that their intentions are non-hostile.
During your first two days in a hostel, you can meet more new people than you did throughout your
whole last year of office work.
Too much alcohol may cause a lot of heart-related diseases.
Which among the following choices is the most suitable/strongest inference for the given sentence?
"He admitted to plagiarizing this piece of text."

---The correct answer is: There are several passages that are exactly the same in structure, albeit the use
of synonyms
In the analysis of a written text, in what element does the following question fall?
What is the author trying to emphasize in the text?
---The correct answer is: Drawing Conclusions
How does this statement relate to the other parts of the text?
---The correct answer is: Organization
Statements of ______ may be proven through personal observations, researches, and experimentation.
---The correct answer is: fact
To whom did the author intend to write the text for?
---The correct answer is: Audience
This is portrayed by the use paraphrasing another author's statement. What is being described?
---The correct answer is: Intertext
This is achieved through an accumulation of a variety of texts connecting to a single text to form a
meaning. What is being described?
This goes beyond what is included in the text, with references a reader can easily access. What is being
described?
---The correct answer is: Hypertext
The commonly used strategy in digital media/text. What is being described?
This analyzes the media in which the text is used. What is being described?
---The correct answer is: Context
Critical reading is a way to identify new ways of thinking.
---The correct answer is: True

Often mistaken as a plagiarized passage.
A strategy in critical reading that requires the reader to put himself/herself on the author's shoes.
---The correct answer is: Contextualizing
This involves the analysis of the author's use of signs in obtaining the meaning of the text.
This element of text is identified for the reader to know how this was developed and asserted
throughout the text.
---The correct answer is: purpose
Therefore, I think it is important to learn to distinguish between light constructive feelings of care, and
intense romantic addiction, which can
lead to unforeseen consequences.
---The correct answer is: Claim of policy
The death penalty is an unfair and rather ineffective means of punishment.
Feminism should be seen as a movement that has a role and value for the real world that is extremely
difficult to underestimate.
You will identify this through comparing and contrasting the text to other works.
---The correct answer is: What a text does
This uses various techniques such as allusion, quotation and referencing.
Reading like a writer can help you understand how the process of writing is a series of making choices,
and in doing so, can help you
recognize important decisions you might face and techniques you might want to use when working on
your own writing.

This helps the reader control the level of detail of the document he/she is examining.
Video games are perhaps the most popular and widespread form of entertainment at present.
One of the most important functions of the judicial system is to punish the criminals and to protect the
innocent.
Instead of killing time playing Angry Birds, one might want to use their gadget as a learning tool—
modern mobile devices are perfectly
suited for this purpose.
In ____, the critical reader does not accept anything at face value, thus recognizing the fact that
everything must be thoroughly understood.
---The correct answer is: evaluating an argument
The following are the types of reading and discussion in critical reading except:
---The correct answer is: What a text will do
You will identify this through taking notes and paraphrasing the key points.
---The correct answer is: What a text says
Standardized tests are meant to set a high standard and promote objectivity.
For political correctness to achieve its goals, too many words have to be banned.
Critical reading may only consist of negative observations and analysis.
---The correct answer is: False
One of the main purposes of testing is to set a standard: a performance baseline of progress for all
parties involved in the educational
process—students, teachers, and school districts, and to hold them accountable for achieving it.
People in democratic countries vote for their candidates on presidential elections, freely express
themselves, practice any religion they
want, and enjoy many other rights and freedoms, all of which are guarded by numerous laws, bills, non-
governmental organizations, and so
on.
This is used to establish connections between language, images, characters, topics, themes and the like.
It is recommended to read looking only for facts and more information.
This type of reading aims to find a particular piece of information in a text.
---The correct answer is: scanning
Execution is actually a judicial murder.
Critical reading aims to find the faults and flaws in the text.
It is important to slowly read and savor the text you're reading in order to critically analyze it.
It's deemed irrelevant to consider other points of view other than what the text presents.
St. Thomas Aquinas gave five proofs for God’s existence. The first two are cosmological: there can be no
uncaused cause, so the universe
could not have created itself, so there must be a first cause/prime mover, (Appiah, 2003, p. 322), which
he calls “God.” This, in my view,
does not prove anything. He is saying the universe cannot have come from nothing, but its creator can.
If God is an exception to the “no
uncaused cause” rule, why cannot the universe be? (Russell, 1927).
---The correct answer is: Counterclaim
Lord Templeman suggested that the issue of consent was irrelevant to the question of the illegality of an
action, since the latter constitutes
a breach of the peace. This traces back to high-minded English snobbery about a king needing able-
bodied soldiers. The idea seems to be
that a society is more important than its individuals. But this is, of course, erroneous, for it seems
obvious, upon reflection, that there can be
nothing more sacred than individual liberty.
On the other hand, the exploitation of the system of standardized testing is linked to a number of issues.
Thus, many feel that tests do not
provide accurate evaluations of a student’s knowledge and learning capabilities, particularly due to the
fact that in order to pass a test, a
simple memorization is preferred to critical thinking and higher learning (Strong 254).
Of course, any book can be described like this; for example, the plot of “The Lord of the Rings” can be
described even in a shorter way:
“Four guys go to a dangerous land to defeat ancient evil by destroying an important artifact, and their
friends help them.” However, unlike
Tolkien’s novel, Twilight has nothing to offer to a reader except the events described in the previous
paragraph. This is ridiculous,
considering four published books, some sort of online encyclopedia, and movies.
It is equally possible many gods could exist. Furthermore, St. Thomas uses “God” as a label for the first
cause. The first cause is not
necessarily the Christian God (Dawkins, 2007, p. 101)—all-knowing, all-powerful, and all-good (all-
k.p.g.), or anything God is usually
considered to be.
---The correct answer is: Assertion - fact
Insomnia affects not only the mind, but also the body in ways no less devastating; specifically, according
to a study conducted by the
University of Chicago, sleep deprivation is closely connected to the reduced control of blood-sugar
levels.
Insomnia, or sleep deprivation, is a dangerous condition leading to a wide range of health problems.
---The correct answer is: Claim
Studying is a necessity rather than a privilege.
A woman who has undergone the abortion procedure may develop such persistent symptoms as shame,
a sense of isolation, a loss of selfconfidence and/or trust in other people, nightmares, insomnia, anxiety,
loneliness, and suicidal thoughts. As an unpleasant bonus, these
symptoms can be accompanied with various eating disorders (American Pregnancy Association).
What epicness is there in a lovey-dovey story about a relationship between a schoolgirl and a vampire?
Obviously none, neither in the
novel, nor in the movies—it is simply a marketing turn aimed at making the source look like something
more worthwhile than it is.
---The correct answer is: Assertion - opinion
If you move to China, you will discover another reason why this country is worth moving to: its prices.
The police should be responsible of the people’s safety and not a source of fear.
Global warming, despite others’ doubts, exists.
The four circles, or stages of mourning are denial, anger, bargaining, and depression; the exit is
acceptance.
Let us choose to believe the opposite, and not doubt the possibility of us being the masters of our lives,
so that no ‘cunning demon’ can
distract us with false perceptions and throw us off the right path.
At least 25 percent of the federal budget should be spent on helping upgrade business to clean
technologies, researching renewable
energy sources, and planting more trees in order to control or eliminate pollution.
Volunteering is a great alternative to a number of other activities, since it can help you acquire work
experience and get a job.
Time is gold.
Anger can be effectively used to establish and defend your personal boundaries, personal space, sense
of justice, beliefs, and so on.
Western classical music has not just artistic and cultural value, but also causes a number of unexpected
and (fortunately) positive effects
on the human mind.
---The correct answer is: Claim of fac
Through this, the text related to the topic you are reading may be easily found through search engines.
What is being described?
At its whole, this will heavily affect the way the text is written. What is being described?
These are the circumstances surrounding a topic. What is being described?

This is also known as "interactive multimedia."
This can be divided into static (or something prepared or stored in advance) or dynamic (something that
continually changes). What is
being described?
In the analysis of this, even the way pictures are selected is scrutinized. What is being described?
This is described as "a structural analysis of texts in relation to the larger system of signifying practices or
uses of signs in culture." What is
being described?
A nonlinear way of presenting information. What is being described?
This refers to the occasion or situation in which the reader can consider while analyzing. What is being
described?
This builds relationships and connections among social meanings. What is being described?
How does this contribute to the variety of texts done discussing the same topic?
---The correct answer is: Research/Sources
The text does not have a meaning by itself.
Is the stand of the author clear?
---The correct answer is: Topic and position

"Drug use is detrimental to society."
---The correct answer is: There has been multiple instances and cases displaying the dire consequences
of drugs on people.
Where was the text published or found?
---The correct answer is: Audience
Which of the following words does not signal a statement of opinion?
---The correct answer is: according to
This is a strategy that is purposefully writing a passage leaning towards a single perspective.
---The correct answer is: slanting
In what tone did the author write the text?
---The correct answer is: Style
"This group has garnered the most music awards for this year."
---The correct answer is: They have received multiple awards from different award-giving bodies.
What do you call the terms used in a text that need further definition as they are exclusively used in a
field of study?
---The correct answer is: jargon
A part of the research report that gives the synthesis of the supporting details.
---The correct answer is: Review of Literature
The part of a research report that describes the procedure to arrive at the result.
---The correct answer is: Methods
This part of a research report describes the instrument used to arrive at a result.

This identifies what type of research it is going to be.
---The correct answer is: Research questions/hypothesis
The step in writing a research report wherein you formulate questions related to the topic.
---The correct answer is: planning the research
Rowling created truly vivid characters; however, not all of them revealed their potential from the very
beginning. Surprisingly, the one who
truly took his time before finally showing his personality was Harry. Whereas Ron, Hermione, Draco,
Snape, and other characters
possessed vivid and readable personalities from the very beginning, for a long time, Harry remains some
kind of an “event-trigger,” whose
main goal is to move the story forward.
Many high school graduates simply do not have an opportunity to continue their education right away
(Saiz, Report on Education to Career
Conversion).
They conducted a study in which a group of healthy young men slept 8 hours one night, and then
abstained from sleep another night.
Abortion causes severe psychological and emotional damage to a woman who has undergone this
surgery.
R. Dworkin does something rather novel and considers that, rather than being immoral, something could
be from a different moral code
(1977, p. 995). This, of course, makes perfect sense, and is what I have said already. I would even go so
far as to suggest that it is
impossible to act immorally. This is another reason morality and legality must remain separate, because,
whereas illegal acts exist, immoral
ones do not.
What did the main idea of the story make you feel as the reader? Identify what is described.
---The correct answer is: theme
A review of Harry Potter contains the following passage:
It all starts in a rather trivial way though—with a boy being branded as the “unique one,” a survivor of a
terrible assault with a destiny to
defeat an evil overlord. However, this is the basic layer of the story, so to say.
What guide question did it answer?
---The correct answer is: What is the conflict of the story?
You must have an interest in the book you're analyzing.
After reading the book, that's when to take notes of what you have read.
This is where you identify the climax of the story.
---The correct answer is: plot
Identify the part of the research report where the following passage falls:
The study, "A Content Analysis of The Catalyst’s News Stories From 1986 to 2010", seeks to find out how
The Catalyst, the official student
publication of Polytechnic University of the Philippines selected and treated the news articles they have
published from 1986 to 2010.
The researchers wanted to classify the news issues which The Catalyst gave emphasis on into categories:
Political, Financial/Economic,
Peace and Order, Social, Rebellion, Religious, Sports/Entertainment, Miscellaneous and Politics within
University. The researchers also
sorted The Catalyst’s news articles in terms of the following: Scope/Origin, Chronology/Sequence,
Structure and Content. Lastly, the
researchers intended to determine the treatment and the tone of the news articles.
The researchers used convenience sampling method. The researchers have content analyzed 84 existing
issues from the year 1986 up to
2010. The researchers categorized 586 news articles from the said issues into categories based on the
criteria following the three major
variables in content analysis by Elena Pernia (2004).
Based on the observations and results of the content analysis, it was determined that The Catalyst’s
style changed from the orthodox style
in 1986 to different forms of layout in the later years. Moreover, The Catalyst transitioned from using
blue ink to mainly using black ink and
later on red ink.
Moreover, the scope of The Catalyst’s news was mostly local. The student publication usually covered
events within the university. Most of
the student publication’s news stories were straight news. The news articles were mostly treated as
neutral, meaning the news were written
merely as statement of events in the simplest and most objective way. The researchers concluded that
The Catalyst has performed its duty
as the official student publication of PUP through disseminating information that would be of concern to
the students and the university.
---The correct answer is:
Abstract
The researchers used the three major variables by Pernia (2004) as basic instrument in analyzing the
news stories of The Catalyst. With
each category is a set of keywords to make the coding easier for the coders. The coders would
determine the category an article belongs to
through the keywords provided.
The researchers analyzed all the news stories of each issue of The Catalyst starting from 1986 up to
2010, with the exception of the special
issues released and the issues without dates available in the university archives. There were no recorded
issues of The Catalyst in the year
1989 and 1990 due to problems within the publication while there were no issues for the year 1999 at
the archives during the time of the
coding. News roundups and news bits in every issue are also not included in this particular study but
would focus on the stories in the news
section and sports section.
---The correct answer is: Limitations
Due to lack of job opportunities here in the Philippines, there are Filipinos who were willing to work
abroad to earn higher salary compared
to the Philippines’. These people are called OFWs or Overseas Filipino Workers. They are ready to
sacrifice their lives here in the
Philippines for the sake of earning more money. Because of this, they were referred to as “New Heroes”.
Our government is not that vocal about the progress of the country’s economy through the help of
OFWs yet they encourage more Filipinos
to accept different jobs abroad.
The OFWs’ children are the ones highly by their parent’s departure. They have to suffer the loneliness of
not having their parent/s with
them.
Although they have guardians to look after them and to care for them, nothing can compare to a
parent’s love and affection.
There are laws and agencies that protect and support OFWs but the child would not be ensured of their
parent’s safety. They would be
surely anxious of the condition of their parents because of the distance that makes the young ones
worry about them.
---The correct answer is: Results
In line with this, the scope of the publication’s news articles is within the immediate proximity which is
the university and its branches.
Therefore, these findings reflect that The Catalyst does its duty as the student publication to serve the
student body, first and foremost.
The ruling quantity of news classified into spot news depicted that the abundance of news within the
local proximity were given the utmost
priority by the editorial board. Events which occurred in PUP demanded immediate publication to easily
spread the information to the rest of
the university.
---The correct answer is: Conclusion
Departure of Filipinos was beneficial to the country and to the families of OFWs, since the dollar reserve
that we can get from them saved
us from economic turmoil. But let us think about the children as well, they may experience great
loneliness due to their parent’s absence.
Communication is important, considering the distance between the parent and the child. The OFWs
should communicate with their children
regularly so as not to create a distance between them. It could also help the child if the parent is easily
approachable. Imagine if
communicating devices did not exist. It would be a great suffering for both the parents and the children
since snail mail, the alternative
communication, would take a long time of process just to reach the receiver, unlike e-mail, in which the
message would be sent in just a
matter of seconds.
If the parents truly care for the child, they would always make a way to extend their love overseas to
reach them through communication.
The children also need their guardians to plan “outings” and other activities that they would all enjoy for
them not to feel alone.
---The correct answer is: Recommendations
The History of Philippine Journalism

Journalism in the Philippines has gone through a number of both setbacks and boosts. The history of
Philippine journalism presented in this
study is cited from “Journalism for Filipinos” by Malinao (2003).
In the year 1637, the first Philippine Newsletter was published - the “Successos Felices” (Fortunate
Events) of Tomas Pinpin, the father of
Filipino printing. Aside from Pinpin’s one-shot fling at journalism, the “Hojas Volantes” (Flying sheets) or
Spaniards’ notice to the public,
were widely distributed in the country for mass readership.
---The correct answer is: Review of Literature
Questions:
1. In the resume, where does the information number 6 fall under?
---The correct answer is: List of key skills
---The correct answer is: Educational qualifications
---The correct answer is: Opening Statement
4. In the resume, where does information number 4 fall under?
---The correct answer is: Personal attributes/career overview
5. In the resume, where does information number 2 fall under?
---The correct answer is: Contact details
Questions:
1. What question does the following passage in the sample book review answer:
"The language Tolkien uses (and he was a British professor of linguistics and philology), the
aforementioned epic scales of storyline, the
incredibly diverse cultural background behind the novel—its characters, plot, described events—this and
many other factors make reading
the trilogy rather an intellectual than entertaining occupation."

---The correct answer is: Does the way a character speaks help you to understand how that character
thinks and feels? If so, how?
2. What question does the following passage in the sample book review answer:
"And the books are indeed full of awe-inspiring moments; here are just a few of them: the first fight with
the Nazguls; the battle with the
ancient demon in desolated Moria and Gandalf’s disappearance; the death of Boromir (in my opinion,
one of the most tragic moments in
world literature of the 20th century); the resurrection of Gandalf the White; the transformation of King
Theoden; the siege of Helm’s Deep;
the uprising of the ents and Saruman’s exile; recruiting of the undead army by Aragorn; the battle for
Minas Tirith and the sortie to the Black
Gate of Mordor; the defeat of the Witch-King of Angmar; the annihilation of the Ring; Aragorn’s
marriage with Arwen and honors to the
hobbits; finally, Frodo’s departure to the West.
---The correct answer is: What is the high point of the story? Why is this incident more important than
the others?
3. What element does the following passage discuss in the passage from the sample book review:
"While working on the book, Tolkien invented at least two fully functional languages: Elven and
Dwarven; he interpreted the Scandinavian
myths (“The Saga of the Nibelungs“, in particular) and used them to create his own unique plot, world,
and characters. The number of
cultural and literary references used in “The Lord of the Rings” is enormous."
---The correct answer is: Dialogue
"The saga tells a story unfolding around The One Ring, created and lost by Sauron—an ancient demigod
of the world of Middle Earth, and
the main antagonist of the saga."
---The correct answer is: Plot
"It is almost impossible to say more about the plot, because at the end of the first book, it branches into
multiple storylines."
---The correct answer is: Plot
The research is a quantitative research dealing with the computed numerical figures from analyzing each
news story. Through this, the
researchers analyzed each criterion that will determine the changes made in The Catalyst’s news stories
over the years in terms of physical
changes, as well as in content.
---The correct answer is: Limitations
The researchers have coded a total of 586 news stories from The Catalyst’s issues from the year 1986 to
2010. The table above shows that
focus-wise, The Catalyst presented a substantial amount of news articles with miscellaneous issues
taking up 26.97% of the total number
of articles. As provided in the definition of news by Bangkok Post, there are miscellaneous stories which
continually appear in the news
section. In this study, these news articles are common stories within PUP which did not fall to any of the
other categories.
---The correct answer is: Results
OFW parents could influence their children in either good or bad way. Children who have parents as
overseas workers would be
considered well-off in life because of the money, not to mention, dollars sent to them. But OFWs are
willing to endure all the pains and
sufferings of having their families away from them because in the end, they are recognized by the
government and by every Filipino.
Because of this, former President Corazon Aquino acknowledged their sacrifices, efforts and
contributions by referring to them as the
modern heroes in the speech she gave last 1988 to a group of domestic helpers in Hong Kong.
In honor of the OFWs who kept our country’s economy afloat as well as their families’ lives, the
Philippines celebrates December as the
“Month of Overseas Filipino Workers”, to pay tribute to them.
---The correct answer is: Introduction
Questions:
1. What type of job application letter is given?
---The correct answer is: hardcopy
2. What position is the person applying for?
---The correct answer is: programmer
3. In what paragraph number did the applicant summarize his experiences?
---The correct answer is: 3
4. In what paragraph number did the applicant describe his/her skills?
---The correct answer is: 2
5. What is the name of the applicant?
---The correct answer is: John Donaldson
Questions:
1. What is the main goal/objective of the project proposal?
---The correct answer is: To identify and describe the monitoring of three common precursors and
evaluate how accurate each monitoring
is in predicting earthquakes.
2. What part of the project proposal does the following sentence fall under:
"Given that I can obtain all my sources for the literature review from the library, there is no appreciable
cost associated with performing this
literature review. The only costs, which will be minor, are for copying articles, printing the review, and
spiral binding the review. I estimate
that I can do these tasks for under $10."
---The correct answer is: Budget

"I am a senior in the Geological Engineering Department at the University of Wisconsin at Madison. In
my undergraduate courses I have
taken rock mechanics, soil mechanics, geophysics, and stratigraphy, all of which have included the
principles of seismology and stressstrain relationships."
---The correct answer is: Preparation
"Because I already possess several books and articles on earthquake prediction, most of my time will be
spent sifting through the
information, finding the key results, and presenting those results to the audience."
---The correct answer is: Resources
"A secondary audience for the review would be non-technical readers who either live in earthquake-
prone areas or are affected financially
when earthquakes occur."
---The correct answer is: Significance
A review of the Twilight Saga contains the following passage:
The first and foremost question: why would a 104 year-old person fall in love with a teenager?
Theoretically, people get wiser when they get
older, although reality proves it is not necessarily so. I would understand if Edward treated Bella as an
adopted daughter, at least. But love?
There is a special word for adult men having romantic and sexual relationships with teen girls. Also,
according to folklore, vampires are
sadistic, vile, and sexually-insatiable creatures, so in a proper vampire story, exploitation and being
devoured would be Bella’s only options.
But a true, clean, and romantic love? This is stupid. The only reason why it became possible is probably
because aging has negatively
affected Edward’s (and his family’s) mental capabilities. Also, why would Bella not feel scared of
knowing people who suck blood, or who
can turn into savage beasts? What kind of weird taste or fetish is that? And it is not only Bella and
Edward acting weird—Jacob, Victoria,
the vampire clans, and other folks appearing in Twilight seem to have little to no common sense, reason,
or logic.
What guide question did it answer?
---The correct answer is: What is the weakness of the plot?
Where did the story take place and how does it relate to the story?
---The correct answer is: setting
In evaluating an article, it is important for it to be generally unknown so you can grab the reader's
attention.
A critique must contain the following parts except for:
---The correct answer is: comparison with other relevant works
This part of the literary analysis gives the subtopics.
---The correct answer is: body
It is important to dwell on the author's life and his works in a literature analysis.
There are different interpretations of a single literature. There may be similarities in some but there will
always be differences.
This part of a literature review contains the general indications of the work.
---The correct answer is: introduction
What happens in the story that changed the course of the character/s?
---The correct answer is: conflict
In writing a critique, focus on the flaws of the text.
Use any font you want in creating your resume as long as it is somewhat readable.
Identify which part of the resume the following information belongs to:
Skilled in written and oral communication.
---The correct answer is: Key skills
Finished a Bachelor's Degree in Accountancy (2011-2015)
I have volunteered for various non-government organizations, handling public relations and advertising
of events. (She is applying for PR
specialist in a company)
---The correct answer is: Opening statement
The opening paragraph of your application letter must contain:
---The correct answer is: how you learned about the position or the company
Your resume must include your birthday and gender.
Prior research about the company you're applying for helps in composing your application letter.
Factual errors in your resume are worse than typographical errors.
Which is the usual format followed in sending an application letter via email?
---The correct answer is: name, position
Can handle pressure.
---The correct answer is: Personal attributes
The part of a project proposal that gives the funding details.

---The correct answer is: budget
The cover sheet must be in ______ format.
---The correct answer is: APA
A part of the project detail that emphasizes what the project can contribute to a group of people in the
society.
---The correct answer is: Deliverables
An element of a good project proposal that details where to get the funds to bring the project to
fruition.
---The correct answer is: Resources
A part of the project proposal that identifies similar solutions.
---The correct answer is: motivation
This informs the recipient of what the project aims to achieve.
---The correct answer is: goals and objectives
The references of the research report is recommended to be in MLA format.
A part of the project detail that uses diagrams to illustrate what tools to use in the implementation of
the project.
---The correct answer is: Architecture and environment
This gives what the end product of the project is.
---The correct answer is: Deliverables
This part of the project details identifies the implementation challenges.
---The correct answer is: project details
It is in bad taste to stress your interest in applying for the job in the company.
Certificate of N5 level Japanese Language Proficiency.

Experienced with Moodle.
---The correct answer is: Technical/software skills
You may choose not to include your address in the email copy of your application letter.
The application letter must be in strict business letter format.
Match the term to its description.
Identifying the main ideas and supporting details to support the claim. - [Outlining and Summarizing]
Acknowledging the differences between personal existing values and attitude and the author's
perspective. [Contextualizing]
Done to get an initial understanding of the text. [Previewing]
Consult related readings in order to learn how to approach the same topic in different ways. [Compare
and Contrast]
An idea, an opinion, a judgment or a point of view that the writer wants you to accept. [Claim]
This consists of reasons and evidence that will prove to the readers that the conclusion presented is
worth accepting. [Support]
Newer knowledge is obtained through this way of learning as this is the key to understanding the
author's point of view. [Asking questions]
Weighing in on the consistency of claims and support. [Evaluation]
The reader must be able to track the pattern in the author's thoughts and presentation of his/her own
beliefs. [Reflecting on challenges to
beliefs and values]
_______ the material enables the reader to grasp the organization and the content of the text in the
shortest possible time. [Skimming]
Assertions that are based on facts and has to be proven by reliable proofs. [Opinion]
An assertion that relies on personal choice. [Preference]

Claims made to rebut a previous claim. [Counterclaim]
The part of a literary review that emphasizes the main point of the review. [Conclusion]
The part of a research report that states the significance of the research. [Introduction]
This includes the instrument used in the research. [Methods]
A part of the project proposal that states what the project will produce. [Deliverables]
The part of the project proposal that states what makes the project unique. [Implementation Issues and
Challenges]
This part of the project proposal explains what the project wants to achieve. [Project Summary]
This part of the project proposal explains the problem and what makes it interesting. [Motivation]
In which element does the following questions fall?
Is the author's claim objective? [Topic and Position]
From what perspective did the author write the text? [Style]
Is the information arranged according to the content, by the author's argument or by the needs of the
audience? [Organization]
Which of the references elicits further discussion? [Research/Sources]
Where is the text found? [Audience]
Does the text mean to persuade? [Purpose/Context]
Are the sources credible? [Proof/Evidence]
Which of the evidence carries the more weight? [Proof/Evidence]
How is the information arranged in the text? [Organization]
What can you infer from the writer's choice of words? [Style]
Questions:
1. Which of the following is the overall claim of the given essay?
---The correct answer is: Despite all the joy that video games can bring to children and teenagers, ...
2. Which of the following information does not support the claim?

---The correct answer is: Video games use their characters in the games ...
3. What is the overall conclusion of the essay?
---The correct answer is: Video games is not suitable for children and teenagers
4. Which of the following statements is incorrect according to the essay?
---The correct answer is: Video games help players improve social skills and reflexes
5. Which of the following is correct according to the essay?
---The correct answer is: Video games offer simplified and conditional models of environments and
people.
Questions:
---The correct answer is: Death penalty is an unfair and rather ineffective ...
---The correct answer is: Death penalty can be overturned.
---The correct answer is: Death penalty can hardly be called ...
---The correct answer is: There has been numerous evidence ...
5. What is the stand of the author in the imposing of death penalty?
---The correct answer is: He/she is against it.
Questions:
---The correct answer is: Romeo and Juliet's love story is dysfunctional.
---The correct answer is: Romeo has immediately set his eyes on Juliet...
---The correct answer is: It is important to learn to distinguish love from ...
---The correct answer is: Romeo and Juliet's love progressed swiftly and carefully ...
5. Which of the following is correct according to the essay?
---The correct answer is: William Shakespeare did not mean for his characters to be idyllic.
Questions:
---The correct answer is: Many arguments in favor of the usage ...
---The correct answer is: Tests help see the bias of teachers ...
---The correct answer is: Improvements must be made in the distribution ...
---The correct answer is: Most of the time, standardized tests encourage ...
5. What is the stand of the author in this argument?
---The correct answer is: He/she weighs in on both advantages and disadvantages ...
BAED-ENGL2121 21st Century Literature from the Philippines and the World(Week 1-10)
LEARNING ACTIVITY 1
"A big blue house, with a well-kept rose garden," is an example of a:
Select one:
a. Setting as Place CORRECT
b. Effects of Setting
c. Setting as Cultural Context (Condition)
d. Setting as Time
This Manobo/Ilianon tale tells the adventures of a hero and his people, and their journey to
Nalandangan.
Select one:
a. Biag ni Lam-ang
b. The Agyu CORRECT
c. Aliguyon
d. Labaw-Donggon
The "Treaty of Paris" between Spain and the United States ceded the Philippines to US for how much?
Select one:
a. $2,000,000
b. $200,000,000
c. $20,000,000 CORRECT
d. $30,000,000
Dubbed as the Great Propagandist, he was known for being a master in the use of his native language,
Tagalog.
Select one:
a. Marcelo H. Del Pilar CORRECT
b. Graciano Lopez-Jaena
c. Mariano Ponce
d. Jose P. Rizal
The writers in Spanish were accustomed to write literary works that have themes of nationalism
because they want to honor Jose Rizal.
Select one:
True CORRECT
False
Jose Corazon de Jesus began a famous column in Taliba called _____
Select one:
a. Buhay Filipino
b. Buhay Maynila CORRECT

c. Buhay Pilipinas
d. Buhay Manileno
In Marcelo h. Del Pilar's Dasalan at Tocsohan, which of the following is said to be the Fifth
Commandment of the Spanish Friars?
Select one:
a. "Manalangin ka sa Prayle Linggo man at piyesta."
b. "Huwag kang makinakaw."
c. "Huwag kang mamamatay kung wala pang salaping panlibing." CORRECT
d. "Sambahin mo ang Payle lalo na sa lahat."
It is easy to interpret poems.
Select one:
True
False CORRECT
A traditional depiction of the events before and after Jesus Christ was crucified.
Select one:
a. Sarsuela
b. Duplo
c. Moro-moro
d. Senakulo CORRECT
The following are known as Poets of the Heart (Makata ng Puso) except one:
The correct answer is: Aurelio Tolentino
He was a corresponding member of the Royal Academy of the Spanish Literature.
The correct answer is: Cecilio Apostol
He was recognized in the Hispanic world as the "greatest Filipino epic poet writing in Spanish."
It is a narrative poem written in four-line stanzas.

Jose Corazon de Jesus was most notable for writing which poem?
a: BAYAN KO
The correct answer is: Ballad
In a drama, the plot encompasses all the incidents and provides aesthetic pleasure.
The correct answer is: 'True'
The following are Bathala's daughters to a mortal woman except:
The correct answer is: Mayari
It is the emotional high point of the story. It is also the most exciting part.
The correct answer is: Climax
Which part of the Ilokano epic Biag ni Lam-ang, tells the story of Lam-ang's quest to find the Igorots?
The correct answer is: The Quest for the Father
It is an example of an epic poem which tells the story of Jesus Christ's life, trials, and sufferings, and is
sung during Holy Week.
The correct answer is: Pasyon
The Tagalog god of the sea, originally the god of the hunters.
The correct answer is: Amanikable
A short piece of fiction that is a "bite size" version of a novel.
The correct answer is: Short Story
A mystifying, misleading or puzzling question posed as a problem to be solved or guessed.
The correct answer is: Riddle
It is an artistic piece of philosophical, personal, imaginative or inspirational nature that is laid out in
lines.
The correct answer is: Poetry
The following are means for an alipin to become a freeman EXCEPT:
The correct answer is: Getting captured in war
Doctrina Cristiana was the first religious book published in the Philippines on July 15, 1593.
It is an allegory with moral or religious bent.
Select one:
a. fable
b. fantasy
c. allusion
d. parable
SHORT QUIZ 1
The name of Lam-ang's love interest.
The correct answer is: Ines Cannoyan
It was the first novel written in Spanish by a Filipino, which revolves around the misery of a woman who
died of cholera.
The correct answer is: Ninay
Most English newspapers were ordered to stop its operations during the Japanese regime.
It is simply defined as a product of one's imaginative mind. It can be a drama, short story, novel, myth,
folktale, and poetry.
The correct answer is: Fictional Literature
The author who was known as the "comma poet," introducing a unique style of poetry.
The correct answer is: Jose Garcia Villa
The correct answer is: Which part of the Ilokano epic Biag ni Lam-ang, tells the story of Lam-ang's quest
to find the Igorots?
In the story of Malakas and Maganda, the children who ran away from their father and ran outside
became the Alipin.
The correct answer is: 'False'
___ is a long narrative poem, telling heroic deeds or events.

The correct answer is: Epic
Not every poem has a speaker.
The Japanese encouraged nationalism, or the love for one's motherland.
These are short poems which express the personal thoughts or emotions of the poet.
The correct answer is: Lyric poems
Jose Garcia Villa's Bayan Ko was set to music by Constancio de Guzman and became a popular song
during the Marcos dictatorship.
He wrote "Banaag at Sikat" which was renowned for its depiction of certain issues of socialism and
capitalism.
The correct answer is: Lope K. Santos
It is a story about animals that possess human traits.
The correct answer is: 'Fable'
____ is a famous comedy play written by Francisco "Soc" Rodrigo that portrays people's weaknesses.
The correct answer is: Sa Pula, Sa Puti
"The future looks fantastic, what with the flying cars and modern technology." This is an example of a:
The correct answer is: 'Setting as Time'
Claro M. Recto wrote for La Vanguardia under what penname?
The correct answer is: 'Aristeo Hilario'
Jose Garcia Villa won P1,000 from the Philippines Free Press, which he used to migrate to the United
States and enroll at University of Mexico.
This was deemed as the first novel ever written in the Philippines.
The correct answer is: Barlaan at Josaphat

A novel that dwells on the arrogance of the friars, revealing the dire consequences tied to the marriage
between the Spanish and Filipinos.
The correct answer is: La Hija Del Fraile
In a story, it is the verbal representation of a human being.
The correct answer is: Character
The American regime enforced free public education.
"Aso
Mataas sa pag-upo,
Mababa 'pag tumayo.
Kaibigan kong ginto,
Karamay at kalaro."
The poem above is an example of:
The correct answer is: Tanaga
A poem in which the first letter of each line, when read vertically, spell out a word, which is usually the
subject of the poem.
The correct answer is: Acrostic poem
A series of fairy tale stories told by an old woman who kept a loadful of stories in her ancient baul.
The correct answer is: Mga Kwento ni Lola Basyang
A rhetorical device, a witty, ingenious, or pointed saying that is tersely expressed.
The correct answer is: epigram
The American Period had influenced the Philippine Literature.
The writing system used by the Filipinos before the Spanish colonization.
The correct answer is: Baybayin
The term ___ refers to the social class consisting of freemen.

The correct answer is: timawa
Carlos P. Romulo has four bestselling works that led him to bagging the Pulitzer Prize.
Which of the following is not one of the bestselling works of Carlos P. Romulo?
The correct answer is: The Lost Ones
He is the "greatest Filipino epic poet writing in Spanish," in the Hispanic world.
One of the writers in the Spanish era under the name Dimas-Ilaw and Pingkian who wrote "Ang Liwanag
at Dilim" that became the code of revolution.
The correct answer is: Emilio Jacinto
The goddess of love, conception and childbirth for the Tagalogs.
The correct answer is: Diyan Masalanta
The following are works by Jesus Balmori EXCEPT:
The correct answer is: Mi Patria
Filipinos already have literature before the Spaniards came to the land.
It is the repetition of the same stressed vowel sound and any succeeding sounds in two or more words.
The correct answer is: Rhyme
He came up with a poetry compilation called Crisalidas in 1914.
Select one:
a. Jose Corazon de Jesus
b. Fernando Ma. Guerrero CORRECT
c. Cecilio Apostol
d. Jose Garcia Villa
The Tagalogs believe in the supreme deity called __.
Select one:
a. Christ
b. Amanikable
c. Bathala CORRECT
d. Apolaki
The American colonization over the Philippines began in 1898 and 1941.
Select one:
True
False
"Batikuling" was a penname used by which Filipino poet?
Select one:
a. Jose Corazon de Jesus
b. Jesus Balmori
c. Jose Rizal
d. Claro M. Recto
____ is the play written by Jose Ma. Hernandez about a blacksmith from Pampanga who was the first
Filipino who made a cannon.
Select one:
a. Sino ba kayo?
b. The World is an Apple
c. Sa Pula, Sa Puti
d. Panday Pira
Severino Reyes's Ang Kalupi was first performed at the Teatro Zorilla in 1902.
Select one:
True
False
It is the repetition of vowel sounds.

Select one:
a. Assonance
b. Onomatopoeia
c. Consonance
d. Rhyme
The following are pen names of Mariano Ponce, except:
Select one:
a. Nanding
b. Taga-Ilog
c. Tikbalang
d. Kalipulako
Some of this hero's notable literary works are "El Verdadero Decalogo" (The True Decalogue or Ten
Commandments, and "Sa Bayang Pilipino" (To the Filipino
nation).
Select one:
a. Antonio Luna
b. Mariano Ponce
c. Apolinario Mabini
d. Jose Maria Panganiban
The goddess of the moon and one of the three daughters of Bathala by a mortal woman.
Select one:
a. Hanan
b. Anagolay
c. Tala
d. Mayari
There are a few Spanish words integrated to our own language.

Select one:
True
False
Biag ni Lam-ang is one of the great epics that are able to survive with the help of oral transmission.
Select one:
True
False
The founder of La Vanguardia and La Opinion.
Select one:
a. Claro M. Recto
b. Cecilio Apostol
c. Jesus Balmori
d. Lope K. Santos
e. Fernando Ma. Guerrero
The writing system of Filipinos in the Pre-Spanish period.
Select one:
a. Alphabet
b. Baybayin
c. Alibata
d. none of the choices
Select one:
True
False
It is a narrative poem written in four-line stanzas.

Select one:
a. Free verse
b. Ballad
c. Sonnet
d. Ode
Essays that uses details related to the senses to create mental images for the reader.
Select one:
a. Descriptive essays
b. Persuasive essays
c. No correct answer
d. Expository essays
The goddess of lost things, she is also the wife of Dumakulem.
Select one:
a. Mayari
b. Anagolay
c. Dumakulem
d. Anitun Tabu
The Father of the Tagalog Zarzuela.
Select one:
a. Severino Reyes
b. Lope K. Santos
c. Jose Corazon de Jesus
d. Paz Marquez Benitez
He was one of the first Filipino writers to break free from the strict rules imposed on literature during
the Propaganda movement.
Select one:
a. Jose Maria Panganiban
b. Marcelo H. Del Pilar
c. Dr. Pedro Paterno
d. Dr. Jose Rizal
The repetition of consonant sounds in words.
Select one:
a. Alliteration
b. Onomatopoeia
c. Assonance
d. Consonance
There are more novels written during this era than poetry.
Select one:
True
False
The name of Lam-ang's love interest.
The correct answer is: Ines Cannoyan
It was the first novel written in Spanish by a Filipino, which revolves around the misery of a woman who
died of cholera.
The correct answer is: Ninay
Most English newspapers were ordered to stop its operations during the Japanese regime.
It is simply defined as a product of one's imaginative mind. It can be a drama, short story, novel, myth,
folktale, and poetry.
The correct answer is: Fictional Literature
The author who was known as the "comma poet," introducing a unique style of poetry.
The correct answer is: Jose Garcia Villa

The correct answer is: Which part of the Ilokano epic Biag ni Lam-ang, tells the story of Lam-ang's quest
to find the Igorots?
In the story of Malakas and Maganda, the children who ran away from their father and ran outside
became the Alipin.
___ is a long narrative poem, telling heroic deeds or events.
The correct answer is: Epic
Not every poem has a speaker.
The Japanese encouraged nationalism, or the love for one's motherland.
These are short poems which express the personal thoughts or emotions of the poet.
The correct answer is: Lyric poems
Jose Garcia Villa's Bayan Ko was set to music by Constancio de Guzman and became a popular song
during the Marcos dictatorship.
He wrote "Banaag at Sikat" which was renowned for its depiction of certain issues of socialism and
capitalism.
The correct answer is: Lope K. Santos
It is a story about animals that possess human traits.
The correct answer is: 'Fable'
____ is a famous comedy play written by Francisco "Soc" Rodrigo that portrays people's weaknesses.
The correct answer is: Sa Pula, Sa Puti
The following are Bathala's daughters to a mortal woman except:
The correct answer is: Mayari
"The future looks fantastic, what with the flying cars and modern technology." This is an example of a:
The correct answer is: 'Setting as Time'
Claro M. Recto wrote for La Vanguardia under what penname?
The correct answer is: 'Aristeo Hilario'
Jose Garcia Villa won P1,000 from the Philippines Free Press, which he used to migrate to the United
States and enroll at University of Mexico.
This was deemed as the first novel ever written in the Philippines.
The correct answer is: Barlaan at Josaphat
A novel that dwells on the arrogance of the friars, revealing the dire consequences tied to the marriage
between the Spanish and Filipinos.
The correct answer is: La Hija Del Fraile
In a story, it is the verbal representation of a human being.
The correct answer is: Character
The American regime enforced free public education.
"Aso
Mataas sa pag-upo,
Mababa 'pag tumayo.
Kaibigan kong ginto,
Karamay at kalaro."
The poem above is an example of:
The correct answer is: Tanaga
A poem in which the first letter of each line, when read vertically, spell out a word, which is usually the
subject of the poem.
The correct answer is: Acrostic poem
A series of fairy tale stories told by an old woman who kept a loadful of stories in her ancient baul.
The correct answer is: Mga Kwento ni Lola Basyang

A rhetorical device, a witty, ingenious, or pointed saying that is tersely expressed.
The correct answer is: epigram
The American Period had influenced the Philippine Literature.
The writing system used by the Filipinos before the Spanish colonization.
The correct answer is: Baybayin
The term ___ refers to the social class consisting of freemen.
The correct answer is: timawa
Carlos P. Romulo has four bestselling works that led him to bagging the Pulitzer Prize.
Which of the following is not one of the bestselling works of Carlos P. Romulo?
The correct answer is: The Lost Ones
He is the "greatest Filipino epic poet writing in Spanish," in the Hispanic world.
One of the writers in the Spanish era under the name Dimas-Ilaw and Pingkian who wrote "Ang Liwanag
at Dilim" that became the code of revolution.
The correct answer is: Emilio Jacinto
The goddess of love, conception and childbirth for the Tagalogs.
The correct answer is: Diyan Masalanta
A short piece of fiction that is a "bite size" version of a novel.
The correct answer is: Short Story
The following are works by Jesus Balmori EXCEPT:
The correct answer is: Mi Patria
It is the repetition of the same stressed vowel sound and any succeeding sounds in two or more words.
The correct answer is: Rhyme
ENGL-121-20172S / ► Week 9: Short Quiz / ► Short Quiz
Hinilawod is commonly sung for a period of three days, non-stop.
=False
Biag ni Lam-ang was first transcribed around 1640 by Pedro Bucaneg.
=True
The ___ magazine was stationed in Manila and contributed to the development of Hiligaynon literature.
=hiligaynon
A social and political critique that uses comedia and ineffectual character.
=Sabas Armenta
An author from Bicol whose works are known for perceptivity and fatalism.
=Angelo de Castro
Pampa Bucaneg was also known as a Chris a total of ___ syllables in octaves with rhymes at the end.
=16
The goddess of the Eastern sea in Hinilawod.
=Alunsina
Poetry from ___ possess "clarity and grace of expression."
=bicol
___ is the lingua franca of West Visayas.
=Hiligaynon
It was known as the "Bible of Northern Philippines".
=Bannawag
A song of allusion to mythical heroes.
=Siday
Biag ni Lam-ang was created before the Spaniards came.

=true
A folk theatrical that is a strictly private type of drama performed by friends and neighbors to divert a
bereaved family from their sorrow.
=Kolilisi
People of Western Visayas are more well-versed in writing myths and folktales than poetry and prose.
=True
Which of the following is not a reason why Pampango Literature did not flourish?
=geography
The Leopoldo Yabes version of the epic poem Biag ni Lam-ang consists of 206 stanzas.
=False
Leon C. Pichay is acknowledged as the Father of Ilocano Literature.
=False
Isabelo de los Reyes has ventured into journalism before he was 25.
= True
How long is Hinilawod usually sung?
=3 weeks, 2 hours a night
Mythological stories of Hiligaynons were passed through each generation by ____.
=oral transmission
ENGL-121 Week 7: Philippine Regional Literature - Ilokano (... / ► Learning Activity 2
=Sabas Armenta
Aside from being a writer, Pedro Bucaneg was also known as a Christian missionary.
=True
=. Bannawag
It tells the quest of Lam-ang to find the Igorots who murdered his father.
=The Quest for the Father
Biag ni Lam-ang is an epic poem that consists of 1744 lines.
=False
The common name of Awit and Corridos.
=kuriru
The playwright from Bicol who writes puns and mimes as double-edge statements for Spaniards.
=Mariano Shyna Perfecto
Leon C. Pichay was considered the most creative Ilocano writer in his generation.
=True
The title of Mariano Proceso Pabalan Byron's famous zarzuela that depicts a Filipino family.
=Ing Managne
=no literary outlet
Cardinal Bellarmine's catechism was the first book that was printed in Iloko.
Select one:
True
False
The author of the Pampango murder mystery novel, "Ing Buac ning Ester" (A Strand of Ester's Hair).
Select one:
a. Crisot
b. Jose M. Gallardo
c. Amado Yuzon
d. Aurelio Tolentino
It is the story of Lam-ang and his love interest Ines Cannoyan.
Select one:
a. The Quest for the Father
b. The Birth of Lam-ang
c. The Quest for a Wife
d. The Death and Resurrection of the Hero
The Father of Pampango Literature.
Select one:
a. Mariano Proceso Pabalan Byron
b. Juan Crisostomo Soto
c. Padre Anselmo Jorge de Fajardo
The Mother of Philippine Women's Literature.
Select one:
a. Leon C. Pichay
b. Isabelo de los Reyes
c. Leona Florentino
d. Genoveva Matute
One of the famous publishing houses from Bicol.
Select one:
a. Bicolanan
b. Bicoland
c. Bicolanon
d. Bicolandio
Ilocano literature is second to Tagalog in having the greatest number of printed works.
Select one:
True
False
The writer of Anti Cristo.
Select one:
a. Valerio Zinuga
b. Asisclo Jimenez
c. Manuel Fuentebella
d. Justiniano Nuyda
Leona Florentino was congenitally blind.
Select one:
True
False
Biag ni Lam-ang was first transcribed around 1640 by Pedro Bucaneg.
Answer:True
The Bukanegan is the Ilocano version of the Balagtasan
Answer:True
Ilocano literature is second to Tagalog in having the greatest number of printed works.
Answer:True
Leon C. Pichay is acknowledged as the Father of Ilocano Literature.
Answer:False
The writer of Anti Cristo.
Answer:Justiniano Nuyda
Poetry from ___ possess "clarity and grace of expression."
Answer:Bicol
Answer:no literary outlet
It is the story of Lam-ang and his love interest Ines Cannoyan.

Answer:The quest for a wife
Bicol Literature did not flourish because of the attitude of people towards it.
Answer:True
One of the famous publishing houses from Bicol.
Answer: Bicolanon
Leona Florentino was congenitally blind.
Answer:False
This writer detested the Spanish maladministration in the Philippines.
Answer:Isabelo de los Reyes
The title of Mariano Proceso Pabalan Byron's famous zarzuela that depicts a Filipino family.
Answer:Ing Managne
Who is known as the King of Crisotan?
Answer:Amado Yuzon
Answer:Bannawag
The author of the Pampango murder mystery novel, "Ing Buac ning Ester" (A Strand of Ester's Hair).
Answer:Aurelio Tolentino
The playwright from Bicol who writes puns and mimes as double-edge statements for Spaniards.
Answer:Mariano Perfecto
The Mother of Philippine Women's Literature.
Answer:Leona Florentino
Answer:Sabas Armenta
The Leopoldo Yabes version of the epic poem Biag ni Lam-ang consists of 206 stanzas.
Answer:False
A humorous and satiric song in Hiligaynon literature.
Select one:
a. Ballad
b. Haya
c. Siday
d. Bical
e. Awit
Vicente Y. Sotto began his journalistic career at the age of 22.
Select one:
True
False
The first short story in Sugbuanon.
Select one:
a. Maming
b. Ang Suga
c. La Justicia
d. Hinilawod
What was Pedro Bukaneg's origin, according to his name?
Select one:
a. Mangyan
b. Ibanag
c. Itneg
d. Ivatan
Bukaneg was a co-author of the Ilocano-English grammar book and dictionary.
Select one:
a. False
b. True
Hiligaynon is the lingua franca of Northern Mindanao.
Select one:
True
False
Sugbuanon is a dialect spoken in central Visayas, as well as in the greater part of northern and central
Mindanao.
Select one:
True
False
Hinilawod tells the story of how the islands of Iloilo, ____ and Aklan were formed.
Select one:
a. Iloilo
b. Guimaras
c. Capiz
d. Antique
Hinilawod is the oldest and longest epic poem in Panay.
Select one:
True
False
___ refers to the Ilocano balagtasan.
Select one:
a. Bukanegan
b. None of the choices
c. Balitaw
d. Balagtas sa Balitaw
A humorous and satirical song.
Select one:
a. Ambahan
b. Haya
c. Bical
d. Siday
Pampango poetry commonly has a total of ___ syllables in octaves with rhymes at the end.
Select one:
a. 14
b. 16
c. 12
d. 8
____, also known as the Bible of Northern Philippines, was a popular weekly magazine featuring literary
works from Ilocano writers.
Select one:
a. Balitaw
b. Hinilawod
c. Bannawag
d. Bukanegan
An old ritual of formalizing an engagement to marry.
Select one:
a. Bagamundo
b. Balagtasan sa Balitaw
c. Pamalaye
d. Kolilisi
___ tells a story of the bravery of ten datus who went on a journey to escape from a tyrannical ruler.
Select one:
a. Balitaw
b. Maragtas
c. Ambahan
d. Hinilawod
Haya is a dirge that is composed of three parts.
Select one:
True
False
Leona Florentino was fluent in Spanish, Tagalog, Ilokano and English.
Select one:
a. False
b. True
Ilocano literature is heavily influenced by religion.
Select one:
a. False
b. True
___ thrive in the region because they depict history, important people and social condition.
Select one:
a. plays
b. novels
c. poems
d. dramas
e. short stories
The Yuhum magazine in Iloilo was established by:
Select one:
a. UP Press
b. Liwayway Publications
c. PDI
d. La Defensa Press
Sugbuanon literature is characterized as:
Select one:
a. Abundant and varied
b. No correct answer
c. Old and extinct
d. Unique and scarce
An incorporation of duplo and balitaw where the courtship plot becomes a mere framework for an
argument on a non-romantic subject.
Select one:
a. Bagamundo
b. Balagtasan sa Balitaw
c. Pamalaye
d. Drama-Balitaw
The name of the main character in Bucaneg's famous epic.
Select one:
a. Lam-ang
b. Bukaneg
c. Bannawag
d. Pedro
The father of Ilocano Literature.

Select one:
a. Fray Francisco Lopez
b. Leon C. Pichay
c. Pedro Bucaneg
d. Isabelo de los Reyes
It introduces the story's characters, setting, and conflict.
Select one:
a. Climax
b. Rising Action
c. Exposition
d. Falling Action
e. Resolution
A story about the tradition of Christmas in the Philippines, written to entertain and amuse the people
from Madrid.
Select one:
a. La Maestra de mi Pueblo
b. Noche Buena
c. La Hija del Fraile
d. A Mi Madre
He published his poetry book "Rimas Malayas" (Malayan Rhymes) at the age of 17 and even wrote a
satirical column for La Vanguardia
called "Vida Manilenas"
Select one:
a. Cecilio Apostol
b. Jesus Balmori
c. Fernando Ma. Guerrero

d. Claro M. Recto
The name of the corrupt governor in A Child of Sorrow.
Select one:
a. Gerado Luna
b. Lucio Soliman
c. Pancho Ismael
d. Rosa
The following are known as Poets of Stage EXCEPT:
Select one:
a. Patricio Mariano
b. Aurelio Tolentino
c. Pedro Deogracias
d. Severino Reyes
It was the very first book on Ilokano grammar written by Francisco Lopez.
Select one:
a. Arte de la Lengua Ilocana
b. Arte de la Iloka
c. Arte y Regalas de la Lengua Ilokana
d. Compendio de la Lengua Iloka
Alunsina and Datu Paubari in Hinilawod had twins.
Select one:
a. True
b. False
A Hiligaynon literary form that is a ballad of unrhymed couplets.
Select one:
a. Haya
b. Awit
c. Bical
d. Ambahan
e. Siday
The story of Maragtas is about a group of datus and their escape from Borneo.
Select one:
True
False
Dubbed as the most creative Ilocano writer in his generation whose works often revolve around the
theme of love for the country, spirituality and love for their local
language.
Select one:
a. Isabelo de los Reyes
b. Pedro Bucaneg
c. Leon Pichay
d. Leona Florentino
A comic representation of the love chase in aa verse dialogue of courtship that develops into a wit
combat performed in song and dance.
Select one:
a. Bagamundo
b. Duplo
c. Balitaw
d. Drama-balitaw
e. Balagtasan sa Balitaw
he ___ magazine in Iloilo helped keep literature alive.

Select one:
a. Yuhum
b. La Defensa
c. Hiligaynon
d. None of the choices
Long before the Spaniards came to the Philippines, Ilokanos have already established their own culture,
along with their own mythology and folklore.
Select one:
a. True
b. False
Which of the following is not a contribution to literature of Vicente Y. Sotto?
Select one:
a. published La Justicia in Cebu
b. the first published story in Sugbuanon, Maming
c. wrote folk theatricals in his native language
d. the first poetry in vernacular, Ang Suga
This refers to an old ritual of formalizing an engagement to marry.
answer: pamalaye
A comic representation of the love chase in a verse dialogue of courtship that develops into a wit
combat performed in song and dance.
Select one:
a. Pamalaye
b. Balitaw
c. Kolilisi
d. Duplo
One of Haya's parts that is a song regretting the loss of a loved one and extolling him.
Select one:
a. parahaya
b. siday
c. anogon
d. bical
It is a character that remains essentially the same throughout the story.
Select one:
a. developing character
b. static character
c. flat character
d. round character
It is the pattern of sound created by the arrangement of stressed and unstressed syllables in a line.
Select one:
a. Rhythm
b. Alliteration
c. Assonance
d. Consonance
In a story, this character is complex, multi-faceted and has the qualities of real people.
Select one:
a. Round character
b. Flat character
c. Developing character
d. Static character
Banaag at Sikat was notable for its depiction of issues such as socialism, capitalism, and the works of the
united association of laborers.
Select one:
True
False
Match the writer to his/her famous literary work.
Claro M. Recto - [Bajo los Cocoteros]
Jose Corazon de Jesus - [Bayan Ko]
Dr. Pedro Paterno - [Ninay]
Mariano Ponce - [Mga Alamat ng Bulacan]
Jose Esperanza Cruz - [Tatlong Maria]
Fr. Modesto de Castro - [Urbana and Feliza]
Clodualdo del Mundo - [Bulaga]
Jose Ma. Hernandez - [Panday Pira]
Stevan Javellana - [The Lost Ones]
Narciso G. Reyes - [Lupang Tinubuan]
Paz Marquez Benitez - [Dead Stars]
Liwayway Arceo - [Uhaw ang Tigang ng Lupa]
Graciano Lopez-Jaena - [Fray Botod]
Marcelo H. Del Pilar - [Dasalan at Tocsohan]
Jose Maria Panganiban - [A Nuestro Obispo]
Andres Bonifacio - [Pag-ibig sa Tinubuang Lupa]
Apolinario Mabini - [El Verdadero Decalogo]
Emilio Jacinto - [Ang Liwanag at Dilim]
Antonio Luna - [Noche Buena]
Severino Reyes - [Mga Kwento ni Lola Basyang]
Fernando Ma. Guerrero - [Crisalidas]

Jose Rizal - [Noli Me Tangere]
Justiniano Nuyda - [Anti Cristo]
Marcelino Foronda Jr. - [Ta Dida Ammo it Aramidda]
Fray Francisco Lopez - [Cardinal Bellarmine’s catechism]
Pedro Bukaneg - [Biag ni Lam-ang]
Vicente Sotto - [Maming]
Jose Garcia Villa - [Man Songs]
Zoilo Galang - [A Child of Sorrow]
Lope K. Santos - [Banaag at Sikat]
Cecilio Apostol's poem that opened the world of Spanish poetry for him.
The correct answer is: El Terror de Los Mares Indicos
The goddess of the Eastern sea in Hinilawod.
The correct answer is: Alunsina
The ___ magazine in Iloilo helped keep literature alive.
The correct answer is: Yuhum
Hinilawod tells the story of how the islands of Iloilo, ____ and Aklan were formed.
The correct answer is: Antique
The son of Idiyanale: he’s the strong and agile, the guardian of the mountains.
The correct answer is: Dumakulem
The Tagalog god of the sea, he was originally the god of hunters.
The correct answer is: Amanikable
___ refers to the Ilocano balagtasan.
The correct answer is: Bukanegan
The father of Ilocano Literature.
The correct answer is: Pedro Bucaneg

Both Tagalog and English were used as the medium of instruction in all levels of education in public
schools.
____, also known as the Bible of Northern Philippines, was a popular weekly magazine featuring literary
works from Ilocano writers.
The correct answer is: Bannawag
The name of the main character in Bucaneg's famous epic.
The correct answer is: Lam-ang
Which of the following is Juan Crisostomo "Crisot" Soto's works?
The correct answer is: Ing Managne
The ___ magazine was stationed in Manila and contributed to the development of Hiligaynon literature.
The correct answer is: Hiligaynon
A literary form that is a simple folk song, love song and work song.
The correct answer is: Awit
___ tells a story of the bravery of ten datus who went on a journey to escape from a tyrannical ruler.
The correct answer is: Maragtas
Sugbuanon literature forms delivered orally are the following except:
The correct answer is: plays
What was Pedro Bukaneg's origin, according to his name?
The correct answer is: Itneg
___ is the lingua franca of West Visayas.
The correct answer is: Hiligaynon
The oldest and longest epic poem in Panay.
The correct answer is: Hinilawod
Mythological stories of Hiligaynons were passed through each generation by ____.
The correct answer is: oral transmission

According to the Nicaraguan poet Daisy Zamora, poetry is:
Select one:
a. "a way of feeling life"
b. "criticism of life"
c. "blood, imagination and intellect running together"
d. "the spontaneous overflow of powerful feelings"
It is the method by which writers and speakers reveal attitudes or feelings.
Select one:
a. Syntax
b. Style
c. Theme
d. Tone
The full name of the author of "Lupang Tinubuan" that won first prize in the outstanding Filipino short
stories in 1943.
Select one:
a. Francisco Soc Rodrigo
b. Gonzalo Flores
c. Narciso Reyes
d. Macario Pineda
The conflict in a short story is a major element of plot because it arouses curiosity, causes doubt, creates
tension and produces interest.
Select one:
True
False
Zoilo Galang's A Child of Sorrow was famous for being:
Select one:
a. The first Philippine novel written in the English language
b. The first Philippine poem written in the English language
c. The first Philippine short story written in the English language
d. The first Philippine essay written in the English language
A Manobo/Ilianon tale about the hero whose people had been driven out of their land.
Select one:
a. Agyu
b. Aliguyon
c. Biag ni Lam-ang
d. Labaw-Donggon
This author wrote "A Night in the Hills" which tells the story of Gerado Luna, a salesman in a jewelry
store in Intramuros, Manila.
Select one:
a. Severino Reyes
b. Paz Marquez-Benitez
c. Lope K. Santos
d. Jose Garcia Villa
e. Jose Corazon de Jesus
f. Zoilo Galang
He was a corresponding member of the Royal Academy of the Spanish Literature.
Select one:
a. Cecilio Apostol
b. Teodoro Agoncillo
c. Jesus Balmori
d. Lope K. Santos
The second prize for the outstanding Filipino short stories in 1943 is _______.
Select one:
a. Lupang Tinubuan by Narciso Reyes
b. Uhaw ang Tigang na Lupa by Liwayway A. Arceo
c. Suyuan sa Tubigan by Macario Pineda
d. Lungsod Ngayon at Dagat-dagatan by N.V.M. Gonzales
The name of the magazine that recognized the brilliant minds behind literary works during this era.
Select one:
a. Pambata
b. Filipinas
c. Liwayway
d. Ilustración Filipina
The Father of Tagalog plays.
Select one:
a. Paz Marquez-Benitez
b. Jose Garcia Villa
c. Severino Reyes
d. Lope K. Santos
The term Alibata was coined by _______.
Select one:
a. Marcelo H. Del Pilar
b. Father Antonio de Borja
c. Paul Rodriguez Verzosa
d. Jose P. Rizal
The author of the speech, Sa Mga Pilipino, a speech aimed to improve the condition of the Filipinos to
become free and progressive.
Select one:
a. Graciano Lopez Jaena
b. Andres Bonifacio
c. Mariano Ponce
d. Antonio Luna
He was the Father of the Tagalog Zarzuela and the one who wrote, "Walang Sugat" (No Wounds) about
the Katipuneros in the later years of the Spanish
occupation.
Select one:
a. Jose Garcia Villa
b. Lope K. Santos
c. Zoilo Galang
d. Paz Marquez-Benitez
e. Severino Reyes
f. Jose Corazon de Jesus
he name of the corrupt governor in A Child of Sorrow.
Select one:
a. Gerado Luna
b. Rosa
c. Pancho Ismael
d. Lucio Soliman
A poem consisting of four lines with seven syllables each, with each line ending in rhyme.
Select one:
a. Tanaga
b. Haikai
c. Tanka
d. Haiku
The type of government in the Philippines during the Pre-Spanish period.
Select one:
a. Autocracy
b. Dictatorship
c. Thalassocracy
d. Democracy
Jesus Balmori died on June 12, on Philippine Independence Day.
Select one:
True
False
Articles that explain the steps in a process, report the news, or analyze a work of literature are all
examples of:
Select one:
a. Expository essays
b. Descriptive essays
c. Persuasive essays
d. No correct answer
Considered as the first modern English language short story writer from the Philippines.
Select one:
a. Jose Garcia Villa
b. Severino Reyes
c. Paz Marquez Benitez
d. Zoilo Galang
The term ____ refers to slaves that do not have the right to own property.
Select one:
a. saguiguilid
b. timawa
c. namamahay
d. alipin
Literature, in a literal sense, means:
Select one:
a. "placing, arrangement"
b. "an acquaintance with letters"
c. "love of wisdom"
d. "a thousand"
tory about the tradition of Christmas in the Philippines, written to entertain and amuse the people from
Madrid.
Select one:
a. La Maestra de mi Pueblo
b. La Hija del Fraile
c. Noche Buena
d. A Mi Madre
Use of Tagalog became widespread under the Japanese rule.
Select one:
True
False
The Father of Filipino Democracy.
Select one:
a. Andres Bonifacio
b. Marcelo H. Del Pilar
c. Emilio Aguinaldo
d. Jose Rizal
The ____ is an example of an epic poem that tells the story of Jesus Christ's life, trials and sufferings.
Select one:
a. Pasyon
b. Credo
c. Awit
d. Pater Noster
Drama is told mainly through the words and actions of characters and intended to be performed by
actors.
Select one:
True
False
A ____ is a mystifying, misleading or puzzling question posed as a problem to be solved or guessed.
Select one:
a. parable
b. riddle
c. epic
d. fable
The Bikolanos call their supreme being Asuang.
Select one:
True
False
Which of the following is not one of Mariano Ponce's pennames?
Select one:
a. Kalipulako
b. Tikbalang
c. Tagailog
d. Naning
A seven-lined diamond-shaped poem that specifies the part of speech in each line, sometimes with
contrasting ideas.
Select one:
a. Acrostic poem
b. Diamond poem
c. Haiku
d. Shape poem
Philippine literature managed to thrive during this era.
Select one:
True
False
Aliguyon was the hero son of the goddess Alunsina, and the mortal Datu Paubari.
Select one:
True
False
Baybayin, the Filipino writing system in the Pre-Spanish period, is derived from the Tagalog word baybay
which means:
Select one:
a. "to spell"
b. "to speak"
c. "to draw"
d. "to read"
Free public education made knowledge and information accessible to a greater number of Filipinos,
which gave them the opportunity to join
the educated masses.
Select one:
True
False
What are the most common works of literature during the Japanese regime?
Select one:
a. short story
b. poems
c. novels
On May 1, 1898, the Americans led by U.S. Navy Admiral George Dewey, along with Gen. Emilio
Aguinaldo, attacked the Spanish Navy in
Manila Bay.
Select one:
True
False
One of the classics of Confucianism that is a collection of 300 poems and songs from the early Chou
Dynasty.
Select one:
a. Ch'un Ching
b. Li Ching
c. I Ching
d. Shih Ching
e. Shu Ching
Some prominent rocks are worshipped as Kami.
Select one:
a. False
b. True
The goal of Hindu Life which refers to physical pleasure.
Select one:
a. Dharma
b. Artha
c. Kama
d. Moksha
ChinesA book of Confucianism that talks about "Great Learning."
Select one:
a. Lun Yu
b. Meng Tzu
c. Ta Hsueh
d. Chung Yung
Select one:
a. separation
b. individualization
c. expression
d. optimism
勇気 (Romaji: yuuki) means love.
Select one:
a. True
b. False
These are charms, wards or scriptures that are said to bring the bearer good luck or protection.
Select one:
a. magatama
b. ofuda
c. taima
d. omamori
A way to achieve God through direct action.
Select one:
a. Karma
b. Bakhti
c. Jnana
d. Sudra
The Indian goddess of dance.
Select one:
a. Rakshasa
b. Panchatantra
c. Kisa Gotami
d. Shivast
The name of the tree on which Gautama vowed never to arise until he found the truth.
Select one:
a. Lumbini
b. Piali
c. Pipal
d. Panna
Time refers to ____ while moment means "for the time being."
Select one:
a. clear-cut situation
b. relative situation
c. all of the choices

d. indistinct situation
Shinto believes that the reason for human's attachment to nature is because they become kami after
they die.
Select one:
a. False
b. True
A way to achieve God by what you know.
Select one:
a. Jnana
b. Bakhti
c. None of the choices
d. Karma
The Japanese believe in balance in perspective and beauty.
Select one:
a. False
b. True
Which of the following is not one of the three levels in which the Japanese are shaped?
Select one:
a. Milleu
b. Race
c. Standard of living
d. Power of the moment
This term refers to Japanese festivals to celebrate and honor shrines.
Select one:
a. tanjou
b. jinjitsu
c. matsuri
d. kouhaku
Which of the following is incorrect?
Select one:
a. One of the four noble truths is that suffering arises from attachment to desires
b. Sorrow is one of the unwholesome mental states impeding progress towards enlightenment.
c. One of the factors of enlightment is equanimity
d. Selflessness is one of the characteristics of existence
A characteristic of existence in Buddhism which refers to selflessness.
Select one:
a. anicca
b. anatta
c. dukkha
d. sila
A way to achieve God by how you act.
Select one:
a. Sudra
b. Jnana
c. Karma
d. Bakhti
Select one:
a. Kama
b. Dharma
c. Moksha
d. Artha
Omamori comes from the word mamori, which means, ___.
Select one:
a. protection
b. guidance
c. overpower
d. strength
Being a Hindu is said to be a sign of being ____.
Select one:
a. patient
b. gracious
c. glorious
d. gallant
Which of the following is not one of the Confucian Thoughts from the Analects?
Select one:
a. “To be wealthy and honored in an unjust society is a disgrace.”
b. "The journey of a thousand miles begins with one step."
c. “The superior man has a dignified ease without pride. The mean man has pride without a dignified
ease.”
d. “What you do not want done to yourself, do not do to others.”
Those who do not agree that life is impermanent, is said to be in the state of "___" or illusion.
Select one:
a. Sudra
b. Purusha
c. Brahmin
d. Maya
What marked the end of World War I?
Select one:
a. Hitler and his wife committed suicide
b. Germany signed the Treaty of Versailles
c. Friendship was secured between neighboring European countries
d. Germany surrendered
During the World War II, when was London destroyed causing the death of approximately 60,000
civilians?
Select one:
a. 1940
b. 1941
c. 1943
d. 1945
This type of newspaper was developed in 1962 as a supplement to the Sunday newspaper.
Select one:
a. newsletter
b. tabloid
c. berliner
d. compact
Identify what the following statement describes:
The art/literature has a realistic setting.
Select one:
a. Magic Realism and Realism
b. Fantasy
c. Magic Realism
d. Surrealism
e. Realism
f. Magic Realism and Fantasy
The common ground in the themes of postmodernism and modernism.
Select one:
a. criticism of something broken
b. tragedy of something broken
c. celebration
d. result of war and invasions
e. lamentation and apathy
Christopher Columbus discovered America in 1492.
Select one:
a. False
b. True
A fantasy plot that is accepted by the characters.
Select one:
a. Realism
b. Surrealism
c. Magic Realism and Fantasy
d. Magic Realism and Realism
e. Fantasy
f. Magic Realism
Which of the following terms related to postmodernism means "construction or creation from a diverse
range of available things"?
Select one:
a. playfulness
b. parody
c. irony
d. pastiche
e. bricolage
Identify the aspect of modernism described:
The rise of spontaneity and discovery in creation.
Select one:
a. a rejection of the distinction between "high" and "low" or popular culture
b. an emphasis on fragmented forms
c. a blurring of distinctions between genres
d. a rejection of elaborate formal aesthetics in favor of minimalist designs
Postmodernism emphasizes pastiche. Which of the following is the closest meaning of the word
"pastiche"?
Select one:
a. an imitation of the style of a writer, artist or genre with deliberate exaggeration for a humorous
effect.
b. the expression of one's meaning by using language that normally signifies the opposite for a
humorous effect.
c. an artistic work in a style that imitates that of another work, artist or period
d. construction or creation from a diverse range of available things.
A movement where Brazilians explored their myths and folklore.
Select one:
a. Vanguardia
b. Surrealism
c. Modernismo
d. Colonial ideology
A popularly acclaimed artist whose artworks result in powerful paradoxes, often provoking unsettling
thoughts.
Select one:
a. Rene Magritte
b. Gabriel Garcia Marquez
c. Oswaldo Guayasamin
Explores aspects that are associated with imagination, attempting to express the inner life of humans.
Select one:
a. Fantasy
b. Surrealism
c. Magic Realism and Realism
d. Magic Realism
e. Realism
f. Magic Realism and Fantasy
This artist's artworks feature racism and discrimination. One such example is the image below:
Select one:
a. Gabriel Garcia Marquez
b. Rene Magritte
The English title of Gabriel Garcia Marquez' novel which became the epicenter of novels in this period.
Select one:
a. One Hundred Years of Solitude
b. Chronicle of a Death Foretold
c. The General in His Labyrinth
d. Love in the Time of Cholera

Discontinuous narratives and random-seeming collages of different materials.
Select one:
a. an emphasis on impressionism and subjectivity in writing
b. a tendency toward reflexivity or self-consciousness
c. omniscient third-person narrators and fixed narrative points of view
d. an emphasis on fragmented forms
Choosing materials used to produce art and in methods of displaying, distributing and consuming art.
Select one:
a. a rejection of elaborate formal aesthetics in favor of minimalist designs
b. omniscient third-person narrators and fixed narrative points of view
c. a rejection fo the distinction between "high" and "low" or popular culture
d. a blurring of distinctions between genres
Choose what type of control exists in the following dystopian novel, based on its synopsis:
Ready Player One by Ernest Cline: "In the year 2044, reality is an ugly place. The only time teenage Wade
Watts really feels alive is when
he's jacked into the virtual utopia known as the OASIS. Wade's devoted his life to studying the puzzles
hidden within this world's digital
confines, puzzles that are based on their creator's obsession with the pop culture of decades past and
that promise massive power and
fortune to whoever can unlock them. When Wade stumbles upon the first clue, he finds himself beset
by players willing to kill to take this
ultimate prize. The race is on, and if Wade's going to survive, he'll have to win—and confront the real
world he's always been so desperate
to escape."
Select one:
a. Technological Control
b. Corporate Control
c. Philosophical/Religious Control
d. Bureaucratic Control
thoughts.
Select one:
a. Rene Magritte
b. Gabriel Garcia Marquez
Small portions of West Africa are composed of people who believe in ______.
Select one:
a. Yourubu religion
b. Islam
c. Animism
d. Christianity
This began in the middle of the 18th century and is associated with modern era.
Select one:
a. Modern America
b. none of the choices
c. European Enlightenment
d. Scientific Revolution
French-speaking African writers, politicians and intellectuals developed the ideological philosophy,
Negritude.
Select one:
a. False
b. True
Which of the following statements is incorrect?
Select one:
a. The climax of dystopian literature is unresolved.
b. Dystopian literature ends on a hopeful note.
c. Dystopia's conflict mostly revolves around the beliefs held by the people in the society
d. Dystopia asks big questions such as "What is love?"
Explores the social and political ills in the 20th Century.
Select one:
a. Fantasy
b. Surrealism
c. Magic Realism and Fantasy
d. Magic Realism and Realism
e. Magic Realism
f. Realism
In Modern America, this country is the first to become an independent nation in West Indies.
Select one:
a. Central America
b. Peru
c. Haiti
d. Mexico
The following are countries that proclaimed independence from Spain except for:
Select one:
a. Central America
b. Texas
c. Peru
d. Mexico
This massacre occurred in Rwanda causing millions to flee.
Select one:
a. none of the choices
b. Ethiopian
c. Hutus
d. Zaire
"pastiche"?
Select one:
a. an imitation of the style of a writer, artist or genre with deliberate exaggeration for a humorous
effect.
b. construction or creation from a diverse range of available things.
c. the expression of one's meaning by using language that normally signifies the opposite for a
humorous effect.
d. an artistic work in a style that imitates that of another work, artist or period
n a dystopian world, ____ takes control of human minds.
Select one:
a. religion
b. ruling power
c. propaganda
d. beliefs
This refers to a set of philosophical, political, and ethical ideas which provide the basis for the aesthetic
aspect of modernism.
Select one:
a. Modernity
b. Late Modernity
c. Modernization
d. Postmodernity
Select one:
a. a rejection of the distinction between "high" and "low" or popular culture
b. a blurring of distinctions between genres
c. an emphasis on fragmented forms
d. a rejection of elaborate formal aesthetics in favor of minimalist designs
One of the themes reflected in postmodernism which means the construction or creation from a diverse
range of available things.
Select one:
a. irony
b. bricolage
c. parody
d. pastiche
Select one:
a. Magic Realism and Realism
b. Surrealism
c. Fantasy
d. Magic Realism
e. Magic Realism and Fantasy

f. Realism
Select one:
a. The climax of dystopian literature is unresolved.
b. Dystopian literature ends on a hopeful note.
c. Dystopia's conflict mostly revolves around the beliefs held by the people in the society
d. Dystopia asks big questions such as "What is love?"
Known as one of the authors of the 1935 Philippine Constitution.
Select one:
a. Severino Reyes
b. Paz Marquez Benitez
c. Lope K. Santos
d. Claro M. Recto
BAED-ENGL2121 21st Century Literature from the Philippines and the World(Week 11-19)
L.A 8 ENGL-121 (21st century lit.)
Knowing and believing can be quite similar.
Select one:
- False
A way to achieve God by what you know.
Answer:
-Jnana
The total length of the Indus River is _____ kilometers.
Answer
-3,180
The first Indian poet who wrote the epic, Ramayana.

Answer:
Maharishi Valmiki
Evident in the Indian culture is a class structure determined by birth. It is also known as the
Answer
Caste system
Families build ____ where kamis live.
Ans: shrines
Ans: "The journey of a thousand miles begins with one step."
Ans: matsuri
The first Indian poet who wrote the epic, Ramayana.
Ans: Maharishi Valmiki
The term ____ refers to loyalty to one's true nature.
Ans: zhong
The Chinese do not like change.
Ans: True
Ans: Bakhti
Omamori comes from the word mamori, which means, ___.
Ans: protection
Dynasty.
Ans: Shih Ching
Ans: Pipal
Sq. 8 ENGL-121 (21st century lit.)
In Indian Literature, the devil does not exist. Instead, God does something bad to a person to teach
them a lesson.
Select one:
-True
The Indian goddess of dance
Answer:
-Shivast
A way to achieve God through direct action.
Answer:
-Karma
A demonic being from Hindu mythology.
Answer:
-Rakshasa
Being a Hindu is said to be a sign of being ____
Answer
-glorious
Answer:
-Kama
The female Rakshasa in human form takes the name
Answer:
-Manushya-Rakshasi
Answer:
-Bakhti
_____refers to the red mark on the forehead of the Indians and is said to be a sign of God.
-kunkuni
The _____ is a major south-flowing river in South Asia.
Answer
-Indus River
Which of the following is not one of the three levels in which the Japanese are shaped?
Select one:
-Standard of living
During the ____ period, Shintoism became the main religion in Japan.
Answer
-Meiji
The term ____refers to spirits that roam the land and are also known as the Shinto gods.
Answer
-Kami
The demonic creatures represented as ogres and trolls roaming the earth.
Answer:
-Oni
Question 5
Some prominent rocks are worshipped as Kami.
Select one:
-True
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The Japanese do not possess guilt.

Select one:
-True
?? (Romaji: yuuki) means love.
Select one:
-False
Shinto believes that the reason for human's attachment to nature is because they become kami after
they die.
Select one:
-True
Shinto believes that humans are fundamentally good and evil deeds are caused by evil spirits.
Select one:
-True
The sun goddess, ____is considered as the most important God.
Answer
-Amaterasu
To the Japanese, a person's poor quality/badness is relative because of the existence of goodness.
Select one:
- False
Omamori comes from the word mamori, which means, _____
Answer
-protection
Time refers to _____while moment means "for the time being."
Answer
-clear-cut situation
Families build _____where kamis live.
Answer
-shrines
These are charms, wards or scriptures that are said to bring the bearer good luck or protection.
Answer:
-ofudasss
Heaven or ____is a positive and personal force in the universe for Confucius.
Answer
-T'ien
Select one:
- Sorrow is one of the unwholesome mental states impeding progress towards enlightenment.
Confucianism, like the Catholics, have specific rituals or practices for their religion.
Select one:
- False
Answer:
-pipal
Select one:
-"The journey of a thousand miles begins with one step."
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Chinese Literature serves to portray only a fraction of reality.
Select one:
- False
Dynasty.
Select one:
- Shih Ching
The Chinese do not like change.
Select one:
-True
The main principle of Confucianism is , which means "humaneness" or "benevolence."
Answer
-ren
_____ is a religion that encompasses a variety of traditions, beliefs, and spiritual practices largely based
on teachings attributed to Buddha.
-Buddhism
To Buddhists, ____or suffering is the innate nature of existence.
Answer
-dukkha
Which of the following is not a book of Confucianism?
Select one:
- Li Ching
The term ____refers to loyalty to one's true nature.
Answer
-zhong
Complete the quote: Not to discuss with a man worthy of conversation is to waste the man. To discuss
with a man not worthy of conversation is
to ____."
Answer
-waste words
Chinese expressed things by _____ than analysis.
Answer
-individualization
L.Q 3 ENGL-121 (21st century lit.)
One of the goals of Hindu life that refers to materialistic pleasure/wealth.
Select one:
- Artha
_____is said to be relative in the Japanese customs.
Answer
-Truth
This is the term that refers to the end of reincarnation.
Select one:
- Moksha
Which of the following is not a way of Japanese living?
Select one:
-importance of time
The Japanese term which refers to nature itself.
Answer:
-Kigo
? (read as chikara) is a kanji (Chinese character) that means wealth.
Select one:
- False
A group in the caste system composed of slaves.
Select one:
-Sudra
_____is a collection of fables given to kings and princes, which purpose is to teach them values,
leadership and governance.
Answer
-Panchatantra
Which of the following is not a characteristic of the Indian's way of living?
Select one:
- Peace
The protagonist in Ramayana whose wife is abducted by the demonking of Lanka, Ravana.
Select one:
- Rama
The Japanese believe in balance in perspective and beauty.
Select one:
- True
Select one:
-The Indian's way of living is one of individualism
This refers to a class of supernatural monsters, spirits, and demons in Japanese folklore.
Answer:
-Yokai
What is the difference between joy and happiness?
Select one:
-joy is natural while happiness is acquired
Those who do not agree that life is impermanent, is said to be in the state of "_____" or illusion.
Answer
-Maya
The ____ Veda is a book of spells.

Select one:
- Atharva
______is the shrine maiden or the caretaker that is usually a daughter of the priest.
Answer
-Miko
??? means to protect. It is said to provide various forms of luck or protection.
Answer:
-Omamori
Matsuri is a Japanese ____celebrating and honoring shrines.
Answer
-festival
Omamori are charms, wards or scriptures said to bring the bearer good luck or protection, depending on
what is written on them.
Select one:
- False
A characteristic of existence in Buddhism which refers to selflessness.
Select one:
- anatta
Siddhartha Gautama was born and eventually grew up in India.
Select one:
- False
A book of Confucianism that talks about "Great Learning."
Select one:
-Ta Hsueh
Adolf Hitler's conquering strategy called ______ or Lightning War.

-Blitzkrieg
After the first World War, the clothing of people became simplistic.
Select one:
- False
A law designed to protect woman's rights during that time.
Select one:
-Equal Pay Act of 1970
The age of technology brought about the following except:
Select one:
-storage drives
People of the time read war poems that are based on the horrors of the aftermath of the World War.
Select one:
- True
Who was the youngest Prime Minister of Britain for almost 200 years?
Select one:
-Tony Blair
The first woman Prime Minister and was elected three consecutive times.
Select one:
- Margaret Thatcher
The first woman member in the House of Commons.
Answer:
-Lady Astor
All women over eighteen were granted the right to vote.
Select one:
-False
This type of newspaper was developed in 1962 as a supplement to the Sunday newspaper.
Answer:
-Tabloid
The common themes of British literature often stray from modernism and stream of consciousness.
Select one:
-False
What marked the end of World War I?
Select one:
-Germany signed the Treaty of Versailles
King Edward VII took the invasion of Belgium by Germans as a threat.
Select one:
- False
Which of the following is not one of the independent countries which the British Empire has dissolved
into?
Select one:
-Nepal
During the World War II, when was London destroyed causing the death of approximately 60,000
civilians?
Select one:
-1941
"pastiche"?
Select one:
- an artistic work in a style that imitates that of another work, artist or period

Choosing materials used to produce art and in methods of displaying, distributing and consuming art.
Select one:
- a rejection fo the distinction between "high" and "low" or popular culture
The European Enlightenment began on mid-eighteenth century.
Select one:
-True
In Modern America, this country is the first to become an independent nation in West Indies.
Select one:
-Haiti
Christopher Columbus discovered America in 1492.
Select one:
-False
This term generally refers to the broad aesthetic movements of the 20th Century.
Answer:
-Modernism
The _____ was implemented and Canada was then separated from the British parliament.
Answer
-Canada Act of 1982
Discontinuous narratives and random-seeming collages of different materials.
Select one:
-an emphasis on fragmented forms
The following are countries that proclaimed independence from Spain except for:
Select one:
- Texas
Aztecs found Tenochtitlan in 1325 to 1350 A.D. Today, Tenochtitlan is known as:
Select one:
-Mexico
Postmodern art favors discontinuity in narrative structure.
Select one:
-True
This refers to a set of philosophical, political, and ethical ideas which provide the basis for the aesthetic
Answer:
-Modernity
Select one:
-a rejection of elaborate formal aesthetics in favor of minimalist designs
The common ground in the themes of postmodernism and modernism.
Select one:
-result of war and invasions
Which of the following terms related to postmodernism means "construction or creation from a diverse
range of available things"?
Select one:
-. bricolage
______is a means of reuniting conscious and unconscious realms of experience so completely that the
world of dream and fantasy combines.
-Surrealism

Select one:
- Surrealism
This artist's artworks feature racism and discrimination. One such example is the image below:
Select one:
-Oswaldo Guayasamin
Treats unreal events as matter-of-fact.
Select one:
-Magic Realism
Portrays non-realistic subjects, often a product of hallucinations.
Select one:
-Fantasy
Depicts everyday subjects and situations in contemporary settings.
Select one:
-Realism
Explores the social and political ills in the 20th Century.
Select one:
-Magic Realism
The art/literature has a realistic setting.

Select one:
-Magic Realism and Realism
A movement where Brazilians explored their myths and folklore.
Select one:
- Modernismo
A fantasy plot that is accepted by the characters.
Select one:
- Magic Realism and Fantasy
The English title of Gabriel Garcia Marquez' novel which became the epicenter of novels in this period.
Answer:
One Hundred Years of Solitude
The purpose of this is an approach to find methods of uniting the conscious and subconscious realms of
experience.
Select one:
-Surrealism
The Spanish and Portuguese in South America had two goals. What are these?
Select one:
-increase wealth and convert the natives to Christians
thoughts.
Select one:
-Rene Magritte
The objective is to bring a fresh image of our everyday world.

Select one:
- Magic Realism
______deptics an ideal society"
answer: utopia
4th quarter exam ENGL-121 (21st century lit.)
c-Eliezer Bernardo
Noted: 49/50 lang po it's up to you!
The one who wrote Totem, a poem that encourages common racial identity for black Africans.
-Leopold Sedar Senghor
The Sun Goddess that is considered the most important God in Shinto.
– Amaterasu
These are charms and wards or scriptures that is said to bring the bearer good luck or protection.
- Ofuda
Gautama Buddha is known to be _________ and will remain in this position until he has found the truth.
- seated under the pipal tree
Which of the following paths is not included in the samadhi or meditation?
- Right Thought
The one who proposed equality in the West Africa. -Blaise Daigne
The story about the grief of a woman who lost her child and eventually where the line, "the living are
few, but the dead are many" became
popular.
- Kisa gotami( sabi nila yan daw????)
The term that refers to the goal of liberation
.-Moksha
This consists of three books on the Rites of Propriety. -
-Li Ching
A way to achieve God which depends on how you act. -
-Bakhti
This is the innate nature of existence according to Buddhism.
-Dukkha
A Japanese word which means protection.
-Mamori
The Veda for rituals of sacrifice.
-Yajur Veda
The characteristic of existence which refers to selflessness. .
-anatta
In 1948, immigrants arrived in Britain. Their nationalities varied and they are the following except:
-Australians
The movement initiated the emerging of daring and confrontational themes.
- vanguardia
Indian Literature is often described as illogical. a. True
The literary and ideological philosophy developed by French-speaking African intellectuals.
-Negritude
The positive and personal force in the universe, according to Confucius is Heaven or
-T’ien
I Ching or the Classic of Changes is a collection of texts on divination based on a set of hexagrams that
reflect the relationship between Yin and
Yang in nature and society.
- 64
This depicts the tragedy of something broken. Modernism
he Spanish conquistador who defeated the Aztecs in 1521.
-Herman Cortes
This book advocates the discernment of a basic norm of human action which, if put into effect, will bring
life into harmony with the process of
the universe.
-Chung Yung
The main principle of Confucianism is Answer which means humaneness or benevolence.
-ren
The Spanish literary movement which is characterized by its use of sensuous imagery to express
distinctive spiritual values, as well as metaphors.
-Modernismo
This is a collection of fables given to kings and princes that will teach them all there is to know about
values, leadership and governance.
-Panchatantra
Which of these refers to the collection of 300 poems and songs from the early Chou Dynasty?
-Shih Ching
The level of caste system which refers to the soldiers.
-Vaisya
What is the existing goal of the Ramayana? Dharma
The Indians believe that knowing and believing are nearly the same. .
-False
Which of the following is not a characteristic of Modernism in American literature?
-a clear distinction between genres
A book of Mencius' conversations with kings of the time.
-Meng Tzu
This term is used to refer to works that depict supernatural forces working because of a logical reason.
-Magic realism
Japanese term referring to nature.
-Kigo
akshasas are most commonly called
-Maneaters
Shinto became the main religion in Japan during the meiji period
This term refers more to art/literature that defies logic with the
supernatural
-surealism
Confucianism is characterized by a highly Answer
-optimistic
This art favors reflexivity, self-consciousness, fragmentation and discontinuity.
-postmodern
Adolf Hitler, head of the Nazis used the
-Blitzkrieg
Which of the following is not one of the unwholesome mental states that impede profress towards
enlightenment?
-Lying
roup are composed of writers, painters and artists that aim to revive the Uli art of the Igbo tribe.
-Nsukka
Religion believes that we planned our lives with God. Youruba
Indian belief dictates that salvation is not achieved by action but by knowledge or realization.
-True
The Indian's way of living's characteristics include the following except:
-happiness
This refers to a set of philosophical, political and ethical ideas which provide the basis for the aesthetic
-Modernity
There is no devil in Indian literature.
-True
Edward VII lead the friendship of major European countries and eventually forming the group called, "
-entente cordiale
River is one of the longest rivers in Asia extending to 3,180 kilometers.
-Indus
The Indians have Answer identities of the god.
-300.
You can't look at things in only one way.
You should look from both angles.
~Takahashi sensei
The term that refers to the goal of liberation.
-Moksha
The Chinese accept that change is inevitable.
-true
The_______ group are composed of writers, painters and artist that aim to receive the Uli art of the lgbo
tribe
-Nsukka
The positive and personal force in the universe, according to Confucius is Heaven or __________
-T'ien
This Japanese term refers to the spirits that roam the land.
-yoaki
- yokai
- entente cordiale
- t'ien
popular.
-Kisa Gotami
-Yajur Veda
The characteristic of existence which refers to selflessness.
-Anatta
Shinto became the main religion in Japan during the ____period.
-meiji
- Magic Realism
This term refers more to art/literature that defies logic with the supernatural.
-Magic Realism
-Ofuda
life into harmony with the process
of the universe.
-Chung Yung
This consists of three books on the Rites of Propriety
- Li Ching
enlightenment.
-lying
Rakshasas are most commonly called
-maneaters
-True
-dukkha
-shih ching
- an emphasis on fragmented forms
The main principle of Confucianism is ____which means humaneness or benevolence.
- ren
- Modernity
The___River is one of the longest rivers in Asia extending to 3,180 kilometers.
-Indus
-Mamori
The people who have been subjected to bad karma cannot find their way to Nirvana.
-False
Indian Literature is often described as illogical.
-true
-Modern
-seated under the pipal tree
-Right Thought
The____religion believes that we planned our lives with God.
- Youruba
-Amaterasu
-Happiness
the___group are composed of writers, painters and artists that aim to revive the Uli art of the Igbo tribe.
-Nsukka
- Meng Tzu
This depicts the tragedy of something broken.
-Modernism
Adolf Hitler, head of the Nazis used the ____or lightning war in conquering Poland.
- blitzkrieg
Confucianism is characterized by a highly _____ view of human nature.
- optimistic
-Moksha
-False
The Spanish conquistador who defeated the Aztecs in 1521.
- Herman Cortes
-true
The Indians have ____ identities of the god
-300
- negritude
The Indians believe that knowing and believing are nearly the same.
-false
I Ching or the Classic of Changes is a collection of texts on divination based on a set of ____ hexagrams
that reflect the relationship
between Yin and Yang in nature and society.
- 64
- australians
distinctive spiritual values, as well as
metaphors.
- avant-garde
What is the existing goal of the Ramayana?
-dharma
A way to achieve God which depends on how you act.
-bakhti
-Vaisya
The _____ movement initiated the emerging of daring and confrontational themes.
- Vanguardia
– Amaterasu
- Ofuda
- Right Thought
popular.
- Kisa gotami( sabi nila yan daw 😂 😂)
.-Moksha
-Li Ching
-Bakhti
-Dukkha

-Mamori
-Yajur Veda
-anatta
-Australians
- vanguardia
-Negritude
T’ien
reflect the relationship between Yin
and Yang in nature and society.
- 64
Herman Cortes
of the universe.
Chung Yung

ren
metaphors.
Modernismo
Panchatantra
Which of these refers to the collection of 300 poems and songs from the early Chou Dynasty? Shih Ching
Vaisya
False
a clear distinction between genres
Meng Tzu
Magic realism
Japanese term referring to nature. Kigo
Maneaters
This term refers more to art/literature that defies logic with the supernatural
surealism
Confucianism is characterized by a highly Answer optimistic
postmodern
Blitzkrieg
enlightenment?
Lying
group are composed of writers, painters and artists that aim to revive the Uli art of the Igbo tribe.
Nsukka
True
happiness
Modernity
True
entente cordiale
Indus
300.

~Takahashi sensei
Complete the Eightfold Path table and give the other term for the three qualities.
THREE QUALITIES EIGHTFOLD PATH
Wisdom ( panna ) Right Thought
Right View
Morality ( sila ) Right Speech
Right Action
Right Livelihood
Meditation ( samadhi ) Right Effort
Right Mindfulness
Right Contemplation
NOTE : YUNG NAKA BOLD YUNG TEXT AYAN YUNG SAGOT HEHEZ
Approximately how many ethnic groups are in Nigeria?
Answer : c .200
The _________ is the ruling political party of post-apartheid South Africa.
Answer : African National Congress
The Answer is the ruling political party of post-apartheid South Africa.
Answer : African National Congress
Match the year to the historical event that occurred in Africa:
Nelson Mandela was the elected president of South Africa 1994
HIV epidemic started to spread 1981
Italy invades Ethiopia 1935
Ebola virus emerges in Sudian and Zaire 1976
The Nigerian Youth Movement in Africa was formed 1933

Rwanda refugees migrate back to escape fight in Zaire 1996
The beginning of World War II 1939
Zaire declares independence from Belgium 1961
Independence of Morocco, Sudian and Tunisia 1956
The Nigarian Civil War ended 1970
NOTE : YUNG NAKA RED YUNG TEXT AYAN YUNG SAGOT HEHEZ
The West Africa-Nsukka Group aims to revive the _______ art of the Igbo tribe.
Answer : uli
The West Africa-Nsukka Group aims to revive the Answer art of the Igbo tribe.
Answer : uli
The southern part of West Africa are mostly
Answer : a. Christians
French-speaking African writers, politicians and intellectuals developed the ideological philosophy,
Negritude.
Answer : a. True
Which of the following is not part of the major civilization and cities in Africa?
Answer : c. Gambia
This emphasizes the criticism of something broken.
Answer : c. Postmodernism
In a dystopian world, _________ takes control of human minds.
Answer : propaganda
In a dystopian world, Answer takes control of human minds.
Answer : propaganda
The Hunger Games trilogy by Suzanne Collins “The nation of Panem, formed from a post-apocalyptic
North America, is a country
that consists of a wealthy Capitol region surrounded by 12 poorer districts. Early in its history, a
rebellion led by a 13th district against
the Capitol resulted in its destruction and the creation of an annual televised event known as the
Hunger Games. In punishment, and
as a reminder of the power and grace of the Capitol , each district must yield one boy and one girl
between the ages of 12 and 18
through a lottery system to participate in the games. The tributes are chosen during the annual Reaping
and are forced to fight to the
death, leaving only one survivor to claim victory.”
Answer : a. Bureaucratic Control
Which of the following is not a theme of British literature?
Answer : c. postmodernism
The first African awardee of the Novel Prize.
Answer : c. Wole Soyinka
Answer : c. bricolage
Answer : d. Dystopia’s conflict mostly revolves around the beliefs held by the people in the society
This was a means of combining both words of dream and fantasy.
Answer : b. Surrealism
Dystopian literature is generally objective.
Answer : b. False
This depicts the aftermath of wars.
Answer : d. Both choices are correct
This massacre occurred in Rwanda causing millions to flee.
Answer : hutus
The English term of the movement of literature which promotes surrealism.
Answer : avant-garde
Queen Victoria died after only ten years of being a queen
Answer : a. False
This expresses the inner life and psychology of humans.
Answer : d. Surrealism
Writers are inspired to write about the horrors of World War so they wrote _____ poems.
Answer : war
Writers are inspired to write about the horrors of World War so they wrote Answer poems.
Answer : war
The freedom of Latin America opened for export and import of goods.
Answer : True
There is a line drawn between the rich and the poor in dystopian literature.
Answer : b. True
Divergent by Veronica Roth: “In Beatrice Prior’s dystopian Chicago world, society is divided into five
factions, each dedicated to the
cultivation of a particular virtue-Candor(the honest).Abnegation (the selfless). Dauntless (the brave).

Amity (the peaceful). And
Erudite(the intelligent). On an appointed day of every year, all sixteen-year-olds must select the faction
to which they devote the rest
of their lives. For Beatrice, the decision is between staying with her family and being who she really is-
she can’t have both. So she
makes a choice that surprises everyone, including herself. “
Answer : b. Bureaucratic Control
The author of Utopia who coined the same word in his novel.
Answer : Thomas More

The one who proposed equality in the West Africa and recruited Africans to be in World War II.
Answer : c. Blaise Dalgne
The _____ holds the ruling power during the American Revolution.
Answer : Elite
The Answer holds the ruling power during the American Revolution.
Answer : Elite
Who declared war against the Germans during World War I?
Answer : King George V
This began in the middle of the 18th century and associated with modern era.
Answer : European Enlightenment
Edward VII earned the title. “Edward the _________ “because he secured good relationship between
European countries.
Answer : peacemaker
Edward VII earned the title. “Edward the Answer “because he secured good relationship between
European countries.
Answer : peacemaker
The Circle by Dave Eggers. “When Mae Holland is hired to work for the Circle, the world’s most powerful
internet company, she feels
she’s been given the opportunity of a lifetime. The Circle run out of a sprawling California campus, links
users’ personal emails,
social media, banking, and purchasing with their universal operating system, resulting in one online
identity and a new age of civility
and transparency, As Mae tours the open-plan office spaces, the towering glass dining facilities, the cozy
dorms for those who spend
nights at work, she is thrilled with the company’s modernity and activity. There are parties that last
through the night, there are
famous musicians playing on the lawn, there are athletic activities and clubs and brunches, and even an
aquarium of rare fish
retrieved from the Marianas Trench by the CEO. Mae can’t believe her luck, her great fortune to work
for the most influential
company in America—even as life beyond the campus grows distant, even as a strange encounter with a
colleague leaves her
shaken, even as her role at the Circle becomes increasingly public. What begins as the captivating story
of one woman’s ambition
and idealism soon becomes a heart-racing novel of suspense , raising questions about memory, history,
privacy, democracy, and the
limits of human knowledge.”
Answer : a. Technological Control
In West Africa, this is what they call the praise singer or poet.
Answer : griots
Answer : b. Modernity
Ready Player One by Ernest Cline: “In the year 2044, reality is an ugly place. The only time teenage Wade
Watts really feels alive is
when he’s jacked into the virtual utopia known as the OASIS. Wade’s devoted his life to studying the
puzzles hidden within this
world’s digital continues, puzzles that are based on their creator’s obsession with the pop culture of
decades past and that promise
massive power and fortune to whoever can unlock them. When Wade stumbles upon the first clue, he
finds himself beset by players
willing to kill to take this ultimate prize. The race is on, and if Wade’s going to survive. He’ll have to win
and confront the real world
he’s always been so desperate to escape.”
Answer : a. Technological Control
This depicts the aftermath of wars.

A: Both choices are correct
The freedom of Latin America opened for export and import of goods.
A: true
The Southern part of West Africa are mostly
A: Christians
This was a means of combining both worlds of dream and fantasy.
A: Surrealism
Who declared war against the Germans during World War I?
A: King George V
There is a line drawn between the rich and the poor in dystopian literature.
A: true
The Circle by Dave Eggers: "When Mae Holland is hired to work for the Circle, the world’s most powerful
internet company, she feels she’s
been given the opportunity of a lifetime. The Circle, run out of a sprawling California campus, links users’
personal emails, social media,
banking, and purchasing with their universal operating system, resulting in one online identity and a new
age of civility and transparency. As
Mae tours the open-plan office spaces, the towering glass dining facilities, the cozy dorms for those who
spend nights at work, she is
thrilled with the company’s modernity and activity. There are parties that last through the night, there
are famous musicians playing on the
lawn, there are athletic activities and clubs and brunches, and even an aquarium of rare fish retrieved
from the Marianas Trench by the
CEO. Mae can’t believe her luck, her great fortune to work for the most influential company in America--
even as life beyond the campus
grows distant, even as a strange encounter with a colleague leaves her shaken, even as her role at the
Circle becomes increasingly public.
What begins as the captivating story of one woman’s ambition and idealism soon becomes a heart-
racing novel of suspense, raising
questions about memory, history, privacy, democracy, and the limits of human knowledge."
A: Technological Control
Dystopian literature is generally objective.
A: false
Divergent by Veronica Roth: "In Beatrice Prior's dystopian Chicago world, society is divided into five
factions, each dedicated to the
cultivation of a particular virtue—Candor (the honest), Abnegation (the selfless), Dauntless (the brave),
Amity (the peaceful), and Erudite
(the intelligent). On an appointed day of every year, all sixteen-year-olds must select the faction to
which they will devote the rest of their
lives. For Beatrice, the decision is between staying with her family and being who she really is—she can't
have both. So she makes a
choice that surprises everyone, including herself."
A: Bureaucratic Control
A: matsuri
This is the term that depicts an ideal society.
A: Utopia
The West Africa-Nsukka Group aims to revive the ___ art of the Igbo tribe.
A: uli
This began in the middle of the 18th century and is associated with modern era.
A: European Enlightenment
Which of the following is not a theme of British literature?
A: postmodernism
This expresses the inner life and psychology of humans.

A: surrealism
A: Dystopia's conflict mostly revolves around the beliefs held by the people in the society
The English term of the movement of literature which promotes surrealism.
A: avant-grande
The Hunger Games trilogy by Suzanne Collins: "The nation of Panem, formed from a post-apocalyptic
North America, is a country that
consists of a wealthy Capitol region surrounded by 12 poorer districts. Early in its history, a rebellion led
by a 13th district against the
Capitol resulted in its destruction and the creation of an annual televised event known as the Hunger
Games. In punishment, and as a
reminder of the power and grace of the Capitol, each district must yield one boy and one girl between
the ages of 12 and 18 through a
lottery system to participate in the games. The 'tributes' are chosen during the annual Reaping and are
forced to fight to the death, leaving
only one survivor to claim victory."
A: Bureaucratic Control
This holds the ruling power during the American Revolution.
A: elite
Queen Victoria died after only ten years of being a queen.
A: false
A: bricolage
BAED-ENGL2121 21st Century Literature from the Philippines and the World (Week 20)
ENGL-121-20172S EXAM WEEK20 GRADE 11
- yokai
- entente cordiale
- t'ien
popular.
-Kisa Gotami
-Yajur Veda
The characteristic of existence which refers to selflessness.
-Anatta
Shinto became the main religion in Japan during the ____period.
-meiji
- Magic Realism
This term refers more to art/literature that defies logic with the supernatural.
-Magic Realism
-Ofuda
of the universe.
-Chung Yung
This consists of three books on the Rites of Propriety
- Li Ching
enlightenment.
-lying
Rakshasas are most commonly called
-maneaters
-True
-dukkha
-shih ching
The main principle of Confucianism is ____which means humaneness or benevolence.
- ren
- Modernity
The___River is one of the longest rivers in Asia extending to 3,180 kilometers.
-Indus
-Mamori
The people who have been subjected to bad karma cannot find their way to Nirvana.
-False
Indian Literature is often described as illogical.
-true
-Modern
-seated under the pipal tree
-Right Thought
The____religion believes that we planned our lives with God.
- Youruba
-Amaterasu
-Happiness
the___group are composed of writers, painters and artists that aim to revive the Uli art of the Igbo tribe.
-Nsukka
- Meng Tzu
This depicts the tragedy of something broken.
-Modernism
Adolf Hitler, head of the Nazis used the ____or lightning war in conquering Poland.
- blitzkrieg
Confucianism is characterized by a highly _____ view of human nature.
- optimistic
Adolf Hitler, head of the Nazis used the ____ in conquering Poland.
A: lightning war
-Moksha
-False
The Spanish conquistador who defeated the Aztecs in 1521.
- Herman Cortes
-true
The Indians have ____ identities of the god
-300
- negritude
The Indians believe that knowing and believing are nearly the same.
-false
I Ching or the Classic of Changes is a collection of texts on divination based on a set of ____ hexagrams
that reflect the relationship
between Yin and Yang in nature and society.
- 64
- australians
metaphors.
- modernismo
What is the existing goal of the Ramayana?

-dharma
A way to achieve God which depends on how you act.
-bakhti
-Vaisya
The _____ movement initiated the emerging of daring and confrontational themes.
- Vanguardia
– Amaterasu
- Ofuda
- Right Thought
popular.
- Kisa gotami( sabi nila yan daw 😂 😂)
.-Moksha
-Li Ching
-Bakhti
-Dukkha
-Mamori
-Yajur Veda
-anatta
-Australians
- vanguardia
-Negritude
T’ien
The positive and personal force in the universe, according to Confucius is ___.
A: T’ien
reflect the relationship between Yin
and Yang in nature and society.
- 64

Herman Cortes
of the universe.
Chung Yung
ren
metaphors.
Modernismo
Panchatantra
Which of these refers to the collection of 300 poems and songs from the early Chou Dynasty? Shih Ching
Vaisya
False
Meng Tzu
Magic realism
Japanese term referring to nature. Kigo
Maneaters
This term refers more to art/literature that defies logic with the supernatural
surealism
Confucianism is characterized by a highly Answer optimistic
postmodern
Blitzkrieg
enlightenment?
Lying
group are composed of writers, painters and artists that aim to revive the Uli art of the Igbo tribe.
Nsukka
True
happiness
Modernity
True
entente cordiale
Indus
300.
~Takahashi sensei
BAED-PEDH2112 Physical Education & Health G11B (Week 1-9)
In badminton, the grip should be neither tight nor loose but firm and pliant, loosening as the swing
progresses.
Select one:
True
False
Badminton can be played in both singles and doubles.
Select one:
True
False
The ball used in table tennis is fragile but quite hard to break.
Select one:
True
False
Another name for a shuttlecock.
Select one:
a. bird
b. ball
c. cock
d. shutter
The net in badminton must be made of fine cord of light color and thickness with a mesh of not less than
20mm.
Select one:
True
False
The ____ shot is used rarely but effectively. It is a and downward swing. (table tennis)
Select one:
a. drive
b. smash
c. serve
d. drop
The overall dimension of a badminton racket cannot exceed 26 3/4 inches in length, 9 inches in width
and 11 inches in head length.
Select one:
True
False
The official badminton court for a game of singles is:
Select one:
a. 40ft long x 22ft wide
b. 44ft long x 22ft wide
c. 44ft long x 17ft wide
d. 40ft long x 17ft wide
When the bird touches the top of the net and falls in the proper side of the court, it is called ____.
Select one:
a. clear
b. fault
c. let
d. drop
This refers to the single layer of cellular rubber in the paddle of the table tennis racket located
underneath the rubber surface.
Select one:
a. padding
c. sponge
d. rubber
Which of the following is not a part of a badminton racket?
Select one:
a. stringed area
b. face
c. frame
d. head
e. throat
f. handle
In badminton, any stroke made on the side of the body opposite the racket side.
Select one:
a. Forehand
b. Backhand
c. Match
d. Drive
e. Clear
In badminton, this term refers to loss of service.
Select one:
a. let
b. hand-out
c. love
d. fault
Badminton was said to be similar to what game?
Select one:
a. tennis
b. table tennis
c. none of the choices
d. battledore
The grip wherein the forefinger and thumb reach over the shoulders of the blade, with the other fingers
spread over the back. (table tennis)
Select one:
a. western grip
b. handshake grip
c. penhold grip
d. eastern grip
In badminton, ___ is the stroke used to initiate play and used to begin each point in the match.
Select one:
a. smash
b. service
c. play
d. drive
This refers to the line running parallel to the net in the badminton court.
Select one:
a. short base line
b. short service line
c. long service line
d. base line
The variable length of feathers in a shuttlecock.
Select one:
a. 64mm to 70 mm
b. 65mm to 75mm
c. 58mm to 68mm
d. 25mm to 28mm
The shot in which the bird follows the net in a short flight. (badminton)
Select one:
a. Drop
b. Rally
c. Setting the Game
d. Fault
e. Net flight
A defensive stroke where the ball is struck with a downward and forward motion with a short chopping
motion. (table tennis)
Select one:
a. smash shot
b. push shot
c. top spin serve
d. chop stroke
e. drop shot
The ____ governs the promotion and development of badminton in the Philippines.
Select one:
a. Philippine Badminton Federation
b. Badminton Association of the Philippines
c. Association of Badminton in the Philippines
This refers to the flat shot that is kept as low as possible to have the opponent run from side to side.
(badminton)
Select one:
a. Net shot
b. Smash
c. Drive
d. Overhand stroke
e. Drop shot
___ are used as defensive stroke in badminton to allow the player time to return to the ready position
and regroup and to move the
opponent as far away from the net as possible.
Select one:
a. clears
b. backhands
c. hand-outs
d. faults
The two types of shuttlecocks are the feathered and the ___.
Select one:
a. synthetic
b. plastic
c. recreational
d. authentic
Which of the following is not considered a fault?
Select one:
a. If in play, shuttle lands nearly on boundary lines and fails to go past the net or touches the ceiling or
walls
b. If server misses the shuttlecock
c. If service is not correct
d. If a player misbehaves or repeated misconduct during the game
Table tennis has been included as an event in local athletic sport meets.
Select one:
True
False
Which Olympic host country was badminton presented as a demonstration sport?
Answer:
germany
Singles serve and receive in the
right
service court. (table tennis)
The ball resting on the palm of the free hand and toss it around six or more inches in height, letting it
bounce on the table side of the server
before passing by the net and bounce in the receiver's side of the table. (table tennis)
Select one:
a. push shot
b. drop shot
c. top spin serve
d. smash shot
e. chop stroke
How many points must a player get to win a badminton game?
Answer: 21
The net in badminton should be 720mm in depth and at least 6.1m wide.
Select one:
True
False
This refers to a good service but unable to hit or touch with the racket. (badminton)
Select one:
a. Clear
b. Fault
c. Drive
d. Ace
e. Bird
The ____ is small, celluloid, spherical, white or orange in color, 40mm in diameter and 2.5g in weight.
Select one:
a. paddle
b. sponge
c. none of the choices
d. ball
In India, Badminton was known as ____.
Answer: Poona
Matches in table tennis can get up to what number?

Answer: 7
Color of boundary lines in badminton courts.
Answer: White or yellow
Reaching 40 points is also called
match
. (tennis)
The tennis court for a singles game must be
17
feet wide
At the event of a forehand stroke, the racket head must be at
hip leve
to point opposite the right hip. (tennis)
Major Walter Wingfield introduced the game Answer
Playing
which the racket game originated from. (tennis)
In a doubles game of tennis, all players may have the chance to serve the ball.
Select one:
a. True
b. False
The backswing in the
One-ha
technique starts from the ready position, with the feet facing the net. The player steps forward using the
right
foot and meet the ball early for the backhand execution. (tennis)
Answer : One-handed backhand
Tennis was used to be played by using the palm of the hand.

Select one:
True
False
Winning 3 out of 5 sets is considered a
w inner
. (tennis)
Feet are turned
sidew a
in preparation for a backhand stroke. (tennis)
This refers to chasing how many points to play when the score becomes tied in 13-all or 14-all.
(badminton)
A: setting the game
In doubles, the receiving side may change depending on the serving team's score. (table tennis)
A: true
Badminton was said to be similar to what game?
A: battledore
The shot in which the bird follows the net in a short flight. (badminton)
A: net flight
___ are used as defensive stroke in badminton to allow the player time to return to the ready position
and regroup and to move the
opponent as far away from the net as possible.
A: clears
Hungary and Czechoslovakia are some of the countries that dominated the table tennis international
competitions.
A: true
The official badminton court for a game of singles is:
A: 44ft long x 17ft wide

Table tennis originated on December 1890.
A: false
The ____ governs the promotion and development of badminton in the Philippines.
A: Badminton Association of the Philippines
The grip wherein the forefinger and thumb reach over the shoulders of the blade, with the other fingers
spread over the back. (table tennis)
A: penhold grip
20mm.
A: false
A defensive stroke where the ball is struck with a downward and forward motion with a short chopping
motion. (table tennis)
A: chop stroke
Scoring used in table tennis is called
A: love
The first player in badminton to reach ___ points wins a game.
A: 21
The ball is in play from the moment it is projected from the hand in service. (table tennis)
Which of the following statements is not true about table tennis?
A: A good stance in serving the ball is that the shoulder of the non-racket hand is parallel to the net in
the backhand position.
Singles serve and receive in the right service court
The Premier International Men's Team Thomas Cup was established in 1948. (badminton)
This refers to the single layer of cellular rubber in the paddle of the table tennis racket located
underneath the rubber surface.
A: sponge
How many, at the most, are the sets in one match? (table tennis)
A: 5
The meaning of IBF.
A: international badminton federation
The number of feathers fixed in the base of a shuttlecock.
A: 16
The ball is not in play anymore if it has been struck by either play at least once. (table tennis)
A: false
The variable length of feathers in a shuttlecock.
A: 64mm to 70 mm
The overall dimension of a badminton racket cannot exceed 26 3/4 inches in length, 9 inches in width
and 11 inches in head length.
A: false
This refers to the line running parallel to the net in the badminton court.
A: short service line
In badminton, the grip should be neither tight nor loose but firm and pliant, loosening as the swing
progresses.
A: false
In badminton, this term refers to loss of service.
A: hand-out
20mm.
A: false
The ____ is small, celluloid, spherical, white or orange in color, 40mm in diameter and 2.5g in weight.
A: ball
stroke refers to the act of striking the ball with the racket. (tennis)
When the points reach 40-40, it is called a deuce
Occasionally move your body forward with a swing as it will direct the flight of the ball. (tennis)
A: false
Major Walter Wingfield introduced the game playing ball
A score that means zero. (tennis)
A: love
The backhand stroke is used in baseline rallies. (tennis)
Answer : backhand
How many games are there in one set? (tennis)
A: 6
What does Paume mean?
A: palm
The game is won if one of the player gets four points. (tennis)
A: true
Winning 3 out of 5 sets is considered a winner
The most popular grip in tennis.
A: eastern grip
The length of the tennis court is 78 feet
backswing must be executed with an extended arm and firm wrist. (tennis)
eastern grip allows extremely wide reach and maximum power with minimum effort. (tennis)
Two points in tennis is equal to 30 points
technique, eastern forehand grip is used for the left hand (for right-handed players) and continental grip
for right hand (if the player is lefthanded). (tennis
A: two-handed backhand
For the forehand stroke, the player may choose to reach for the incoming ball. (tennis)
A: false
The server's score is always first. (tennis)
A: true
Tennis was used to be played by using the palm of the hand.
A: true
The least practiced tennis stroke.
A: backhand stroke
One-handed backhand technique starts from the ready position, with the feet facing the net. The player
steps forward using the right foot
and meet the ball early for the backhand execution. (tennis)
The most prestigious tennis tournament is the Wimbledon
______ refers to the move of hitting the ball in a high arc. (tennis
A: LOB
______ is seldom used because of the limited stroke production and awkward grip. (tennis)
A: western grip
The tennis court for a singles game must be
A: 27
in preparation for a backhand stroke. (tennis)
A: sideways
The base of the shuttlecock must be:
A: 25 to 28mm
in a western grip stroke. (tennis)
A: downward motion
Full extension of the arm and racket will minimize the line of the shot in a backhand stroke. (tennis)
A: false
In a doubles game, the tennis court is 36
In a doubles game, the players must maintain their
A: parallel
Where did badminton originate from an old and similar game?

A: india
This refers to the flat shot that is kept as low as possible to have the opponent run from side to side.
(badminton)
A: drive
Correct ____ and footwork is needed in playing table tennis.
A: stance
____ is the basic offensive shot in badminton.
A: smash
20mm.
A: false
Table tennis has been included as an event in local athletic sport meets.
A: true
Table tennis can only be played indoors.
A: false
In badminton, any stroke made on the side of the body opposite the racket side.
A: backhand
These are shots struck on the side away from the racket (left side for the right-handed and right side for
the left-handed). (badminton)
A: backhand stroke
The post of the badminton net should be ___ meters in height.
A: 1.55
Table tennis is also known as ___.
A: ping pong
Correct gripping is the most vital factor in badminton and winning matches.
A: true
If the serving team commits a fault,

A: side-out
Double games are played up to
A: 21
Up to how many feathers does a standard shuttlecock have?
A: 16
The ____ grip is done by gripping the short handle of the racket very closely to the blade, wherein the
forefinger is positioned behind the
blade for support. (table tennis)
A: handshake
When the bird touches the top of the net and falls in the proper side of the court, it is called ____.
A: let
The ball used in table tennis is fragile but quite hard to break.
A: true
At a game where both players reach 40 points each, one player must win at least one point over the
other to win. (tennis)
A: false
In a doubles game of tennis, all players may have the chance to serve the ball.
A: true
Reaching 40 points is also called
A: match point
At the event of a forehand stroke, the racket head must be at
A: hip level back
The ______ requires a strong wrist to be effective. (tennis
A: continental forehand
The hands and racket is highly used in taking the racket back for a backhand stroke. (tennis)
A: true
power is generating from the speed and velocity of the forward and upward movements of arms, legs
and body. (tennis
A: forward swing
The tennis tournament in the USA is called the
A: US open
This refers to a good service but unable to hit or touch with the racket. (badminton)
A: ace
A serve made by a quick flip of wrist and bird travels in a direct line to the desired spot. (badminton)
A: drive serve
service is always from the right service court to the opponent's right service court. (table tennis
A: first
The badminton court is longer for a doubles game.
A: false
The badminton racket should be
A: 9
If the player served when the opponent is not ready, it is considered a
A: let
Which of the following describes the net of a table tennis table?
A: light in texture, stretched across the center of the table and attached to the outside by vertical
standards
In table tennis, both players change ends once one reaches 15 points.
A: false
Another name for a shuttlecock.
A: bird
The net in badminton should be 720mm in depth and at least 6.1m wide.
A: false
The tennis ball is ______ in color
A: bright yellow
The receiver must return the serve on its
A: first
Players change ends after every even-numbered game. (tennis)
A: false
The ball resting on the palm of the free hand and toss it around six or more inches in height, letting it
bounce on the table side of the server
before passing by the net and bounce in the receiver's side of the table. (table tennis)
A: push shot
is delivered by projecting the ball from the free hand and the projection starts from above the playing
surface. (table tennis
A: service
When was the first Badminton association formed?
A: 1899
The ____ shot is used rarely but effectively. It is a vicious forward and downward swing. (table tennis)
A: smash
If the player's freehand touches the playing surface while in play, the point is awarded to the ____.
(table tennis)
A: opponent
shuttles are used for recreational badminton games
A: synthetic
A student of court tennis who introduced the game "Playing Ball"
A: Major walter wingfield
Players alternate in serving the ball every other game. (tennis)
A: true
Balls with worn-off fuzz become

A: very light
BAED-PEDH2112 Physical Education & Health G11B (Week 10)
True or False. If the statement is true, write the word True. If False, write False and replace the
underlined word with the correct term. Note that
the system accepts an exact answer. Wrong spelling is considered wrong. For example: Q: Whales are
reptiles. A: False - mammals In executing
forehand strokes, the left foot and left shoulder should approximately towards the table. (badminton)
A: False - Backhand
A player scores 21 points. (table tennis)
A: set
underlined word with the correct term. Note
that the system accepts an exact answer. Wrong spelling is considered wrong. For example: Q: Whales
are reptiles. A: False - mammals At
score 20-20 or "deuce," the player changes after every serve. (badminton)
A: True
are reptiles. A: False - mammals A
game of badminton is won by the player who first scores 21 points.
A: True
A player won 2 out of 3 sets. (table tennis)
A: match
are reptiles. A: False - mammals
The International Table Tennis Federation was established in 1936.

A: False - 1926
An entire play from service until ball is dead. (tennis)
A: rally
The table tennis ball is made of celluloid and is white in color.
A: True
An illegal action wherein the player hits the ball before it bounces. (table tennis)
A: volley
The linesman announces the score of the players. (badminton)
A: False - umpire
The stroke used in returning a high shot and in which arm and shoulder are fully extended. (badminton)
A: overhand stroke
Reaching over the net to hit a bird is a fault. (badminton)
A: true
The ball should bounce first on the server's court after service. (table tennis)
A: true
All shots are played with the body at right angle to the net. (tennis)
A: true
single game is played by two players in each court.
A: False - one
The act of striking the ball with a racket. (tennis)
A: stroke
The stroke used in returning the bird from the left side of the body. (badminton)
A: backhand stroke
A hard horizontal stroke that is straight and close to the net. (badminton)
A: drive
are reptiles. A: False - mammals In
the next game of table tennis, the winning player of the first game may choose to serve first.
A: True
A rally which is not scored and being replayed. (tennis)
A: let
The measurement of the playing table of table tennis.
A: 2.74 m x 1.52 cm
Badminton was first organized in India.
A: true
An attacking shot made with all the power and speed one can put into it. (badminton)
A: smash
The stroke used in returning the bird from right side of the body. (badminton)
A: forehand stroke
A good serve that the opponent is unable to hit or touch with his racket. (badminton)
A: ace
The penhold grip is executed by grasping the racket as if to shake hands with it. (table tennis)
A: False - eastern/ handshake/ shakehand/ shakehands/ true (wrong)
Any infraction of the rules resulting in loss of the serve or the point. (table tennis)
A: fault
An outer bird is light in weight and is a sphere of cork covered with white hide. (badminton)
A: False - shuttlecock
What move is illustrated in the picture?
A: backhand
table tennis game is started with a toss of a coin.
A: True
9/10
A low shot close to the net made from back court that fails or drops sharply immediately after crossing
net. (badminton)
A: drop
The British introduced badminton to our country.
A: False - Badminton Association of the Philippines/ true (wrong)
A: backhand
A bird which touches top of the net and falls in the proper side of the court. (badminton)
A: let
A ball bouncing near the net.
A: short
player gains a point if he fails to make a good return.
A: false - loses
are reptiles. A: False - mammals At
the start of a new game, the player who serves first in the previous game becomes the receiver. (table
tennis)
A: true
match shall consist of the best of five out of five games. (badminton)
A: False - three
drive serve is made by a quick flip of wrist and bird travels in a direct line to the desired spot.
(badminton)
A: true
What grip is illustrated in the picture?
A: western grip
9/10
A: two-handed backhand
To put the bird in play. (badminton)
A: serve
player is allowed to touch the table while playing. (table tennis)
A: False - not allowed
The server serves the ball with open palm. (table tennis)
A: true
Half volley is a main offensive stroke. (table tennis)
A: false - defensive
Table tennis is also known as pingpong.
A: true
Change of service takes place after either player reaches 8 points throughout the game. (table tennis)
A: true
Hitting the ball in a high arc.
A: lob
refers to the point won by a server in tennis.
A: Advantage
The height of the net in the playing surface from the floor. (table tennis)
A: 76 cm
BAED-PEDH2112 Physical Education & Health G11B (Week 11-19)
Which of the following is not a symptom of weight loss?
A: lack of sufficient sleep
You must net at or below your BMR in terms of caloric intake.
A: FALSE
True or False: A 35000 calorie excess or deficit for a person meeting his assumptions, would lead to the
gain or loss, respectively of one
pound of body weight.
A: false
makes up lean muscle mass.
A: Protein
The term referring to the activity level use of little or no exercise.
A: sedentary
One of the simplest aerobic exercises in which your intensity varies to match your fitness level.
A: Walking
True or False: Rare latency periods vary from three days to two weeks after ingestion.
A: false
Bone loss increases as part of the natural ageing process.
A: true
Total energy expenditure is computed by adding 100% of the calories for activity
A: strenuous
diets are also referred to as balanced percentage diets.
A: low-calorie
Aerobic exercises starts with
A: BREATHING
years occur from age 5 to 18.
A: bone building
The American College of Sports Medicine recommends a minimum daily calorie intake of 1,200 for men.
A: FALSE
Unintentional weight loss occuring because of an inadequately nutritious diet relative to a person's
energy needs.
A: malnutrition
True or False: Weight gain is associated with excessive consumption of fats, sugars and refined
carbohydrates.
A: true
The cause of this disease-related malnutrition is poor appetite.
A: impaired intake
are microscopic sacs where oxygen enters into the blood.
A: ALVEOLI
True or False: Adults of all ages are advised to spare at least 75 minutes of rigorous exercise every week.
A: TRUE
The disease-related malnutrition which is caused by changes to metabolic demands caused by illness,
surgery and organ dysfunction.
A: altered requirements
True or False: Depression is also a contributing factor to increase in weight.
A: True
True or False: Children are advised to take at least one hour of physical activity a day.
A: true
The other term for fat.
A: adipose tissue
True or False: Intentional weight loss is the loss of total body mass as a result of efforts to improve
fitness and health or to change
appearance through slimming.
A: True
The heart has the ability to decrease in size, slow and eventually fail.
A: true
BMR increases as you age.
A: false
Aerobic exercises become anaerobic exercises if performed at a level of intensity that is lower.
A: false
state means that the digestive system is inactive which requires twelve hours of fasting.
A: post-absorptive
Lean muscle tissue requires more calories than other tissues.
A: true
The amount of oxygen the muscles extract, or consume from the blood.
A: oxygen consumption
True or False: All medications can potentially cause weight gain or loss.
A: FALSE
facilitates fermentation of indigestible carbohydrates to short-chain fatty acids, SCFAs, contributing to

weight gain.
A: MICROBIOTA
A type of aerobic exercise that is a good choice for people who are greater than 50 pounds overweight
as it helps the heart without the
mechanical stress on some parts of the body.
A: Cycling
A volume of blood sent with every beat of the heart.
A: stroke volume
BMR decreases with the loss of lean body mass.
A: true
This is calculated from age, gender, weight, height and the activity factor.
A: total energy expenditure
The oxygen is filtered through small branches of tubes called
A: bronchioles
The amount of energy expended while at rest in a neutrally temperate environment, in the post-
absorptive state.
A: basal metabolic rate
Hard exercise/sports for 6 to 7 days a week is a
A: very active
BMR increases if there is an increase in muscle mass.
A: true
Skipping meals to lose weight improves your BMR.
A: false
True or False: Social networks contribute to weight gain.
A: True
True or False: Our muscles use fat and carbohydrates to function.
A: true
The average woman weighed ___ pounds in 1994.
A: 147
An average healthy adult inhales and exhales 7 to 8 liters of air per hour
A: true
True or False: Depression is also a contributing factor to increase in weight.
A: true
Which of the following is not a gentle exercise routine?
A: walking
Cycling may be too strenuous to be enjoyable and depends on the person's capability to use the bicycle.
A: false
Conditions such as burns can be associated to this problem such as skin exudates.
A: Excess nutrient losses
It is recommended by dieticians to consume Vitamin D as supplementation to prevent weight gain.
A: false
The American College of Sports Medicine recommends a _____ daily caloric intake of 1,200 for women
and 1,800 for men.
A: minimum
Basal Metabolic Rate is the amount of energy expended while at rest in a highly temperate
environment.
A: false
Improving reflexes is one of the advantages of playing badminton. Which of the following benefits
apply?
A: develop athleticism
cholesterols decrease the size of blood vessels, increasing the risk of heart attacks and stroke.
A: bad
Which of the following is not one of the levels of the body that should be taken care of or given extra
precautions?
A: arms and legs
Total Energy Expenditure is calculated by adding 100% calories to the BEE for moderate activity.
A: false
The lean muscle tissue requires less calories than others.
A: False
These are microscopic sace where oxygen enters the blood.
A: alveoli
Playing badminton also builds and exercises the quads, glutes, calves and hamstrings. What advantage is
this?
A: increased muscle tone
exercise is an activity that causes you to be quickly out of breath.
A: anaerobic
Lack of sufficient sleep is a cause of weight gain.
A: true
Playing badminton can reduce or eliminate the risk of health problems such as high blood presure and
heart disease, among others. What
advantage is this?
A: good for overall health
The air we breathe contains approximately
A: 20
People with osteoporosis must avoid exercise altogether as it may further damage their already fragile
bones.
A: false
Eating restrictions often from treatment or lack of food are some of the causes of this problem.
A: Impaired intake
People with knee or hip problems should avoid this as it can put extra stress on the joints.
A: Stair Climbers and Steppers
Which of the following components is not included in the computation for the Total Energy Expenditure.
A: Endurance
Running games is still recommended for bone-loss years.

A: false
The cause of this problem are because of symptoms such as vomiting or diarrhea.
A: Excess nutrient losses
Basal Energy Expenditure refers to the amount of calories burned by the human body in one day.
A: false
Playing badminton reduces the risk of death by about 30 percent.
A: false
Weight loss that is said to be unexplained if it is not caused by reduction in calorific intake or exercise is
called
A: cachexia
Interactions while playing badminton will result in positive feelings. What advantage is this?
A: social health
Aerobic exercises are also called cardioexercises that require pumping of oxygenated blood by the heart
to deliver oxygen to working
muscles.
A: true
Which of the following is not a gastrointestinal disorder often contributing to unexplained weight loss?
A: pancreatic cancer
The term for the activity level use that requires extremely hard exercise/sports or physical job and twice
more training.
A: extremely active
This term refers to the acceleration, one of the known benefits of playing badminton.
A: glutei
As your metabolism slows, it becomes harder to eat normal amounts of calories without gaining weight.
A: true
Playing badminton decreases the level of bad cholesterol.
A: true
Which of the following is the only good cholesterol in our body?
A: high-density lipoprotein
The basal heart rate reduces to a few beats per minute while blood pressure rises in playing badminton.
A: false
Playing badminton decreases the liver's production of sugar. What advantage of playing badminton is
this?
A: decrease diabetes
The BMR calculator gives the maximum number of calories you should eat on a daily basis.
A: false
Healthy individuals seeking to maintain their weight should consume an average of 2,000 caleries daily.
A: true
Playing badminton lubricates the joints, eventually preventing arthritis. What advantage of playing
badminton is this?
A: mobility
This machine requires above-average coordination to master.
A: Ski machines
The release of energy in the post-absorptive state is sufficient only for the functioning of the vital
organs.
A: true
Achieving weight loss through playing badminton alone is possible.
A: false
Medications can cause both weight gain and weight loss.
A: true
For a beginner in swimming, the recommended time of activity is 30 to 60 minutes to achieve desired
results.
A: false
Badminton is allowed for both adults and children, of any age.

A: true
It helps improve communication between old and young people.
A: Offers a social outlet
An increase in motor skills and cognitive awareness.
A: Keeps your brain sharp
The player works out a solution for puzzles involving the speed, spin and placement of the ball.
A: Develops mental acuity
Tennis players tend to be more optimistic and to have greater self-esteem.
A: Boosts mood
The player uses strategic planning to return the ball to the opponent.
A: Stimulates various different parts of the brain
Aerobics and cycling burns more calories than tennis.
A: false
is the ability of the brain to change based on an experience or environmental factors.
A: plasticity
is a protein that promotes neuron growth and survival.
A: brain-derived neurotrophic factor
One of the physical reasons for playing tennis associated with overall fitness and resistance to disease of
a player's body.
A: immune system
Tennis takes patience and dedication.
A: Improves discipline and social skills
Playing tennis increases oxygen intake and heart rate.
A: Improved aerobic and anaerobic health
A physician dubbed ping pong/table tennis as " world's best brain “sport for being highly aerobic and the
use of brain in planning and
executing shots.
A: world's best brain
It has been proven that the risk of death for tennis players are half than usual.
A: true
It helps the player in following the ball's trajectory as it moves.
A: Improves coordination
One of the psychological reasons to play tennis associated with adapting to stress and ongoing to
recovery.
A: learn how to recover
Singles tennis can make players lose around 400-600 calories per hour.
A: Burns calories and fat
An example of neurotransmitter that is related to mood, appetite, sleep and memory.
A: serotonin
Identify the advantage of playing Table Tennis being described: Improving leg, arm and core strength in
standard mode.
A: It's easy on the joints
One of the psychological reasons to play tennis associated with learning to adjust to the elements and
still have the ability to compete.
A: manage adversity
An example of neurotransmitter that is related to stress response.
A: norepinephrine
One of the physical reasons for playing tennis associated with short intense bursts of activity during a
point followed by rest which helps
muscles use oxygen efficiently.
A: anaerobic fitness
An hour of playing can help reduce the calories.
A: Burns calories
Tennis requires 300 to 500 bursts of energy per match.
A: Great cross-training for other sports
The part of the brain that a game of ping pong stimulates which is responsible for allowing us to form
and retain long term facts and events.
A: hippocampus
Bursts of exertion and recovery.
A: Improves reflexes
One of the psychological reasons to play tennis associated with the ability to create strategies based on
knowledge of geometry and
physics.
A: learn to solve problems
One of the physical reasons for playing tennis associated with court movement and ball-striking skills
requiring control of the body's large
muscle groups.
A: gross motor control
Tennis involves planning, tactical thinking, agility and the coordination of parts of the body.
A: Boosts brain power
One of the physical reasons for playing tennis associated with hundreds of starts, stops, changes of
direction and hitting on the run.
A: dynamic balance
are vital chemicals that regulate various brain functions.
A: neurotransmitters
is a troublesome illness caused by bones losing density due to complex interactions between the body
hormones, bone forming and bone
dissolving cells.
A: osteoporosis
A psychological reason for playing tennis exhibited by the ability of a doubles team to form a cohesive
unit.
A: learn teamwork
A physical reason for playing tennis exhibited by burning fat and improving cardiovascular fitness.
A: aerobic fitness
This is referred to as the second most popular organized sport in the world.
A: table tennis
Playing badminton may cause heart attacks.
A: false
A psychological reason for playing tennis exhibited by anticipation of an opponent's moves and planning
counterattacks.
A: plan and implement strategies
People with hypertension are encouraged to play badminton that slows their basal heart rate.
A: true
The neurotransmitter responsible for mood, appetite, sleep and memory.
A: serotonin
Which of the following muscles is not trained by playing badminton?
A: Pectineus
A physical reason for playing tennis exhibited by constantly judging the timing between the oncoming
ball and the proper contact point.
A: eye-hand coordination
helps lubricate joints, preventing arthritis and similar conditions from developing
A: mobility
Brain-derived Neurotrophic Factor (BDNF) promotes ____ growth and survival.
A: neuron
A physical reason for playing tennis exhibited by hundreds of starts, stops, changes of direction, and
hitting on the run.
A: dynamic balance
Table tennis technique executions are often quick-paced problem solving challenges.
A: true
An average person can burn 272 calories in playing table tennis.
A: true
Table tennis is highly anaerobic.
A: false
Coordination helps because it can give you a wider range of motion, help prevent injuries and reduce
muscle strain.
A: false
A physical reason for playing tennis exhibited by a series of side-to-side and up and back sprints to chase
the ball.
A: speed
Tennis helps maintain aerobic health, allowing muscles to use oxygen in a better way.
A: false
Playing badminton improves longevity by at least 5 years.
A: false
The cerebellum is the part of the brain that lights up when doing any voluntary movement.
A: false
Playing badminton burns fat at approximately 300 calories per hour.
A: false
A study has proven that playing badminton can reduce the production of sugar.
A: true
Ping pong has a relatively low injury risk.
A: true
A psychological reason for playing tennis exhibited by proper control of the pace of the play.
A: develop discipline
Aside from being a great aerobic workout, playing table tennis is also a good exercise
A: cardiovascular
A physical reason for playing tennis exhibited by forcing on the player change of direction for at least 5
times in 10 seconds.
A: agility
Exercise increases which are referred to as the brain's feel-good neurotransmitters.
A: endorphins
Advanced cardiac tests are required before playing a round of badminton for people from the age of 35
and above. Which of the following
parts of the body must the player take extra precaution of?
A: sensory
The ability of the brain to change based on an experience or environmental factors.
A: brain plasticity
BAED-PEDH2112 Physical Education & Health G11B(Week 20)
Intentional weight loss is referred to as
A: slimming
Which of the following is an intentional weight loss technique?
A: Increased physical activity
refers to the wasting of the body due to chronic illness.
A: cachexia
Identify if the activity is anaerobic or aerobic exercise.
soccer
A: anaerobic exercise
An advantage in playing individual/dual sports exhibited by side-to-side and up and back sprints used in
chasing the ball.
A: speed
swimming
A: aerobic exercise
When the adipose tissue increases, a person loses weight.
A: false
One of the causes of this problem is poor quality of meals consumed.
A: impaired intake
exercises refer to activities that are performed while standing up, often using the power of your feet and
legs.
A: weight-bearing
table tennis
A: aerobic exercise
Being fat was once accepted as being financially rich.
A: true
sit-ups
Which of the following is not a goal of an aerobic exercise program?
A: repetitive use of all muscle groups
The neurotransmitter affecting response to stress.
A: norepinephrine
Iron is what makes up lean muscle mass.
A: false
The only good cholesterol in our body is the
A: high-density lipoprotein
badminton
bench press
An advantage in playing individual/dual sports exhibited by the use of touch shots like angled volleys,
drop shots and lobs.
A: fine motor control
The Basal Metabolic Rate calculates the:
A: number of calories you'd burn while motionless for a day
The focus of swimming is on:
A: smaller upper body musculature
jogging
A: aerobic exercise
These factors affect the exact number of calories a person needs for a day.
A: age and height
refers to the amoung ot oxygen the muscles extract or consume from the blood.
A: oxygen consumption
gives the player a wider range of motion and can help prevent injuries and reduce muscle strain.
A: flexibility
sprinting
Walking
A: aerobic exercise
Playing badminton regularly decreases levels of HDL cholesterol.
A: false
skiing
A: aerobic exercise
squats
triathlons
A: aerobic exercise
cycling
A: aerobic exercise
The part of the brain that gives birth to new brain cells until adulthood.
A: hippocampus
An advantage in playing individual/dual sports exhibited by the accurate estimate of the oncoming ball
and the contact point on the court.
A: eye-hand coordination
zumba
A: aerobic exercise
exercises refer to activities that require muscles to work harder than normal.
A: muscle-strengthening
Lean muscle tissue requires as much calories as other tissues.
A: false
Cycling is especially recommended for people with:
A: arthritis
Table tennis causes only few injuries on the head.
A: true
These are muscles used for accelerations in playing badminton.
A: glutei
tennis
weightlifting
An advantage in playing individual/dual sports exhibited by learning to adjust to the elements.
A: the ability to manage adversity
Tennis is known to be a ______ activity well-suited to building strong bones.
A: weight-bearing
push-ups
dancing
A: aerobic exercise
jumping
The release of energy in the post-absorptive state is enough for the functioning of the heart, lungs and
brain only.
A: false
One of the causes of this problem is diarrhea and vomiting.
A: excess nutrient losses
hiking
A: aerobic exercise
BAED-PHSC2112 Physical Science (Week 1-10)
1.What do you call the solid formed when a liquid solution is allowed to stand still for a long amount of
time.
ans. Precipitate
2.What is the proper term for catalysts involved in biological processes?
ans.Enzymes
3.What is the term for the energy responsible for the variations in the reaction rates of chemical
processes?
answer:activation energy
4.What property of a material describes the compactness of the arrangement of its molecules?
ans.Density
5.Identify the kind of change wherein the product is the same as the reactants.
ANWER:physical change
6.In which type of covalent bonding are the shared electrons shared congruently throughout the
molecule? answer:nonpolar
7.What do you call the ability of a substance to chemically combine with other compounds?
answer:Reactivity
8.Fill in the blank: The ______
property of a substance can be observed without changing the substance. answer:physical

9.What type of covalent compound is there a slight difference in the electric charge between the
opposite sides of the molecule? answer:polar covalent
compound
10.Identification: This factor in a reaction rate is a consequence of the kinetic energy of the reactant
molecules? wrong answer ako dito.
11.What kind of chemical bond involves the sharing of electrons between two atoms? answer:covalent
bond
12.What is the component of a chemical reaction that is present at its start? answer:reactant
13.Identification: Two different atoms may or may not have this type of covalent bonding. answer:polar
covalent bonding
14._____ covalent bond does not have an equal sharing of electrons. answer.Polar
15.What kind of change results to the production of a material that is entirely different from the
reactants? answer:chemical change
16.Identification: This is another term used to refer to covalent compounds. answer:molecular

compound
17.Identification: This refers to the speed of a chemical process. answer:reaction rate
18.Which atom is more positive than the other in a molecule of dihydrogen oxide? answer: hydrogen
atom
19.Identification: These compounds are highly soluble in water. answer:ionic compounds
20.Identification: These properties can be detected using your senses. answer:Physical properties
21.What type of compound is formed by the sharing of electrons? answer:Covalent compound
22.covalent bonding exists between two identical atoms. answer: nonpolar
23.Identification: This is the force that exists between the molecules of a compound. answer:
Intermolecular force
24.What is the term for the property that makes it capable of being hammered into thin sheets?
answer:malleability
25.In a water molecule, which atom is more frequented by the shared electrons? answer:oxygen
26.Identify the substance that hastens chemical reactions? answer:catalyst
27. In a ______
type of covalent bonding, there is equal sharing of electrons between the atoms. answer: nonpolar
28.What type of covalent bonding is characterized by the incongruent sharing of electrons between the
atoms? answer:polar
29.Which reaction rate factor is due to the amount of reacting substances? answer: concentration
30.Identification: This compound is formed by a cation and an anion. answer:ionic compound
Short Quiz 8:PHYSC
c-Joshua Ardeza
1. Also known as the revolution of the Earth around the sun
Answer: ANNUAL MOTION
2. Ancient constellations related to Earth’s annual motion
Answer: ZODIAC
3. Center in Ptolemaic system of the universe
Answer: EARTH
4. Center of the universe in the Copernican system
Answer: SUN
5. Earth’s movement that results to the observation of diurnal motion
Answer: ROTATION
6. Event when the sun crosses the Celestial Equator
Answer: EQUINOX
7. Line on Earth that is parallel to apparent daily paths
Answer: CELESTIAL EQUATOR
8. Main factor in the precession of equinoxes
Answer: GRAVITY
9. More common term for the annual motion of the Earth
Answer: REVOLUTION
10. Type of observable motion associated with heavenly bodies

Answer: DIURNAL MOTION
Learning Activity 8 (Physics)
Slow and continuous change in the orientation of an astronomical body’s rotational axis
Answer:
Axial precession
Periodic observable motion that results from the Earth’s motion on its axis
Answer:
diurnal motion
Center of the universe in Ptolemy’s model
Answer:
Earth
Motion of the Earth around the sun
Answer:
revolution
Motion of the Earth responsible for diurnal motion
Answer:
rotation
Long Quiz 3:PHYSC
c-Joshua Ardeza
1. Identify the center in the universe model Copernicus.
Answer: SUN
2. Identify the date of the year when the Earth is at its closest from the Sun.
Answer: PERIHELION
3. Identify the main factor in the precession of equinoxes.
Answer: GRAVITY
4. Identify the shape of the planetary orbit based on Kepler’s third law.
Answer: ELLIPSE
5. Identify the universe’s center in Ptolemy’s model.
Answer: EARTH
6. Name the line on Earth that is parallel to apparent daily paths.
7. Name the star blamed by the Greeks for the intensity of their summer
Answer: SIRIUS
8. This ancient device aligns with the North Star and is used to determine the precise time of its user’s
location.
Answer: ASTROLABE
9. This model is the combination of two ancient models of the universe.
Answer: TYCHONIC
10. This model of the universe considered the ideas of the Earth- and Sun-centered universe models.
Anwer: TYCHONIC
11. This motion is also called the revolution of the Earth around the sun.
12. This structure was developed by the Mayans as they observed Venus.
Answer: CARACOL
13. What do you call Earth’s movement that results to the observation of diurnal motion?
Answer: ROTATION
14. What do you call the ancient constellations that are related to Earth’s annual motion?
Answer: ZODIAC
15. What do you call the event when the sun crosses the Celestial Equator?
Answer: EQUINOX
16. What do you call the motion of the Earth that is responsible for diurnal motion?
Answer: ROTATION
17. What is the center in Ptolemaic system of the universe?
Answer: EARTH
18. What is the center of the universe based on the model by Ptolemy?
Answer: EARTH
19. What is the center of the universe in the Copernican system?
Answer: SUN
20. What is the constant quantity in the universe model by Kepler?
Answer: AREA SPEED
21. What is the more common term for the annual motion of the Earth with respect to the sun?
Answer: REVOLUTION
22. What is the oldest heavenly body that has been observed and has preceded great events in history?
Answer: HALLEY’S COMET
23. What is the periodic observable motion that is the result of the Earth’s movement on its axis?
24. What is the term that refers to the motion of the Earth around the sun?
Answer: REVOLUTION
25. What is the term that refers to the slow and continuous change in the orientation of an astronomical
body’s rotational axis?
Answer: AXIAL PRECESSION
26. What is the universe model that is said to be Sun-centered?
Answer: COPERNICAN
27. What is this type of observable motion that is associated with heavenly bodies?
28. What property of a planet has this property directly proportional to the cube of the semi-major axis
of its orbit?
Answer: ORBITAL PERIOD
29. Where is the Sun located with respect to a planet’s elliptical orbit
Answer: FOCAL POINT
30. Which model of the universe is said to be Earth-centered?
Answer: PTOLEMAIC
Learning Activity 9:PHYSC
c-Joshua Ardeza
1. Aligns with the North Star to determine precise time for user’s location
Answer: ASTROLABE
2. Combination of two ancient models of the universe
Answer: TYCHONIC
3. Developed by the Mayans for the observation of Venus
Answer: CARACOL
4. Earth-centered system of the universe
Answer: PTOLEMAIC
5. Sun-centered system of the universe
Answer: COPERNICAN
Short Quiz 9:PHYSC
c-Joshua Ardeza
1. Center in the model of the universe proposed by Copernicus
Answer: SUN
2. Center of the universe based on the model proposed by Ptolemy
Answer: EARTH
3. Considered the ideas of the Earth- and Sun-centered universe model
Answer: TYCHONIC
4. Constant quantity in the universe model by Kepler
Answer: AREA SPEED
5. Date of the year when the Earth is closest to the Sun
Answer: PERIHELION
6. Location of the Sun with respect to the elliptical orbit based on Kepler’s laws
Answer: FOCAL POINT
7. Oldest heavenly body observed that has preceded great events in history
8. Planet property whose square is directly proportional to the cube of the semi-major axis of its orbit
9. Shape of the orbit based on Kepler’s third law
Answer: ELLIPSE
10. Star blamed by Greeks for the intensity of summer
Answer: SIRIUS
c-Joshua Ardeza
1. Constant in the motion of a falling body in vacuum
Answer: ACCELERATION
2. Description of the change in the rate of movement of a body
3. Indirect force resulting from the application of a force
Answer: REACTION
4. Necessary component of motion according to Aristotle
Answer: FORCE
5. Property of a body that affects its state of motion

Answer: INERTIA
Short Quiz 10:PHYSC
Aside from changing the state of motion of a body, this is also an effect of applying an unbalanced force
to the body.
Answer:
ACCELERATION
Which can be easily affected by an unbalanced force: one cube of ice or one sack of rice?
Answer:
ONE SACK OF RICE
This law implies the importance of balanced forces and what unbalanced forces are.
Answer:
LAW OF INTERACTION
Which will accelerate more when the same unbalanced force is applied: pencil or cabinet?
Answer:
CABINET
This law of motion relates the rate of change in the movement of a body and the unbalanced force that
it experiences.
Answer:
LAW OF ACCELERATION
Which law of motion states that a body will not change its current state of motion unless an unbalanced
force acts upon it?
Answer:
LAW OF INERTIA
If you push the wall with an amount of force, you supply the action force. What is the source of the
reaction force?
Answer:
WALL
What factor of a body that is at rest prevents it from moving?
Answer:
INERTIA
What is the only factor that is constant for bodies falling in a vacuum?
Answer:
ACCELERATION
Which of these has a greater inertia: fly or cat?
Answer:
cats
c-Joshua Ardeza
1. Constant in a body as long as no net force acts upon it
Answer: VELOCITY
2. Decreases as acceleration increases in Newton’s law of acceleration
Answer: MASS
3. Force involved in Newton’s Law of Universal Gravitation
Answer: GRAVITATIONAL FORCE
4. Statement based on repeated experimental observations
Answer: LAW
5. Statement taken to be true since what it proposes is already evident
Answer: AXIOM
Short Quiz 11:PHYSC
c-Joshua Ardeza
1. According to Galileo, this quantity is not needed to keep a body in motion under ideal conditions.
Answer: FORCE
2. Describe the total amount of energy of a body before it falls from a height and as it hits the ground.
Answer: EQUAL
3. In the law of acceleration, which quantity decreases as the acceleration decreases?
Answer: FORCE
4. This is also known as the “inertia in motion” of a body.
Answer: MOMENTUM
5. This kind of statement is considered true since it has been based on a series of observations.
Answer: LAW
6. What do you call a statement that is taken as true without scientific evidence?
Answer: AXIOM
7. What happens to energy as it is used up by different systems?
Answer: TRANSFORMED
8. What happens to the magnitude of the gravitational force as the bodies become more massive?
Answer: INCREASES
9. What happens to the magnitude of the gravitational force as the distance between two bodies
increase?
Answer: DECREASES
10. What term do you use to refer to the amount of material contained by a body?
Answer: MASS
Short Quiz 12:PHYSC
c-Joshua Ardeza
1. Consider the formula for momentum. What quantity increases with the velocity of a body?:
Momentum; Velocity; Inelastic; Force; Mass; Elastic;
Energy
Answer: Momentum
2. If a body has no momentum, what else does it not have?: Elastic; Inelastic; Force; Momentum; Mass;
Velocity; Energy
Answer: Velocity
3. In the formula for momentum, this quantity decreases as the body moves slower.: Elastic; Mass;
Energy; Momentum; Force; Velocity; Inelastic
Answer: Mass
4. In this type of collision, this factor is not necessarily conserved.: Energy; Elastic; Velocity; Force;
Inelastic; Mass; Momentum
Answer: Energy
5. This quantity describes how difficult it is to stop a moving body.: Inelastic; Velocity; Momentum;
Force; Energy; Mass; Elastic
Answer: Momentum
6. This quantity enables bodies to move so that they would collide.: Mass; Energy; Elastic; Force;
Velocity; Inelastic; Momentum
Answer: Energy
7. What SI quantity is directly related and directly proportional to the mass of a body?: Inelastic;
Momentum; Velocity; Elastic; Energy; Force; Mass
Answer: Momentum
8. What type of collision is involved between two bodies that show a spark of light after colliding:
Momentum; Force; Inelastic; Mass; Elastic; Energy;
Velocity
Answer: Inelastic
9. Which type of collision involves the constant sum of total kinetic energy before and after the
collision?: Momentum; Velocity; Mass; Elastic; Force;
Energy; Inelastic
Answer: Elastic
10. Which will stop first when these two bodies collide: truck or bicycle?
Answer: BICYCLE
c-Joshua Ardeza
1. Collision that involves the conversion of energy into other forms outside the colliding bodies
Answer: INELASTIC
2. Factor responsible for the movement of the bodies that are about to collide
Answer: ENERGY
3. Not necessarily conserved between colliding bodies
Answer: ENERGY
4. Quantity conserved in any collision
Answer: MOMENTUM
5. Type of collision wherein the total kinetic energy is constant before and after the collision
Answer: ELASTIC
Short Quiz 13:PHYSC
c-Joshua Ardeza
1. Consider the wave equation. Which quantity increases with the frequency of the wave?: Absorption;
Latitudinal; Index of Refraction; Longitudinal;
Wavelength; Refraction; Electron; Photon; Transverse; Energy; Mirror; Speed; Dispersion
Answer: Speed
2. In light, this is what the photons carry enabling them to move.: Wavelength; Energy; Mirror; Photon;
Longitudinal; Dispersion; Electron; Speed;
Transverse; Index of Refraction; Absorption; Refraction; Latitudinal
Answer: Energy
3. In the wave equation, this quantity is inversely proportional to the frequency of the wave.:
Absorption; Mirror; Electron; Latitudinal; Longitudinal;
Energy; Speed; Photon; Refraction; Index of Refraction; Dispersion; Wavelength; Transverse
Answer: Wavelength
4. Name the component of light that travels in straight lines.: Index of Refraction; Longitudinal;
Transverse; Absorption; Latitudinal; Energy; Electron;
Refraction; Mirror; Photon; Dispersion; Wavelength; Speed

Answer: Photon
5. This constant determines how much light will bend as it enters a different medium.: Electron;
Refraction; Photon; Latitudinal; Mirror; Speed; Index of
Refraction; Transverse; Absorption; Longitudinal; Dispersion; Wavelength; Energy
Answer: Index of Refraction
6. This phenomenon of light is the evidence of the energy possessed by light.: Absorption; Photon;
Energy; Dispersion; Electron; Mirror; Speed;
Longitudinal; Transverse; Wavelength; Latitudinal; Index of Refraction; Refraction
Answer: Absorption
7. This wave is produced by the disturbance of the molecules nearby its source.: Latitudinal; Absorption;
Mirror; Photon; Wavelength; Index of
Refraction; Electron; Speed; Dispersion; Longitudinal; Transverse; Refraction; Energy
Answer: Longitudinal
8. What is the optical device that is used to show the bouncing of light?: Latitudinal; Speed; Index of
Refraction; Wavelength; Electron; Dispersion;
Transverse; Absorption; Mirror; Photon; Refraction; Energy; Longitudinal
Answer: Mirror
9. What kind of wave is light?: Index of Refraction; Speed; Photon; Mirror; Absorption; Refraction;
Energy; Speed; Transverse; Electron; Dispersion;
Longitudinal; Transverse; Wavelength; Latitudinal
Answer: Transverse
10. What kind of wave is represented by a sine wave?: Dispersion; Transverse; Index of Refraction;
Refraction; Mirror; Energy; Longitudinal; Electron;
Absorption; Photon; Latitudinal; Speed; Wavelength
Answer: Transverse
--ccto
Learning Activity 13: PHYSC
c-Joshua Ardeza
1. Optical device that demonstrates bending of light
Answer: LENS
2. Particle of light that carries its energy
Answer: PHOTON
3. Path of light that makes it understood to be a particle
Answer: STRAIGHT LINE
4. Wave that can propagate even without molecules
Answer: TRANSVERSE
5. Wave that cannot exist in vacuum
Answer: LONGITUDINAL
c-Joshua Ardeza
1. Bending of light around an edge causing umbra and penumbra in the shadow
Answer: DIFFRACTION
2. Deflection of light along its path
Answer: SCATTERING
3. Phenomenon of light wherein light waves add up
Answer: INTERFERENCE
4. Phenomenon of separation of light into different colors
Answer: DISPERSION
5. Type of mirror that shows an inverted image of you
Answer: CONCAVE
Short Quiz 14:PHYSC
What exists between two charges in space?
Select one:
- Electrostatic force
This phenomenon of light explains how light shows different colors after passing through a prism.
Select one:
-Dispersion
This type of mirror shows a virtual image of the object.
Select one:
-Convex
What do you call a displaced image of an object as the result of the bending of light rays?
Select one:
-Mirage
According to Faraday, what is produced by a changing magnetic field?
Select one:
- Induced voltage
What principle explains why it is impossible to determine experimentally both the position and the
speed of an electron at the same time?
Select one:
-Heisenberg's uncertainty principle
How do electron orbits look like as a consequence of the uncertainty principle?
Select one:
- Electron clouds
What type of mirror shows your image in an inverted manner?
Select one:
-Concave
What can electric current produce along a wire?
Select one:
- Magnetic field
What phenomenon of light is utilized to identify the wavelength of a given light ray?
Select one:
- Dispersion
c-Joshua Ardeza
1. Hertz applied high voltage AC electricity across the central spark gap of the transmitter creating
sparks.: True; False
Answer: False
2. What digital storage oscilloscope circuit compensates for high sampling rates of high frequency
signals?: charged-couple device; analog to digital
converter
Answer: charged-couple device
3. What test equipment combines the operation of many test instruments into a single compact unit.:
Impedance meter; Communication service
monitor
Answer: Communication service monitor
4. When using forward error control as a method of error correction, where does error correction take
place?: in the oscillator; receiving end
Answer: receiving end
5. What part of the pulse code modulation (PCM) process converts a continuous time signal into a
discrete time signal?
Answer: Sampling
Short Quiz 15:PHYSC
Hertz found that when sparks flew across the main gap, sparks also usually glow across the secondary
gap that is between points A and B in the image.
Select one:
- True
According to Hertz, he pictured waves of electric charge moving back and forth, creating a standing
wave within the wire.
Select one:
- True
When reading the forward power on a wattmeter, what does two right-facing arrow heads mean?
Select one:
- Power exceeds 120 percent of the range
What are the two main types of photodetectors? (separate your answers with the word "and")
Answer:
-Positive intrinsic photodiode AND negative intrinsic photodiode
In November 1886, Heinrich Hertz became the first person to transmit and receive controlled radio
waves.
Select one:
-True
If the interference can be eliminated by disconnecting the receiving antenna, the source of the
disturbance is most likely
Select one:
- External to the radio
What initial nuclear radiation components generate electromagnetic pulses? (separate your answers
with the word "and")
Answer:
-Gamma rays AND neutrons
Who discovered radio waves?
Answer:
-Heinrich Hertz
What pattern simulator section of the bit error rate test set accepts a 48-bit parallel word and generates
a serial pattern?
Select one:
-48-bit transmitter only
Hertz started generating radio waves using a piece of electrical equipment called an induction coil.
Select one:
-True
Short Quiz 16:PHYSC
c-Joshua Ardeza
1. As measured in any inertial frame of reference, light is always propagated in empty space with a
definite velocity that is independent of the state of
motion of the emitting body.: False; True
Answer: True
2. Maxwell’s equations are not consistent with Galilean relativity unless one postulates the existence of
a physical aether.: True; False
Answer: True
3. The laws of physics are the same in all inertia frames of reference.: True; False
Answer: True
4. The postulates of special relativity can be expressed very succinctly using the mathematical language
of pseudo-Riemmannian manifolds: True; False
Answer: True
5. What is the correct expression for the amplitude of a vibrating mass? Amplitude is the: Maximum
velocity of the mass during vibration; Maximum
displacement of the mass from the rest position
Answer: Maximum displacement of the mass from the rest position
6. Which of the following is not a term associated with periodic waves?: Frequency; How much space is
occupied
Answer: How much space is occupied
7. Which of the following sound wave can be heard by the human ear?: Ultrasonic sound waves; Sound
waves with frequencies between 20 hz and
20,000 hz
Answer: Sound waves with frequencies between 20 hz and 20,000 hz
8. It combines special relativity with the equivalence principle.
Answer: General relativity
9. It is the succession of methods by which astronomers determine the distances to celestial objects.
Answer: Cosmic distance ladder
10. Known as the “dwarf planet”
Answer: Pluto
L.A 16:PHYSC
Vibrations
Select one:
- Can sometimes be sensed
Special relativity is a theory.
Select one:
- True
States that the net force acting on a body is equal to that body’s (inertia ) mass multiplied by its
acceleration.
Select one:
-Newton's Second Law of Motion
According to this law there is a universality of free fall. The trajectory of a test body in free fall depends
only on its position and initial speed.
Answer:
-Newton's Law of Gravity
Which of the following must be satisfied for a vibration to be simple harmonic motion? The restoring
force of the vibrating object is
Select one:
-
-Opposite to and proportional to a displacement
It is the passage of electromagnetic radiation through a medium.
Select one:
Answer: Transmission
This Kepler's law states that the line joining the planet to the sun sweeps out equal areas in equal times
as it moves along its orbit.
Select one:
Answer: Second law
Which of Newton's laws states that an object either remains at rest or continuous to move at a constant
velocity, unless acted upon by a force?
Select one:
Answer: First law
Galileo looked at the Sun and found out that it had spots.
Answer: True
Mercury and Venus are never more than 200 and 450, respectively, from the Sun.
Answer: False
The Aristotelian view of the world made the certain basic assumption that the Earth is a sphere, fixed,
and unmoving at the center of the universe.
Answer: False
BAED-PHSC2112 Physical Science Week (11-20)
1.What do you call the solid formed when a liquid solution is allowed to stand still for a long amount of
time.
ans. Precipitate
2.What is the proper term for catalysts involved in biological processes?
ans.Enzymes
3.What is the term for the energy responsible for the variations in the reaction rates of chemical
processes?
answer:activation energy
4.What property of a material describes the compactness of the arrangement of its molecules?
ans.Density
5.Identify the kind of change wherein the product is the same as the reactants.
ANWER:physical change
6.In which type of covalent bonding are the shared electrons shared congruently throughout the
molecule? answer:nonpolar
7.What do you call the ability of a substance to chemically combine with other compounds?
answer:Reactivity
8.Fill in the blank: The ______
property of a substance can be observed without changing the substance. answer:physical
9.What type of covalent compound is there a slight difference in the electric charge between the
opposite sides of the molecule? answer:polar covalent
compound
10.Identification: This factor in a reaction rate is a consequence of the kinetic energy of the reactant
molecules? wrong answer ako dito.
11.What kind of chemical bond involves the sharing of electrons between two atoms? answer:covalent
bond
12.What is the component of a chemical reaction that is present at its start? answer:reactant
13.Identification: Two different atoms may or may not have this type of covalent bonding. answer:polar
covalent bonding
14._____ covalent bond does not have an equal sharing of electrons. answer.Polar
15.What kind of change results to the production of a material that is entirely different from the
reactants? answer:chemical change
16.Identification: This is another term used to refer to covalent compounds. answer:molecular

compound
17.Identification: This refers to the speed of a chemical process. answer:reaction rate
18.Which atom is more positive than the other in a molecule of dihydrogen oxide? answer: hydrogen
atom
19.Identification: These compounds are highly soluble in water. answer:ionic compounds
20.Identification: These properties can be detected using your senses. answer:Physical properties
21.What type of compound is formed by the sharing of electrons? answer:Covalent compound
22.covalent bonding exists between two identical atoms. answer: nonpolar
23.Identification: This is the force that exists between the molecules of a compound. answer:
Intermolecular force
24.What is the term for the property that makes it capable of being hammered into thin sheets?
answer:malleability
25.In a water molecule, which atom is more frequented by the shared electrons? answer:oxygen
26.Identify the substance that hastens chemical reactions? answer:catalyst
27. In a ______
type of covalent bonding, there is equal sharing of electrons between the atoms. answer: nonpolar
28.What type of covalent bonding is characterized by the incongruent sharing of electrons between the
atoms? answer:polar
29.Which reaction rate factor is due to the amount of reacting substances? answer: concentration
30.Identification: This compound is formed by a cation and an anion. answer:ionic compound
Short Quiz 8:PHYSC
c-Joshua Ardeza
1. Also known as the revolution of the Earth around the sun
2. Ancient constellations related to Earth’s annual motion
Answer: ZODIAC
3. Center in Ptolemaic system of the universe
Answer: EARTH
4. Center of the universe in the Copernican system
Answer: SUN
5. Earth’s movement that results to the observation of diurnal motion
Answer: ROTATION
6. Event when the sun crosses the Celestial Equator
Answer: EQUINOX
7. Line on Earth that is parallel to apparent daily paths
8. Main factor in the precession of equinoxes
Answer: GRAVITY
9. More common term for the annual motion of the Earth
Answer: REVOLUTION
10. Type of observable motion associated with heavenly bodies
Learning Activity 8 (Physics)
Slow and continuous change in the orientation of an astronomical body’s rotational axis
Answer:
Axial precession
Periodic observable motion that results from the Earth’s motion on its axis
Answer:
diurnal motion
Center of the universe in Ptolemy’s model
Answer:
Earth
Motion of the Earth around the sun
Answer:
revolution
Motion of the Earth responsible for diurnal motion
Answer:
rotation
Long Quiz 3:PHYSC
c-Joshua Ardeza
1. Identify the center in the universe model Copernicus.
Answer: SUN
2. Identify the date of the year when the Earth is at its closest from the Sun.
Answer: PERIHELION
3. Identify the main factor in the precession of equinoxes.
Answer: GRAVITY
4. Identify the shape of the planetary orbit based on Kepler’s third law.
Answer: ELLIPSE
5. Identify the universe’s center in Ptolemy’s model.
Answer: EARTH
6. Name the line on Earth that is parallel to apparent daily paths.
7. Name the star blamed by the Greeks for the intensity of their summer
Answer: SIRIUS
8. This ancient device aligns with the North Star and is used to determine the precise time of its user’s
location.
Answer: ASTROLABE
9. This model is the combination of two ancient models of the universe.
Answer: TYCHONIC
10. This model of the universe considered the ideas of the Earth- and Sun-centered universe models.
Anwer: TYCHONIC
11. This motion is also called the revolution of the Earth around the sun.
12. This structure was developed by the Mayans as they observed Venus.
Answer: CARACOL
13. What do you call Earth’s movement that results to the observation of diurnal motion?
Answer: ROTATION
14. What do you call the ancient constellations that are related to Earth’s annual motion?
Answer: ZODIAC
15. What do you call the event when the sun crosses the Celestial Equator?
Answer: EQUINOX
16. What do you call the motion of the Earth that is responsible for diurnal motion?
Answer: ROTATION
17. What is the center in Ptolemaic system of the universe?
Answer: EARTH
18. What is the center of the universe based on the model by Ptolemy?
Answer: EARTH
19. What is the center of the universe in the Copernican system?
Answer: SUN
20. What is the constant quantity in the universe model by Kepler?
Answer: AREA SPEED
21. What is the more common term for the annual motion of the Earth with respect to the sun?
Answer: REVOLUTION
22. What is the oldest heavenly body that has been observed and has preceded great events in history?
23. What is the periodic observable motion that is the result of the Earth’s movement on its axis?
24. What is the term that refers to the motion of the Earth around the sun?
Answer: REVOLUTION
25. What is the term that refers to the slow and continuous change in the orientation of an astronomical
body’s rotational axis?
Answer: AXIAL PRECESSION
26. What is the universe model that is said to be Sun-centered?
Answer: COPERNICAN
27. What is this type of observable motion that is associated with heavenly bodies?
28. What property of a planet has this property directly proportional to the cube of the semi-major axis
of its orbit?
29. Where is the Sun located with respect to a planet’s elliptical orbit
Answer: FOCAL POINT
30. Which model of the universe is said to be Earth-centered?
Answer: PTOLEMAIC
c-Joshua Ardeza
1. Aligns with the North Star to determine precise time for user’s location
Answer: ASTROLABE
2. Combination of two ancient models of the universe
Answer: TYCHONIC
3. Developed by the Mayans for the observation of Venus
Answer: CARACOL
4. Earth-centered system of the universe

Answer: PTOLEMAIC
5. Sun-centered system of the universe
Answer: COPERNICAN
Short Quiz 9:PHYSC
c-Joshua Ardeza
1. Center in the model of the universe proposed by Copernicus
Answer: SUN
2. Center of the universe based on the model proposed by Ptolemy
Answer: EARTH
3. Considered the ideas of the Earth- and Sun-centered universe model
Answer: TYCHONIC
4. Constant quantity in the universe model by Kepler
Answer: AREA SPEED
5. Date of the year when the Earth is closest to the Sun
Answer: PERIHELION
6. Location of the Sun with respect to the elliptical orbit based on Kepler’s laws
Answer: FOCAL POINT
7. Oldest heavenly body observed that has preceded great events in history
8. Planet property whose square is directly proportional to the cube of the semi-major axis of its orbit
9. Shape of the orbit based on Kepler’s third law
Answer: ELLIPSE
10. Star blamed by Greeks for the intensity of summer
Answer: SIRIUS
c-Joshua Ardeza
1. Constant in the motion of a falling body in vacuum
2. Description of the change in the rate of movement of a body
3. Indirect force resulting from the application of a force
Answer: REACTION
4. Necessary component of motion according to Aristotle
Answer: FORCE
5. Property of a body that affects its state of motion
Answer: INERTIA
Short Quiz 10:PHYSC
Aside from changing the state of motion of a body, this is also an effect of applying an unbalanced force
to the body.
Answer:
ACCELERATION
Which can be easily affected by an unbalanced force: one cube of ice or one sack of rice?
Answer:
ONE SACK OF RICE
This law implies the importance of balanced forces and what unbalanced forces are.
Answer:
LAW OF INTERACTION
Which will accelerate more when the same unbalanced force is applied: pencil or cabinet?
Answer:
CABINET
This law of motion relates the rate of change in the movement of a body and the unbalanced force that
it experiences.
Answer:
LAW OF ACCELERATION
Which law of motion states that a body will not change its current state of motion unless an unbalanced
force acts upon it?
Answer:
LAW OF INERTIA
If you push the wall with an amount of force, you supply the action force. What is the source of the
reaction force?
Answer:
WALL
What factor of a body that is at rest prevents it from moving?
Answer:
INERTIA
What is the only factor that is constant for bodies falling in a vacuum?
Answer:
ACCELERATION
Which of these has a greater inertia: fly or cat?
Answer:
cats
c-Joshua Ardeza
1. Constant in a body as long as no net force acts upon it
Answer: VELOCITY
2. Decreases as acceleration increases in Newton’s law of acceleration
Answer: MASS
3. Force involved in Newton’s Law of Universal Gravitation
Answer: GRAVITATIONAL FORCE
4. Statement based on repeated experimental observations
Answer: LAW
5. Statement taken to be true since what it proposes is already evident
Answer: AXIOM
Short Quiz 11:PHYSC
c-Joshua Ardeza
1. According to Galileo, this quantity is not needed to keep a body in motion under ideal conditions.
Answer: FORCE
2. Describe the total amount of energy of a body before it falls from a height and as it hits the ground.
Answer: EQUAL
3. In the law of acceleration, which quantity decreases as the acceleration decreases?
Answer: FORCE
4. This is also known as the “inertia in motion” of a body.
Answer: MOMENTUM
5. This kind of statement is considered true since it has been based on a series of observations.
Answer: LAW
6. What do you call a statement that is taken as true without scientific evidence?
Answer: AXIOM
7. What happens to energy as it is used up by different systems?
Answer: TRANSFORMED
8. What happens to the magnitude of the gravitational force as the bodies become more massive?
Answer: INCREASES
9. What happens to the magnitude of the gravitational force as the distance between two bodies
increase?
Answer: DECREASES
10. What term do you use to refer to the amount of material contained by a body?
Answer: MASS
Short Quiz 12:PHYSC
c-Joshua Ardeza
1. Consider the formula for momentum. What quantity increases with the velocity of a body?:
Momentum; Velocity; Inelastic; Force; Mass; Elastic;
Energy
Answer: Momentum
2. If a body has no momentum, what else does it not have?: Elastic; Inelastic; Force; Momentum; Mass;
Velocity; Energy
Answer: Velocity
3. In the formula for momentum, this quantity decreases as the body moves slower.: Elastic; Mass;
Energy; Momentum; Force; Velocity; Inelastic
Answer: Mass
4. In this type of collision, this factor is not necessarily conserved.: Energy; Elastic; Velocity; Force;
Inelastic; Mass; Momentum
Answer: Energy
5. This quantity describes how difficult it is to stop a moving body.: Inelastic; Velocity; Momentum;
Force; Energy; Mass; Elastic
Answer: Momentum
6. This quantity enables bodies to move so that they would collide.: Mass; Energy; Elastic; Force;
Velocity; Inelastic; Momentum
Answer: Energy
7. What SI quantity is directly related and directly proportional to the mass of a body?: Inelastic;
Momentum; Velocity; Elastic; Energy; Force; Mass
Answer: Momentum
8. What type of collision is involved between two bodies that show a spark of light after colliding:
Momentum; Force; Inelastic; Mass; Elastic; Energy;
Velocity
Answer: Inelastic
9. Which type of collision involves the constant sum of total kinetic energy before and after the
collision?: Momentum; Velocity; Mass; Elastic; Force;
Energy; Inelastic
Answer: Elastic
10. Which will stop first when these two bodies collide: truck or bicycle?
Answer: BICYCLE
c-Joshua Ardeza
1. Collision that involves the conversion of energy into other forms outside the colliding bodies
Answer: INELASTIC
2. Factor responsible for the movement of the bodies that are about to collide
Answer: ENERGY
3. Not necessarily conserved between colliding bodies
Answer: ENERGY
4. Quantity conserved in any collision
Answer: MOMENTUM
5. Type of collision wherein the total kinetic energy is constant before and after the collision
Answer: ELASTIC
Short Quiz 13:PHYSC
c-Joshua Ardeza
1. Consider the wave equation. Which quantity increases with the frequency of the wave?: Absorption;
Latitudinal; Index of Refraction; Longitudinal;
Wavelength; Refraction; Electron; Photon; Transverse; Energy; Mirror; Speed; Dispersion
Answer: Speed
2. In light, this is what the photons carry enabling them to move.: Wavelength; Energy; Mirror; Photon;
Longitudinal; Dispersion; Electron; Speed;
Transverse; Index of Refraction; Absorption; Refraction; Latitudinal
Answer: Energy
3. In the wave equation, this quantity is inversely proportional to the frequency of the wave.:
Absorption; Mirror; Electron; Latitudinal; Longitudinal;
Energy; Speed; Photon; Refraction; Index of Refraction; Dispersion; Wavelength; Transverse
Answer: Wavelength
4. Name the component of light that travels in straight lines.: Index of Refraction; Longitudinal;
Transverse; Absorption; Latitudinal; Energy; Electron;
Refraction; Mirror; Photon; Dispersion; Wavelength; Speed
Answer: Photon
5. This constant determines how much light will bend as it enters a different medium.: Electron;
Refraction; Photon; Latitudinal; Mirror; Speed; Index of
Refraction; Transverse; Absorption; Longitudinal; Dispersion; Wavelength; Energy
Answer: Index of Refraction
6. This phenomenon of light is the evidence of the energy possessed by light.: Absorption; Photon;
Energy; Dispersion; Electron; Mirror; Speed;
Longitudinal; Transverse; Wavelength; Latitudinal; Index of Refraction; Refraction
Answer: Absorption
7. This wave is produced by the disturbance of the molecules nearby its source.: Latitudinal; Absorption;
Mirror; Photon; Wavelength; Index of
Refraction; Electron; Speed; Dispersion; Longitudinal; Transverse; Refraction; Energy
Answer: Longitudinal
8. What is the optical device that is used to show the bouncing of light?: Latitudinal; Speed; Index of
Refraction; Wavelength; Electron; Dispersion;
Transverse; Absorption; Mirror; Photon; Refraction; Energy; Longitudinal
Answer: Mirror
9. What kind of wave is light?: Index of Refraction; Speed; Photon; Mirror; Absorption; Refraction;
Energy; Speed; Transverse; Electron; Dispersion;
Longitudinal; Transverse; Wavelength; Latitudinal
Answer: Transverse
10. What kind of wave is represented by a sine wave?: Dispersion; Transverse; Index of Refraction;
Refraction; Mirror; Energy; Longitudinal; Electron;
Absorption; Photon; Latitudinal; Speed; Wavelength
Answer: Transverse
--ccto
Learning Activity 13: PHYSC
c-Joshua Ardeza
1. Optical device that demonstrates bending of light
Answer: LENS
2. Particle of light that carries its energy
Answer: PHOTON
3. Path of light that makes it understood to be a particle
Answer: STRAIGHT LINE
4. Wave that can propagate even without molecules
Answer: TRANSVERSE
5. Wave that cannot exist in vacuum
Answer: LONGITUDINAL
c-Joshua Ardeza
1. Bending of light around an edge causing umbra and penumbra in the shadow
Answer: DIFFRACTION
2. Deflection of light along its path

Answer: SCATTERING
3. Phenomenon of light wherein light waves add up
Answer: INTERFERENCE
4. Phenomenon of separation of light into different colors
Answer: DISPERSION
5. Type of mirror that shows an inverted image of you
Answer: CONCAVE
Short Quiz 14:PHYSC
What exists between two charges in space?
Select one:
- Electrostatic force
This phenomenon of light explains how light shows different colors after passing through a prism.
Select one:
-Dispersion
This type of mirror shows a virtual image of the object.
Select one:
-Convex
What do you call a displaced image of an object as the result of the bending of light rays?
Select one:
-Mirage
According to Faraday, what is produced by a changing magnetic field?
Select one:
- Induced voltage
What principle explains why it is impossible to determine experimentally both the position and the
speed of an electron at the same time?
Select one:
-Heisenberg's uncertainty principle
How do electron orbits look like as a consequence of the uncertainty principle?
Select one:
- Electron clouds
What type of mirror shows your image in an inverted manner?
Select one:
-Concave
What can electric current produce along a wire?
Select one:
- Magnetic field
What phenomenon of light is utilized to identify the wavelength of a given light ray?
Select one:
- Dispersion
c-Joshua Ardeza
1. Hertz applied high voltage AC electricity across the central spark gap of the transmitter creating
sparks.: True; False
Answer: False
2. What digital storage oscilloscope circuit compensates for high sampling rates of high frequency
signals?: charged-couple device; analog to digital
converter
Answer: charged-couple device
3. What test equipment combines the operation of many test instruments into a single compact unit.:
Impedance meter; Communication service
monitor
Answer: Communication service monitor

4. When using forward error control as a method of error correction, where does error correction take
place?: in the oscillator; receiving end
Answer: receiving end
5. What part of the pulse code modulation (PCM) process converts a continuous time signal into a
discrete time signal?
Answer: Sampling
Short Quiz 15:PHYSC
Hertz found that when sparks flew across the main gap, sparks also usually glow across the secondary
gap that is between points A and B in the image.
Select one:
- True
According to Hertz, he pictured waves of electric charge moving back and forth, creating a standing
wave within the wire.
Select one:
- True
When reading the forward power on a wattmeter, what does two right-facing arrow heads mean?
Select one:
- Power exceeds 120 percent of the range
What are the two main types of photodetectors? (separate your answers with the word "and")
Answer:
-Positive intrinsic photodiode AND negative intrinsic photodiode
In November 1886, Heinrich Hertz became the first person to transmit and receive controlled radio
waves.
Select one:
-True
If the interference can be eliminated by disconnecting the receiving antenna, the source of the
disturbance is most likely
Select one:
- External to the radio
What initial nuclear radiation components generate electromagnetic pulses? (separate your answers
with the word "and")
Answer:
-Gamma rays AND neutrons
Who discovered radio waves?
Answer:
-Heinrich Hertz
What pattern simulator section of the bit error rate test set accepts a 48-bit parallel word and generates
a serial pattern?
Select one:
-48-bit transmitter only
Hertz started generating radio waves using a piece of electrical equipment called an induction coil.
Select one:
-True
Short Quiz 16:PHYSC
c-Joshua Ardeza
1. As measured in any inertial frame of reference, light is always propagated in empty space with a
definite velocity that is independent of the state of
motion of the emitting body.: False; True
Answer: True
2. Maxwell’s equations are not consistent with Galilean relativity unless one postulates the existence of
a physical aether.: True; False
Answer: True
3. The laws of physics are the same in all inertia frames of reference.: True; False
Answer: True
4. The postulates of special relativity can be expressed very succinctly using the mathematical language
of pseudo-Riemmannian manifolds: True; False
Answer: True
5. What is the correct expression for the amplitude of a vibrating mass? Amplitude is the: Maximum
velocity of the mass during vibration; Maximum
displacement of the mass from the rest position
Answer: Maximum displacement of the mass from the rest position
6. Which of the following is not a term associated with periodic waves?: Frequency; How much space is
occupied
Answer: How much space is occupied
7. Which of the following sound wave can be heard by the human ear?: Ultrasonic sound waves; Sound
waves with frequencies between 20 hz and
20,000 hz
Answer: Sound waves with frequencies between 20 hz and 20,000 hz
8. It combines special relativity with the equivalence principle.
Answer: General relativity
9. It is the succession of methods by which astronomers determine the distances to celestial objects.
Answer: Cosmic distance ladder
10. Known as the “dwarf planet”
Answer: Pluto
L.A 16:PHYSC
Vibrations
Select one:
- Can sometimes be sensed
Special relativity is a theory.
Select one:
- True
States that the net force acting on a body is equal to that body’s (inertia ) mass multiplied by its
acceleration.
Select one:
-Newton's Second Law of Motion
According to this law there is a universality of free fall. The trajectory of a test body in free fall depends
only on its position and initial speed.
Answer:
-Newton's Law of Gravity
Which of the following must be satisfied for a vibration to be simple harmonic motion? The restoring
force of the vibrating object is
Select one:
-Opposite to and proportional to a displacement
BAED-PROG3111 Programming (Java) NCIII Part 1 (Week 1-9)
Started on Thursday, 28 December 2017, 1:20 PM
State Finished
Completed on Thursday, 28 December 2017, 1:39 PM
Time taken 19 mins 41 secs
Grade 8.00 out of 10.00 (80%)
Question 1
Complete
Question 2
Complete
Mark 1.00 out of 1.00
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Refer to the revision history below and decide whether the statement is TRUE or FALSE.
True or False: Major revisions on progress, budget and risk management were conducted in the second
version of
the document.
Answer:
Question 3
Complete
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Analyze the diagram below to answer. Fill in the blanks with the correct answer or categorize the causes
if they
are considered problems in Materials, Measurement, Method, People, Equipment or Environment.
Most of the programmers are not informed of the progress or status of the project. This is a Answer
problem.
When the program was written, some team mates are
talking too loud and distracted the others. This cause is
true people
categorized under _________________.
Some of the programmers were not present duringrequirements gathering, this cause is classified as a
_________________ problem.
Question 4
Complete
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The quality of a product is the responsibility of ____________________ in the workplace.

Select one:
a. HR staff
b. IT staff
c. Everyone
d. Admin staff
Question 5
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True or False: If you want to inform every one of events, memos and other announcements, use the
bulletin
board.
Answer:
Question 6
Complete
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True or False: Naming conventions are records of system activities arranged in chronological order for
documentary purposes.
Answer:
Question 7
Complete
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Which one of the following is a characteristic of mentoring?
Select one:
a. The focus is on inspiring respect for professional skills.
true false
b. The focus is on utilizing existing competencies.
c. The focus is on technical or professional development.
d. The focus is on realizing trainee’s potential skills.
Question 8
Complete
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True or False: It is fine to use strong or shocking colors for PowerPoint presentation slides.
Answer:
Question 9
Complete
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It is a means of facilitating relationships which also serves as a way for parties to consider what decisions
or
course of action they must make.
Select one:
false
a. Technical
b. Interpersonal
c. Boundaries
d. Feedback
e. Active listening
f. Communication
g. Interpretation
h. Channel
i. Negotiation
j. Empathy
Question 10
Complete
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True or False: Foreign co-workers having conversation issues with everyone in the office are better left
off on
their own.
Answer:
false
Complete
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Which one of the following DO NOT resolve diversity in the workplace?
Select one:
a. Creating a sense of equality by encouraging employees to voice out their opinions.

b. Conducting regular trainings to update company policies.
c. Involving all employees in the formulation and execution of company programs.
d. Rewarding only the skilled employees while scolding the other employees who perform poorly.
Question 2
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True or False: Through feedback, programmers can learn if the system or program has all the functions
and
features defined by the clients.
Answer:
Question 3
Complete
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if they
Due to a tight deadline, the programmers decided to write the code immediately without a plan. This
cause is
classified under Answer .
_________________ problem.
Question 4
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true measurement
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True or False: All team members must be doing their parts diligently for the success of the team’s
efforts.
Answer:
Question 5
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True or False: You can send the message in whatever format you like, since the receiver can just try to
interpret
and understand the message in any way.
Answer:
Question 6
Complete
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true false
Question text
This group of people is knowledgeable in software applications:

Select one:
a. Design engineer, development engineer, engineer, Quality Assurance Specialist, Tester
b. Analyst, engineer, data modeler, business analyst, computer engineer
c. Administrator, analyst, test engineer, tester
d. Designer or Engineer, Programmer or Analyst
Question 7
Complete
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Which among the following statements is TRUE?
Select one:
a. Encoding refers to the method of conveying the message, such as speaking, writing or gesturing.
b. The source is the information or subject matter of communication.
c. Feedback can be a useful reference when planning for communications in the future.
d. Encoding is the process by which the receiver interprets and understands the message.
Question 1
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This practice is a form of self-evaluation, where you think about what you did and learn what you can
from it. It
motivates you to do better next time you are faced with the same situation.
Select one:
a. Quality Control
b. Performance Appraisal
c. Reflective Behavior
d. Safety Programs
Question 2
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True or False: In identifying the problem, it should be specific and not broad or vague.
Answer:
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True or False: Presentations must be interesting, lively and engaging.
Answer:
Question 4
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It is a meeting where you receive and learn information and training on a specific subject.
Select one:
a. Exhibit
b. Business meeting
c. Seminar
true true
d. Meet and greet
Question 5
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True or False: You can do as you please in the workplace, just remember to show that you working hard
only
when the boss is around.
Answer:
Question 6
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True or False: Taking home of a little bit of office supplies will surely be ignored and won’t do much
harm to the
company.
Answer:
Question 7
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false false
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Referring to the figure below, determine if the statement is TRUE or FALSE.
The file for the second version of risk management is properly named.
Answer:
Question 8
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The following are all safety procedures that may be observed by a company, EXCEPT for:
Select one:
a. Conducting earthquake drills
b. Placing fire extinguishers within the workplace
c. Having a first aid kit at hand
false
d. Using faulty cable wiring all over the place
Question 9
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Effective monitoring can be done through the following, EXCEPT:
Select one:
a. Conducting investigations
b. Carrying out spot checks
c. Collecting office records
d. Completing safety inspections
Question 10
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Which one of the following practices will result to a proper presentation?
Select one:
a. Using slides with strong shocking background colors
b. Using font styles that are readable
c. Using pictures or images that are of no relevance to the presentation
d. Using font styles that are readable and Using pictures or images that are of no relevance to the
presentation
off on
their own.
A: False
Answer: true
only
Answer: false
True or False: Understanding everyone’s interest is the second step in the problem solving process. This
is when
you choose the optimal solution.
Answer: false
These kind of words or terms are often discouraged to be used during a presentation, especially if the
audience is
not that familiar with programming terms.
A: technical words
The first version of the risk management file should be named Risk Management V01.
A: true
It is the ability to understand another person’s point of view and opinions.
Select one:
a. Negotiation
b. Communication
c. Technical
d. Interpretation
e. Feedback
f. Active listening
g. Interpersonal
h. Empathy
i. Boundaries
j. Channel
True or False: Team building activities are important to further improve team interaction and
cooperation.
Answer:
Question 3
true
Complete
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True or False: Stick only to technical terms for your presentation. There is no need to give any simple
explanation
when you use technical terms.
Answer: false
Select one:
a. The focus is on technical or professional development.
c. The focus is on inspiring respect for professional skills.
version of
the document.
Answer: true
if they
problem.
or

Select one:
a. Interpretation
b. Interpersonal
c. Technical
d. Empathy
e. Active listening
f. Channel
g. Negotiation
h. Communication
i. Feedback
j. Boundaries
True or False: After finding out what the problem is, it is not time to identify the fundamental cause of
the
problem.
A:
methods
Who among the following can give feedback to an employee?
Select one:
a. All of the choices
b. Teammates
c. Colleagues
e. Superiors
The following are all part of the communication process, EXCEPT for one:
Select one:
a. Feedback
b. Source
c. Printing
d. Decoding
Select one:
a. IT staff
b. HR staff
c. Everyone
d. Admin staff
Question 2
Complete
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if they
One programmer, who is just a recent graduate, was assigned to do a big task. His colleagues are not
aware that
he doesn’t have the skills required. This falls under Answer .
_________________ problem.
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people
if they
The problem identified in the diagram is a buggy java Answer .
Question 4
Complete
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Select one:
a. The source is the information or subject matter of communication.
b. Encoding refers to the method of conveying the message, such as speaking, writing or gesturing.
Question 5
Complete
Equipment
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This Internet online resource allows the user to interact either as a learner or instructor.
Select one:
Answer: udemy
Question 6
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Answer:
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true
Question text
Expertise in using the Internet and Internet-based services, handling computer hardware, computer
operation
and maintenance, and troubleshooting computer systems are some examples of

____________________ skills.
Select one:
a. Technical
b. Soft
c. Business
d. All of the choices
Question 8
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Answer:
Question 9
Complete
false
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Select one:
a. Placing fire extinguishers within the workplace
b. Having a first aid kit at hand
c. Conducting earthquake drills
Question 10
Complete
Question 2
Complete
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This refers to how people make sense of, understand or perceive something.
Select one:
a. Boundaries
b. Technical
c. Communication
d. Interpretation
e. Channel
f. Active listening
g. Empathy
h. Interpersonal
i. Negotiation
j. Feedback
Question 3
Complete
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operation

____________________ skills.
Select one:
b. Soft
c. Business
d. Technical
Question 4
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True or False: Employees should be encouraged to take on career paths that not only develop their
skills, but also
improve their performance in the work that they do.
Answer:
Question 5
true
Complete
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Select one:
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Select one:
a. The focus is on realizing trainee’s potential skills.

d. The focus is on technical or professional development.
Question 7
Complete
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Select one:
a. Meet and greet
b. Exhibit
c. Seminar
d. Business meeting
Question 8
Complete
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Select one:
a. Having a first aid kit at hand
b. Using faulty cable wiring all over the place
d. Placing fire extinguishers within the workplace

Question 9
Complete
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This refers to face-to-face communication between two or more people.
Select one:
a. Negotiation
b. Interpretation
c. Feedback
d. Active listening
e. Technical
f. Communication
g. Empathy
h. Interpersonal
i. Channel
j. Boundaries
Question 10
Complete
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True or False: Evaluating the options require determining the advantages and disadvantages of each
option.
Answer:
Started on Friday, 5 January 2018, 6:50 PM

State Finished
Completed on Friday, 5 January 2018, 6:58 PM
true
Grade 10.00 out of 10.00 (100%)
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Complete
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or
Select one:
a. Communication
b. Technical
c. Empathy
d. Boundaries
e. Active listening
f. Negotiation
g. Interpersonal
h. Interpretation
i. Channel
j. Feedback
Question 2
Complete
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the
problem.
Answer:
Question 3
Complete
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True or False: In naming files, provide simple and short names that could easily be understood by
everyone.
Answer:
Question 4
Complete
true true
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The final copy of the project charter is properly named.
Answer:
Question 5
Complete
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____________________ is a formal meeting where people are gathered to discuss topics that revolve
around
their same interests.
Select one:
a. Concert
b. Seminar
c. Workshop
d. Conference
false
Question 6
Complete
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Answer covers quality, service and delivery of the goods or services from the vendor to the client.
Question 7
Complete
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In the workplace, ______________ is all about the level of work performance required in completing a
task.
Select one:
a. Standard
b. Feedback
c. Values
d. Goal
Question 8
value
Complete
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from it. It
Select one:
a. Reflective Behavior
b. Safety Programs
c. Quality Control
d. Performance Appraisal
Question 9
Complete
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True or False: Memos, also known as memorandum, are distributed for people working in the same
organization
or company.
Answer:
Question 10
Complete
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True or False: Always use readable fonts in presentations.
Answer:
Question 8
Complete
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audience is
Select one:
a. Channel
b. Interpersonal
true true
c. Negotiation
d. Interpretation
e. Technical
f. Feedback
g. Active listening
h. Communication
i. Boundaries
j. Empathy
Question 9
Complete
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Some of the famous computer professional networks are:
Select one:
a. Philippine Computer Society
b. Computer Society of the Philippines
c. Philippine Computer Society and VIP International Unite
d. Computer Society of the Philippines and Philippine Computer Society
e. Computer Society of the Philippines and VIP International Unite
f. VIP International Unite
g. All of the choices
h. None of the choices
Question 10
Complete
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Answer is considered a personal type of written communication and it includes postcards and written
letters.
True or False: Communicating with internal and external clients is important for programmers.
Answer: true
This is one way to measure success rate not onlyyour communication, but also to evaluate your work.
Select one:
a. Feedback
b. Communication
c. Technical
d. Interpretation
handw
e. Empathy
f. Channel
g. Active listening
h. Boundaries
i. Negotiation
j. Interpersonal
Question 2
Complete
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True or False: Ice breaker activities can be related or not to the presentation.
Answer: true
around
Select one:
a. Seminar
b. Conference
c. Workshop
d. Concert
Question 2
Complete
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True or False: According to Hicks, the first step in an effective problem solving process is clearly defining
the
problem.
Answer:
Question 3
Complete
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explanation
Answer:
Question 4
true false
Complete
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This is the method by which a message is conveyed, such as speaking, writing or gesturing.
Select one:
a. Negotiation
b. Interpersonal
c. Interpretation
d. Technical
e. Empathy
f. Boundaries
g. Communication
h. Channel
i. Active listening
j. Feedback
Question 5
Complete
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if they
Few programmers are complaining about slow Internet connection and this affects their work. This
cause is
categorized in Answer .

equipment
_________________ problem.
Question 6
Complete
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operation

____________________ skills.
Select one:
a. Technical
b. Business
c. All of the choices
d. Soft
Question 7
Complete
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True or False: You should also look at the problem from a different point of view and listen to others’
suggestion.
This is the third step – listing all possible solutions.
Answer:
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Complete
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false
Answer:
Question 9
Complete
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Answer oral communication may be done in a workplace and it takes different forms such as telephone
conversations, face-to-face conversations and brainstorming.
Question 10
Complete
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True or False: Nowadays, teammates have no need for communications technology since they can just
interact
face to face.
Answer:
Every country, whether industrialized or still developing, must actively cooperate in enforcing
environmental
measures.
false informa false
Select one:
a. True
b. False
Question 3
Complete
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Decide whether it is a communication instrument or purpose.
A printed progress report to be submitted to the adviser.
Answer:
Question 4
Complete
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Categorize the following subcharacteristics of the ISO/IEC 25010:2011’s product quality model and write
the
letter that corresponds to your answer.
Confidentiality
instrument
Select one:
a. Maintainability
b. Reliability
c. Compatibility
d. Usability
e. Security
f. Portability
g. Performance Efficiency
h. Functional Suitability
Question 5
Complete
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In the 5S method, this stage refers to arranging items in a way that they are easy to find and pick up.
Select one:
a. Shitsuke
b. Seiton
c. Seiketsu
d. Seiri
Question 6
Complete
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____________________ is when you conduct regular audits and inspections to evaluate your work
performance.
Select one:
a. Seiso
b. Seiketsu
c. Shitsuke
d. Seiri
Question 7
Complete
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the
Accessibility
Select one:
a. Usability
b. Compatibility
c. Maintainability
d. Security
e. Reliability
f. Portability
Question 8
Complete

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The 5s method is based on the ____________________.
Select one:
a. Takoyaki Production System
b. Tonari Production System
c. Tatsumaki Production System
d. Toyota Production Sytem
Question 9
Complete
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According to Humphrey, a quality plan starts with product introduction where the product qualities and
target
market are identified.
Select one:
a. False
b. True
True or False: One of the ways to motivate teamwork in the workplace is to make sure that maintenance
is
conducted and planned for system enhancement.
Answer: false
As long as the demands of the clients are met and the business is flourishing, there’s no more need to
bother
about the effects of one’s business to the environment.
Select one:
a. False
A: ergonomic
factors are concerned whether employees are comfortable, stressed or possibly be injured due to the
arrangement of things in the workplace.
True or False: Reviewing the related literature includes review of concepts, theories and previous
research
findings.
Answer: true
Enforcing environmental policies is one of the major causes of job loss and unemployment.
Select one:
a. True
b. False
True or False: To gather data, you can either conduct an interview, survey, observation, mail
questionnaire,
coding and tabulation.
Answer: false
Risks, which could harm the product’s quality, must be determined and managed well along with the
actions to
be taken.
Select one:
a. False
b. True
Collective bargaining refers to the bargain sale of previously used office equipment.
Select one:
a. False
b. True
Identify whether the following task should be listed as a milestone or be included in the Gantt chart.
The user interface design and layout has been completed.
Answer: milestone
the
Installability
Select one:
a. Maintainability
b. Performance Efficiency
c. Reliability
d. Portability
e. Functional Suitability
f. Security
g. Usability
h. Compatibility
Question 3
Complete
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the
Interoperability
Select one:
a. Functional Suitability
b. Compatibility
c. Maintainability
d. Security
e. Reliability
f. Portability
g. Usability
h. Performance Efficiency
Question 4
Complete
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the
Maturity
Select one:
a. Compatibility
b. Portability
c. Reliability
d. Performance Efficiency
e. Security
f. Functional Suitability
g. Usability
h. Maintainability
Question 5
Complete
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The Montreal protocol is designed to help protect the ozone layer.
Select one:
a. True
b. False
A: briefing
notes are prepared with issues or topics that decision makers should be informed about.
Qualitative research aims to gain insights on opinions, behaviors and attitude through Answer:
UNSTRUCTURED techniques.
Question 10
Complete
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the
Testability
Select one:
a. Maintainability
Conceptual research is usually carried out by and thinkers to come up with new concepts. Answer:
philosopher
True or False: Most of the readers will skim the conclusion first to get an idea of what the paper is all
about.
Answer:
Question 13
Complete
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Quality improvement process is conducted to avoid errors and faults from recurring in the future.
Select one:
a. True
false
b. False
True or False: There are five main elements of a written report – topic, style, structure, facts and
contents.
Answer: false
Presidential Decree No. 856 is an international treaty that imposes limitations on the greenhouse gas
emissions
of several countries.
Select one:
a. True
b. False
True or False: Dates in file names should be written in YYYY-MM-DD format. Asnwer: true
Companies can freely make their own set of environmental policies without consulting the workers’
union, or any
local or national laws about it.
Select one:
a. True
b. False
Question 20
Complete
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Determine whether the stated person / group is an internal or external stakeholder.
Students ‘Grandparents
Answer: external
Started on Saturday, 6 January 2018, 9:51 PM
State Finished
Completed on Saturday, 6 January 2018, 10:13 PM
Grade 18.00 out of 20.00 (90%)
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Complete
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The minutes dated back December 3, 2016 is properly named.
Answer:
Question 2
Complete
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the
Recoverability
false
Select one:
a. Portability
b. Security
c. Usability
d. Compatibility
e. Maintainability
f. Performance Efficiency
g. Functional Suitability
h. Reliability
Question 3
Complete
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The 5S Method is a Japanese perspective technique developed by EiichiroOda.
Select one:
a. False
b. True
Question 4
Complete

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The protection of the natural resources is possible through the collective efforts of each group in the
society.
Select one:
a. False
b. True
Question 5
Complete
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The minutes of the meeting for December 1, 2016 is appropriately named.
Answer:
Question 6
Complete
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True or False: A milestone refers to the scope and out of scope of a project. It is defined so that the
project is
implemented on time and on budget.
true
Answer:
Question 7
Complete
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Montreal protocol protects the ozone layer by ____________________.
Select one:
a. phasing out harmful substances
b. reducing greenhouse gas emissions
c. banning the use of perfumes
d. using locally produced products
Question 8
Complete
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True or False: Email, SMS and Gantt chart are samples of communication frequency that you could
utilize.
false
Answer:
Question 9
Complete
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Read the situation below as your basis for answering the following question:
Ricka is creating a student record system where the profile, educational attainment and contact person
of the
students will be saved and restored. She is planning to implement it during the second semester.
Identify whether Ricka’s role is accountable, responsible, consult or inform: Ricka should be notified that
the
project proposal has been approved.
Answer:
Question 10
Complete
false inform
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This body was tasked to implement the provisions of P.D. No. 856.
Select one:
a. Department of Wealth
b. Department of Health
c. Department of Sanitation
d. Department of Cleanliness
Question 11
Complete
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True or False: Organizational aims are different from the mission statement; they refer to the results an
organization is aspiring for.

Answer:
Question 12
Complete
true
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There were only two staff accountable and responsible for the overall changes of the document.
Answer:
Question 13
true
Complete
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During solution implementation, the problem solvers should be Answer: PROACTIVE to assure that the
problem
is being addressed properly.
Question 14
Complete
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Read the questions carefully and choose your answer from the word pool provided.
Mobile app XYZ, which is an RPG game, has been deployed and launched to the public six (6) months
ago. Some
volunteers are testing XYZ in accordance with the ISO/IEC 25010:2011. Read their feedback below and
decide
which product quality attribute is being described.
“XYZ is so cool! I tried to install it in my old computer and it still runs smoothly. Given that the
computer’s video
card is a bit faulty.“
Select one:
a. Performance Efficiency
b. Reliability
c. Usability
d. Security
e. Maintainability
f. Portability
g. Compatibility
h. Functional Stability
Question 15
Complete
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By conducting a research, you can help the society by contributing to the body of Answer .
Question 16
Complete
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know le
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Environmental issues have no relation to the workplace.
Select one:
b. False
Question 17
Complete
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In a nutshell, a research is conducted by identifying a problem, identifies formulating a Answer ,
gathering and analyzing data, presenting the findings, and drawing a conclusion.
Question 18
Complete
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Business industries will not be affected by the environmental crisis.
Select one:
hypoth
a. True
b. False
Question 19
Complete

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True or False: Usually, the summary of the report is the first thing that’s being read.
Answer:
Question 20
Complete
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True or False: To present the results and findings of a research, you can use a bar graph, line graph or
pie chart.
Answer:
True or False: Seminar lectures, conference talks, presentations of reports and group meetings are
samples of
informal oral communication conducted in a workplace.
Answer: False
true true
These are developed by industries as a guide for establishments and business enterprises to conduct
their
operations in a way that prevents or reduces environmental harm.
Answer: Environmental codes of practice
True or False: There are different types of communication and written communication is one which can
be used
in a workplace.
Answer: true
be used
in a workplace.
Answer: false
Quantitative research, compared to qualitative research, uses measurable Answer to uncover patterns.
Protecting the environment and natural resources also means protecting stable employment.
Select one:
a. True
of the
Identify whether Ricka’s role is accountable, responsible, consult or inform: Ricka should assure that the
project
schedule is followed strictly.
Answer: responsible
____________________ is setting the best practices in the workplace as your work standards.
Select one:
a. Seiso
data
b. Seiri
c. Shitsuke
d. Seiketsu
Humans rely on natural resources for survival.
Select one:
a. True
b. False
Question text
Environmental policies won’t really make a difference, businesses will still strive and be successful
without giving
a care for the environment.
Select one:
a. True
b. False
the
Functional Appropriateness
ISO/IEC 25010:2011’s SQuaRE stands for System Quality Assurance and Requirements Evaluation. This
standard is
used in evaluating the quality of software.
Select one:
a. False
b. True
True or False: You can emphasize the key points in your report by stating them in the references and
conclusion.
Answer:
Question 19
Complete
Question text
ago. Some
decide
“One good thing I find with XYZ as when my laptop shuts down accidentally, my game score and status
can still be
recovered. No need to repeat a level.”
Select one:
b. Reliability
True or False: In an effective written communication, structure refers to the facts presented in the
paper.
Answer: false
The Kyoto protocol requires the participation of both industrialized and developing nations in reducing
environmental harm.
Select one:
b. False
Question 2
Complete
false
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Kyoto protocol addresses environmental issues through the campaign of ____________________.
Select one:
a. banning the use of pesticides
b. using imported products
c. reducing greenhouse gas emissions
d. phasing out harmful substances

Question 3
Complete
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the
Reusability
Select one:
a. Reliability
b. Portability
c. Usability
d. Functional Suitability
e. Compatibility
f. Maintainability
g. Security
Question 4
Complete
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the

Operability
Select one:
b. Security
c. Usability
d. Compatibility
e. Portability
f. Reliability
g. Maintainability
Question 5
Complete
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The project objectives file follows the standards of naming convention.
Answer: FALSE
Question 6
Complete
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Sometimes, people conduct research to earn Answer :respect from others.
Question 7
Complete
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One good practice is to use water filtration system instead of buying bottled water every time.
Select one:
a. False
b. True
Question 8
Complete
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True or False: Researches are primarily conducted to solve a problem and to contribute the body of
knowledge in
a particular field.
Answer:
Question 9
Complete
true
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True or False: Protocols are set of standards rules which describes how something should be done and
different
companies have different protocols as well.

Answer:
Question 10
Complete
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Increase work productivity by arranging items in such a way that they are easy to find and pick up.
Select one:
a. False
b. True
Question 11
Complete
true
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the
Time behavior
Select one:
a. Portability
b. Reliability
c. Performance Efficiency
d. Maintainability
e. Compatibility
f. Security
g. Usability
Question 12
Complete
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Answer refers to the supplier’s / vendor’s capacity to conduct long term contractual obligations.
Question 13
Complete
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True or False: Statutory requirements are identified by the vendors or suppliers and they include value,
stability,
diversity and capacity.
Answer: FALSE
Question 14
Complete
stability
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Big business companies are the only ones responsible for enforcing environmental policies since they
can afford
alternative cleaner technology.
Select one:
a. False
b. True
Question 15
Complete
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Fundamental research covers generalization and formulation of Answer .
Question 16
Complete
theory
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True or False: Research findings are not applicable in developing government policies. Researchers
should be
purely academic.
Answer:
Question 17
Complete
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ISO 9001 international standard for quality’s core processes are divided into two (2) – product delivery
process
and support process.
Select one:
a. False
b. True
Question 18
Complete
false
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Answer research is concerned in solving a problem that the private organization or the society is facing.
Question 19
Complete
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Standards are based on untested concepts and theories that the company has yet to encounter.
Select one:
a. True
b. False
Question 20
Complete
applied
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If a researcher is conducting a Answer research, he / she has no control over variables.
____________________ is a means by which the employees, speaking through the unions they belong
to, can come
to an agreement with their employers about employment, environmental and other work-related
concerns.
ANSWER; Collective bargaining
unstructured
descrip
ago. Some
decide
“So far, XYZ has 2 updates and it is working smoothly. Some bugs were fixed and there have been
improvements
– like additional characters and skills.”
Select one:
g. Maintainability
Research can be used to accurately represent the Answer: characteristics
of a particular individual or group, an event or a situation.
The cost / benefit analysis document is appropriately named.
Answer: false
Grade 9.00 out of 10.00 (90%)

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This type of programming language uses series of 0s and 1s to represent data.
Select one:
a. Machine language
b. High-level language
c. Advanced language
d. Assembly language
Question 2
Complete
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PASCAL is an example of a low-level language.
Select one:
a. False
b. True
Question 3
Complete
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C# has features that are directly based on the Short Code.
Select one:
a. False
b. True
Question 4
1.00
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Arlan right clicked on his taskbar and unchecked the Lock Taskbar. What will happen if he drags his
taskbar to the
right side of his screen?
Select one:
a. Start button will be located at the bottom right.
b. All of the choices
c. All icons will transfer to the right.
d. None of the choices.
e. Taskbar will display vertically at the right.
Question 5
Complete
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Answer
charles
is the father of computer.
Question 6
Complete
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Refer to the image below and write only the letter of the correct answer in the space provided.
Something’s wrong with the serial port. Which port should I investigate?
Answer:
Question 7
Complete
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This refers to the process of using programming languages to instruct the computer to perform specific
tasks.
Select one:
a. Programming
b. Troubleshooting
c. Scanning
d. Debugging
Question 8
Complete
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Using the Answer

java
language, you can write windowed applications, build databases, as well as control
handheld devices.
Question 9
Complete
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Bridget’s mouse is not responding and she has to close her browser. Which of the following is an
alternative way
using a keyboard to close an application?
Select one:
a. Alt + F4
b. Ctrl + C
c. Esc + 1
d. Shift + X
Question 10
Complete
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COBOL is the programming language ideally used for _________________________ purposes.
Select one:
a. Business
b. Artificial intelligence
c. Systematic
d. Internet
Who is the first computer programmer?
Select one:
a. Lady Lovelace Ada Augusta
b. Sir Wilhelm Maximilian Wundt
c. Lady Agatha Russell
d. Sir KonradZuse
Question 3
Complete
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The earphones is an example of a _______________, while Internet Explorer is an example of

_______________.
Select one:
a. platform operating system
b. hardware, computer user
c. input device, output device
d. peripheral device, application program
Question 4
Complete
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Windows is to Personal Computer (PC) while Mac OSX is to Mac laptops and computers.
Select one:
a. True
b. False
FORTRAN was the first ever “modern” computer language.
Select one:
a. True
b. False
An operating system has three major components – hardware, application program or software and the
user.
Select one:
a. False
b. True
Question 1
Complete
out of 1.00
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Maria has two printers – Printer Z and Printer A. She set Printer Z as the default printer. What will
happen the
next time she prints a document?
Select one:
e. All of the choices.
Which of the following statements is TRUE?
Select one:
a. Natural language can be used in programming.
b. Today’s programming languages are all limited in scope and application.
c. A programming language may have its own area of specialization.

d. Poorly constructed coding statements are acceptable.
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Complete
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The monitor suddenly turned black, which port should I check?
Answer:
Question 4
Complete
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If you are confused on what to do, press F2 on your keyboard and the Windows Help feature will open.
Select one:
a. True
b. False
user.
Select one:
a. True
b. False
computer programs
are actually a set of computer instructions that are developed using a programming language.
Ctrl + S is the shortcut key for Save while Ctrl + S + A is the shortcut key for Save As.
Select one:
a. False
b. True
Image files can be opened using MS Paint, Notedpad and Windows Photo Viewer.
Select one:
a. False
b. True
The mouse suddenly stopped working. Which port should I check?
Answer: b
Since natural languages are vaguely structured, they cannot be used for programming.
Select one:
a. False
b. True
C++, an extension of the C language, introduced object-oriented programming.
Select one:
a. True
b. False
I think I plugged the speakers wrong. The power is turned on but I can’t hear any sound Which port
should I
check?
Answer: f
Which of the following is not a default margin options when setting up the page for printing?
Select one:
a. Narrow
b. Wide
c. Normal
d. Regular
LISP and PROLOG are programming languages that are best used when dealing with Artificial
Intelligence.
Select one:
a. False
b. True
COBOL stands for Convenient Business Oriented Language.
Select one:
a. True
b. False
Question 1
Complete
Question text
Observe the names of the following variables and routines and decide whether its format is CORRECT or
WRONG.
Student.StudentBirthday for a class property.
Select one:
a. Wrong
b. Correct
Question 2
Complete
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Answer
short c
was the first language implemented for BINAC.
Question 3
Complete
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We were playing games locally and I got disconnected. I think something’s wrong with this port.
Answer:
Question 4
Complete
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Refer to the image below to answer the following question. What type of image is shown?
Select one:
a. Program chart
b. Data flow
c. Control flow
d. Flow chart
Question 5
Complete
out of 1.00
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Answer: high-level language is a type of programming language that is composed of symbols and words
that
follow some rules similar to that of a natural language.
Refer to the image below to answer the following question. What happens when Limit is equal to 3?
Select one:
c. Program goes back to login page.
Question 7
Complete
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The set of rules that must be strictly followed when using a programming language is called
AnswerSYNTAX
Question 8
Complete
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Refer to the pseudocode below and answer the following question: What if the computed BMI equals to
10, what
will the program do?
Select one:
b. Print Underweight.
Question 9
Complete
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A deleted file or folder found in the Recycle Bin can still be restored.
Select one:
b. True
Question 10
Complete
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.MPEG, .MP3 and .MOV are filename extensions for videos.
Select one:
b. False
Question 11
Complete
lag question
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Refer to the image below to answer the following question. What symbol is used to begin and end the
program?
b. Terminal
Question 12
Complete
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My headset is working but the microphone is not. Which port should I check?
Answer:
Question 13
Complete
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You will find running application programs and process in the Task Manager.
Select one:
b. True
Question 14
Complete
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Ana is working on a new project and she was asking for the program’s purpose, processes, algorithm,
restrictions
and some notes. According to the program development life cycle, in which phase is Ana working on?
Select one:
b. Testing and Debugging
c. Analyze the Problem
Complete
Question text
The following are statements that describe milestones in the programming language.
I. FORTRAN, the first modern computer language, was developed.
II. Java was released by Sun Microsystems
III. C was developed based on some of B’s features.
IV. Ada Lovelace invented the first computer program for analytical engine application.
V. COBOL was created by the US Department of Defense
Which of the following shows the correct order of events?
Select one:
a. IV, I, V, III, II
Question 16
Complete
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Refer to the pseudocode below and answer the following question: If the calculated BMI results to 26,
what will
the program do?
Select one:
a. display Normal
b. display Overweight
c. display Obese
d. display Underweight
Question 17
Complete
out of 1.00
Question text
WRONG.
PresentAdress for a column name in the table “Student”.
b. Wrong
Question 18
Complete
WRONG.
Employees for a table name.
Select one:
a. Wrong
Question 19
Complete
Question text
Refer to the image below to answer the following question. What process is illustrated in the diagram?
Select one:
b. Social media login limit.
Question 20
Complete
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WRONG.
passingSCORE for a constant variable.

Select one:
a. Wrong
C# was released by Answer
micros
Question 2
Complete
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A Answer
progra
is the code or language that allows a user to instruct a computer to perform specific tasks.
Question 3
Complete
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Max is already writing the code for his project. In which phase of the PDLC is he working on?
Select one:
a. Testing and Debugging
b. Analyze the Problem
c. Documentation
d. Coding and Execution
Question 4
Complete
out of 1.00
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Refer to the image below to answer the following question. John tries to log in for the fourth time, what
does he
see on his screen?
Select one:
a. Social Media Page
Question 5
Complete
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Who is considered as a user (component of an operating system)?
Select one:
a. Students
c. Programmer
e. IT Staff
Question 6
Complete
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Programs written in high-level languages are translated into machine-readable form using interpreters
or
compilers.
Select one:
a. False
b. True
Question 7
Complete
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Java is an example of
Select one:
a. Average level language
b. Low-level language
c. High-level language
d. Advanced language
Question 8
Complete
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Refer to the image below to answer the following question. What happens every time the given
username and
password is incorrect?
Select one:
a. Limit is set to 0.
b. 1 is added to Limit.
c. 3 is set as the Limit.
d. Limit is set to 1.
Question 9
Complete
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Refer to the pseudocode below and answer the following question: The program calculated for the BMI
and it is
equal to 50, what will the program do?
Select one:
a. Display Underweight.
b. Nothing, it is above 30.
c. Loop the program.
d. Print Obese.
Question 10
Complete
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I found out that the keyboard is defective so I switched to the old keyboard which uses PS/2 port, where
should I
plug it in?
Answer:
Question 11
Complete
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He is known as the father of the Java programming language.
Select one:
a. Dennis Ritchie
b. BjarneStroustrup
c. J.W. Mauchly
d. James Gosling
Question 12
Complete
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Even when you close all running application programs, there are still process running in the background.
Select one:
a. True
b. False
Question 13
Complete

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Jet is writing the pseudocode for his program. Which phase of program development life cycle is he in?
Select one:
a. Documentation
b. Formalize the Solution
c. Design the Program
d. Test the Program
Question 14
Complete
out of 1.00
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WRONG.
studentAge for a variable name.
Select one:
b. Correct
Question 15
Complete
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Refer to the image below to answer the following question. What type of flowchart symbol contains the
text
“Limit >=3?”?
Select one:
a. Terminal
b. Decision
c. Flow lines
d. Connector
Question 16
Complete
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Jamie finished debugging her program. What is the next step she should do?
Select one:
a. Documentation
b. Design the Program
c. Test the Program
d. Formalize the Solution
Question 17
Complete
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WRONG.
limitIsReached for a Boolean variable.
Select one:
a. Wrong
b. Correct
Question 18
Complete
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Over time, man’s efforts to find better ways to communicate with computers resulted to the evolution
of
programming languages.
Select one:
a. True
b. False
Question 19
Complete
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WRONG.
CEILING_GRADE for a constant variable.
Select one:
a. Correct
Question 20
Complete
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Refer to the pseudocode below and answer the following question: What happens after weight is given?
b. ask for height
PROG111 - Programming (Java) NC II Part 1
LONG QUIZ4
emissions of several countries.
answer False
Q2.
target market are identified.
-True
Question 3
-False
Question 4
ISO/IEC 25010:2011’s product quality model has eight (8) major characteristics.
-True
Question 5
union, or any local or national laws about it.
- False
Question 6
without giving a care for the environment.
Select one:
a False
Question 7
Select one:
-Seiketsu
Question 8
Seiri is making work easier by reducing unnecessary items to deal with.
- True
Question 9
ago. Some volunteers are testing XYZ in
accordance with the ISO/IEC 25010:2011. Read their feedback below and decide which product quality
attribute is being described.
improvements – like additional characters and skills.”
Select one:
a. Compatibility
Question 10
Complete
bother about the effects of one’s business to the
environment.
Select one:
- False
Question 11
environmental measures.
Select one:
True
Question 12
can afford alternative cleaner technology.
Select one:
False
Question 13
the letter that corresponds to your answer.
Interoperability
-Compatibility
Question 14
Critical thinking skills is an essential skill which includes listening effectively, adapting communication
skills and understanding underlying issues.
Select one:
-False
Question 15
The 5S Method is a Japanese perspective technique developed by Eiichiro Oda.
b. False
Question 16
environmental harm.
-False
Question 17
Testability
ans. Maintainability
Question 18
Recoverability
Reliability
Question 19
Pre-review activities in the review process includes review planning, preparation and individual review.
Select one:
a. True
Question 20
performance.
-Shitsuke
Question 21
Accessibility
Usability
Question 22
“I find it really enjoying to play XYZ since I can invite my friends from social media profile. It works well
with this social media app!”
Select one:
ans.compatibility
Question 23
Select one:
ans. reducing greenhouse gas emissions
Question 24
ans. Department of Health
Question 25
ans. phasing out harmful substances
Question 26
ans. True
Question 28
Installability
ans.Portability
Question 27
Select one:
ans. True
BAED-PROG3111 Programming (Java) NCIII Part 1 (Week 10)
Question 1
Complete
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of the students will be saved and restored.
She is planning to implement it during the second semester.
Identify whether the statement is a strength, weakness, opportunity or threat. Naughty students who
might try to hack the student record system and
change the information saved.
Answer: threat
Question 2
Complete
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Identify whether Ricka’s role is accountable, responsible, consult or inform: Ricka should finish
conducting unit and system testing.
Answer: accountable
Question 3
Complete

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I cannot type anything but my mouse is working, I am using a brand new USB keyboard, which port
should I check?
Answer: D
Question 4
Complete
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True or False: Monitoring and evaluating means brainstorming.
Answer: False
Question 5
Complete
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Axel is finally documenting his work. What could he be writing?
Select one:
a. requirements of the program
b. system analysis
c. bug reviews and errors
d. instructions for the users
Question 6
Complete
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Machine language and assembly language are collectively referred to as _________________________.
Select one:
d. High-level language
Question 7
Complete
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True or False: Nothing good ever comes from giving feedback. If anything, anyone who does give will
only get scolded by the boss.
Answer: False
Question 8
Complete
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if they are considered problems in Materials,
Measurement, Method, People, Equipment or Environment.

When the software used was checked, the project manager discovered that some of the programmers
are using an old version of Java. This cause is
categorized under
Answer. Materials
Question 9
Complete
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Identify whether Ricka’s role is accountable, responsible, consult or inform: Ricka should be told about
the students who volunteered to test the
student record system.
Answer: inform
Question 10
Complete
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Machine language is also known as Binary language.
Question 11
Complete
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The following can be used as a channel for conveying messages, EXCEPT:
Select one:
a. email
b. social media
c. hyperlinks
d. speaking
Question 12
Complete
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Refer to the pseudocode below and answer the following question:
What is the first thing that the program will do?
Select one:
a. ask for BMI
b. print height
c. ask for height
d. print BMI
Question 13
Complete
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____________________ in the workplace protection of sensitive business information through

precautionary measures like confidentiality clauses or
non-disclosure agreements.
Select one:
a. Curiosity
b. Integrity
c. Secrecy
d. Confidentiality
Question 14
Complete
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Capacity
Select one:
a. Security
b. Reliability
c. Compatibility
e. Maintainability
f. Portability
g. Usability
Question 15
Complete

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FORTRAN stands for _____. Formula Translator
Question 16
Complete
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True or False: Documenting the decision is the last action needed to be taken to solve the problem.
Answer: False
Question 17
Complete
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In ____________________, the trainee’s learning is focused on utilizing existing abilities and

competencies, with the coach interacting with the trainee
in a professional way.
Select one:
a. Coaching
b. Meeting
c. Problem Solving
d. Mentoring
Question 18
Complete

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Students
Answer: internal
Question 19
Complete
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True or False: Organizational policies and procedures are used as a guide in decision making and help
employees understand the company’s goals and
values.
Answer: True
Question 20
Complete
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Java can only be used for business purposes like processing records and employees.
Select one:
a. True
b. False
Question 21
Complete

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Battery level, Internet connection and date and time are usually located in the Notification Area.
Select one:
a. True
b. False
Question 22
Complete
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Actions that you need to take to reach the goals you set are called ____________________.
Select one:
a. Standard
b. Actions
c. Objectives
d. Process
Question 23
Complete
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Adaptability
Select one:
a. Usability
b. Security
c. Compatibility
d. Reliability
g. Maintainability
h. Portability
Question 24
Complete
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True or False: To establish empathy means to interpret the message received.
Answer: False
Question 25
Complete
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When the program was written, some
team mates are talking too loud and distracted the others. This cause is categorized under:
Answer: Environment
Question 26
Complete
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Create the project charter for the student record system.
Answer: Gantt chart
Question 27
Complete
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Refer to the image below to answer the following question.
By default, what is the value of limit?
Select one:
a. 0
b. 2
c. 1
d. 3
Question 28
Complete
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WRONG.
Get_Average_Grade() for a routine to compute for average.
Select one:
a. Correct
b. Wrong
Question 29
Complete
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In adding a new printer, the _____________ will guide you on the steps to be taken.
Select one:
a. Printer Guide
b. Printer Affix
c. Printer Install
d. Printer Wizard
Question 30
Complete
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True or False: Gantt chart is one of the tools used in identifying workloads. It states who is responsible or
accountable for one task or activity.
Answer: False
Question 31
Complete
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My brother gave me an external hard drive as a present. I wanted to save my movies and pictures in it,
where should it be connected?
Answer: D
Question 32
Complete
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Fix bugs and errors detected in the system.
Answer: Gantt chart
Question 33
Complete
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In the correct order, the essential parts of the communication process are:
Select one:
a. Source, Message, Encoding, Channel, Decoding, Receiver, Feedback
b. Source, Message, Encoding, Channel, Receiver, Decoding, Feedback

c. Source, Message, Encoding, Channel, Decoding, Feedback, Receiver
d. Source, Message, Encoding, Receiver, Decoding, Channel, Feedback
Question 34
Complete
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Programmers
Answer: internal
Question 35
Complete
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True or False: To solve a problem means to know first what the problem is before coming up with the
feasible solutions.
Answer: True
Question 36
Complete
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True or False: Listing down the issues related to the problem is second to the last step in an effective
problem solving process.
Answer: False
Question 37
Complete
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Learnability
Select one:
a. Portability
b. Security
c. Maintainability
e. Usability
f. Compatibility
h. Reliability
Question 38
Complete
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Question text
Monica accidentally unplugged the mouse PS/2 port. What will happen to the mouse connected thru
the universal serial bus port?
Select one:
a. The mouse will stop working.

b. None of the choices.
c. The mouse will freeze.
e. The mouse will be disabled.
Question 39
Complete
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Identify whether the statement is a strength, weakness, opportunity or threat. The student record
system is dependent on the Internet and will not
function without Internet connection.
Answer: weakness
Question 40
Complete
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A Gantt chart that shows the schedule for the development process of the student record system.
Answer: instrument
Question 41
Complete
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A product or service must go through this phase to ensure that it is fit to use and that its quality matches
with the company’s standards.
Select one:
a. Performance Appraisal
b. Quality Control
c. Safety Programs
d. Reflective Behavior
Question 42
Complete
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WRONG.
ComputeTotalScore() for a routine to sum up the scores.
Select one:
a. Wrong
b. Correct
Question 43
Complete
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The record system has undergone the function testing successfully.
Answer: milestone
Question 44
Complete
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True or False: Stakeholders are people or group who are directly or indirectly affected by a company’s
decision, policies and objectives.
Answer: True
Question 45
Complete
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True or False: Distributing the information to the involved staff and/or department is the last step in the
planning process.
Answer: True
Question 46
Complete
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Programmers’ Adviser
Answer: internal
Question 47
Complete
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True or False: Feedback is not needed in communication.
Answer: False
Question 48
Complete
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The first computer concept invented is called _________________________.
Select one:
a. COBOL
b. Analytical Engine
c. FORTRAN
d. PlanKalKul
Question 49
Complete
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ago. Some volunteers are testing XYZ in accordance
with the ISO/IEC 25010:2011. Read their feedback below and decide which product quality attribute is
being described.
“The XYZ has in-app purchases or micro transactions and asks for my credit card details. It’s safe so far
and didn’t have any issues with information
leak.”
Select one:
a. Portability
c. Compatibility
d. Security
e. Maintainability
f. Reliability
g. Usability
Question 50
Complete
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Integrity
Select one:
a. Compatibility
b. Maintainability
c. Usability
e. Reliability
g. Security
h. Portability
BAED-PROG3111 Programming (Java) NCIII Part 1 (Week 11-20)
Question text
Observe the following statements and decide whether the variable result’s value is TRUE or FALSE.
Given that:
int x = -77;
int z = 43;
result = (z < x && 1 != 10) ? true : false;
result = (z != 43) ? true : false;
Select one:
False
Question text
Read each statement carefully and decide whether it’s TRUE or FALSE.
The last line of code, with a close brace { symbol, is properly indented.
Select one:
False
Question text
True or False: Brackets [] are also separators used in declaring arrays.
Answer:
True
Question text
Refer to the block of codes below. Read each statement carefully and decide whether it’s TRUE or
FALSE.
There is an error in line 9.
Answer:
TRUE
Question text
True or False: Operators, in Java programming language, use special symbols to call methods and their
objects.
Answer:
False
Question text
There are no errors in the program.
Select one:
False
Question text
FALSE.
Line 9 uses a traditional comment which uses double forward slash.
Answer: False
Question text
True or False: Many programmers can be literate with Java programming language for it is intended to
be that way.
Answer:
True
Question text
True or False: You’ll know there’s an error if you see a red circle with an exclamation point in Netbeans
IDE.
Answer:
True
Question text
Given that:
int x = -77;
int z = 43;
result = (x = 100) >= z;
Select one:
True
The file is accurately named – Students.java.
-false
There are three (3) separators found in line 13.
-FALSE
-True
result = 90 < x || -1 < z;
-True
-False
Assuming there are no errors in the code, line 13 would display When I graduate, I’d be 18.
-True
Figure 2 shows the Netbeans Integrated Development Environment.
-True
The last line of code will output 100.0.
-True
True or False: An exclamation point in Java means NOT. Therefore, != means not equal to.
-True
There are two types of comments used in the program above – end of line and Javadoc comments.
-True
-False
There are keywords found in line 7.
-True
In line 11, the value of personage is 18.
-TRUE
If there are no errors in the program, the first line of output would read Hi, I’m a normal person.
-False
result = (x * z + (z += 7)) >= 100;
-False
True or False: Logical OR operator will result to false if one of the expressions is false.
-False
True or False: Semicolon (;) is a separator used to end a Java statement.
-True
True or False: There are five types of integer data types – byte, short, int, long and float.
-False
True or False: Single equal sign (=) is used for assigning values while double equal sign (==) is used in
comparing values.
-True
True or False: Java’s ternary operator is a short hand for the if-then-else statement which uses a
question mark and a colon.
-True
True or False: JDK or Java Design Kit is required to compile and run Java apps and applets.
-True
On line 6, average is equal to 0. But on line 9, average will be equal to 100.
-False
True or False: Identifiers in Java are, in simple words, name that you give to Java class, variables and
methods.
-True
True or False: When you run javac in a command line interface, it will automatically create another file
with a filename extension .class.
-True
-FALSE
There are five (5) separators used in line 8.
-TRUE
There are no errors on line 8.
-FALSE
True or False: Syntax is basically the spelling and grammar errors compiled in a Java programming
language. It should be avoided in writing apps and
applets.
-False
objects.
-False
If you run this program, the second line of output will read Your score is:.
-True
True or False: Java is a low level programming language.
-False
There are also punctuators used in line 10, in between System, out and println, the parentheses and
semicolon.
-TRUE
If there are no errors and this simple program runs through CLI, the first line will display: Hi, students!
-False
-True
Substrings can contain 1 or 2 arguments.
-true
Determine the output.
-bar
The index of the letter “y” in string “Doggy” is 5.
-False
-foo
TRUE OR FALSE: The value “val_3” is a white space “ “.
-False
True or False: Variable 1st_num is a good variable name in Java programming.
-False
TRUE OR FALSE: “val_2” contains “The”
-True
True or False: Instance variables are declared inside a method but outside a class.
-False
True or False: Variable names in Java are not necessarily case sensitive.
-False
Determine the output
-36
True or False: Public, private and protected are some of the return types used in Java programming.
-False
True or False: Divide and conquer strategy, in programming, is also known as the top-down design.
-True
If there are no errors in the program, line 9 would display I weigh 160.
-False
True or False: A boolean variable can only have two values; it is either true or false.
-True
result = !((x * 10) < z);
-False
result = -(-z) == 43;
-True
True or False: If you get an error while running the javac command in the CLI, it could be resolved by
editing the Path value in Environment Variables.
-True
True or False: The subtraction assignment operator subtracts the left and right operand and assigns the
difference to the operand at the right.
-False
x += x;
result = x == 154;
-False
The second line of output will be: You are in Year 11.
-True
True or False: The conditional AND operator uses two ampersand (&&) symbols.
-True
result = 43 <= z;
-True
True or False: You’ll know that a variable is a class variable when you see that variable inside a class with
the word static.
-True
The string method “length( )” returns the number of characters within a string.
-True
A string can contain numbers.
-True
TRUE OR FALSE: This is an example of concatenation.
-True
TRUE OR FALSE: The value of “val_4” is “fox”
-False
TRUE OR FALSE: “val_2” contains “The”.
-True
-f6
Languages which use procedural programming include C, (Answer) FORTRAN, Pascal and BASIC.
-C++
True or False: Local variables are declared inside the default method.
-False
Strings can be declared with str.

-False
True or False: Procedural programming involves instructing the system as to how to complete a task.
-True
TRUE OR FALSE: The output of this code is “The quick brown fox”
-False
Among the expressions below which is a statement?
-True
Expressions can be long and complex.
-true
number++; is an expression
-true
For-loops has a set number of iterations before starting.
-True
The equals( ) method can compare more than 2 arrays.
-False
While loops can use Booleans at test expressions.
-True
The test expression of the if statement is _______
-less than or equal to
There are four (4) major features of an object-oriented programming language – encapsulation,
inheritance, polymorphism and abstraction.
-True
Using a break; statement causes the loop to jump to the next iteration.
-False
x+1 is example of a statement.
-False
number++; is a block
-False
Arrays are
-Objects
The operator “new” allocates a memory block the size of what is declared.
-true
A class block can be an expression
-False
Statements can be expressions.
-False
Integer arrays can be populated with characters.
-False
Declaration clauses are declared as “number + 1”.
-False
Loops can be stopped with a break; statement.
-True
The equivalent of Paragraphs in coding is?
-Expressions
If statements cannot be nested in switches
-true
The length( ) method returns the size (number of indices) has.
-True
When polymorphism is used, the Java object can only take one form. Subclasses should have the same
function with the parent class.
-False
Arrays can contain (Answer) number of elements.

-Any
“||” and “&&” can be used in conditional statements.
-True
A class statement has three (3) major parts – declaration, initialization and instantiation.
-False
Declaring an object in Java uses the new keyword to create a new object.
-False
Please refer to Figure 2 to answer the question below: If the expression “num = 0” is changed to “num =
5” the final output will be
-5
Expressions can be statements.
-True
Blocks can contain more blocks of code.
-True
If-else statements can be nested in?
-All of the choices
Statements are equivalent to paragraphs.
-False
A (answer) array is an array containing true or false values.
-boolean
Switches are always used with if-else statements
-False
True or False: The modulus operator returns the remainder of a division operation instead of the
quotient.
-true

String val_1 = “564298”;
-5698
String val_1 = “35”;
-4
The return value of the length( ) method is an integer
-true
A superclass is also known as a parent class.
-true
For-loops can be nested in while loops.
-true
In instantiating an object, the keyword instance is used.
-False
Object oriented programming utilizes the top down method
-False
Expressions are like clauses.
-true
The sort( ) method is always ascending.
-true
Arrays are data types.
-False
Variables must be declared as (Answer) for it to be fully hidden.
-private
While statements check the test expression at the end.
-False
The else statement can be used alone.
-False
The fill( ) method (Answer) the array with specific values.
-Fills
The output of println is
-55555
The person’s weight is declared correctly with the correct data type (byte) and value (160).
-FALSE
String val_1 = “foo”
String val_2 = “bar”
val_2 = val_1;
val_1 = val_3;
System.out.println(val_1);
-bar
val_2 = val_1;
val_1 = val_3;
-foo
Switches can work properly even without the “break” expression.
-True
Blocks can be one liner or huge classes.

-True
The test expressions in conditional statements can be left empty.
-False
Abstraction works by hiding the implementation details and showing only the functions necessary.
-True
A single array can hold multiple data types
-False
A polymorphic object can pass more than one Is-a test.
-True
Another loop can be used as test expression.
-False
True or False: Public, static and void are sample of Java reserved keywords.
-True
The value of “pStr” in line 24 is
-True
The default syntax of a constructor is <class_name>(parameter, parameter){ }
-False
A nested class is not an inner class.
-False
Nested classes causes them to become abstracted
-False
A nested class is also called
-inner class
If you want some variables and methods hidden from other classes, you could implement encapsulation
where these variables and methods are
wrapped in a single unit.

-True
A constructor can only have 1-2 overloads or parameters.
-False
All possible data types of an array can be retuned as a string by the toString( ) method.
-True
Abstracted classes can contain 1 or more abstract methods.
-True
Abstraction shows the every bit of detail and implementation on how an application does something.
-False
Initialization is a process where the constructor is called for.
-True
The default syntax of a constructor is <class_name>( ){ }
-True
Classes cannot be nested.
-False
Abstract classes cannot have nested classes.
-False
The parent class of a nested class is called an outer class
-True
An inner class can be constructed directly without reference to the outer class.
-False
Arrays can be read backwards
-True
A single array can hold
-One data type

Abstracted methods already have implementations inside.
-False
are special methods to initialize objects.
-constructors
Constructors have 3 basic rules to follow.
-False
Nesting classes increases encapsulation.
-True
Each index can only contain (Answer) element.
-one
The sort( ) method can be set to sort only a part of an array.
-False
Subclasses or child classes could have different behaviors but still share the same functions from their
parent class.
-True
Abstract methods must have an explicit return value
-False
An abstract class must not contain abstract methods.
-False
Abstracted classes can be nested.
-True
A subclass constructor cannot invoke a superclass constructor.
-False
A class acquiring fields and methods of another class is called inheritance.
-True
Parallelsorting utilizes
-More cpu processing cores
method can copy one array to another.
-arraycopy()
Conditional test expressions can contain declarations
-True
A child class inherits all the methods of every other class.
-False
f the value of “pStr” in line 7 is changed to _______ then the value of “pStr” in line 24 will be changed as
well.
-True
The type of loop that checks the test expression at the end.
-do-while
An array of integers should be declared as
-int[]
A class which contains the abstract keyword in its declaration is known as an
-abstract class
Please refer to figure 1 to answer the question below: In figure 1 if(x==5) is
-skipped
The first line of the code should have either a yes or no value.
-False
-200
What does ‘new’ in int[ ] myArray = new int[n] do?
-Assigns memory for the array

is also known as a parent class.
-Super class
String val_1 = “foobar”;
String val_2 = “”;
-boar
Polymorphic objects can pass (answer) Is-a test.
-More than one
True or False: Traditional comments start with /** (forward slash and two asterisks) and ends with */
(asterisk and forward slash).
-False
True or False: Netbeans is one of the IDEs or Integrated Development Environment to run Java
programs.
-True
For-loops can check the test expression at the end.
-False
Polymorphism is the ability of a Java object to take
-Directly
Constructors can have
-any number
When the program runs, and assuming there are no errors, its first line will be begin printing.
-FALSE
Which of these is a proper decrement?
-x-10;
All are methods of the array class except
-substring()
The error in Figure 2 is
-“tralse”;
A constructor (answer) contain an explicit return type
-cannot
Abstracted methods need (answer) for implementations.
-sub-classes
Line 14 will yield an error. It will be corrected if you place */ after the method.
-FALSE
The name of a constructor must be (answer) as your class.
-same
The limit of dimensions an array can have without errors is
-255
This type of declaration is discouraged.
-String myArray[ ];
The following figure shows the Netbeans Integrated Development Environment.
-True
The equivalent of clauses in coding is?
-Expressions
Int num = 1; for(num=num;num<=10;num++) is an acceptable code snippet.
-true
Loop that has a pre-determined number of iterations
-while
An int can be used even if it is declared outside a for-loop.
-true
Overload methods must be the same name as the class

-true
What the break statement in this example does is ________.
-Ends the whole instance of the loop
The random( ) method sorts the array randomly.
-False
The last part in a for loop setup can be an ________.
- both
The “1” in arrayName[1] is called an ________.
-Index
The continue; statement ends all the iterations of a loop.
- False
Which is not a proper increment?
- n+-;
Infine for-loops can be declared as for( ){ }.
- False
If-if is more logical than else-if.
- False
The else statement can be removed if not needed.
-True
Expressions, Statements and Blocks are like composing sentences and paragraphs.
-True
You can declare a new method in the subclass which is not declared in the superclass.
-True
The return value of the equals( ) method is ________ .
-None of the choices

The Arrays.sort( ) method sorts an array into _________ order.
-Ascending
This type of declaration is discouraged: “int myArray[ ]”
- True
An if-else-if-else statement is a block.
-True
If the increment num=num+2 is changed to num++, the final value of num will be ________.
-5
The term of each pass through a loop makes is called?
-iteration
Loops must always have a continue or break statement.
-False
1+2+3/4*5 is an unambiguous expression
-False
Conditional statements can contain more conditional statements.
- True
int num = 1;
if(num==1 && num<=1){
body;
The conditional statement will _______.
- execute the body
byte( ][ ][ ) myArray; is an example of ________.
- An error
An array _______ hold objects.

- can
A reference variable can be reassigned to other objects provided that it is not declared ________.
- final
The test expression of conditional statement cannot contain _______
-!
Each pass through of a loop is called a cycle.
- True
If the increment “num = num + 2” is changed to “num = num + 1” the final output will be _______.
-0
Ifs and else-ifs test expressions return true or false.
- True
_______ classes increase the encapsulation of you methods and data.
- nesting
Constructed methods are initialized with 0 or null depending on the data type.
- true
The else statement catches whatever argument the if and else-if didn’t
- True
An iteration of a loop is equivalent to one pass through.
- true
38. If we change the initial value of num in line 6 to “num = 0”, the println output will be _______
-0
The else-if statement can be used alone.
- false
Abstract methods need sub-classes to contain their implementations.
-true
The method arraycopy( ) does what?
- Copies the contents of an array to a destination array.
An array can be infinitely long.
- False
A loop can contain no expressions or statements inside.
- true
Conditional statements are the same as declaration statements.
- False
You cannot use inherited methods directly in a child class.
- False
The equals( ) method compares 2 arrays.
- True
Method invocations are statements
- True
To implement encapsulation, you have to declare class variables with the private modifier.
- True
Inner class methods can be called by constructing the inner class.
- False
Encapsulated data are hidden from other classes.
- True
Refer to the code snippet below. Identify what part of a method is shown in each number (the
underlined one).
GIVEN: public int getArea
Answer: Method Name
Fill in the blanks with the correct answer.
Answer: val_1 + val_2

The filename of the Java file above is computesum.java.
Answer: False
underlined one).
GIVEN: int getArea
Answer: Return Type
Fill in the blank:
Answer: foo
Procedural programming will be tricky for applications.
Answer: small
Strings can directly concatenated to an int.
Answer: False
TRUE OR FALSE: The value of “val_3” is 3
Answer: FALSE
Fill in the blank:
Answer: barfoo
Refer to the code snippet below. Determine whether the given is a local variable, instance variable,
access modifier or a class name.
GIVEN: private class EmployeeRecord
Answer: access modifier
TRUE OR FALSE: The assigned values of “val_1” & “val_2” are integers.
Answer: FALSE
Fill in the blank:
Answer: 200
True or False: A method could be declared without any parameters.

Answer: False
Fill in the blank:
Answer: foo
FALSE.
There are no errors in line 11.
Answer: TRUE
Answer: error
True or False: Non-procedural programming focuses on how a task is done rather than on what task
should be done.
Answer: False
Answer: class name
Answer: chocolate bar
True or False: If you are running a program through CLI, the class name and the file name should be
different.
Answer: False
Fill in the blank:
Answer: 6
The “indexOf( )” method returns the first instance of the specified character.
Answer: True
Please refer to figure 1 to answer the question below:
If we change the initial value of num in line 6 to “num = 0”, the println output will be
Answer: 0
Strings can readily accept int values.
Answer: True
True or False: Keywords are Java reserved words which are used as identifier for interface, constants
and constructs.
Answer: True
GIVEN: int noOfEmployee
Answer: local variable
True or False: After compiling a Java program through the CLI, run it using the java and press Enter.
Answer: True
Refer to the program below. Read each statement carefully and write the output for each line specified.
Line 22 will display on the screen.
Answer: 1
BAED-RSCH2111 Practical Research 1 (Week 1-10)
1 Requires the interviewers have telephone
False
2 It is the most common measure of central tendency
Arithmetic Mean
3 Identify the mode on the following set of numbers 400 708 504 802 400
400
4 What kind of sampling if your sample is Professor I from the Universities in the region IV A?
Stratified Sampling
5 It is neither the subject nor the experimenter knows whether the subject is in the treatment of the
control condition
Double Blind
6 213 and 314
101
7 A researcher will represent and manipulate certain observations that they are studying
True
8. Identify the mode on the following set of numbers 165 765 545 165 415
165
9.This reliability the consistency of results across items, often measures with Cronbach’s Alpha
Internal Consistency
10 one of the general guideline in reporting and writing the data analysis and interpretation is the
subtitles of section are based on the questions in
the statement of the problem, stated in declarative form, single space bond
True
11. In order to have a random selection method of sampling that utilizes some form of random selection
True
12. It means that a tool measures what it sets out to measure for example, that a pain assessment tool
measures pain intensity rather than anxiety
Measurement Validity
13. 211 and 219
14. What kind of sampling if your list was the phone book, it would be easiest to start at perhaps the 8th
person, and then select every 150th person
from that point on?
Systematic Planning
15. 2 and 12
10
16. Solve the mean of the following set of give numbers. Type your answer in the space provided 16 78
54 82 40
54
17. Identify the mode of the following set of numbers 100 700 500 800 100
100
18. What kind of sampling if your list was the phone book, it would be easiest to start perhaps the 17th
person, and then select every 50th person
from that point on
Systematic Planning
19. What is the median of the following set of numbers 12 13 14 15 16
14
20. Solve the mean of the following set of give answers. Type your answer in the space provided 12 79
59 87 43
56
21. You want to know the Number of Students in San Jose NHS
Survey research
22. Saves time involved in processing the data
True
23. The power of a test is the probability of finding significance if the alternative hypothesis is true
True
24. In this scale are the ultimate nirvana when it comes to measurement scales because tell us about the
order, they tell us the exact value
between units
Ration Scale
25. This reliability the reliability of two tests constructed the same way, from the same content
Parallel-Forms Reliability
26.A score on a well-constructed test is believed to reflect a psychological construct such as

achievement in a school subject, cognitive ability,
aptitude, emotional functioning, personality, etc.

True
27. Recommendations are not based on important results and conclusions
False
28. This is the population in research to which the researchers can apply their conclusions
Accessible population
29. The specific questions should follow the order they are given under the statement of the problem
True
30. IN THIS SCALE it is the order of the values is what is important and significant but the differences
between each one is not really known
Ordinal scale
31. Solve the mean of the following set of give numbers. 15 75 55 85 45
55
32. One of the general guideline in reporting and writing the data analysis and the interpretation is an
introductory paragraph is provided at the
start of the chapter
True
33. It is the mid point of a distribution
Median
34. It refers to an ANOVA using two independent variable
TWO-WAY ANOVA
35. You want to know who is better in learning section 1 or section 2
Survey research
36. In this scale it is used numeric scale in which we know noit only the order but also the exact
differences between the values
Interval scale
37. The consistency of results across items often measures wit Cronbach’s Alpha
True
38. What kind of sampling if your sample is every 21st of the participants from the 1800 participants in
the training seminar
Systematic sampling
39. Solve the mean 106,708,504,802,400
504
40. 15 and 35
20
41. What kind of sampling if your sample is religious affliction from each of the 50 states
Stratified sampling
42. What king of sampling if your strata where individual school in the division of antipolo you would
randomly select perhaps 20 schools and test
all of the students within those schools
Cluster sampling
43. This research may include case studies, ethnographic studies, ethological studies whose primary
characteristics is being observed or recorded
Observational research
44. This is the group that receives the experimental treatment manipulation or is different form the
control group on the variable under study
Experimental or treatment group
45. One of the general guideline in reporting and writing the data analysis and the interpretation is the
tables and figures should be in continuous
numbering. It should be presented the first before discussion enclose tables with double line on top
should be used, graphs should be colored
True
46. It is true experiments but use naturally formed or pre existing groups
Quasi-experiment
47. It is a subject that has an equal probability of being selected for either the treatment or control
group
Random assignment
48. Correlational research involves comparative in this research the study of two or more groups is done
without focusing on the relationship
False
49. What kind of sampling if your sample is doctorate degree holder form the 20 divisions in the NCR
Stratified sampling
50. You want to explore who is dominant graduate of BSED or BEED
survey research
51. what kind of sampling you were going to use if your sample is every 20th child in the 1000 children in
a single row
systematic sampling
52. you want to know who is better section Narra or section Santol
survey research
53. casual comparative research is the bed rock of most sciences most specifically natural sciences
true
54. saves the interviewer from carrying around hundreds of questionnaires
true
55. a descriptive study establishes only associations between variables an experimental study
establishes casualty
true
56. tables and figures should not be im continuous numbering it should be presented first before
discussion enclose tables with double line on top
should be used graphs should be colored
false
57. this reliability the degree toi which different raters/ observers give consistent answers of estimates
inter-rater/ observer reliability
58. it is more structured method than in qualitative research compare to quantitative research
interview method
RSCH G11
-Which of the following is not an ethical dilemma in research?
Select one: a. Misconduct in research b. Informed consent c. Falsification of data bank d. Conflicts of
interest
-True or False: A responsible researcher looks for alternative ways to arrive at a conclusion in the study.
Answer: False
-What aspect of research experience illustrates the expedition of the researcher?
b. Research Adventure
-What does “observe justice” mean in ethical research?
Select one: a. Individuals should be treated as autonomous agents. b. Persons with diminished
autonomy (e.g., prisoners, students, children, etc)
should not be coerced to participate in a research. c. Investigators should mind the reduction of risk that
might occur from the research. d.
Investigator should practice fairness in distribution and equitable selection of participants.
-A researcher may withhold a participant’s name and any identifying characteristics when asked to
present such information when
Select one: a. They feel the information is unnecessary to the individual b. They have obtained a
certificate of confidentiality c. It is a case
involving required reporting d. The research paper is not published yet.
-What is scientific method?
Select one: a. Validating the results b. Systematic process c. Good research d. Making research
instruments
-Research is described as a cycle because it follows a process.
-Which of the following is not included in the research experience?

Select one: a. Identity of the researcher b. Biography of the researcher c. Social class of the researcher d.
Emotions of the researcher
-Anonymity is when a participant does not give a researcher…
Select one: a. His/her name and identifying characteristics b. Confidential material c. Confidential
material and identifying characteristics d. His/her
name e. Identifying characteristics f. His/her name and confidential material
-Research is
Select one: a. Reorganizing, or restating, reviewing common findings b. Analyzing and interpreting new
information c. Collecting existing
information d. Modifying established knowledge
-Answer TRUE if the sentence is a correct description of a good research question, and answer FALSE if it
is an incorrect description. It should not
use comparative terms (such as higher, better, etc.).
Select one: True False
is an incorrect description. The
problem statement is more specific than a topic and it limits the scope of the research problem.
-Identify the research title with the description of APPLIED or PURE research: The Specific Genetic Code
of the Fruit Fly
Answer: PURE
is an incorrect description. It is biased
in terminology or position.
Select one: False

-Identify the research title with the description of APPLIED or PURE research: Compositions of Protons,
Neutrons and Electrons
Answer: PURE
is an incorrect description. Indicate
what is probably necessary to conduct the study and explain how the findings will present this
information.
is an incorrect description. It must only
ask about the relationship between two or more variables.
-Identify the research title with the description of APPLIED or PURE research: Applying the algorithm for
detecting individual trees from Drone
Images
Answer: APPLIED
is an incorrect description. It has the
potential to suggest directions for past research.
-The Internet has become an accepted source of information for educational research. Which of the
following is NOT an indicator of the quality of
information found on the Internet?
Select one: a. The number of "hits" for the site b. The honesty of the reported information c. The
authenticity of the information d. The lack of bias
-What should a review of the literature enable an investigator to do?
Select one: a. Provide the insights necessary to develop a logical framework into which the topic fits. b.
Ascertain what is already known about a
topic. c. None of the choices d. Identify methodological strategies for designing the study. e. All of the
choices
-What is the context of “literature” in a research project?
Select one: a. Any highly regarded novel b. Any paper source c. Any written material d. Published
accounts of researchers
-Identify the following materials by choosing the correct letter: Food blog
Select one: a. Syndicated b. Dynamic c. Static
-Identify the citation format used in the following references by writing CMS, APA or MLA: Pollan,
Michael. 2006. The Omnivore’s Dilemma: A
Natural History of Four Meals. New York: Penguin.
Answer: APA
-Most of the searches for related literature are conducted using:
Select one: a. Long sentences b. Key word searches c. Short sentences d. Key letter searches
-Identify the following materials by choosing the correct letter: Braveheart (starred and produced by Mel
Gibson)
Select one: a. Dynamic b. Static c. Syndicated
-Which of the following statements is NOT TRUE with regards to the literature review?
Select one: a. It shows why research questions are important. b. It explains the method necessary for
the gathering of data. c. It helps researchers
to build up an argument. d. It has everything a researcher needs to read about his/her research
-What is the most popular citation style used in academic research papers?
Select one: a. APA and CMS b. APA c. CMS d. MLA e. CMS and MLA f. All of the choices g. APA and MLA
-Identify the following materials by choosing the correct letter: Spolarium by Juan Luna
-In a study of birth planning in China reenhalgh in Ryan and ernard 00 surveyed 1011 evermarried
women gathered social and economic histories
from 10 families. he conducted indepth interviews with present and formal officials known as cadres
and collected documentary evidence from
local newspapers ournals and other sources. reenhalgh notes that ecause I was largely constrained from
asking direct uestions aout resistance
the informal record of field notes interview transcripts and uestionnaire data contains few overt
challenges to state policy. reenhalgh concludes
however that their conversations with the researchers oth peasants and cadres made strategic use of
silence to protest aspects of the policy they
did not like. adres for eample were loathe to comment on irthplanning campaigns peasant women were
reluctant to talk aout steriliation. hese
silences form one part of the unofficial record of irth planning in the villages. More eplicit protests were
registered in informal conversations. rom
these interactions emerged a sense of profound distress of villagers forced to choose etween a
resistance that was politically risky and a
compliance that violated the norms of hinese culture and of practical reason.
Answer: searching for missing information
-Artwork of the child participants
Select one: a. Pictures . Word Tales and Lists c. Graphics
-Answer 1,2,3, 4, 5 or 6, to identify the stages of the interview where the following statements are said.
“How does your family view your situation?”
Answer: 4
-Identify the technique used to discover the thees in the data below.
Naomi Quinn (in Ryan and Bernard, 2003) has analyzed hundreds of hours of interviews to discover
concepts underlying American marriage and
to show how these concepts are tied together. he egan y looking at patterns of speech and at the
repetition of key words and phrases paying
particular attention to informants use of metaphors and the commonalities in their reasoning about
marriage. an one of her informants says that
marriage is a manufactured product. his popular metaphor indicates that an sees marriages as
something that has properties like strength and
staying power and as something that reuires work to produce. ome marriages are put together well
while others fall apart like so many cars or toys
or washing machines.
Answer: Metaphors and analogies
Anything that might indicate membership in groups or in supopulations of interest to the study such as
profession social status socioeconomic
class religion or ethnicity
Select one: a. Human traffic b. verbal behavior and interactions c. Physical behavior and gestures d.
Appearance e. Personal space f. People who
stand out
What do you think about the two presidential candidates?
Answer: OPEN
Much can be learned from a text by what is not mentioned.
Select one: a. Transitions . Unarked tets c. Indigenous categor d. ord repetitions e. awing f. Metaphors
and analogies g. opare and contrast h.
utting and Sorting i. e words in contet I . j. Searching for missing information k. onnectors l. Social
science queries
What is your message to people who are still fighting cancer until now
Answer: 5
-The idea that themes represent the ways in which tets are either similar or different from each other.
Select one: a. Unarked tets . Searching for issing inforation c. onnectors d. Indigenous categor e. awing f.
Social science queries g. compare and
contrast h. Metaphors and analogies i. ord repetitions . e words in contet I k. utting and Sorting l.
Transitions
-Barkin et al. (in Ryan and Bernard, 2003) interviewed clinicians community leaders and parents aout
what physicians could and did do to prevent
violence among youth. hese were long comple interviews so arkin et al. roke the coding process into two
steps. hey started with three maor
themes that they developed from theory. he principle investigator went through the transcripts and cut
out all the uotes that pertained to each of
the maor themes. hen four other coders independently sorted the uotes from each maor theme into
piles. hen the pile sort data were analyed with
multidimensional scaling and cluster analysis to identify suthemes shared across coders.
Answer: cutting and sorting
Answer: His/her name and identifying characteristics
-The mathematics involved is very high level and people often struggle with it even after being taught
how to do it.
Answer: False
-Which of the following is the first step in starting the research process?
Answer: Identification of problem
Answer: False
-What aspect of research experience illustrates the pressure to the researcher in meeting research
deadlines?
Answer: Emotions
Which of the following is a research method that allows a researcher to get information about a large
number of subjects relatively inexpensively
and easily?
Answer: Naturalistic observation
-Subjectivity of researcher in methodology is recognized less. –False
-Informed consent requires that individuals…
Answer: Have adequate information about the procedures and benefits associated with the research
Answer: They have obtained a certificate of confidentiality
-What is a research instrument?

Answer: a tool for data collection
-A reasoning where one start with certain particular statements and conclude with a universal
statement is called
Answer: inductive method
-It addresses the question of how people produce social reality in and through interactive processes.
Answer: Qualitative research is the best design for a social inquiry since it
explores and analyzes people's values and perspective through observation.
-What is an ethical dilemma?
Answer: conflict between the different principles of immoral conduct
Answer: Investigator should practice fairness in distribution and equitable selection of participants
-Which of the following is a characteristic of a well-written research hypothesis?
Answer: pertinent question
-Which of the following is NOT a role of a researcher?
Answer: fabricator of data
-Choose the correct paraphrase of the following quotation on the statements about research knowledge
and experience. “In much of society,
research means to investigate something you do not know or understand. ” -Neil Armstrong
Answer: Research is an investigation of the unknown.
-True or False: Qualitative research requires data from a natural setting.
Answer: true
Answer: Falsification of data bank
-Write TRUE if the statement gives the correct description of an everyday life research and FALSE if it is
incorrect. The observation of such forms
can be broken into the dimensions of temporal, spatial, material, social, meaningful, media-technical,
emotional and bodily aspects.
Answer: true
Answer: False
-Which of the following is a good research question?
Answer: How do teenagers view the word “forever”?
Answer: PURE
-Write SCOPE if the sentence must be placed in the coverage of the research, and write ELIMITATI if it is
a restriction of the research. The study
is focused on the possible implementation of online ea in the university.
Answer: SCOPE
-The beneficiaries mentioned in the significance of the study pertain to
Answer: People and institution who have directly or indirectly experienced the research problem.
-What qualitative research characteristic is being described in the statement: The data and the
researchers interpretation of the data - hinge
greatly on the contents fro which the data are obtained
Answer: Importance of context
-It clearly states the constructs to be examined.
Answer: True
-Reliability of survey questions was not established.
Answer: DELIMITATION
-In the title “The chemistry of English Language between Foreign and Local Students of Holy Ghost
College in Bangued, Abra”, who could e the
possible beneficiaries of the research

Answer: Students, teachers, school administrators and future researchers
-What should e considered in formulating research questions for the statement of the problem?
Answer: Avoid open-ended questions that need explanatory answers.
-The results of this study should be limited to students enrolled in similar programs.
-It should not pose an ethical or moral problem for implementation.
Answer: True
-Statistics will not be utilized in analyzing the results.
-Research benefits and beneficiaries are mentioned in
Answer: Significance of the study
-How can a researcher become the data gathering instrument in qualitative research?
Answer: The researcher is at the center of the data-gathering phase.
-What is conceptual audacity that can be found in the theme of everyday life research?
Answer: A tool that enables us to see new and perhaps surprising aspects of the everyday lives that we
lead.
-It must only ask about the relationship between two or more variables
Answer: True
-Which of the following titles is best for applied research?
Answer: The effectiveness of abstinence programs
-What does participant-researcher relationship mean in qualitative research?
Answer: The participants and the researcher share the “research space”.
-What is the scope of the research?
Answer: Identifies the possibilities to which to which the study becomes manageable in terms of issues,
respondents, and time.
-The researcher invented the results of the study.

Answer: Fabrication
-Q: What are your views on homelessness? A: Well, I think it’s a terrible thing that in a modern society
we have a problem such as this. I don’t
know though what we can do about it. I want to do something but I don’t know what. You are
constantly reminded of the problem if you go to town.
They are always there asking for money. You don’t know though if they really need it or if they are in
fact doing quite well from begging. But if you
have any caring qualities you can’t ignore requests for help, when you have so much for yourself. They
say a lot of people choose to live on the
streets – well I don’t believe that. I think that is an easy thing for the authorities to say – it lets them off
the hook. So really I guess the answer to
your questions is that I am not sure what to think about homelessness. I feel that something should be
done but I feel powerless to do anything
personally. I think that the time has come for the government to do something. It makes me feel
uncomfortable; I don’t know what to do. Source:
Grbich (2013)
The government is the only one who can help the homeless
Answer: False
Answer: The authenticity of the information
Answer: Published accounts of researchers
-The World Famous Hot Dog Site. (1999, July 7). Retrieved January 5, 2008, from
http://www.xroads.com/~tcs/hotdog/hotdog.html
Answer: APA
Grbich (2013)
The homeless are stereotyping their social conditions to beg for money.
Answer: False
-Harmon (in Nieswiadomy, 2008) collected data from 8 nurses who were employed between 1951 and
1965 in a Virginia state hospital. These
nurses were now retired and had between 12 and 46 years of psychiatric nursing experience. The
researcher wanted to describe the experiences
of these nurses who practiced in a state mental hospital before and during the introduction of
antipsychotic medications. They expressed
resignation and frustration while trying to provide care despite crowded wards and inadequate
personnel and supplies. The nurses indicated that
they focused on the patient’s body instead of on the patient’s mind. The camaraderie they experienced
with other nurses helped them continue in
their positions, despite what they felt to be a “thankless job.”
Answer: 8 nurses
-A director didn’t cite the name of the playwright he used in the contest.
Answer: Plagiarism
-What information is required for the APA in-text citation?

Personal author: McCullough, David G. Title: John Adams Publication info: New York : Simon & Schuster,
c2001. Bibliography note: Includes
bibliographical references (p. 703-726) and index
Answer: McCullough, 2001
-What organization principle is used to explain historical changes or perspectives?
Answer: Chronology
-Name the research misconduct performed in the following situations by choosing the letter of the
correct answer: She hastily distorted the
statistical computation of the data to finish her paper on time.
Answer: Falsification
-Identify the sample used in the researches below by choosing the letter of the best answer:
Dunckley, Aspinal, Addington-Hall, Hughes, & Higginson (in Nieswiadomy, 2008) used the staff in one
hospice and one nursing home setting in
London as their research data. The purpose of the study was to identify facilitators and barriers to the
use of the Palliative Care Outcome Scale
(POS). Staff took part in semi-structured interviews, completed diaries, and participated in monthly
meetings to give their opinions of what they
thought were the facilitators and barriers to the implementation of the POS.
Answer: staff of one hospice and one nursing home
-Do the preliminary data analysis on the interview below by agreeing or disagreeing on the following
statements. Write TRUE for agree and
FALSE for disagree.
Interview Segment Q: What are your views on homelessness? A: Well, I think it’s a terrible thing that in a
modern society we have a problem such
as this. I don’t know though what we can do about it. I want to do something but I don’t know what. You
are constantly reminded of the problem if
you go to town. They are always there asking for money. You don’t know though if they really need it or
if they are in fact doing quite well from
begging. But if you have any caring qualities you can’t ignore requests for help, when you have so much
for yourself. They say a lot of people
choose to live on the streets – well I don’t believe that. I think that is an easy thing for the authorities to
say
– it lets them off the hook. So really I guess the answer to your questions is that I am not sure what to
think about homelessness. I feel that
something should be done but I feel powerless to do anything personally. I think that the time has come
for the government to do something. It
makes me feel uncomfortable; I don’t know what to do. Source: Grbich (2013)
Many people are still unconditionally helping the homeless.
Answer: True
-Identify the citation format used in the following references by writing CMS, APA or MLA: Google.
“Google Privacy Policy.” Last modified March
11, 2009. http://www.google.com/intl/en/privacypolicy.html
Answer: MLA
¬-What type of source is the newspaper clipping?
Answer: Syndicated
-What citation style was used in this source? Ellis, Rod. Understanding Second Language Acquisition.
New York: Oxford University, 1986. Print.
Answer: MLA
Adler (2003) examined the relationship of foreign language study and SAT Verbal scores. Additionally,
the study explored whether or not the
number of years of foreign language study had an impact on SAT verbal scores. The students involved
were female seniors at a private high
school in suburban Maryland. It was hypothesized that there would be no significant effect that the
choice of foreign language study has on the
verbal score achieved on the SAT. This hypothesis was rejected because there was a significant
difference in SAT Verbal averages among the
students of three different foreign languages. French foreign language students outperformed Spanish
and Latin foreign language students
Answer: female senior students
-Which part of the review of the related literature engages in a dialogue with the literature?
Answer: Introduction
-A researcher is interested in the examples or illustrations several authors have used to prove a point.
How can he pull them all together and use
them in his own paper in a list?
Answer: Include a citation after each separate example to indicate where you found them.
-Which of the following is the best way to maximize the process of reviewing
of the related literature?
Answer: Reviewing the researcher’s notes made on editorial and overview papers and chapters
-Answer 1, 2, 3, 4, 5 or 6, to identify the stages of the interview where the following statements are said.
“What is your message to people who are still fighting cancer until now?”
Answer: 5
-The research report need not to be substantially different from drafts, except where participants have
indicated that change is necessary.
Answer: True
-Identify the category of the information in participant observation by choosing the letter of the best
answer.
How people use their bodies and voices to communicate different emotions; what individuals’ behaviors
indicate about their feelings toward one
another, their social rank, or their profession.
Answer: Physical behavior and gestures
answer.
Gender, age, ethnicity, and profession of speakers; dynamics of interaction
Answer: Verbal behavior and interactions

-Recommendations should aim for the ideals but they must be feasible, practical, and attainable even
for impossible.
Answer: False
“This research is conducted to investigate the life experiences of people who survived cancer and now
living cancer free for more than 5 years.”
Answer: 2
-Identify the most appropriate way to display the following research data. Choose the letter of the
correct answer.
Summary of research findings
Answer: Word Tables and Lists
-Draw your conclusion on the following statements by choosing the letter of the correct answer.
The club president tendered his resignation and said, “While I may no longer lead this organization, I will
continue to support its endeavors and
activities.”
Answer: He will still participate in the activities of the organization.
correct answer.
Area plan of a research field
Answer: Graphics
“Thank you for finding time to be in this interview. Your story is very inspiring.”
Answer: 6
-Choose the technique for discovering theme to the description:
The idea that themes represent the ways in which texts are either similar or different from each other.
Answer: Compare and contrast
-Identify the following questions as OPEN, LEADING or MAPPING.

Do you think he is gay?
Answer: LEADING
-Not too much detail is needed in the summary of findings – simple answer the research questions, and
draw the conclusion.
Answer: true
Interviews searching for what people do in managing impersonal social relationships, methods by which
people acquire and maintain achieved
and ascribed status, and information about how people solve problems.
Answer: Social science queries
The coordinator made an announcement, “Only the first 100 applicants will be interviewed today. The
others would have to come back tomorrow.”
Answer: Interview of applicants will be conducted today and tomorrow.
answer.
Where people enter and exit; how long they stay; who they are (ethnicity, age, gender); whether they
are alone or accompanied; number of people
Answer: Human traffic
Since you wish to pursue your graduate studies, what course will you enroll?
Answer: MAPPING
In reading, we should consider not only what we can directly get from the text but also what we can
read between the lines. In order to fully
understand and appreciate a thought, a sentence, a passage, and a text, we need to read more than the
literal meaning (Yu & Plata, 2006).
Answer: We should use given information in inferring ideas.

correct answer.
The list of research participants
Mateo almost wished that he hadn’t listened to the radio. He went to the closet and grabbed his
umbrella. He would feel silly carrying it to the bus
stop on such a sunny morning.
Answer: Mateo heard a weather forecast; it would rain in the afternoon.
-What is a research design?
Answer: all of the choices
-What is bibliography?
Answer: A complete list of all works related to the study including the ones that are not directly
contained in the report.
-Choose the best research design approach for the following research title: Children of wealthy parents
in the education system
Answer: Grounded Theory
-Which of the following is the correct notion about observation?
Answer: A key data gathering method in social sciences
-Which of the following is not a type of narrative research?
Answer: Case study
-What is the final stage of analyzing data?
Answer: Presenting the data in tabular form
-Which of the following is NOT the function of references?
Answer: To ensure sufficiently long reference list
-A study is based on 30 people (across three focus groups). What type of study is this?
Answer: Qualitative
-Choose the best research design approach for the following research title: A personal journey with
grounded theory methodology
-Which of the following titles is a narrative research?
Answer: The Life and Works of Rizal
-How does verification of data happen?
Answer: Check and recheck the data to ensure the initial conclusions are
realistic, supportable, and valid.
-When assessing Internet based literature, which of the following is NOT important?
Answer: The layout of the site
-A surveyor placed a cable across a street to count the number of vehicles which pass over it at different
times of the day in order to select a site
for a new 7-Eleven store. What type of data collection did he use?
Answer: Observation
-Which of the following should be considered in questioning data validity and reliability?
Answer: All of the choices
-Choose the best research design approach for the following research title: Solving word problems of
preschoolers through illustrations
Answer: Action Research
-__________ contains a small number of people (usually eight to twelve) and is convened to address
topics introduced by a group moderator?
Answer: Focus group discussion
-The researcher collected data using questionnaires, structured observation and interviews. What is the
research design applied?
Answer: Ethnographic
-Choose the best research design approach for the following research title: A Qualitative Study of
Multicultural Identities: Three Cases of London's
Inner-City Children
Answer: Ethnographic Research
-What is the purpose of the qualitative data analysis?
Answer: To accomplish a clear description of the phenomenon under study
-Which statement is true in writing research recommendations?
Answer: Recommendations should be logical and valid.
-What techniques for discovering research texts fall under simple observation?
Answer: Word repetitions, key-indigenous terms, and key-words-in-contexts (KWIC)
-What type of source are documentary films?
Answer: Static
-What influences the choice of the research design?
-Which of the following belongs to related literature?
Answer: textbook
-Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of related literature and studies?
Answer: Reviewed materials must be many.
-Threats to credibility in qualitative research exist when _____________.
Answer: The data that fail to fit the explanation or interpretation are not addressed.
-What is common in data collection among qualitative researches?
Answer: Language based
-Which of the following is the purpose of recommendations?
Answer: Courses of actions suggested by the researcher based on the findings of the study
-In participant observation, what information can be observed?
-Which of the following is the correct order in writing the research paper?
Answer: Introduction, method, results, discussion and references

-Which of the following method is used in qualitative research?
-Choose the best research design approach for the following research title: Lived experiences of adult
caregiving daughter and their elderly
mothers
Answer: Phenomenological Research
-Which of the following citation used the APA format?
Answer: Canonigo, C.S. (1999). English Grammar & Composition Part 1. Manila: CKC Publication
-Which of the following do you need to consider in designing a research?
Answer: Focus on your research questions.
-Choose the best research design approach for the following research title: A historical and comparative
note on the relationship between analytic
induction and grounded theorizing
-Choose the best research design approach for the following research title: The lived experience of being
a sole mother in the Philippines
-Which connector is used to signify conditional relationships?
Answer: Rather than
-A study is based on 1000 people interviewed face-to-face in shopping areas. What qualitative data
collection was used?
Answer: Interview
-The entire research project is an exercise in
-Which citation style is usually used in social science researches?
Answer: APA format
-Which statement is correct in writing research conclusion?

-What are research data?
-Why is participant observation common among ethnographic studies?
Answer: Because it helps researchers learn the perspectives held by study populations.
-What kind of questions must be used in conducting interviews?
Answer: Mapping questions
-What is known to be deliberately fabricating details of a research project?
Answer: Lying by fabrication
-What are the ways to verify conclusions for qualitative research?
Answer: Memoing, verification and credibility
-Which qualitative research design seeks action to improve practice and study the effects of the action
that was taken?
Answer: Action research
-What qualitative analytic approach is mentioned here? This approach involves the researcher in the
production of “objective” accounts of the
content of the verbal, written or visual texts, the development of codes and categories often prior to
analysis, and the definition and measurement
of units of analysis.
Answer: Enumerative approach
-What section of the research should clarify concepts defined within the scope of the study?
Answer: Conclusion
-Which of the following is the first stage of in-depth interview?
Answer: Establish an initial rapport
Question 1
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This is a method in writing the bibliography in the copyright date that it will written only author's name.
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d. APA System
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Classify the following material: Unpublished Theses
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d. Example of the Sources of Preparing the Related Literature and Studies
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Classify the following material: Professional journals
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a. Both of these
b. Example of the Location on Preparing the Related Literature and Studies
c. Example of the Sources of Preparing the Related Literature and Studies
d. None of these
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Which of the following is not the features in characteristics of a research.?
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c. Using marginalized in the society
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Which of the following is not the function of the related literature?
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c. It helps you to disregard your research findings into the existing body of knowledge.
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This is the another tips for writing an introduction of the research paper that after providing your
readers with some background, use essay
introduction to outline what you are going to discuss.
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c. Lay it on 'em
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Classify the following material: School document
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a. Example of the Sources of Preparing the Related Literature and Studies
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Identify the method in writing the bibliography used in this entry: Abarquez, O.L
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a. APA System
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This is the basic tips in keeping mind in writing the title that the primary function of a title is to provide a
precise summary of the paper's content.
Select one:
a. Keep it simple, brief and attractive
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Identify the method in writing the bibliography used in this entry: Dela Gracia, Jonel T.
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a. MLA System
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Which of the following is not the a good research title?
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a. Create a research with lengthy pages
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This is the basic tips in keeping mind in writing the title that the good research title should contain key
words used in the manuscript and should
define the nature of the study.
Select one:
c. Keep it simple, brief and attractive
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Identify the method in writing the bibliography used in this entry: Raymond, B.N
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d. APA System
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This is the another tips for writing an introduction of the research paper that a thesis statement or
research paper is the main point of your paper; it
is narrow, focused, and specific.
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c. What's your point?
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This is a process wherein you need to have different skills like planning, organizing and the like in order
to come up good research.
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a. Research process
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Identify the method in writing the bibliography used in this entry: San Joseph, K.L.
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a. APA System
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This is by means of statistics that involve collection and study of numerical data.
Select one:
d. Quantitative Research
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This is the basic tips in keeping mind in writing the title that the other lesser-known or specific
abbreviations and jargon that would not be
immediately familiar to the readers should be left out.
Select one:
c. Avoids abbreviations and j argon
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Which of the following that the literature review can help in many ways in relation to the study?
Select one:
d. Contextualized the recommendations
Question 20
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This is the another tips for writing an introduction of the research paper that if you really want to draw
readers in, you have to start your
introduction with something attention grabbing.
Select one:
c. Start with a bang
Question 21
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This is a method in writing the bibliography in the title of the reading material wherein it will underlined
or italicized title with all content words
capitalized
Select one:
a. MLA System
Question 22
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This is the another tips for writing an introduction of the research paper that you must provide your
readers with a little background or basic
information about the topic you are covering.
Select one:
c. Be general before you're specific
Question 23
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Which of the following value of research in the area of interest that research entails both reading and
writing?
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d. A Seed to love reading, writing analyzing and sharing valuable information
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Classify the following material: Government Libraries

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d. Example of the Location on Preparing the Related Literature and Studies
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This research used a scale, range and verbal interpretation in conducting the research.
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c. Descriptive Research
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Classify the following material: Reports from seminar
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Identify the method in writing the bibliography used in this entry: Belchez, Romana F.
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a. MLA System
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Classify the following material: Books
Select one:
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This is a word that is a well-substantiated explanation of some aspects of the natural word, based on a
body of facts that have been repeatedly
confirmed through observation and experiment.
Select one:
c. Theory
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This is the base word of the variable.
Select one:
a. Vary
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Which of the following value of research in the area of interest that research is required not just for
students but for all professionals?
Select one:
a. A tool for building knowledge and efficient learning
Question 33
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This is a method in writing the bibliography in the title of the reading material wherein it will italicized
title with only the beginning word capitalized.
Select one:
a. APA System
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Classify the following material: Encyclopedias
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Why experimental research is considered to be true experimental?
Select one:
a. Because uses valid results
Question 36
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This is the tips in writing the significance of the study that by looking into the general contribution of
your study.
Select one:
d. Write from general to specific

Question 37
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This is the another tips for writing an introduction of the research paper that there is no rule for exactly
how long an introduction should be you
must consider your length of paper.
Select one:
a. What's your point?
Question 38
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Which of the following value of research in the area of interest that research has a vital role in business?
Select one:
a. An aid to business success and job search
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Classify the following material: National Library
Select one:

Question 40
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Which of the following you need to keep in mind in choosing your own topic that make sure you select a
subject that you can develop with
sufficient details?
Select one:
c. Choose a topic on which you can find material
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Classify the following material: Newspaper
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Classify the following material: Periodicals
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a. Example of the Sources of Preparing the Related Literature and Studies

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Classify the following material: 80. Museum
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c. Example of the Location on Preparing the Related Literature and Studies
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This is a method in writing the bibliography in the copyright date that it will written after the publisher's
name.
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d. MLA System
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Classify the following material: Private Libraries
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Classify the following material: Magazines
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Classify the following material: Almanacs
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b. Example of the Sources of Preparing the Related Literature and Studies
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This is kind of quantitative research that the best example is true experimental research.
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b. Experimental Research
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Which of the following value of research in the area of interest that television shows and movies ooze
with research - both on the part of the
writers and the actors?
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b. Means to understand various issues
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Identify the method in writing the bibliography used in this entry: Dimaano, Richard B.
Select one:
c. MLA System
Which of the following is not an ethical dilemma in research?
Select one:
c. Falsification of data bank
True or False: A responsible researcher looks for alternative ways to arrive at a conclusion in the study.
Answer: False
What aspect of research experience illustrates the expedition of the researcher?
Select one:
What does “observe justice” mean in ethical research?
Select one:
d. Investigator should practice fairness in distribution and equitable selection of participants.
A researcher may withhold a participant’s name and any identifying characteristics when asked to
Select one:
b. They have obtained a certificate of confidentiality
What is scientific method?
Select one:
b. Systematic process
Research is described as a cycle because it follows a process.
Which of the following is not included in the research experience?
Select one:
c. Social class of the researcher
Anonymity is when a participant does not give a researcher…
Select one:
a. His/her name and identifying characteristics
Research is
Select one:
b. Analyzing and interpreting new information
It should not use comparative terms (such as higher, better, etc.).
Select one:
False
The problem statement is more specific than a topic and it limits the scope of the research problem.
Select one:
True
It addresses indirectly some real problem in the world.
Select one:
True
The Specific Genetic Code of the Fruit Fly
Answer: PURE
It is biased in terminology or position.
Select one:
False
Identify the research title with the description of APPLIED or PURE research:
Compositions of Protons, Neutrons and Electrons
Answer: PURE
Indicate what is probably necessary to conduct the study and explain how the findings will present this
information.
Select one:
True
It must only ask about the relationship between two or more variables.
Select one:
True
Applying the algorithm for detecting individual trees from Drone Images
Answer: APPLIED
It has the potential to suggest directions for past research.
Select one:
False
The Internet has become an accepted source of information for educational research. Which of the
Select one:
c. The authenticity of the information

What should a review of the literature enable an investigator to do?
Select one:
a. Provide the insights necessary to develop a logical framework into which the topic fits.
What is the context of “literature” in a research project?
Select one:
d. Published accounts of researchers
Identify the following materials by choosing the correct letter:
Food blog
Select one:
a. Syndicated
Identify the citation format used in the following references by writing CMS, APA or MLA:
Pollan, Michael. 2006. The Omnivore’s Dilemma: A Natural History of Four Meals. New York: Penguin.
Answer: APA
Most of the searches for related literature are conducted using:
Select one:
b. Key word searches
Braveheart (starred and produced by Mel Gibson)
Select one:
b. Static
Which of the following statements is NOT TRUE with regards to the literature review?
Select one:
b. It explains the method necessary for the gathering of data.
What is the most popular citation style used in academic research papers?
Select one:
g. APA and MLA
Spolarium by Juan Luna
Select one:
c. Static
Identify the technique used to discover the themes in the data below.
In a study of birth planning in China, Greenhalgh (in Ryan and Bernard, 2003) surveyed 1,011 ever-
married women, gathered social and economic
histories from 150 families. She conducted in-depth interviews with
present and formal officials (known as cadres), and collected documentary evidence from local
newspapers, journals and other sources.
Greenhalgh notes that "Because I was largely constrained from asking direct
questions about resistance, the informal record of field notes, interview transcripts, and questionnaire
data contains few overt challenges to state
policy." Greenhalgh concludes, however, that their conversations with
the researchers, both peasants and cadres made strategic use of silence to protest aspects of the policy
they did not like. Cadres, for example
were loathe to comment on birth-planning campaigns; peasant women
were reluctant to talk about sterilization. These silences form one part of the unofficial record of birth
planning in the villages. More explicit protests
were registered in informal conversations. From these interactions
emerged a sense of profound distress of villagers forced to choose between a resistance that was
politically risky and a compliance that violated
the norms of Chinese culture and of practical reason.
Identify the most appropriate way to display the following research data. Choose the letter of the
correct answer.
Artwork of the child participants

Select one:
a. Pictures
Answer 1, 2, 3, 4, 5 or 6, to identify the stages of the interview where the following statements are said.
Answer: 4
to show how these concepts are tied together. She began by looking
at patterns of speech and at the repetition of key words and phrases, paying particular attention to
informants' use of metaphors and the
commonalities in their reasoning about marriage. Nan, one of her informants,
says that "marriage is a manufactured product." This popular metaphor indicates that Nan sees
marriages as something that has properties, like
strength and staying power, and as something that requires work to
produce. Some marriages are "put together well," while others "fall apart" like so many cars or toys or
washing machines.
Answer: metaphors and analogies
Identify the category of the information in participant observation by choosing the letter of the best
answer.
Anything that might indicate membership in groups or in sub-populations of interest to the study, such
as profession, social status, socioeconomic
class, religion, or ethnicity
Select one:
d. Appearance
Identify the following questions as OPEN, LEADING or MAPPING.
Answer: OPEN
Choose the technique for discovering theme to the description:
Much can be learned from a text by what is not mentioned.
Select one:
j. Searching for missing information
Answer: 5
Select one:
g. Compare and contrast
Barkin et al. (in Ryan and Bernard, 2003) interviewed clinicians, community leaders, and parents about
what physicians could and did do to
prevent violence among youth. These were long, complex interviews, so
Barkin et al. broke the coding process into two steps. They started with three major themes that they
developed from theory. The principle
investigator went through the transcripts and cut out all the quotes that
pertained to each of the major themes. Then four other coders independently sorted the quotes from
each major theme into piles. Then, the pile
sort data were analyzed with multidimensional scaling and cluster
analysis to identify subthemes shared across coders.
What is a research design?
Select one:
b. all of the choices
What is bibliography?
Select one:
c. A complete list of all works related to the study including the ones that are not directly contained in
the report.
Choose the best research design approach for the following research title:
Children of wealthy parents in the education system
Select one:
b. Grounded Theory
Which of the following is the correct notion about observation?
Select one:
d. A key data gathering method in social sciences.
Which of the following is not a type of narrative research?
Select one:
c. Case study
What is the final stage of analyzing data?
Select one:
d. Presenting the data in tabular form
Which of the following is NOT the function of references?
Select one:
c. To ensure sufficiently long reference list
A study is based on 30 people (across three focus groups). What type of study is this?
Select one:
d. Qualitative
A personal journey with grounded theory methodology
Select one:
c. Grounded Theory
Which of the following titles is a narrative research?
Select one:
c. The Life and Works of Rizal
How does verification of data happen?
Select one:
b. Check and recheck the data to ensure the initial conclusions are realistic, supportable, and valid.
When assessing Internet based literature, which of the following is NOT important?
Select one:
b. The layout of the site
A surveyor placed a cable across a street to count the number of vehicles which pass over it at different
Select one:
a. Observation
Which of the following should be considered in questioning data validity and reliability?
Select one:
Solving word problems of preschoolers through illustrations
Select one:
a. Action Research
__________ contains a small number of people (usually eight to twelve) and is convened to address
Select one:
c. Focus group discussion
The researcher collected data using questionnaires, structured observation and interviews. What is the
Select one:
b. Ethnographic
A Qualitative Study of Multicultural Identities: Three Cases of London's Inner-City Children
Select one:
d. Ethnographic Research
What is the purpose of the qualitative data analysis?
Select one:
d. To accomplish a clear description of the phenomenon under study
Which statement is true in writing research recommendations?
Select one:
b. Recommendations should be logical and valid.
What techniques for discovering research texts fall under simple observation?
Select one:
d. Word repetitions, key-indigenous terms, and key-words-in-contexts (KWIC)
What type of source are documentary films?
Select one:
a. Static
What influences the choice of the research design?
Select one:
Which of the following belongs to related literature?
Select one:
b. textbook
Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of related literature and studies?

Select one:
c. Reviewed materials must be many.
Threats to credibility in qualitative research exist when _____________.
Select one:
a. The data that fail to fit the explanation or interpretation are not addressed.
What is common in data collection among qualitative researches?
Select one:
a. Language based
Which of the following is the purpose of recommendations?
Select one:
b. Courses of actions suggested by the researcher based on the findings of the study
In participant observation, what information can be observed?
Select one:
Which of the following is the correct order in writing the research paper?
Select one:
d. Introduction, method, results, discussion and references
Which of the following method is used in qualitative research?
Select one:
d. Focus group discussion
Lived experiences of adult caregiving daughter and their elderly mothers
Select one:
d. Phenomenological Research
Which of the following citation used the APA format?

Select one:
b. Canonigo, C.S. (1999). English Grammar & Composition Part 1. Manila: CKC Publication
Which of the following do you need to consider in designing a research?
Select one:
d. Focus on your research questions.
A historical and comparative note on the relationship between analytic induction and grounded
theorizing
Select one:
d. Ethnographic Research
The lived experience of being a sole mother in the Philippines
Select one:
a. Phenomenological Research
Which connector is used to signify conditional relationships?
Select one:
b. Rather than
A study is based on 1000 people interviewed face-to-face in shopping areas. What qualitative data
Select one:
a. Interview
The entire research project is an exercise in
Select one:
Which citation style is usually used in social science researches?
Select one:
b. APA format
Which statement is correct in writing research conclusion?
Select one:
What are research data?
Select one:
Why is participant observation common among ethnographic studies?
Select one:
d. Because it helps researchers learn the perspectives held by study populations.
What kind of questions must be used in conducting interviews?
Select one:
c. Mapping questions
What is known to be deliberately fabricating details of a research project?
Select one:
c. Lying by fabrication
What are the ways to verify conclusions for qualitative research?
Select one:
b. Memoing, verification and credibility
Which qualitative research design seeks action to improve practice and study the effects of the action
that was taken?
Select one:
d. Action research
What qualitative analytic approach is mentioned here? This approach involves the researcher in the
content of the verbal, written or visual texts, the development of codes and
categories often prior to analysis, and the definition and measurement of units of analysis.
Select one:
d. Enumerative approach
What section of the research should clarify concepts defined within the scope of the study?
Select one:
b. Conclusion
Which of the following is the first stage of in-depth interview?
Select one:
c. Establish an initial rapport
Write TRUE if the statement gives the correct description of an everyday life research and FALSE if it is
incorrect.
The mathematics involved is very high level and people often struggle with it even after being taught
how to do it.
Select one:
False
Which of the following is the first step in starting the research process?
Select one:
b. Identification of problem
Answer: False
What aspect of research experience illustrates the pressure to the researcher in meeting research
deadlines?
Select one:
a. Emotions
and easily?
Select one:
d. Naturalistic observation
incorrect.
Subjectivity of researcher in methodology is recognized less.
Select one:
False
Informed consent requires that individuals…
Select one:
b. Have adequate information about the procedures and benefits associated with the research
Select one:
a. They have obtained a certificate of confidentiality
What is a research instrument?
Select one:
d. a tool for data collection
A reasoning where one start with certain particular statements and conclude with a universal statement
is called
Select one:
d. inductive method
1.It addresses the question of how people produce social reality in and through interactive processes.
Select one:
c. Qualitative research is the best design for a social inquiry since it explores and analyzes people's
values and perspective through observation.
What is an ethical dilemma?
Select one:
a. conflict between the different principles of immoral conduct
Select one:
b. Investigator should practice fairness in distribution and equitable selection of participants.
Which of the following is a characteristic of a well-written research hypothesis?
Select one:
b. pertinent question
Which of the following is NOT a role of a researcher?
Select one:
b. fabricator of data
Choose the correct paraphrase of the following quotation on the statements about research knowledge
and experience.
“In much of society, research means to investigate something you do not know or understand. ” -Neil
Armstrong
Select one:
d. Research is an investigation of the unknown.
True or False: Qualitative research requires data from a natural setting.
Answer: True
Select one:
d. Falsification of data bank
incorrect.
The observation of such forms can be broken into the dimensions of temporal, spatial, material, social,
meaningful, media-technical, emotional and
bodily aspects.
Select one:
True
Answer TRUE if the sentence is a correct description of a good research question, and answer FALSE if it
is an incorrect description.
Select one:
False
Which of the following is a good research question?
Select one:
a. How do teenagers view the word “forever”?
Answer: PURE
Write SCOPE if the sentence must be placed in the coverage of the research, and write DELIMITATION if
it is a restriction of the research.
The study is focused on the possible implementation of online exam in the university.
Answer: SCOPE
The beneficiaries mentioned in the significance of the study pertain to
Select one:
a. People and institution who have directly or indirectly experienced the research problem.
What qualitative research characteristic is being described in the statement: The data and the
researcher’s interpretation of the data – hinge
greatly on the contexts from which the data are obtained.
Select one:
b. Importance of context
It clearly states the constructs to be examined.

Select one:
True
Reliability of survey questions was not established.
In the title “The Chemistry of English Language between Foreign and Local Students of Holy Ghost
College in Bangued, Abra”, who could be the
possible beneficiaries of the research?
Select one:
c. Students, teachers, school administrators and future researchers
What should be considered in formulating research questions for the statement of the problem?
Select one:.
c. Avoid open-ended questions that need explanatory answers.
The results of this study should be limited to students enrolled in similar programs.
It should not pose an ethical or moral problem for implementation.
Select one:
True
Statistics will not be utilized in analyzing the results.
Research benefits and beneficiaries are mentioned in
Select one:
c. Significance of the study
How can a researcher become the data gathering instrument in qualitative research?
Select one:
b. The researcher is at the center of the data-gathering phase.
What is conceptual audacity that can be found in the theme of everyday life research?
Select one:
b. A tool that enables us to see new and perhaps surprising aspects of the everyday lives that we lead.
Select one:
True
Which of the following titles is best for applied research?
Select one:
c. The effectiveness of abstinence programs
What does participant-researcher relationship mean in qualitative research?
Select one:
a. The participants and the researcher share the “research space”.
What is the scope of the research?
Select one:
d. Identifies the possibilities to which to which the study becomes manageable in terms of issues,
Name the research misconduct performed in the following situations by choosing the letter of the
correct answer:
The researcher invented the results of the study.

Select one:
a. Fabrication
b. Plagiarism
c. Falsification
The correct answer is: Fabrication
Do the preliminary data analysis on the interview below by agreeing or disagreeing on the following
statements. Write TRUE for agree and FALSE
for disagree.
Interview Segment
Q: What are your views on homelessness?
A: Well, I think it’s a terrible thing that in a modern society we have a problem such as this. I don’t know
though what we can do about it. I want to
do something but I don’t know what. You are constantly reminded of the
problem if you go to town. They are always there asking for money. You don’t know though if they really
need it or if they are in fact doing quite
well from begging. But if you have any caring qualities you can’t ignore
requests for help, when you have so much for yourself. They say a lot of people choose to live on the
streets – well I don’t believe that. I think that
is an easy thing for the authorities to say – it lets them off the hook. So
really I guess the answer to your questions is that I am not sure what to think about homelessness. I feel
that something should be done but I feel
powerless to do anything personally. I think that the time has come for the
government to do something. It makes me feel uncomfortable; I don’t know what to do.
Source: Grbich (2013)
The government is the only one who can help the homeless.
Answer: False

Select one:
a. The authenticity of the information
b. The lack of bias
c. The number of "hits" for the site
d. The honesty of the reported information
The correct answer is: The authenticity of the information
Select one:
a. Any paper source
b. Any written material
c. Any highly regarded novel
d. Published accounts of researchers
The correct answer is: Published accounts of researchers
The World Famous Hot Dog Site. (1999, July 7). Retrieved January 5, 2008, from
Answer: APA
The correct answer is: APA
for disagree.
Interview Segment

Answer: False
Identify the sample used in the researches below by choosing the letter of the best answer:
Harmon (in Nieswiadomy, 2008) collected data from 8 nurses who were employed between 1951 and
nurses were now retired and had between 12 and 46 years of psychiatric
nursing experience. The researcher wanted to describe the experiences of these nurses who practiced in
a state mental hospital before and
during the introduction of antipsychotic medications. They expressed
they focused on the patient’s body instead of on the patient’s mind. The
camaraderie they experienced with other nurses helped them continue in their positions, despite what
they felt to be a “thankless job.”
Select one:
a. experiences of these nurses
b. crowded wards and inadequate personnel and supplies
c. antipsychotic medications
d. 8 nurses
The correct answer is: 8 nurses
correct answer:
A director didn’t cite the name of the playwright he used in the contest.
Select one:
a. Falsification
b. Plagiarism
c. Fabrication
The correct answer is: Plagiarism
What information is required for the APA in-text citation?
Personal author: McCullough, David G.
Title: John Adams
Publication info: New York : Simon & Schuster, c2001.
Bibliography note: Includes bibliographical references (p. 703-726) and index.
Select one:
a. McCullough, 2001
b. David Mc Cullough, 2001 (p.703-726)
c. David Mc Cullough, 2001
d. McCullough, 2001 (p.703-726)
The correct answer is: McCullough, 2001
What organization principle is used to explain historical changes or perspectives?

Select one:
a. Theme
b. Chronology
c. Development of ideas
d. Section
The correct answer is: Chronology
correct answer:
She hastily distorted the statistical computation of the data to finish her paper on time.
Select one:
a. Plagiarism
b. Falsification
c. Fabrication
The correct answer is: Falsification
London as their research data. The purpose of the study was to identify
facilitators and barriers to the use of the Palliative Care Outcome Scale (POS). Staff took part in semi-
structured interviews, completed diaries,
and participated in monthly meetings to give their opinions of what they
Select one:
a. semi-structured interviews, completed diaries
b. staff of one hospice and one nursing home
c. facilitators and barriers of the Palliative Care Outcome Scale (POS)
d. one hospice and one nursing home

The correct answer is: staff of one hospice and one nursing home
for disagree.
Interview Segment
Answer: True
Google. “Google Privacy Policy.” Last modified March 11, 2009.

http://www.google.com/intl/en/privacypolicy.html.
Answer: MLA
The correct answer is: MLA

What type of source is the newspaper clipping?
Select one:
a. Static
b. Syndicated
c. Dynamic
The correct answer is: Syndicated
What citation style was used in this source?
Ellis, Rod. Understanding Second Language Acquisition. New York: Oxford University, 1986. Print.
Select one:
a. CMS
b. APA
c. MLA
number of years of foreign language study had an impact on SAT verbal
scores. The students involved were female seniors at a private high school in suburban Maryland. It was
hypothesized that there would be no
significant effect that the choice of foreign language study has on the verbal
score achieved on the SAT. This hypothesis was rejected because there was a significant difference in
SAT Verbal averages among the students
of three different foreign languages. French foreign language students
outperformed Spanish and Latin foreign language students.
Select one:
a. female senior students
b. Latin foreign language students
c. French foreign language students
d. relationship of foreign language study and SAT Verbal scores
The correct answer is: female senior students
Which part of the review of the related literature engages in a dialogue with the literature?
Select one:
a. Introduction
c. Conclusion
d. Body
The correct answer is: Introduction
A researcher is interested in the examples or illustrations several authors have used to prove a point.
Select one:
b. Include a citation after each separate example to indicate where you found them.
c. Examples used to prove a point are managed a little differently than opinions, ideas, or facts. These
are treated the same way one would treat
common knowledge, and not referenced.
d. Include them in one parenthetical citation or endnote after you have finished listing them.
The correct answer is: Include a citation after each separate example to indicate where you found them.
Which of the following is the best way to maximize the process of reviewing of the related literature?
Select one:
a. Reviewing the researcher’s notes made on editorial and overview papers and chapters
b. Critically evaluating the personal study like how one does to other research work
d. Using the internet to find the key researchers
The correct answer is: Reviewing the researcher’s notes made on editorial and overview papers and
chapters
The research report need not to be substantially different from drafts, except where participants have
Select one:
b. True
answer.
Select one:
f. Physical behavior and gestures
answer.
Select one:
d. Verbal behavior and interactions
Recommendations should aim for the ideals but they must be feasible, practical, and attainable even for
impossible.
Select one:
a. False
Answer: 2
correct answer.
Select one:
c. Word Tables and Lists
Draw your conclusion on the following statements by choosing the letter of the correct answer.
activities.”
Select one:
d. He will still participate in the activities of the organization.
correct answer.
Select one:
c. Graphics
Answer: 6
Select one:
f. Compare and contrast
Answer: LEADING
Not too much detail is needed in the summary of findings – simple answer the research questions, and
Select one:
b. True
Select one:
h. Social science queries
Select one:
c. Interview of applicants will be conducted today and tomorrow.
answer.
Select one:
c. Human traffic
Answer: MAPPING
understand and appreciate a thought, a sentence, a passage, and a text, we

need to read more than the literal meaning (Yu & Plata, 2006).
Select one:
a. We should use given information in inferring ideas.
correct answer.
Select one:
a. Word Tables and Lists
Select one:
c. Mateo heard a weather forecast; it would rain in the afternoon.
Modern qualitative research can generally involve a detailed study of
c. values and judgement
c. Identification of problem
and experience.
“Research is formalized curiosity. It is poking and prying with a purpose. ” -Zora Neale Hurston
h. Research is a formalized curiosity with a purpose.
Among the steps in the research process, which part typically takes the most time of the researcher?
Select one:
a. Collecting data
Select one:
Which of the following is a type of quantitative research design?
b. Television ratings
Question text
Confidentiality is used to protect a participant’s privacy by
Select one:
c. Sharing only the information permitted by the participant
Select one:
b. His/her name and identifying characteristics
Answer:
False
Select one:
c. Systematic process
Research hypotheses can be defined as
a. A tentative conclusion or answer to a specific question raised at the beginning of the investigation.
What is the common research experience of a novice researcher?
Select one:
c. Reading various materials in answering assignments.
What scope of research promotes awareness to its audience?

a. Education
and experience.
“All I’m armed with is research.” -Mike Wallace
h. Research can equip anyone.
and experience.
“Research is the highest form of adoration” ― Pierre Teilhard de Chardin
d. Research is valuing others’ work.
Which of the following is not part of the library research?
b. Decide the research design appropriate for the topic.
Which of the following is not an example of qualitative researchers?
Select one:
a. descriptive research
Researchers can encourage people to volunteer to participate in their project by
Select one:
a. Offering small incentives
Debriefing shoulD
c. Explain all relevant aspects of research procedures
Research involves exploring what _________________ other researchers have come to.
b. conclusion
1.Which part of the research paper do you find the following?
It must give precise answers that will determine the difference or relationship, or implication of the
variables under study.
ANSWER:Statement of the Problem

2.Answer TRUE if the sentence is a correct description of a good research question, and answer FALSE if
it is an incorrect description.
ANSWER:TRUE
3.Identify the research title with the description of APPLIED or PURE research:
ANSWER:PURE
The problem statement is more specific than a topic and it limits the scope of the research problem
ANSWER:TRUE
It embodies substantive words or keywords or phrases that describe one’s research study
ANSWER:Research Title
ANSWER:TRUE
ANSWER:FALSE
This section indicates the specific benefits which will be gained from the results of the study.
ANSWER:Significance of the Study
It must also reflect the variables under study.

ANSWER:Research Title
10:Answer TRUE if the sentence is a correct description of a good research question, and answer FALSE
if it is an incorrect description.
It has multiple possible answers.
ANSWER:FALSE
RSCH G11
interest
Answer: False
Select one: a. Involvement b. Research Adventure c. Emotions d. Knowledge
instruments

-Research is
of the Fruit Fly
Answer: PURE
Answer: PURE
information.
Images
Answer: APPLIED
choices
Answer: APA
Gibson)
Answer: 4
stand out
Answer: OPEN
-Much can be learned from a text by what is not mentioned.
science queries
Answer: 5
Transitions
how to do it.
Answer: False
Answer: False
deadlines?
Answer: Emotions
and easily?

statement is called
Answer: Qualitative research is the best design for a social inquiry since it explores and analyzes people's
values and perspective through
observation.
Answer: true
Answer: true
Answer: False
Answer: PURE
Answer: SCOPE
Answer: True
Answer: True
lead.
Answer: True
Answer: Fabrication
Grbich (2013)
Answer: False
Answer: APA
Grbich (2013)
Answer: False
they focused on the patient’s body instead of on the patient’s mind. The camaraderie they experienced
with other nurses helped them continue in
their positions, despite what they felt to be a “thankless job.”
Answer: 8 nurses
Answer: Plagiarism
Answer: Chronology
FALSE for disagree.
modern society we have a problem such
as this. I don’t know though what we can do about it. I want to do something but I don’t know what. You
are constantly reminded of the problem if
you go to town. They are always there asking for money. You don’t know though if they really need it or
if they are in fact doing quite well from
begging. But if you have any caring qualities you can’t ignore requests for help, when you have so much
for yourself. They say a lot of people
say – it lets them off the hook. So really I
guess the answer to your questions is that I am not sure what to think about homelessness. I feel that
something should be done but I feel
powerless to do anything personally. I think that the time has come for the government to do
something. It makes me feel uncomfortable; I don’t
know what to do. Source: Grbich (2013)
Answer: True
Answer: MLA
¬-What type of source is the newspaper clipping?
Answer: Syndicated
Answer: MLA
-Which of the following is the best way to maximize the process of reviewing of the related literature?
Answer: 5
Answer: True
answer.
answer.

for impossible.
Answer: False
Answer: 2
correct answer.
activities.”
correct answer.
Answer: Graphics
Answer: 6

Answer: LEADING
Answer: true
answer.
Answer: MAPPING
correct answer.
Answer: Case study
Answer: Qualitative
Answer: Check and recheck the data to ensure the initial conclusions are realistic, supportable, and
valid.
Answer: Observation
Multicultural Identities: Three Cases of London's
Inner-City Children
Answer: Static
Answer: textbook
mothers
note on the relationship between analytic
induction and grounded theorizing
Answer: Rather than
Answer: Interview
Answer: APA format

that was taken?
analysis, and the definition and measurement
of units of analysis.
Answer: Conclusion
Select one:
c. Falsification of data bank
Answer: False
Select one:
Select one:
d. Investigator should practice fairness in distribution and equitable selection of participants.
Select one:
Select one:
b. Systematic process
Select one:
c. Social class of the researcher
Select one:
a. His/her name and identifying characteristics
Research is
Select one:
b. Analyzing and interpreting new information

Select one:
False
Select one:
True
Select one:
True
Answer: PURE
Select one:
False
Answer: PURE
information.
Select one:
True
Select one:
True
Answer: APPLIED
Select one:
False
Select one:
d. His/her name and identifying characteristics
incorrect.
how to do it.
Select one:
False
Select one:
b. Identification of problem
Answer: False
deadlines?
Select one:
a. Emotions
and easily?
Select one:
d. Naturalistic observation
incorrect.
Select one:
False
Select one:
b. Have adequate information about the procedures and benefits associated with the research
Select one:
a. They have obtained a certificate of confidentiality
.
Select one:
is called
Select one:
d. inductive method
1.It addresses the question of how people produce social reality in and through interactive processes.
c. Qualitative research is the best design for a social inquiry since it explores and analyzes people's
values and perspective through observation.
Select one:
a. conflict between the different principles of immoral conduct
Select one:
b. Investigator should practice fairness in distribution and equitable selection of participants.
Which of the following is a characteristic of a well-written research hypothesis?
Select one:
b. pertinent question
Select one:
b. fabricator of data
and experience.
Armstrong
Select one:
d. Research is an investigation of the unknown.
Answer: True
Select one:
d. Falsification of data bank
incorrect.
meaningful, media-technical, emotional and
bodily aspects.
Select one:
True
Select one:
False
\Which of the following is a good research question?
Select one:
a. How do teenagers view the word “forever”?
Answer: PURE
Answer: SCOPE
Select one:
a. People and institution who have directly or indirectly experienced the research problem.
What qualitative research characteristic is being described in the statement: The data and the
researcher’s interpretation of the data – hinge
greatly on the contexts from which the data are obtained.
Select one:
b. Importance of context
Select one:
True
College in Bangued, Abra”, who could be the
possible beneficiaries of the research?
Select one:
c. Students, teachers, school administrators and future researchers
What should be considered in formulating research questions for the statement of the problem?
Select one:
c. Avoid open-ended questions that need explanatory answers.

Select one:
True
Research benefits and beneficiaries are mentioned in
Select one:
c. Significance of the study
Select one:
b. The researcher is at the center of the data-gathering phase.
Select one:
b. A tool that enables us to see new and perhaps surprising aspects of the everyday lives that we lead.
Select one:
True
Select one:
c. The effectiveness of abstinence programs
Select one:
a. The participants and the researcher share the “research space”.
What is the scope of the research?
Select one:
study.
d. Identifies the possibilities to which to which the study becomes manageable in terms of issues,
RESEARCH 111 (COMPILED BY ROI) +95 ANSWERS
It can be defined like mathematical and statistical models which are describing a diverse array of
variables relationship.
False
Choose the most appropriate explanation to the meaning of the following quotation on qualitative
research.
“The worse thing that contemporary qualitative research can imply is that, in this post-modern age,
anything goes. The trick is to produce
intelligent, disciplined work on the very edge of the abyss.” ― David Silverman
a. The messy analysis and inductive approach is the qualitative characteristic describe in this quotation.
It involves multilayered process
which may include anything but the inductive approach will shape the result into an intelligent and
disciplined work that will really make a
difference.
Which of the following statements is wrong?
c. Research must give pride to its investigator.
Qualitative research addresses scientific issues.

False
What should happen if a participant withdraws from your research?
d. Discard the data collected from the withdrawn participant and respect his/her personal decision.
Which sample belongs to quantitative research?
Representative sample
Ethical standards promote the values that are essential to collaborative work, such as trust,
accountability, mutual respect and fairness.
The writing of research reports is best regarded as
a. an academic chore
Qualitative research requires the analytical and organizational abilities that are necessary for all
researchers.
True
It addresses the question of how people produce social reality in and through interactive processes.
True
Confidentiality and anonymity are important to insure limited risk of exposure of information including…
Illegal behaviors
Qualitative research can prove the absolute truth.
False
It is generally used to figure out the changes in a system when a variable in the system changes,
measuring how the end result changes by
altering a variable.
False
Which of the following is similar in qualitative and quantitative research?
a. Both can be utilized by researchers depending on the use.
Research done in natural settings is
b. more likely to involve applied research than basic research

Which part of the research paper do you find the following? A brief statement of the general purpose of
the study.
Statement of the Problem
How Do Slime Molds Reproduce
PURE
College Tuition Becoming Prohibitive to Young Adults from Being Successful
APPLIED
It embodies substantive words or keywords or phrases that describe one’s research study.
Research Title
Which of the following guide questions does NOT define your research purpose?
Do you intend to publish your research?
Developing algorithm for performing classification based on pixels
PURE
How can online and mobile communications become advantageous in qualitative research?
b. Participants can enrich their text responses by attaching files, images, links to websites, and voice
response.
Willing (2009) argues that many qualitative researchers tend not to work with “variables” that are
defined by the researcher prior to the
research project because
d. All of the above
Which of the following is NOT found in the significance of the study?
c. Possible recommendations to the research findings.
c. Everyday life is a research methodology.

The researchers also determined the children’s reactions on violent cartoon shows watched on
television.
SCOPE
Qualitative design is a flexible design because
B. All parts will continually be shaped during the research project.
Daily life research is advisable for students because
B. It involves their experience.
How to cure Obsessive Compulsive Disorder
APPLIED
Dependent variable is identified as the _____________ of the research topic.
Effect
Which of the following is a good title for a qualitative research?
d. The Chemistry of English Language between Foreign and Local Students of Holy Ghost College in
Bangued, Abra
Some technical terms on information technology were not explained in this study.
DELIMITATION
Theory of Relativity
PURE
Which part of the research paper do you find the following?
The period of the study which includes the time, either months or years, during which the data were
gathered.
a. Scope and Delimitations
This study concentrates on the factors that need to be considered for the implementation of the policy
SCOPE
The inputs are only coming from senior high school students of the subject school.
SCOPE
What study is focused on qualitative research?
d. Social Science
SCOPE
No experimental treatments were given, and no control other than gender was attempted.
DELIMITATION
What is “timeliness” applied in the scope and delimitation?
c. The suitability of the study to the beneficiaries
DELIMITATION
This is qualitative research that investigates the daily life of housewives on weekdays.
SCOPE
What is the composition of a research title?

b. The title must reflect the variables under study.
Ways to Improve School Readiness for Children
APPLIED
“The more important reason is that the research itself provides an important long-run perspective on
the issues that we face on a day-to-day
basis. ” -Ben Bernanke
b. Research provides an important perspective on our daily issues.
Avoid rhetorical questions (answerable by yes/no) for they only elicit either of the two responses and
may result to vagueness
b. Statement of the Problem
What does research implication mean?
Research proposition
Multitasking: Helpful or Hurtful
APPLIED
Education, nursing, sociology, anthropology, information studies, humanities, and health sciences are
the only topics to be used for qualitative
research.
True
Fraud in research comprises
d. all of the choices
Looks at relationships between variables and can establish cause and effect in highly controlled
circumstance.
False
Which statement is correct?
a. Research is exciting and challenging if people understand it and its demands.

b. Research is communicating existing knowledge.
c. Research is exclusively done by students.
d. Research is difficult, tedious, and cumbersome.
Which of the following is not part of a systematic investigation?
a. Identifying an area of research and formulating research questions
b. Coming up with detailed explanations of the overall process of research and the results
c. Developing a clear research strategy, research design, and choice of methods
d. Getting funding for the research
How does a researcher gain research knowledge?
a. by publishing the complete and well-written research paper
b. by conducting the data collection properly, ethically and factually.
c. by realizing the usefulness of those research outputs by employing the systematic process of research
d. by studying and synthesizing a complete review of related literature
Who is responsible for ethical behavior?
Select one:
a. the researchers
b. the participants
c. both participant and researchers
d. the authorities in the research locale
Researcher’s involvement to the research means
Select one:
a. It is the researcher’s quest of something new.
b. The research that the researcher takes in becomes a personal importance.
c. It examines the personal side of research and how the researcher manages the research difficulties.
d. Research enthusiasts start as critical readers of research projects.

What step can one take before starting a research?
Select one:
a. Be familiar with the needed software for the data analysis.
b. Get an approval from the research adviser.
c. Find a research partner or group.
d. Find an interesting social issue to address.
What scope of research is providing effective ways in practical solution?
Select one:
a. Education
b. Profession
c. Business
d. Administration
Critical researchers are primarily concerned with
Select one:
a. ethical violations in methodology
b. misuse of statistics
c. what researchers take for granted
d. how research is funded
What is the role of research in the daily life of people?
Select one:
a. It requires students to pass their subjects.
b. It aims human satisfaction and understanding.
c. It generates income to publishers.
d. It promotes the authors of the theses, books and journals.
Research is
Select one:
a. Analyzing and interpreting new information
b. Reorganizing, or restating, reviewing common findings
c. Collecting existing information
d. Modifying established knowledge
What is the purpose of informed consent?
Select one:
a. To make sure that participants know exactly what to expect from the research and to communicate
their right to withdraw at any stage.
b. To be able for the participant to make an informed choice about his/her participation and not
undertake any action which he/she may
otherwise have declined to do.
c. To ensure that participants would not lie to about the time commitment involved in their
participation.
d. To distribute incentives to the participant as a payment for his/her cooperation.
Qualitative design is messy because it involves multi-layered processes.
True
research.
“The major strength of qualitative approach is the depth to which explorations are conducted, and
descriptions are written, usually resulting in
sufficient details for the reader to grasp the idiosyncrasies of the situation.” – Myers
e. The importance of context and meaning are the reasons to get the depth of explorations in qualitative
research. The setting of the
problem and multiple ways to get data from the locale will surely help the researcher to explain the
unexplainable.
researchers.
True
“Find out what’s really out there. I never said to be like me, I say be like you and make a difference.” –
Marilyn Manson
f. Research is finding out there what other’s has not seen so you make a difference.
The qualitative design cannot be modified or changed.
False - can
How does a researcher avoid fraud?
a. Stress that ethical research practice involves honesty during training of scientists.
It is the arrangement of the individual’s arrangements of a particular person.
True
Qualitative research derives meaning from data of multiple sources.
True
Qualitative research proves the absence of the absolute truth because
c. The in-depth comprehensive approach to data gathering limits the scope of the research.
What is NOT an advantage of qualitative research?
d. It measures the validity and reliability of a research instrument.
____________________, availability of subjects, resources and ethical considerations.
a. Measurability
Which of the following topics should ethical consideration be applied?
a. Capital punishment
Which of the following subject areas can be covered by qualitative research?
a. Anthropology
a. All of the above
Which of the following skill does not belong to a qualitative researcher?
e. Technically capable in operating statistical devices.

This study concentrates on the factors that need to be considered for the implementation of the policy.
SCOPE
Which of the following is characteristic of qualitative research?
a. Flexible design
Why are research questions used in qualitative research?
b. All of the above
The rationale, timeliness, and or relevance of the study.
c. Significance of the Study
What is the basic research?
a. Acquire new knowledge.
In what type of research does a researcher study an individual subject in depth?
a. Case study
Research is
b. Searching for the truth in a scientific way
Normally, in which part of the research report are the hypotheses justified to the reader?
c. in the introduction
Qualitative research is relative to the everyday life of the researcher including his/her meditation on
daily activities and experiences.
True
What is a research rationale needed in scope and delimitation?
a. It gives reasons for the beneficiaries of the study.
What does “context” mean in qualitative research?
a. The situation where the data is obtained
Qualitative method is focused on the authentic experiences of the participants and their critical voices
because
b. It investigates the real-life human practices and statements.

Which of the following is NOT found in scope and delimitation of research?
a. The benefits and beneficiaries of the study
How does ethical consideration consider in the scope and delimitation?
a. Acknowledge the researcher’s co-authors.
Which of the following is a myth about qualitative research?
a. All of the above
Limitations of research refer to the
a. Restrictions identified by the researcher.
How does everyday life research encourage diversity?
b. It is widely used among marginalized groups to privilege their personal perspectives.
The best quality data that a researcher can get is the double blind test.
False
What scope of research increases the productivity of an institution?
b. Administration
RESEARCH 110 - 3
RD QUARTER EXAM (PARTIAL COVERAGE) (COMPILED BY ROI T.) (156 QUESTIONS WITH ANSWERS)
Change the topic “Overseas Filipino Workers (OFW’s)” into an effective research title.
Select one:
a. The Dilemma of OFW’s
b. The Plight of OFW’s and their families in the Philippines
d. The Effects of Overseas Work
An understanding of qualitative research is important because
Select one:
a. The daily life activities can be studied.

b. The knowledge on numbers can be practiced in statistics.
c. Survey is easily done in a public or crowded place.
d. Topics may come from laboratory experiences in school.
When you write a research paper, your goal is to
Select one:
a. Inform your reader.
b. Persuade your reader.
c. Motivate your reader to learn more about the subject
d. Save your reader time.
What is the criticism on qualitative research?
Select one:
a. Issues and subjects covered can be evaluated in depth and in detail.
b. Interviews are not limited to particular questions and can be redirected
c. Findings can be time consuming and difficult to present in visual ways.
d. The quality of research is heavily dependent on the skills of the researcher.
What statement is incorrect?
Select one:
a. The title reflects the findings of the study.
b. The title embodies substantive words that describe the study.
c. The study must reflect the purpose of the study.
d. The title must reflect the variables under study.
Which of the following is not an ethical dilemma?
Select one:
a. Informed consent
b. Conflict of interest
c. Falsification of documents
d. Misconduct in research
What research experience is present in this statement? A researcher usually chooses a research theme
that is close to his/her heart, belief or well-being.
Select one:
a. Researcher’s involvement
c. Emotional aspect of research
d. Researcher’s adventure
No generalization should be applied in this method.
Select one:
a. Quantitative
b. Qualitative
Which of the following statements applies to research knowledge?
Select one:
a. Determined students travel to search for topics.
b. Critical readers become curious analysts.
c. A social media user surveys online.
d. A child is learning how to speak.
Research is
Select one:
a. triggers one to find the true meaning of knowledge
b. the activity anyone who has good reputation and integrity
c. any organized inquiry carried out to provide information for solving problems
d. investigating, analyzing and synthesizing new information from various sources
What ethical dilemma is needed in this situation: A celebrity’s recent scandal involving the “hacking” of
her personal photographs on iCloud where her
personal information was accessed for a research on the lifestyle of local celebrities.
Select one:
a. Informed consent
b. Conflicts of interests
c. Misconduct in research
d. Authorship
What is in significance of the study?
Select one:
a. research coverage
b. research beneficiaries
c. research questions
d. research purpose
Which of the following is not a result of research?
Select one:
a. None of the choices
b. Deep well water
c. Caesarian birth
d. Solar powered objects
What is the last step of the research process?
Select one:
a. Build the reference page.
c. Determine the implications and conclusions.

d. Make recommendations for further research.
What is the use of research hypotheses?
Select one:
a. It prevents blind research.
c. It saves time, money and energy.
d. It separates relevant from irrelevant observation.
What is the classification of this research question? What kind of emotions and attitudes motivate
individuals to take part in mass events?
Select one:
a. Major problem
b. Sub-problem
c. Rhetorical question
d. Sub-question
Select one:
a. What are the basic values or goals of the organization?
b. How many teenagers are using the social media?
c. Is the source current or out of date to answer the problem?
d. Does the information on the issue appear to have evidences?
What is the synonym of dependent variable?
Select one:
a. Stimuli
b. Result
c. Basis
d. Origin
What ethical dilemma is needed in this situation: A celebrity’s recent scandal involving the “hacking” of
her personal photographs on iCloud where her
personal information was accessed for a research on the lifestyle of local celebrities.
Select one:
a. Informed consent
b. Misconduct in research
c. Authorship
d. Conflicts of interests
What research experience is present in this statement? A researcher usually chooses a research theme
that is close to his/her heart, belief or well-being.
Select one:
b. Emotional aspect of research
c. Researcher’s involvement
d. Researcher’s adventure
It lets the meaning emerge from the participants.
Select one:
a. Statement of the Problem
b. Scope and Delimitation
c. Quantitative Research
d. Significance of the Study
e. Qualitative Research
They must be clear and free from double meanings.
Select one:
a. Scope and Delimitation
b. Quantitative Research
c. Statement of the Problem
In formulating research questions, the _____________ governs the entire study.
Select one:
a. Statement of the problem
b. Major problem
c. Title
d. Sub-problem
What is the criticism on qualitative research?
Select one:
a. The quality of research is heavily dependent on the skills of the researcher.
b. Issues and subjects covered can be evaluated in depth and in detail.
c. Interviews are not limited to particular questions and can be redirected
d. Findings can be time consuming and difficult to present in visual ways.
What is the simplest meaning of inductive approach in qualitative research?
Select one:
a. Practical solutions
b. Addressing the need
c. Proving the observations
d. Learning from experience
What skill set is required from a qualitative researcher?
Select one:
a. Investigative, subjective and interpretative abilities
b. Writing, listening, and reading skills

c. Observational, objective and mathematical skills
d. Organization, attention to details and analytical abilities
What characteristic of qualitative research is mentioned here? It is designed to match the dynamics of
the evolving research process (Klenke, 2008).
Select one:
a. Flexible design
b. Importance of meaning
c. Participant-researcher relationship
d. Importance of context
What is a conceptual audacity?
Select one:
a. A concrete object in the everyday life of humans.
b. A tool to see new and surprising aspects of the human everyday lives
c. The critical voices of the participants
d. The filtered reality of human’s local, historical, contextual, and multiple lenses
Which of the following is a qualitative method?
Select one:
a. Observation
b. Survey
c. Statistics
d. Experiment
What is the third step in the research process?
Select one:
a. Formulate research questions
b. Design the study
c. Do the library search

d. Form a hypothesis
Which of the following is the NOT a strength of qualitative research?
Select one:
a. It answers problems encountered in human’s daily life.
c. It becomes a source of empowerment from the filtered reality of their local, historical, contextual, and
multiple lenses.
d. The means of the researcher to be closer to the world of his/her participants.
What is the importance of research in everyday life?
Select one:
a. It has brought the human race farther.
b. It makes the school days more interesting.
c. It makes the human routine complicated.
d. It develops math operational skills.
It is also known as the research plan.
Select one:
a. Research design
b. Research purpose
c. Research hypothesis
What is the classification of this research question? What kind of emotions and attitudes motivate
individuals to take part in mass events?
Select one:
a. Major problem
b. Sub-problem
c. Sub-question
d. Rhetorical question
Having no research questions or poorly formulated research questions will lead to poor research
because
Select one:
a. The research will be unfocused and unsure of the data to collect.
b. The researcher will not know the data analysis method to use.
c. The researcher will not be able to complete the requirements.
d. The researcher will only consider epistemological
queries.
Choose the correct research question.
Select one:
a. Where did the first election happen in the Philippines?
b. When did the election start according to Philippine history?
c. How did election start according to Philippine history?
d. How many voted in the first election in the Philippines?
It is an exploratory research.
Select one:
a. Qualitative
d. Quantitative
Which of the following is NOT an ESSENTIAL element of ethical research?
Select one:
a. Valuable scientific question
b. Balance of risks and benefits
c. Subject selection based on locality
d. Independent review
What characteristic of qualitative research is mentioned here? It is designed to match the dynamics of
the evolving research process (Klenke, 2008).
Select one:
a. Importance of context
b. Flexible design
c. Participant-researcher relationship
d. Importance of meaning
What is wrong with double meaning question in research?
Select one:
a. It is a rhetorical question.
b. It may result to inaccuracies in the attitudes being measured for the question.
d. It is grammatically incorrect.
Reliability in research means
Select one:
a. Factual results
b. Discordance of findings
c. Commonality of data
d. Repeatability of findings
What is the classification of research areas?
Select one:
a. Education, business and science
b. Economics, governance and society
c. Engineering, profession and science
d. Education, profession and administration

Having no research questions or poorly formulated research questions will lead to poor research
because
Select one:
a. The researcher will only consider epistemological queries.
b. The researcher will not be able to complete the requirements.
c. The researcher will not know the data analysis method to use.
d. The research will be unfocused and unsure of the data to collect.
Hypothesis refers to the
Select one:
a. A form of research bias
b. Conclusion drawn from the experiment
c. A tentative statement about the relationship
d. Outcome of an experiment
It generates data about human groups in social settings.
Select one:
a. Qualitative Research
c. Scope and Delimitation
d. Statement of the Problem
e. Significance of the Study
What is the best description of “research space” that the researcher and participants share?
Select one:
a. Research partnership
b. Participant-researcher relationship
c. Research location

It lets the meaning emerge from the participants.
Select one:
a. Statement of the Problem
c. Qualitative Research
e. Scope and Delimitation
What is the intervention used in quantitative research?
Select one:
a. Participant involvement
b. Immersion and simulation
c. No participant involvement
d. Case to case basis
It is objective, replicable and reliable.
Select one:
b. Qualitative
c. Quantitative
What question does qualitative research answer?
Select one:
a. When
b. Which
c. Why
d. How
Which of the following is not a synonym for independent variable?
Select one:
a. Manipulated
b. Stimulus
c. Presumed cause
d. Consequence
Select one:
a. Qualitative Research
c. Significance of the Study
e. Quantitative Research
Why does online qualitative research hold an advantage over paper-based systems?
Select one:
a. Because of the ability to review trends and analyze data
b. Because of the ability to insure that all required items are collected for a trial
c. Because of the ability to insure data integrity
d. Because of the ability to maintain confidentiality of research records
Which of the following applies the double meaning questions?
Select one:
a. Citing all the resources correctly and with complete information
b. Fairness in distribution and equitable selection of participants
c. Honesty between the researcher and participants
d. Persons with diminished autonomy (e.g., prisoners) should not be coerced to participate in a
research.
Which of the following is a required element of an informed consent based on ethical consideration in
research?
Select one:
a. Participation may start before consent is signed.
b. Participation may start after consent is signed.
c. Participation is required after consent is signed.
d. Participation is required before consent is signed.
Quantitative research shows clarity based on interpreting _____________ data.
Select one:
a. Interviewed
b. Observed
c. Subjective
d. Numerical
A well-formulated title must state ______________ in a clear, concise, and precise way.
Select one:
a. Research purpose
b. Research Questions
c. Variables
d. Words
Which of the following is a research design?
Select one:
a. Observation
b. Qualitative
c. Pure/ basic research
d. Everyday life
What type of issue is addressed by qualitative research?

Select one:
a. Simple
b. Public
c. Indifferent
d. Contextual
Which of the following statements applies to research knowledge?
Select one:
a. Determined students travel to search for topics.
b. Critical readers become curious analysts.
c. A child is learning how to speak.
d. A social media user surveys online.
Select one:
a. Qualitative
b. Quantitative
This part distinguishes the constraints of the study by stating the demarcations of time, measurability,
availability of subjects, resources and ethical
considerations.
Select one:
b. Significance of the Study
Which of the following is a good research question for an everyday life research?
Select one:
a. How can one distinguish a generic drug from a branded one?
b. What chemical content makes the soda drink produce bubbles?
c. How does the image of the ideal man influences the male population between the ages 20 and 35?
d. What is the biggest size of a super moon that can be seen by the naked eyes?
What part of the research problem is described here? It must be free from biases and impartiality.
Select one:
a. Form a hypothesis
b. Analyze data
c. Design the study
d. Determine a problem
It is also used to uncover trends in thought and opinions, and dive deeper into the problem.
Select one:
b. Quantitative
d. Qualitative
Paraphrase the statement: Qualitative approaches are typically used to explore new phenomena and to
capture individuals’ thoughts, feelings, or
interpretations of meanings and process (Given, 2008).
Select one:
b. It is used to study paranormal activities that humans experience.
c. It is used to survey the number of participants affected by the research problem.
d. It is used to gain an understanding of underlying reasons, opinions, and motivations of humans.

When you write a research paper, your goal is to
Select one:
a. Save your reader time.
b. Inform your reader.
c. Persuade your reader.
d. Motivate your reader to learn more about the subject
What is the separation between independent and dependent variable?
Select one:
a. An independent variable is being tested in an experiment.
b. An independent variable is changed in an experiment.
d. A dependent variable is controlled in an experiment.
Select one:
a. Case to case basis
b. Participant involvement
c. No participant involvement
d. Immersion and simulation
Select one:
a. How many teenagers are using the social media?
b. Does the information on the issue appear to have evidences?
c. Is the source current or out of date to answer the problem?
d. What are the basic values or goals of the organization?
It identifies the possibilities to which to which the study becomes manageable in terms of issues,
Select one:
a. Hypothesis
b. Delimitation
c. Limitation
d. Scope
What section identifies the people or institution who will benefit from the findings of the study?
Select one:
a. Title
b. Significance of the Study
It relates to the growth of knowledge, to the verification or validation of existing knowledge or practice
to the development of new knowledge.
Select one:
b. Qualitative Research
e. Statement of the Problem
Which of the following is not an ethical dilemma?
Select one:
a. Misconduct in research
b. Informed consent
c. Falsification of documents
d. Conflict of interest
What is pure research?

Select one:
a. It develops or refines theories.
b. It taking the results of scientific research and utilizing it directly in real world situations.
c. Psychologists working in human factors often do this research.
d. It is used to find solutions to everyday problems, cure illness, and develop innovative technologies.
Select one:
a. Make recommendations for further research.
c. Determine the implications and conclusions.
d. Build the reference page.
Why does online qualitative research hold an advantage over paper-based systems?
Select one:
a. Because of the ability to review trends and analyze data
b. Because of the ability to insure data integrity
c. Because of the ability to insure that all required items are collected for a trial
d. Because of the ability to maintain confidentiality of research records
Professionals do not need to use this method even when they have research problems at work.
Select one:
a. Qualitative
c. Quantitative
What is in significance of the study?
Select one:
a. research purpose
b. research beneficiaries
c. research coverage
d. research questions
Which title uses the qualitative inquiry?
Select one:
a. Starbucks and its Peers: Corporate Social Responsibility and Corporate Financial Performance
b. Eating habits of Preschoolers in Bulacan
c. Analysis of the Performance of Initial Public Donations
d. Under Pricing of Convertible Bonds in Asia
Which of the following is not a characteristic of research?
Select one:
a. Research is guided by specific problem or question.
b. Research questions are on existing information.
c. Research divides the major problems into sub-problems.
d. Research begins with an unanswered problem or question.
What makes qualitative research a flexible design?
Select one:
a. need a special class of analytical skills
b. a participant observer has little control over the activities of the observed
d. analyze their outcomes from the inside out
Which of the following is a characteristic of a researchable question?
Select one:
a. Interesting
b. Trendy
c. Unique
d. Empowerment
What is a variable?
Select one:
a. The unpredictable words in research.
b. Something that can be changed in research.
c. Anything that has a quantity or quality that varies.
d. The composition of research questions and titles.
What is the classification of research areas?
Select one:
a. Economics, governance and society
b. Education, business and science
c. Education, profession and administration
d. Engineering, profession and science
Research is
Select one:
a. investigating, analyzing and synthesizing new information from various sources
b. any organized inquiry carried out to provide information for solving problems
c. the activity anyone who has good reputation and integrity
d. triggers one to find the true meaning of knowledge
The variable which is not influenced by other variables in the study.
Select one:
a. Independent variable
b. Common variable
c. Dependent variable
d. Discrete variable
Its method is limited by variables.
Select one:
a. Qualitative
d. Quantitative
There should be a general statement of the problem which narrows down to sub-problems or specific
questions.
Select one:
a. Significance of the Study
c. Statement of the Problem
d. Qualitative Research
e. Quantitative Research
Which of the following is a proof of the research experience?
Select one:
a. Biography of the researcher
b. Researcher’s identity and insights
d. Researcher’s emotions
Select one:
a. The knowledge on numbers can be practiced in statistics.
b. The daily life activities can be studied.

c. Topics may come from laboratory experiences in school.
d. Survey is easily done in a public or crowded place.
What is the independent variable in the title stated in the previous item?
Select one:
a. Manila
b. intervention
c. Dogs
d. Children with Disabilities
Which of the following is not under qualitative research?
Select one:
a. everyday life research
b. pure research
c. applied research
Which of the following is NOT a description of a good research?
Select one:
a. Research scope is ambiguous.
b. Research process is detailed.
c. Research design is thoroughly planned.
d. Purpose is clearly defined.
What characteristic of qualitative research is mentioned here? The data and the researcher’s
interpretation of the data – hinge greatly on the contexts
from which the data are obtained (Roller & Lavraks, 2015).
Select one:
a. Importance of context
b. Presence of absolute truth

c. Inductive approach
d. Flexible design
It is used to measure attitudes, opinions, behaviors, and other defined variables – and generalize results
from a larger sample population.
Select one:
a. Qualitative
d. Quantitative
It does not apply statistical test or measurement on data analysis.
Select one:
c. Quantitative
d. Qualitative
Generalize the beneficiaries of a study.
Select one:
a. Teenagers are always involved in social issues.
b. Students will learn much information in any research.
c. The government must be concerned in any human problem.
d. The readers are involved in all the studies that they read.
What process in research is described in this sentence? It can be a qualitative or a quantitative research.
Select one:
a. Form a hypothesis
b. Determine a problem
c. Collect data
d. Design the study
Which one is the independent variable in this title: The Plight of Filipino Migrant Workers in the Middle
East?
Select one:
a. Filipino Migrant Workers
b. Plight
c. Middle East
d. Both Filipino Migrant Workers and Middle East
It is considered valid and reliable.
Select one:
a. Quantitative
b. Qualitative
What research purpose could be used in this title, Dogs: Intervention for Children with Disabilities in
Manila?
Select one:
a. Applied
c. both choices are correct
d. Pure/basic
Identify the wrong statement about research.
Select one:
a. The purpose of research leads to the construction of research questions.
b. Research aims to answer or solve specific issue or problem.
c. Research discovers the potential power of a researcher.

d. Research has the ultimate goal of developing an organized body of scientific knowledge.
What subject involves the everyday life?
Select one:
a. Social science
b. Mathematics
c. Humanities
d. Business
Where can one find the literature of a qualitative research?
Select one:
a. Ending part
b. Beginning part
c. Reference part
d. Middle part
Which of the following is not a basic ethical principle of research?
Select one:
a. Minimize possible harms
b. Respect for persons
c. Respect for nature and animals
d. Observe justice
What is the research experience?
Select one:
a. researcher’s personal aspects
b. one’s research knowledge
c. researcher’s achievements
d. researcher’s expertise
Research is
Select one:
a. investigating, analyzing and synthesizing new information from various sources
b. the activity anyone who has good reputation and integrity
c. triggers one to find the true meaning of knowledge
d. any organized inquiry carried out to provide information for solving problems
Which of the following is incorrect about everyday life research?
Select one:
a. It is a scientific research methodology.
b. It focuses on details and seemingly insignificant occurrences.
c. It is a participatory action research methodology.
d. It is written in second hand person voice.
Which of the following is not a thesis statement?
Select one:
a. Man’s greatest treasures are the lessons he learned.
b. The wanton cutting down of trees.
c. Coffee is now considered a health drink.
d. The Israeli-Hebollah conflict in Lebanon has placed the UN in the difficult position.
Which word was developed from the everyday life of man?
Select one:
a. Social
b. Science
c. Qualitative
d. Quantitative
Which of the following is a product of qualitative research?

Select one:
a. Medicines
b. Policies
c. Automobiles
Select one:
b. Is this tool interesting and useful?
c. How often and how much time do you spend on each visit to a hospital?
d. How satisfied are you with your pay and job conditions?
Which is a good argument in the research hypothesis?
Select one:
a. A dog can be trained to alert a human if the telephone is ringing.
b. Childhood obesity is alarming nowadays.
c. The amount of sun exposure is good to a plant.
d. More students get sick during the final week of testing than at other times.
It uses measurable data to formulate facts and uncover patterns in research.
Select one:
a. Quantitative
c. Qualitative
In ethical dilemma of research, authorship requires
Select one:
a. Accurate data recording
c. Significant intellectual contribution
d. Correct citation of authors
____________ tend to be generally expressed; a ____________ is a specific prediction about what the
readers will find.
Select one:
a. variable; findings
b. scope and delimitation; significance of the study
d. research question; hypothesis
What is the basic skill required of any researcher?
Select one:
a. Ability understand major philosophical issues
b. Ability to source data
c. Ability to calculate statistics
d. Ability to generate ideas for research projects
It is quantitative research designed to portray a complete and accurate description of historical events.
Select one:
a. Case study research
b. Historical research
c. Descriptive research
d. Correlational research
It describes a problem or condition from the point of view of those experiencing it.
Select one:

b. Quantitative
c. Qualitative
Which of the following is not a characteristic of qualitative research?
Select one:
a. Inductive approach
b. Flexible design
c. Important context
d. Presence of absolute truth
Its hypotheses are Specific, testable, stated prior to particular study.
Select one:
b. Quantitative
c. Qualitative
What is the sample size in qualitative research?
Select one:
a. big
b. holistic
c. representative
d. small
Which of the following is correct about research questions?
Select one:

c. They must guide the design of the study.
d. They must inform the content of the research discussion.
e. They must articulate the gap found in the literature.
Which of the following is excluded in the scope and delimitation?
Select one:
a. Research findings
b. The general purpose
c. Locale of the study
d. The population or universe
Which of the following is not found in the scope and delimitation?
Select one:
a. Rationale
b. Solutions
c. Timelessness
d. Problems
It mentions the restrictions identified by the researcher that may affect the outcome of the study which
he/she has little or no control, but are anticipated.
Select one:
What is the first thing to do in formulating research title?
Select one:
a. Identify the problem and the participants involve.

c. Choose the right words (i.e. nouns, prepositions, verbs).
d. Construct the variables under study.
It is a formal, objective, systematic process in which numerical data are used to obtain information
about the world.
Select one:
a. Quantitative Research
In ethical dilemma, conflict of interest happens when
Select one:
a. The researcher’s background is not related to his/her research topic.
b. The researcher bribes the authority to be in the research location.
c. The researcher participates as a research subject for his/her own study.
d. The researcher gives money for participants to join.
Online and mobile qualitative research enhance data integrity by
Select one:
b. Limiting free-text responses and maximizing the use of standard vocabularies
c. Validating data values whenever possible
d. Eliminating redundancy
e. None of the choices
Applied research is done ______________________.
Select one:
a. in natural setting
b. in computer simulation
c. anywhere
d. in a laboratory
It does need any research instrument to collect its data.
Select one:
b. Qualitative
d. Quantitative
Which of the following is the good way to find a good topic?
Select one:
a. Personal experience
c. Looking for the next step in the research process
d. Getting an idea from your adviser
The researcher should never report flaws in procedural design and estimate their effect on the findings.
Select one:
a. True
c. False
d. Depending on the topic
In selecting factors for a study, which of these does a researcher needs to consider?
Select one:
a. They have been investigated before.

b. They are not of interesting so only few will choose them.
c. They are available for investigation.
d. They do not lead to another question.
The method is affected by the researcher.
Select one:
b. Quantitative
c. Qualitative
It has primarily deductive process used to test pre-specified concepts, constructs, and hypotheses that
make up a theory.
Select one:
a. Quantitative
b. Qualitative
What is the best description of research rationale?
Select one:
a. Location of the research
b. Similar to research hypothesis
c. Reasons for conducting the research
d. The scope and delimitation of research
Validity in research refers to
Select one:
a. The power of the instrument to be used
b. How well a test measures what it is supposed to measure

c. the legality of the test to be used
d. How the researcher uses the instrument to the participants
What implications do human values have on qualitative research?
Select one:
a. They set the price the research is worth to be sold for.
b. They influence the ethical decisions of the researcher.
c. They contribute to the value of the data set by other researchers.
d. They influence the number of researchers to be involved in the study.
What is an example of qualitative research?
Select one:
a. Historical research
b. Descriptive research
c. Correlational research
d. Case study
A case study methodology is useful in
Select one:
a. Studies with big population
b. Study of a bounded entity
c. Statistical analysis
d. Study spreads in large geographic areas
What is the use of research variables?
Select one:
a. They are quiet detailed with an overview of in depth.
b. They have a period when they starts and stops.
c. They are the measurable factors of the research.

d. They may have a pattern such as daily, weekly, ad-hoc and monthly.
Which of the following best describes a hypothesis?
Select one:
a. The data that need to be supported
b. A clear relationship between factors
c. Basis for research questions
d. Statement that the researcher set out to prove
Choose a good research problem for a qualitative research?
Select one:
a. A student examined the function of boxing as a way to help adolescents with a criminal record to deal
with aggression
b. A shopper wants to compare the number of shoppers during ordinary and Christmas season.
c. A lawmaker is thinking of an innovation for a cleaner election.
d. A teacher was considering a computer instructional tool for active learning pedagogy.
In qualitative research, researchers evaluate any number of variables to make sense of the data. These
variables include
Select one:
a. Language of the participants
c. Educational background of participants
d. Quantity of participants
Which of the following is a comparison between pure and applied research?
Select one:
a. Both of them are good research design.
b. None of them is applicable for everyday life research.
c. Both of them need statistical measurement.

d. Both of them are feasible research purpose.
Which research refers to scientific study and research that seeks to solve practical problems?
Select one:
a. Pure research
b. Both Basic and Applied research
d. Both Basic and Pure research
e. Both Pure and Applied research
f. None of the choices
g. Basic research
h. Applied research
Which of the following is the strength of qualitative research?
Select one:
a. It is focused on the scientific explanations of facts.
b. It measures reliability and validity of instruments using figures.
c. This may in turn generate new forms of human action.
d. The theme of everyday life is very subjective.
What is the prevention to the situation mentioned in the previous item (no. 107)?
Select one:
a. Millenials must protect their social media accounts by using complicated passwords and customizing
their account settings.
b. People must secure their photographs and personal information from public viewing.
d. Millenials should not save many pictures and personal information in their gadgets (i.e. smart phones,
laptop, etc.)
What is the contrast of everyday life research from others?

Select one:
a. It documents the particulars of life.
c. It captures life as it is lived.
d. It allows the researcher to describe behavior as it occurs in natural contexts.
It is the best research method to use in any field of study.
Select one:
b. Quantitative
d. Qualitative
Its hypotheses are tentative and evolving, based on particular study.
Select one:
b. Qualitative
c. Quantitative
What would happen if the constructed research question has no precise answer?
Select one:
a. The results will not be accurate and valid.
b. The results will not address the specific need of the problem.
d. The whole research process is useless.
It provides observed effects (interpreted by researchers) of a program on a problem or condition.
Select one:
b. Quantitative
d. Qualitative
It determines the cause-and-effect interactions between variables.
A: Quantitative Research
Which of the following is a product of basic research?
A: advancement of knowledge
The quantitative method is used when __________ , ___________, and ________ are sought in the
study.
A: Richness, complexity and data
It aims to understand how the participants derive meaning from their surroundings, and how their
meaning influences their behavior.
A: Qualitative Research
Conclude the delimitation of a research with the title Impact of Electronic, Video and Mobile Games on
Social Development of Teenagers
A: This study is limited to the social development of teenagers including the improvement on their
attitude and values.
What is research ethics?
A: All of the choices
Restate the statement: Although it might be said that an absolute truth is intangible in all forms of
research, the interactive, personal and
interpretive approach in qualitative inquiry extinguishes the notion that the outcomes represent an
absolute truth.
A: The outcomes of qualitative inquiry are interactive, personal and interpretative truth.
Which is the most priority in the research process?
A: Recognize the problem
BAED-RSCH2111 Practical Research 1 (Week 11-19)

others would have to
come back tomorrow.”
Interview of applicants will be conducted today and tomorrow.
literal
meaning (Yu & Plata, 2006).
We should use given information in inferring ideas
Recommendations should aim to solve or help solve problems discovered in the investigation.
False
The best research design is the qualitative research design.
False
umbrella. He would feel silly
carrying it to the bus stop on such a sunny morning.
Mateo heard a weather forecast; it would rain in the afternoon.
Godina (2004) explored the contradictory literacy practices of 10 high school students of Mexican
background from the rural
Midwest. Literacy is investigated through English and Spanish in a sociocultural context. Findings reveal
how Mexicanbackground students
demonstrate different literacy practices in their homes and communities than those acknowledged at
school.
Results indicate that the lost opportunities for effective literacy learning at school ignored the realistic
responsibilities and potential of the
Mexicanbackground students.
Ethnographic Research
1965 in a Virginia state
hospital. These nurses were now retired and had between 12 and 46 years of psychiatric nursing
experience. The researcher
wanted to describe the experiences of these nurses who practiced in a state mental hospital before and
during the introduction of
antipsychotic medications. They expressed resignation and frustration while trying to provide care
despite crowded wards and
inadequate personnel and supplies. The nurses indicated that they focused on the patient’s body
instead of on the patient’s mind.
The camaraderie they experienced with other nurses helped them continue in their positions, despite
what they felt to be a
“thankless job.”
8 nurses
Daly (in Nieswiadomy, 2008) studied the lived experiences of mothers of suicidal adolescents. She
contended that, unfortunately,
the mother’s experience is often the hidden dimension in the family. Unstructured interviews were
conducted with 6 mothers living
with suicidal adolescents. Six themes were identified: failure as a good mother, the ultimate rejection,
feeling alone in the struggle,
helplessness and powerlessness in the struggle, cautious parenting, and keeping an emotional distance.
Phenomenological Research
Interview Segment
though what we can do
about it. I want to do something but I don’t know what. You are constantly reminded of the problem if
you go to town. They are
always there asking for money. You don’t know though if they really need it or if they are in fact doing
quite well from begging. But
if you have any caring qualities you can’t ignore requests for help, when you have so much for yourself.
They say a lot of people
say – it lets them off the
hook. So really I guess the answer to your questions is that I am not sure what to think about
homelessness. I feel that something
should be done but I feel powerless to do anything personally. I think that the time has come for the
government to do something.
It makes me feel uncomfortable; I don’t know what to do.
Being homeless is a choice and individual decision.
True
Interview Segment
quite well from begging. But
if you have any caring qualities you can’t ignore requests for help, when you have so much for yourself.
They say a lot of people
say – it lets them off the
hook. So really I guess the answer to your questions is that I am not sure what to think about
homelessness. I feel that something
should be done but I feel powerless to do anything personally. I think that the time has come for the
government to do something.
It makes me feel uncomfortable; I don’t know what to do.

Homelessness is a perennial global problem
True
1965 in a Virginia state
hospital. These nurses were now retired and had between 12 and 46 years of psychiatric nursing
experience. The researcher
wanted to describe the experiences of these nurses who practiced in a state mental hospital before and
during the introduction
of antipsychotic medications. They expressed resignation and frustration while trying to provide care
despite crowded wards and
inadequate personnel and supplies. The nurses indicated that they focused on the patient’s body
instead of on the patient’s
mind. The camaraderie they experienced with other nurses helped them continue in their positions,
despite what they felt to be a
“thankless job.”
Narrative Research
Williams and Irurita (in Nieswiadomy, 2008) studied the personal control and emotional comfort of
hospitalized patients.
Interviews were conducted with 40 patients, and 75 hours of field observations were conducted. The
basic psychological
process identified by the researchers was labeled “optimizing personal control to facilitate emotional
comfort.” Personal control
referred to the ability of patients to influence their environment; emotional comfort was defined as a
state of relaxation that
affected the physical status of the patient. Personal control was found to be a central feature of
emotional comfort.
Grounded Theory Research
background from the rural
Midwest. Literacy is investigated through English and Spanish in a sociocultural context. Findings reveal
how Mexicanbackground
students demonstrate different literacy practices in their homes and communities than those
acknowledged at
school. Results indicate that the lost opportunities for effective literacy learning at school ignored the
realistic responsibilities and
potential of the Mexicanbackground students
high school students of Mexican background from the rural Midwest
Interview Segment
quite well from begging.
But if you have any caring qualities you can’t ignore requests for help, when you have so much for
yourself. They say a lot of
people choose to live on the streets – well I don’t believe that. I think that is an easy thing for the
authorities to say – it lets them
off the hook. So really I guess the answer to your questions is that I am not sure what to think about
homelessness. I feel that
something should be done but I feel powerless to do anything personally. I think that the time has come
for the government to
do something. It makes me feel uncomfortable; I don’t know what to do.
The homeless are also the same beggars asking for money on the street.
True
hospitalized patients.
Interviews were conducted with 40 patients, and 75 hours of field observations were conducted. The
basic psychological
process identified by the researchers was labeled “optimizing personal control to facilitate emotional
comfort.” Personal control
referred to the ability of patients to influence their environment; emotional comfort was defined as a
state of relaxation that
affected the physical status of the patient. Personal control was found to be a central feature of
emotional comfort.
hospitalized patients
Results rely heavily on words, and often quotations from those studied are included in the document.
True
impossible.
False
Bill and Jessica were almost done taking turns choosing the players for their teams. It was Jessica’s turn
to choose, and only
Kurt was left. Jessica said, “Kurt.”
Jessica was pleased to have Kurt on her team.
You just opened a bag of potato chips and poured some juice in a glass when the phone rang. You went
out of the kitchen to
answer it. When you returned after a couple of minutes, you found the split juice and pieces of chips on
the floor. Your little
sister was tearyeyed and said, “I’m sorry. It was an accident.”
Your sister decided to get her own snacks
True
Word Tables and Lists
Characteristics of the people being studied

It is highly recommended through texts and marking them up with different colored highlighter pens.
Pawing
Organizational chart of the institution being studied
Graphics
Spradley (in Ryan and Bernard, 2003) recorded conversations among tramps at informal gatherings,
meals, card games, and
bull sessions. As the men talked to each other about their experiences, there were many references to
making a flop.
Spradley combed through his recorded material and notes looking for verbatim statements made by
informants about his
topic. On analyzing the statements, he found that most of the statements could fit into subcategories
such as kinds of flops,
ways to make flops, ways to make your own flop, kinds of people who bother you when you flop, ways
to make a bed, and
kinds of beds. Spradley then returned to his informants and sought additional information from them on
each of the
subcategories.
indigenous categories
He stole the recipe from the chef.
Plagiarism
Milken, Michael, et al. "On Global Warming and Financial Imbalances." New Perspectives Quarterly, vol.
23, no. 4, 2006, p. 63.
CMS
Identify the following materials by choosing the correct letter: Research survey
Dynamic
An Inconvenient Truth. Directed by Davis Guggenheim, performances by Al Gore and Billy West,
Paramount, 2006.
MLA
Falsification
Fabrication
Theatrical play
Dynamic
Food blog
Syndicated
The research assistant wrote an anonymous name in the list.
Fabrication
APA
“Good morning. I’m a health officer in our barangay and I also belong to the medical research team of
our community.”
Do you find her comments on your website offensive?
Leading
indicate about their
feelings toward one another, their social rank, or their profession.
Physical behavior and gestures
Verbal behavior and interactions
How can he pull them all
together and use them in his own paper in a list?

Include a citation after each separate example to indicate where you found them.
A blogger made a photo collage for his latest blog. He picked photos from his Facebook friends without
asking for their consent.
What research misconduct did he commit?
Plagiarism
Which of the following statements describes the process of reviewing the literature in a qualitative
study?
It is limited to a brief preliminary search so as to avoid bias from the researcher.
In MLA citation style, when documenting one author in reference in a text, which is correct?
This point has been argued before (Frye 197).
Which of the following statements is correct?
The reference list is doublespaced with hanging indents.
Which of the following is not an example of dynamic source?
paintings
Arrange the correct order of the guidelines for a coherent review of related literature:
1. Avoid misinterpretation or distortion of the writer’s original meaning by direct quotation.
2. Analyze their respective content, facts, findings, methods, concepts and implications. Cite properly all
relevant literature into a
meaningful whole.
3. Synthesize into holistic body of content or in one relevant discussion.
4. Classify and identify the appropriate categories, relationship, similarities, of both local and
international studies.
4, 2,1,3
Which of the following is an example of static type of source?
Html coded web sites
Which of the following is the most essential in conducting the review of related literature?
Examine all potential literature.

When doing your background reading for your literature review it is important to
All of the choices
MLA
Syndicated
What does CMS citation style mean?
Chicago Manual Style
Key word searches
What comes first before planning the structure of literature review?
Outlining the aim of the research
Which of the following is the best advice in using internet search engines in qualitative research?
Web addresses ending in ac.uk or .edu are generally bona fide academic sources
What is the APA citation style of the information of the source presented?
Title: John Adams
Bibliography note: Includes bibliographical references (p. 703726) and index
Cullough, D. (2001). John Adams, 703726. New York : Simon & Schuster
Reviewing the researcher’s notes made on editorial and overview papers and chapters
Which of the following is not an error that will result to plagiarism?
Paraphrasing other people’s information and citing the source of that information
In 1904, Matisse came under the influence of Signac's use of separated colors in his paintings. This was
called "divisionism." As
Spurling says, "Divisionism provided logical grounds for separating the ultimate goal of painting order,
harmony, emotional
stability achieved through rhythmic compositions of form and color from its traditional dependence on
the subject. This was an
important idea for Matisse.
No year of publication beside the cited names
Which of the following is the best way to avoid plagiarism?
Make sure that the source of every idea is very clearly identified and cited.
What information is required for the APA intext citation?
Title: John Adams
Bibliography note: Includes bibliographical references (p. 703726) and index.
McCullough, 2001
Which of the following is true in MLA citation of block quotes?
All of the choices
The literature review must be:
Required reading for the program of the study
What does the researcher engage in reading the literature?
An evaluation of the literature
What is the purpose of the search for literature in research?
The researcher develops an awareness of all the related literature.
Which characteristic is the first consideration in surveying related literature and studies?
The surveyed materials must be as recent as possible.
In APA citation style, which of the following is TRUE about quotations?
They should be used only when absolutely necessary.

Why does a researcher need to cite his/her sources?
To show readers the materials where the researcher base his/her analysis, narrative or conclusion.
Which of the following is the best way to protect yourself against plagiarism?
All of the choices
Describe your relationship with your colleagues.
Open
are alone or
accompanied; number of people
Human traffic
Would you like to continue that kind of relationship?
Mapping
“One area of this research is to record particular challenges that cancer patients face after
chemotherapy. Could you tell me
your experience?”
Open
What individuals’ preferences concerning personal space suggest about their relationships
Personal space
“How old were you when you discovered your disease?”
Do you feel great when people admire your work?
Leading
APA
Research journal
Syndicated
Weinstein, Joshua I. "The Market in Plato’sRepublic." Classical Philology 104 (2009): 439–58.
CMS
Static
The bibliography is incomplete.
Fabrication
The researcher manipulated the results of the study.
Falsification

MLA
Official website
Static
Plagiarism
Static
Reference list allows readers to locate and use the sources and copy the ones cited.
False
References can be the same as bibliography.

False
continue to support its endeavors
and activities.”
He will still participate in the activities of the organization.
James Springer and his identical twin James Lewis were separated at birth. They were raised in different
homes. They did not
meet again until they were 39. When they met, they found out the following: Springer’s first wife was
named Linda and his second
wife, Betty. Lewis has also had a wife named Betty and one named Linda. Each had a son named James
Allen. Each had owned a
dog named Toy. Their favorite subject in high school had been math. They had both studied law
enforcement after high school.
They had the same hobbies and the same favorite vacation place. They even liked the same brand of
cookies. (adapted from
http://www.gedonlineclass.net)
What conclusion can you draw about twins based on this article?
Identical twins have a lot in common
Conclusions should refer only to the population, area, or subject of the study.
True
“English has been dubbed as the “language of the world”. Over a billion people in the world have
considered English as their second
language. With over 2,500 OFW’s leaving the country everyday to different parts of the globe, Filipinos
are expected to arm
themselves with English to communicate with the world.”(Excerpt from “Nursing the Carabao English”,in
Yu& Plata, 2006)
Communicating in English is an important tool for Filipinos who want to work abroad.
indicated that change is
necessary.
True
The readers must be informed why this research counts and why is it important.
True
homes. They did not
meet again until they were 39. When they met, they found out the following: Springer’s first wife was
named Linda and his second
wife, Betty. Lewis has also had a wife named Betty and one named Linda. Each had a son named James
Allen. Each had owned a
dog named Toy. Their favorite subject in high school had been math. They had both studied law
enforcement after high school.
They had the same hobbies and the same favorite vacation place. They even liked the same brand of
cookies. (adapted from
What conclusion can you draw about the two men in the article?
Even though these men were raised differently, they like many of the same things.
Maria is watching too much television. A toddler shouldn’t be spending hours staring blankly at a screen.
Worse yet, some of her wild
behavior have been inspired by those awful cartoons she watches.
Some cartoons are not good for Maria.
In a study of birth planning in China, Greenhalgh (in Ryan and Bernard, 2003) surveyed 1,011
evermarried women, gathered
social and economic histories from 150 families. She conducted indepth interviews with present and
formal officials (known as
cadres), and collected documentary evidence from local newspapers, journals and other sources.
Greenhalgh notes that "Because I was
largely constrained from asking direct questions about resistance, the informal record of field notes,
interview transcripts, and questionnaire
data contains few overt challenges to state policy." Greenhalgh concludes, however, that their
conversations with the researchers, both
peasants and cadres made strategic use of silence to protest aspects of the policy they did not like.
Cadres, for example were loathe to
comment on birthplanning campaigns; peasant women were reluctant to talk about sterilization. These
silences form one part of the
unofficial record of birth planning in the villages. More explicit protests were registered in informal
conversations. From these interactions
emerged a sense of profound distress of villagers forced to choose between a resistance that was
politically risky and a compliance that
violated the norms of Chinese culture and of practical reason.
searching for missing information
Geographic map of the study area
Graphics
Another linguistic approach is to look for naturally occurring shifts in thematic content.
Transitions
people acquire and
maintain achieved and ascribed status, and information about how people solve problems
Social science queries
The changing image of public transportation
Pictures The approach is based on a powerful trick most of us learned in kindergarten and requires
paper and scissors.
Cutting and Sorting
The object is to look for metaphors in rhetoric and deduce the schemas, or underlying principles, that
might produce patterns in those
metaphors.
Metaphors and analogies
Look carefully at words and phrases that indicate relationships among things.
Connectors
Pictures
Bisogni, et. al. (2005) studied the conceptual understanding of how management of food and eating is
linked to life course events and
experiences. Individual qualitative interviews were conducting to adults in upstate New York,
particularly 14 men and 11 women with
moderate to low incomes. A conceptual model of food choice capacity emerged. Food choice capacity
represented participants'
confidence in meeting their standards for food and eating given their food management skills and
circumstances. Most participants had
faced challenging and changing circumstances (income, employment, social support, roles, health
conditions). Participants linked
strong food management skills with high levels of food choice capacity, except in the case of extreme
financial circumstances or the
absence of strong standards.
Narrative Research
Bullington (2005) investigated how older people (60+) experience the ageing body and how these
experiences affect aged peoples’
sense of identity. Explorative, open ended, interviews were conducted with 13 respondents between
the ages of 63 and 82, recruited
from a retired peoples’ organization, Church organizations, and from the working population. The
results showed that generally the
experience of the ageing body has to do with a changed life world, reactions to this change in terms of
body and self, and finding ways
to feel at home in this changed situation.
13 respondents between the ages of 63 and 82

Dunckley, Aspinal, AddingtonHall, Hughes, & Higginson (in Nieswiadomy, 2008) used the staff in one
hospice and one nursing home
setting in London as their research data. The purpose of the study was to identify facilitators and
barriers to the use of the Palliative
Care Outcome Scale (POS). Staff took part in semistructured interviews, completed diaries, and
participated in monthly meetings to
give their opinions of what they thought were the facilitators and barriers to the implementation of the
POS.
Action Research
Dunckley, Aspinal, AddingtonHall, Hughes, & Higginson (in Nieswiadomy, 2008) used the staff in one
barriers to the use of the Palliative
Care Outcome Scale (POS). Staff took part in semistructured interviews, completed diaries, and
participated in monthly meetings to
give their opinions of what they thought were the facilitators and barriers to the implementation of the
POS.
staff of one hospice and one nursing home
Interview Segment
though what we can do about
it. I want to do something but I don’t know what. You are constantly reminded of the problem if you go
to town. They are always there
asking for money. You don’t know though if they really need it or if they are in fact doing quite well from
begging. But if you have any
caring qualities you can’t ignore requests for help, when you have so much for yourself. They say a lot of
people choose to live on the
the hook. So really I guess the
answer to your questions is that I am not sure what to think about homelessness. I feel that something
should be done but I feel
something. It makes me feel
uncomfortable; I don’t know what to do.
Common people are powerless to help the homeless.
False
experiences affect aged peoples’
sense of identity. Explorative, open ended, interviews were conducted with 13 respondents between
the ages of 63 and 82, recruited
from a retired peoples’ organization, Church organizations, and from the working population. The
results showed that generally the
experience of the ageing body has to do with a changed life world, reactions to this change in terms of
body and self, and finding ways
to feel at home in this changed situation.
Phenomenological Research
Interview Segment
Homelessness is hopeless to be solved.
False
represented participants'
confidence in meeting their standards for food and eating given their food management skills and
circumstances. Most participants had
faced challenging and changing circumstances (income, employment, social support, roles, health
conditions). Participants linked
strong food management skills with high levels of food choice capacity, except in the case of extreme
financial circumstances or the
absence of strong standards.
14 men and 11 women with moderate to low incomes
Interview Segment
False
Interview Segment

Not all homeless are impoverished.
True
Textbooks
Static
The researcher copied the results of the study from another thesis.
Plagiarism
She changed the gender of the participant to complete the all male survey.
Falsification
Ebert, Roger. Review of An Inconvenient Truth, directed by Davis Guggenheim. rogerebert.com, 1 June
2006,
http://www.rogerebert.com/reviews/aninconvenienttruth2006. Accessed 15 June 2016.
MLA
Baxter, C. (1997). Race equality in health care and education.Philadelphia: Ballière Tindall.
APA
Leroux, Marcel. Global Warming: Myth Or Reality?: The Erring Ways of Climatology. Springer, 2005.
CMS
Live concert
Dynamic
Discovery Channel
Syndicated
Alibali, M. W. (1999). How children change their minds: Strategy change can be gradual or abrupt.
Developmental Psychology,
35,127145.
APA
The researcher declared she interviewed the resource person even if she didn’t.
Fabrication
RSCH 4th quarter exam
RSCH-111 WEEK:11 SHORT QUIZ 7
correct answer:
- Fabrication
2006, http://www.rogerebert.com/reviews/an-inconvenient- truth-2006. Accessed 15 June 2016.
-MLA
study?
A: It is a continuing process because the research problem becomes more focused throughout the
research.
-APA
Live concert
-Dynamic
-CMS
Discovery Channel
-Syndicated
-Falsification
Textbooks
-Static
-Plagiarism
Developmental Psychology, 35,127-145.
-APA
RSCH-111 WEEK 11: L.A 7
-Plagiarism
Milken, Michael, et al. "On Global Warming and Financial Imbalances." New Perspectives
Quarterly, vol.
23, no. 4, 2006, p. 63.
-CMS
-Falsification
Paramount, 2006.
-MLA
- Dynamic
research long quiz 4
30/30
c-Misha Sanches
Which of the following is the first to help improve the use of the research literature?
Keep a researcher notebook
Title: John Adams
Cullough, David. John Adams, p. 703-726. New York : Simon & Schuster (2001). Print.
What does the researcher need to generate useful and thorough key word searches?
A search and reading strategy
Published accounts of researchers
Economy Hurt by Decline in English (2006, June 18). The Manila Times, p. A1, A2.
APA
asking for their consent. What research misconduct did he commit?
Plagiarism
following is NOT an indicator of the quality of information found on the Internet?
The authenticity of the information
Paraphrasing other people’s information and citing the source of that information.
Web addresses ending in ac.uk or .edu are generally bona fide academic sources.
APA and MLA
Which one is an example of a correct in-text quotation?
Eguchi and Eguchi (2006) and Icassatti (2006) mentioned that students showed enthusiasm while using
these strategies.
Last week your professor talked about her theory of the best method for electoral reform in a lecture.
Since she knows all about it, do you need to reference this?
You need to cite it in the body of your paper and in the reference list.
All of the choices
What is the difference of related literature from related studies?
Related literature are materials usually printed and found in books.

Introduction
Syndicated
Title: John Adams
McCullough, 2001
What organizational principle is used to explain ideas according to their respective premise?
Theme
MLA
What research misconduct is committed when the researcher use the sentences from published medical
literature with minor modification in word structure without attribution?
Plagiarism
RSCH-110 QE
Which of the following can be found in the final part of the research paper?
Select one:
- Conclusion and recommendations of the study
Data gathering techniques are part of

Select one:
- The methodological framework
What is literature in research?
Select one:
- All of the choices
What category of information in participant observation is concerned about clothing, age, gender,
physical appearance of respondents?
Select one:
-Appearance
Select one:
-Recommendations should be logical and valid.
Which of the following is correct?
Select one:
-Only research conducted by academic staff with human participants requires ethical approval.
Select one:
- Rather than
Why do researchers need to be knowledgeable about research misconduct?
Select one:
- Ethnographic Research
Select one:
- Ethnographic
Select one:
-all of the choices
Select one:
-. All of the choices
What data collection procedure is used when analyzing and communicating the social life through
photos?
Select one:
-Visual data
What is the basis of research conclusion?
Select one:
- Data results
Select one:
Select one:
Which of the following should include the informed consent during an experimentation?
Select one:

Select one:
- Grounded Theory
Living with the patients with Schizophrenia and their families
Select one:
- Phenomenological Research
Select one:
- Canonigo, C.S. (1999). English grammar & composition part 1. Manila: CKC Publication
What research method allows researchers to obtain a detailed description of social settings or event in
order to situate people’s behavior within their own socio-cultural context?
Select one:
-. Observation
Select one:
-. Because it helps researchers learn the perspectives held by study populations.
Select one:
- Grounded Theory
Which organizational principle is used to connect the research topic to different backgrounds (i.e.
political, methodological, geographical, literary)?
Select one:
- Sector
What research design is used when a theory is developed from data generated by a series of
observations or interviews principally involving an inductive approach?
Select one:
- Grounded theory
Select one:
Which of the following is the basic rule in data collection?
Select one:
- Begin with secondary data, then proceed if necessary to collect primary data.
Select one:
- Establish an initial rapport
Select one:
Which of the following is qualitative data analysis?
Select one:
A researcher would like to display the geographic map of his research population. What mode for
displaying qualitative data should he use?
Select one:
-Graphics
Select one:
- Conclusion
The research project is
Select one:
- A scientific endeavor
Thea is interested to study the young people with dementia – chronic disorder caused by brain disease
or injury. What research design is appropriate for her research inquiry?
Select one:
-Phenomenological research
Select one:
-Language based
Select one:
-Courses of actions suggested by the researcher based on the findings of the study
Select one:
- The Life and Works of Rizal
Select one:
- Action Research
-Research Design
How does key word in context (KWIC) work for novice researchers?
- Researchers identify key words and then systematically search the corpus of text to find all
instances of the word or phrase.
Which of the following is the content of conclusion?
- A judgment or final decision
What is the grounded theory research design?
Select one:
- The researcher generates a general explanation (a theory) of a process, and action, or an interaction
shaped by the views of a large number of participants.
Select one:
Select one:
-Word repetitions, key-indigenous terms, and key-words- in-contexts (KWIC)
Select one:
- The data that fail to fit the explanation or interpretation are not addressed.
Select one:
-Memoing, verification and credibility
Which of the following is not normally associated with qualitative data?
Select one:
-Pie charts
Select one:
-Qualitative
Select one:
-Presenting the data in tabular form
A study is based on 1000 people interviewed face-to- face in shopping areas. What qualitative data
Select one:
- Interview
Select one:
-Mapping questions
Which of the following research questions should NOT be answered using action research methods?
Select one:
- Is parent attitude toward school uniforms related to their socioeconomic status?
Select one:
Select one:
-To ensure sufficiently long reference list
-Check and recheck the data to ensure the initial conclusions are realistic, supportable, and valid.
A study of the Italians and the health benefits of the Mediterranean lifestyle
Select one:
-Action Research
Select one:
-APA format
What is the optimal number of participants for a focus group discussion?
Select one:
- 8-12 members
theorizing
Select one:
Which of the following is an example of falsification in research?
Select one:
-Manipulated data from the findings
that was taken?
Select one:
-Action research
Select one:
-textbook
Select one:
- The layout of the site
Which of following should NOT be considered in conducting in-depth interview?
Select one:
- Pretend to be interested in hearing about the life of the interviewee.
__________________ is the thing (person, place, event, etc.) that is selected for inclusion in the study.
Select one:
-Sampling unit
A teacher conducts an action research study of the problem-solving methods used by students in her
ninth-grade Algebra I classes. Which of the following can she assume on the basis of her study?
Select one:
-Results apply only to Algebra I students in ninth grade.
Student awareness in global warming
Select one:
- Action Research
Select one:
- Static
production of “objective” accounts of the content of the verbal, written or visual texts, the development
of codes and categories often prior to analysis, and the definition and measurement of units of analysis.
Select one:
- Enumerative approach
Select one:
- To accomplish a clear description of the phenomenon under study
Select one:
- A complete list of all works related to the study including the ones that are not directly contained in
the report
Select one:
-Lying by fabrication
times of the day in order to select a site for a new 7-Eleven store. What type of data collection did he
use?
Select one:
- Observation
Select one:
- Case study
Select one:
-Reviewed materials must be many.
According to historical accounts, face-to- face methods have been used since the early years of
civilization to collect population figures. Why were these records kept?
Select one:
Select one:
- A key data gathering method in social sciences.
Select one:
A literature review should include material that is _____________________.
Select one:
- Directly related to the research questions
Select one:
- Focus group discussion
What is the best research design?
- For beginning researchers, a qualitative research is advisable because the natural setting is accessible.
What kind of research will answer a social inquiry?
The correct answer is: Qualitative research is the best design for a social inquiry since it explores and
analyzes people's values and
perspective through observation.
promote the values that are essential to collaborative work, such as trust, accountability, mutual respect
and fairness.
The correct answer is: Ethical standards

and experience.
“Research is the highest form of adoration” ― Pierre Teilhard de Chardin
The correct answer is: Research is valuing others’ work.
and experience.
“I believe in innovation and that the way you get innovation is you fund research and you learn the basic
facts. ” -Bill Gates
The correct answer is: Innovation is funding a research and learning its basic facts.
and experience.
“Do research. Feed your talent. Research not only wins the war on cliche, it's the key to victory over fear
and it's cousin, depression.” ―
Robert McKee
The correct answer is: Research is not only answering questions but also discovering one’s talent and
skill
and experience.
“The measure of greatness in a scientific idea is the extent to which it stimulates thought and opens up
new lines of research.” ― Paul A.M.
Dirac
The correct answer is: Research starts from the stimulated mind and may end to measure of greatness.
and experience.
“Research is formalized curiosity. It is poking and prying with a purpose. ” -Zora Neale Hurston
The correct answer is: Research is a formalized curiosity with a purpose.

and experience.
“All I’m armed with is research.” -Mike Wallace
The correct answer is: Research can equip anyone.
and experience.
“The more important reason is that the research itself provides an important long-run perspective on
the issues that we face on a day-today basis. ” -Ben Bernanke
The correct answer is: Research provides an important perspective on our daily issues.
and experience.
Armstrong
The correct answer is: Research is an investigation of the unknown.
and experience.
“Research is about engaging in a conversation with a brand.” -Matthew Rhodes
The correct answer is: Research is discussing specific issues.
and experience.
“Find out what’s really out there. I never said to be like me, I say be like you and make a difference.” –
Marilyn Manson
The correct answer is: Research is finding out there what other’s has not seen so you make a difference.
Debriefing should…
The correct answer is: Explain all relevant aspects of research procedures
The correct answer is: They have obtained a certificate of confidentiality
Researchers can encourage people to volunteer to participate in their project by

The correct answer is: Offering small incentives
Confidentiality is used to protect a participant’s privacy by
The correct answer is: Sharing only the information permitted by the participant
The correct answer is: His/her name and identifying characteristics
Research hypotheses can be defined as
The correct answer is: A tentative conclusion or answer to a specific question raised at the beginning of
the investigation.
Which of the following is similar in qualitative and quantitative research?
The correct answer is: Both can be utilized by researchers depending on the use.
Which of the following is not considered to be an example of misconduct in research?
The correct answer is: Fabrication of data
The correct answer is: Have adequate information about the procedures and benefits associated with
the research
Confidentiality and anonymity are important to insure limited risk of exposure of information including…
The correct answer is: Illegal behaviors
Normally, in which part of the research report are the hypotheses justified to the reader?
The correct answer is: in the introduction
What is the purpose of informed consent?
The correct answer is: To make sure that participants know exactly what to expect from the research
and to communicate their right to
withdraw at any stage.
What scope of research promotes awareness to its audience?
The correct answer is: Education
What scope of research increases the productivity of an institution?
The correct answer is: Administration

Which of the following should not be done by the researchers?
The correct answer is: Prevent mental and physical harm to subjects.
The correct answer is: Falsification of data bank
Which of the following is not an example of qualitative researchers?
The correct answer is: descriptive research
Critical researchers are primarily concerned with
The correct answer is: ethical violations in methodology
Fraud in research comprises
The correct answer is: all of the choices
deadlines?
The correct answer is: Emotions
Among the steps in the research process, which part typically takes the most time of the researcher?
The correct answer is: Collecting data
The correct answer is: a tool for data collection
The correct answer is: conflict between the different principles of immoral conduct
Which of the following statements is wrong?
The correct answer is: Research must give pride to its investigator.
Which of the following is not part of a systematic investigation?
The correct answer is: Getting funding for the research
Researcher’s involvement to the research means
The correct answer is: The research that the researcher takes in becomes a personal importance.
Research in daily life has

The correct answer is: Practical value
Research is
The correct answer is: Analyzing and interpreting new information
Which of the following best describes a hypothesis?
The correct answer is: Proposed before a good research question can be developed.
Modern qualitative research can generally involve a detailed study of
The correct answer is: values and judgement
Almost all research plans include the following components:
The correct answer is: a problem statement, a hypothesis, definitions, a literature review, a sample of
subjects, tests or other measuring
instruments, a description of procedures, and data analysis.
The correct answer is: fabricator of data
is called
The correct answer is: inductive method
Research is
The correct answer is: Searching for the truth in a scientific way
Who is responsible for ethical behavior?
The correct answer is: the researchers
The correct answer is: Identification of problem
The correct answer is: Social class of the researcher
Research done in natural settings is
The correct answer is: more likely to involve applied research than basic research
What is a major ethical drawback of offering financial incentive for participation?
The correct answer is: It can be coercive.
Research involves exploring what _________________ other researchers have come to.
The correct answer is: conclusion
research.
“The major strength of qualitative approach is the depth to which explorations are conducted, and
descriptions are written, usually resulting
in sufficient details for the reader to grasp the idiosyncrasies of the situation.” – Myers
The correct answer is: The importance of context and meaning are the reasons to get the depth of
explorations in qualitative research. The
setting of the problem and multiple ways to get data from the locale will surely help the researcher to
explain the unexplainable.
research.
“Formal symbolic representation of qualitative entities is doomed to its rightful place of minor
significance in a world where flowers and
beautiful women abound.” Albert Einstein
The correct answer is: Qualitative research is everyday life research. The issues to be addressed are in
the beautiful places where
problems are least expected to arise such as home, school, church, tourist spots, etc.
Qualitative design is messy because it involves multi-layered processes.
research.
“The most important advances, the qualitative leaps, are the least predictable. Not even the best
scientists predicted the impact of nuclear
physics, and everyday consumer items such as the iPhone would have seemed magic back in the 1950s.”
- Martin Rees
The correct answer is: The flexible design of qualitative research is illustrated in the quotation since it
can be modified from modern to
conservative or vice-versa depending on the need of the study. The skill set required of the researcher is
the key to interpret unpredictable
findings.
Online and mobile technology offer limited enhancements to qualitative research designs.
The correct answer is: False – unique
Qualitative research derives meaning from data of multiple sources.
The qualitative design cannot be modified or changed.
The correct answer is: False – can
Qualitative research can prove the absolute truth.
The correct answer is: False - absence of absolute truth
Education, nursing, sociology, anthropology, information studies, humanities, and health sciences are
the only topics to be used for
qualitative research.
Qualitative research uses survey as an instrument for data collection.
The correct answer is: False – observation
Qualitative research is relative to the everyday life of the researcher including his/her meditation on
daily activities and experiences.
Qualitative research addresses scientific issues.
The correct answer is: False – personal
researchers.

“The worse thing that contemporary qualitative research can imply is that, in this post-modern age,
anything goes. The trick is to produce
intelligent, disciplined work on the very edge of the abyss.” ― David Silverman
The correct answer is: The messy analysis and inductive approach is the qualitative characteristic
describe in this quotation. It involves
multilayered process which may include anything but the inductive approach will shape the result into
an intelligent and disciplined work
that will really make a difference.
“Modernity is a qualitative, not a chronological, category.” - Theodor Adorno
The correct answer is: The unique capabilities of online and mobile qualitative research can be under
modern category and they are very
much useful in qualitative research.
Multitasking: Helpful or Hurtful
The correct answer is: Applied
Which part of the research paper do you find the following? The weaknesses spring out of the
inaccuracies of the perceptions of the
respondents.
The correct answer is: Scope and Delimitations
Ways to Improve School Readiness for Children
Avoid rhetorical questions (answerable by yes/no) for they only elicit either of the two responses and
may result to vagueness.
The correct answer is: Statement of the Problem
Which part of the research paper do you find the following? Possible solutions to existing problems or
improvement to unsatisfactory
conditions.
The correct answer is: Significance of the Study
The best quality data that a researcher can get is the double blind test.
The correct answer is 'False'.
Individuals are like scientists who develop theories on how the world and their own activities function.
The correct answer is 'True'.
It is generally used to figure out the changes in a system when a variable in the system changes,
measuring how the end result changes by
altering a variable.
how to do it.
It addresses the question of how people produce social reality in and through interactive processes.
It can be defined like mathematical and statistical models which are describing a diverse array of
variables relationship.
Looks at relationships between variables and can establish cause and effect in highly controlled
circumstance.
It is the arrangement of the individual’s arrangements of a particular person.
meaningful, media-technical,

It embodies substantive words or keywords or phrases that describe one’s research study.
The correct answer is: Research Title
The correct answer is: Pure
It must also reflect the variables under study.
The correct answer is: Research Title
Your answer is correct.
Match the general term to its specific topic.
1. Generalization - [OFWs and migration]
2. Theater - [Les Miserables]
3. Texting - [Code switching]
4. Cloning - [Stem cell research]
5. Emotional quotient - [cyberbullying]
6. Anime - [manga]
7. Nuclear power - [Fukushima crisis]
8. Holidays - [Eid-ul-Fitr]
9. Natural material - [wood]
10. Dogs - [cross breeding]

College Tuition Becoming Prohibitive to Young Adults from Being Successful
This section indicates the specific benefits which will be gained from the results of the study.
A brief statement of the general purpose of the study.
How Do Slime Molds Reproduce
It has multiple possible answers.

information.
Developing algorithm for performing classification based on pixels
The period of the study which includes the time, either months or years, during which the data were
gathered.
The correct answer is: Scope and Delimitations
How to cure Obsessive Compulsive Disorder
Theory of Relativity
The rationale, timeliness, and or relevance of the study.
No experimental treatments were given, and no control other than gender was attempted.
The correct answer is: DELIMITATION
The researchers also determined the children’s reactions on violent cartoon shows watched on
television.
The correct answer is: SCOPE
This is qualitative research that investigates the daily life of housewives on weekdays.
Some technical terms on information technology were not explained in this study.
This study concentrates on the factors that need to be considered for the implementation of the policy.
The inputs are only coming from senior high school students of the subject school.
The correct answer is: People and institution who have directly or indirectly experienced the research
problem.
How does ethical consideration consider in the scope and delimitation?
The correct answer is: Acknowledge the researcher’s co-authors.
Which of the following skill does not belong to a qualitative researcher?
The correct answer is: Technically capable in operating statistical devices.
Limitations of research refer to the
The correct answer is: Restrictions identified by the researcher.
Which of the following subject areas can be covered by qualitative research?
The correct answer is: Anthropology
Why are research questions used in qualitative research?
The correct answer is: All of the above
Willing (2009) argues that many qualitative researchers tend not to work with “variables” that are
defined by the researcher prior to the
research project because
The correct answer is: All of the above
College in Bangued, Abra”, who could
be the possible beneficiaries of the research?
The correct answer is: Students, teachers, school administrators and future researchers
What is the characteristic of a specific question in the statement of the problem?
The correct answer is: It must contribute to the development of the whole research problem or topic.
What is the composition of a research title?
The correct answer is: The title must reflect the variables under study.
Which of the following is NOT strength of qualitative research?
The correct answer is: Subjectivity leads to procedural difficulty.
Which sentence belongs to the Scope and Delimitation of a research?
The correct answer is: This study determines the status of irregular second year students enrolled in a
Catholic school.
Qualitative research is relative to the everyday life of the researcher because
The correct answer is: They are particularly useful for exploring how and why things that have
happened.
Qualitative research proves the absence of the absolute truth because
The correct answer is: The researcher strives to collect information from which some level of useful
knowledge can be gained.
The correct answer is: A tool that enables us to see new and perhaps surprising aspects of the everyday
lives that we lead.
Which of the following is NOT found in the significance of the study?
The correct answer is: Possible recommendations to the research findings.
Scope and delimitation distinguishes the constraints of the study by delimiting the topic in terms of
time, ____________________,
availability of subjects, resources and ethical considerations.
The correct answer is: Measurability
The correct answer is: The effectiveness of abstinence programs
What are the types of issues that qualitative research commonly answers?
The correct answer is: Sensitive or personal issues
What contributes to the messiness of qualitative research messy?
The correct answer is: the inductive approach
Which of the following is a good title for a qualitative research?
The correct answer is: The Chemistry of English Language between Foreign and Local Students of Holy
Ghost College in Bangued, Abra
Which of the following is characteristic of qualitative research?
The correct answer is: Flexible design
What is the purpose of daily life research?
The correct answer is: To study the social interaction in a natural environment.
Daily life research is advisable for students because
The correct answer is: It involves their experience.
The correct answer is: The researcher is at the center of the data-gathering phase.
The correct answer is: The participants and the researcher share the “research space”.
What is NOT an advantage of qualitative research?
The correct answer is: It measures the validity and reliability of a research instrument.
What is the coverage of ethical considerations in research?
The correct answer is: Human and non-human participants
How can online and mobile communications become advantageous in qualitative research?
The correct answer is: Participants can enrich their text responses by attaching files, images, links to
websites, and voice response.
Independent variable is identified as the _____________ of the research topic.
The correct answer is: Solution
It does not apply statistical test or measurement on data analysis.
The correct answer is: Qualitative
The correct answer is: Make recommendations for further research.
A well-formulated title must state ______________ in a clear, concise, and precise way.
The correct answer is: Variables
What subject involves the everyday life?
The correct answer is: Social science
It is considered valid and reliable.
The correct answer is: All of the choices
It is a formal, objective, systematic process in which numerical data are used to obtain information
about the world.
The correct answer is: Quantitative Research
Its hypotheses are tentative and evolving, based on particular study.
What is the use of research hypotheses?
____________ tend to be generally expressed; a ____________ is a specific prediction about what the
readers will find.
The correct answer is: research question; hypothesis
The researcher should never report flaws in procedural design and estimate their effect on the findings.

It relates to the growth of knowledge, to the verification or validation of existing knowledge or practice
to the development of new
knowledge.
Online and mobile qualitative research enhance data integrity by
Hypothesis refers to the
The correct answer is: A tentative statement about the relationship
Restate the statement: Although it might be said that an absolute truth is intangible in all forms of
research, the interactive, personal and
interpretive approach in qualitative inquiry extinguishes the notion that the outcomes represent an
absolute truth.
The correct answer is: Absolute truth in non-existing in qualitative inquiry.
What is pure research?
The correct answer is: It develops or refines theories.
Research is
The correct answer is: investigating, analyzing and synthesizing new information from various sources
Which title uses the qualitative inquiry?
The correct answer is: Eating habits of Preschoolers in Bulacan
In ethical dilemma, conflict of interest happens when
The correct answer is: The researcher participates as a research subject for his/her own study.
Which of the following is the good way to find a good topic?
The correct answer is: Personal experience
Which word was developed from the everyday life of man?
The correct answer is: Social
What is the research experience?
The correct answer is: researcher’s personal aspects

Which of the following is a characteristic of a researchable question?
The correct answer is: Unique
Its hypotheses are Specific, testable, stated prior to particular study.
The correct answer is: Quantitative
Which is a good argument in the research hypothesis?
The correct answer is: A dog can be trained to alert a human if the telephone is ringing.
Generalize the beneficiaries of a study.
The correct answer is: The readers are involved in all the studies that they read.
What is the best definition of justice in research?
The correct answer is: Fairness in distribution and equitable selection of participants
Its method is limited by variables.
It is also used to uncover trends in thought and opinions, and dive deeper into the problem.
What characteristic of qualitative research is mentioned here? The data and the researcher’s
interpretation of the data – hinge greatly on
the contexts from which the data are obtained (Roller & Lavraks, 2015).
The correct answer is: Importance of context
What section identifies the people or institution who will benefit from the findings of the study?
It identifies the possibilities to which to which the study becomes manageable in terms of issues,
The correct answer is: Scope
Which of the following is a proof of the research experience?
The correct answer is: The daily life activities can be studied.
Which of the following is a product of basic research?
The correct answer is: natural sciences
The correct answer is: No participant involvement
It generates data about human groups in social settings.
The correct answer is: Qualitative Research
It uses measurable data to formulate facts and uncover patterns in research.
The correct answer is: Quantitative
Which of the following is not under qualitative research?
The correct answer is: pure research
What is the basic skill required of any researcher?
The correct answer is: Ability to source data
What is wrong with double meaning question in research?
The correct answer is: It may result to inaccuracies in the attitudes being measured for the question.
Choose a good research problem for a qualitative research?
The correct answer is: A student examined the function of boxing as a way to help adolescents with a
criminal record to deal with
aggression
Time expenditure on research is lighter on the planning end and heavier during the analysis phase.
Which of the following is not found in the scope and delimitation?
The correct answer is: Timelessness
Which of the following is the strength of qualitative research?
The correct answer is: This may in turn generate new forms of human action.
Paraphrase the statement: Qualitative approaches are typically used to explore new phenomena and to
capture individuals’ thoughts,
feelings, or interpretations of meanings and process (Given, 2008).
The correct answer is: It is used to gain an understanding of underlying reasons, opinions, and
motivations of humans.
Which of the following is not a thesis statement?
The correct answer is: The wanton cutting down of trees.
Which of the following statements is true based on the question: which of these is a way to build the
general knowledge of a research
topic?
I. Read a good recent textbook chapter.
II. Look for the recent publication before reading a material.
III. Find and use a reader on the topic in question.
The correct answer is: I and III
TH QUARTER EXAM
Research survey
The correct answer is: Dynamic
23, no. 4, 2006, p. 63.
The correct answer is: CMS
Paramount, 2006.
2006,
http://www.rogerebert.com/reviews/an-inconvenient-truth-2006. Accessed 15 June 2016. Ebert, Roger.

Review of An Inconvenient Truth,
directed by Davis Guggenheim. rogerebert.com, 1 June 2006, http://www.rogerebert.com/reviews/an-

inconvenient-truth-2006. Accessed 15
June 2016
Live concert

Discovery Channel
Textbooks
The correct answer is: Static
Theatrical play
Food blog
The research assistant wrote an anonymous name in the list.
The bibliography is incomplete.
Weinstein, Joshua I. "The Market in Plato’sRepublic." Classical Philology 104 (2009): 439–58.

The researcher manipulated the results of the study.
Research journal
Official website
The correct answer is: Required reading for the program of the study
What should be used in writing a related literature review?
The correct answer is: Theme
The correct answer is: APA and MLA
The correct answer is: Web addresses ending in ac.uk or .edu are generally bona fide academic sources.
The correct answer is: The surveyed materials must be as recent as possible.
asking for their consent. What
research misconduct did he commit?
Which of the following is not an example of dynamic source?
The correct answer is: paintings
The correct answer is: The researcher develops an awareness of all the related literature.
Which of the following is the most essential in conducting the review of related literature?
The correct answer is: Examine all potential literature.
The correct answer is: Outlining the aim of the research
The correct answer is: Related literature are materials usually printed and found in books.
When doing your background reading for your literature review it is important to
The correct answer is: An evaluation of the literature
following is NOT an indicator of the
quality of information found on the Internet?

The correct answer is: The authenticity of the information
The correct answer is: Reviewing the researcher’s notes made on editorial and overview papers and
chapters
The correct answer is: Published accounts of researchers
The correct answer is: Paraphrasing other people’s information and citing the source of that
information.
What is missing in the following passage from a student paper?
In 1904, Matisse came under the influence of Signac's use of separated colors in his paintings. This was
called "divisionism." As Spurling
says, "Divisionism provided logical grounds for separating the ultimate goal of painting - order, harmony,
emotional stability achieved
through rhythmic compositions of form and color from its traditional dependence on the subject. This
was an important idea for Matisse.
The correct answer is: No year of publication beside the cited names
Title: John Adams
The correct answer is: Cullough, D. (2001). John Adams, 703-726. New York : Simon & Schuster
In APA citation style, which of the following is TRUE about quotations?
The correct answer is: They should be used only when absolutely necessary.
Which of the following statements is NOT TRUE with regards to the literature review?
The correct answer is: It explains the method necessary for the gathering of data.
literature with minor modification
in word structure without attribution?
How can he pull them all together and
use them in his own paper in a list?
The correct answer is: Include a citation after each separate example to indicate where you found them.
The correct answer is: Key word searches
In MLA, which of the following is the correct way to cite a website in a text?
The correct answer is: Both choices are correct
study?
The correct answer is: It is limited to a brief preliminary search so as to avoid bias from the researcher.
1965 in a Virginia state hospital.
These nurses were now retired and had between 12 and 46 years of psychiatric nursing experience. The
researcher wanted to describe the
experiences of these nurses who practiced in a state mental hospital before and during the introduction
of antipsychotic medications. They
expressed resignation and frustration while trying to provide care despite crowded wards and
inadequate personnel and supplies. The
nurses indicated that they focused on the patient’s body instead of on the patient’s mind. The
camaraderie they experienced with other
nurses helped them continue in their positions, despite what they felt to be a “thankless job.”
The correct answer is: Narrative Research
hospitalized patients. Interviews were
conducted with 40 patients, and 75 hours of field observations were conducted. The basic psychological
process identified by the
researchers was labeled “optimizing personal control to facilitate emotional comfort.” Personal control
referred to the ability of patients to
influence their environment; emotional comfort was defined as a state of relaxation that affected the
physical status of the patient. Personal
control was found to be a central feature of emotional comfort.
The correct answer is: Grounded Theory Research
background from the rural Midwest.
Literacy is investigated through English and Spanish in a sociocultural context. Findings reveal how
Mexican-background students
school. Results indicate that the lost
opportunities for effective literacy learning at school ignored the realistic responsibilities and potential
of the Mexican-background students.
The correct answer is: high school students of Mexican background from the rural Midwest
Interview Segment
though what we can do about it. I
want to do something but I don’t know what. You are constantly reminded of the problem if you go to
town. They are always there asking for
money. You don’t know though if they really need it or if they are in fact doing quite well from begging.
But if you have any caring qualities
you can’t ignore requests for help, when you have so much for yourself. They say a lot of people choose
to live on the streets – well I don’t
believe that. I think that is an easy thing for the authorities to say – it lets them off the hook. So really I
guess the answer to your questions
is that I am not sure what to think about homelessness. I feel that something should be done but I feel
powerless to do anything personally.
I think that the time has come for the government to do something. It makes me feel uncomfortable; I
don’t know what to do.
The homeless are also the same beggars asking for money on the street.
hospitalized patients. Interviews were
conducted with 40 patients, and 75 hours of field observations were conducted. The basic psychological
process identified by the
researchers was labeled “optimizing personal control to facilitate emotional comfort.” Personal control
referred to the ability of patients to
influence their environment; emotional comfort was defined as a state of relaxation that affected the
physical status of the patient. Personal
control was found to be a central feature of emotional comfort.
The correct answer is: hospitalized patients
represented participants' confidence
in meeting their standards for food and eating given their food management skills and circumstances.
Most participants had faced
challenging and changing circumstances (income, employment, social support, roles, health conditions).
Participants linked strong food
management skills with high levels of food choice capacity, except in the case of extreme financial
circumstances or the absence of strong
standards
The correct answer is: Narrative Research

experiences affect aged peoples’ sense
of identity. Explorative, open ended, interviews were conducted with 13 respondents between the ages
of 63 and 82, recruited from a
retired peoples’ organization, Church organizations, and from the working population. The results
showed that generally the experience of
the ageing body has to do with a changed life world, reactions to this change in terms of body and self,
and finding ways to feel at home in
this changed situation.
The correct answer is: 13 respondents between the ages of 63 and 82
barriers to the use of the Palliative Care
Outcome Scale (POS). Staff took part in semi-structured interviews, completed diaries, and participated
in monthly meetings to give their
opinions of what they thought were the facilitators and barriers to the implementation of the POS.
The correct answer is: Action Research
barriers to the use of the Palliative Care
Outcome Scale (POS). Staff took part in semi-structured interviews, completed diaries, and participated
in monthly meetings to give their
opinions of what they thought were the facilitators and barriers to the implementation of the POS.
The correct answer is: staff of one hospice and one nursing home
Common people are powerless to help the homeless.
experiences affect aged peoples’ sense
of identity. Explorative, open ended, interviews were conducted with 13 respondents between the ages
of 63 and 82, recruited from a
retired peoples’ organization, Church organizations, and from the working population. The results
showed that generally the experience of
the ageing body has to do with a changed life world, reactions to this change in terms of body and self,
and finding ways to feel at home in
this changed situation.
The correct answer is: Phenomenological Research
Homelessness is hopeless to be solved.
represented participants' confidence
in meeting their standards for food and eating given their food management skills and circumstances.
Most participants had faced
challenging and changing circumstances (income, employment, social support, roles, health conditions).
Participants linked strong food
management skills with high levels of food choice capacity, except in the case of extreme financial
circumstances or the absence of strong
standards.
The correct answer is: 14 men and 11 women with moderate to low incomes
Not all homeless are impoverished.
contended that, unfortunately, the
mother’s experience is often the hidden dimension in the family. Unstructured interviews were
conducted with 6 mothers living with suicidal
adolescents. Six themes were identified: failure as a good mother, the ultimate rejection, feeling alone
in the struggle, helplessness and
powerlessness in the struggle, cautious parenting, and keeping an emotional distance.
Being homeless is a choice and individual decision.
background from the rural Midwest.
Literacy is investigated through English and Spanish in a sociocultural context. Findings reveal how
Mexican-background students
school. Results indicate that the lost
opportunities for effective literacy learning at school ignored the realistic responsibilities and potential
of the Mexican-background students.
The correct answer is: Ethnographic Research
Homelessness is a perennial global problem.
1965 in a Virginia state hospital.
These nurses were now retired and had between 12 and 46 years of psychiatric nursing experience. The
researcher wanted to describe the
experiences of these nurses who practiced in a state mental hospital before and during the introduction
of antipsychotic medications. They
expressed resignation and frustration while trying to provide care despite crowded wards and
inadequate personnel and supplies. The
nurses indicated that they focused on the patient’s body instead of on the patient’s mind. The
camaraderie they experienced with other
nurses helped them continue in their positions, despite what they felt to be a “thankless job.”
The correct answer is: 8 nurses
the study explored whether or not
the number of years of foreign language study had an impact on SAT verbal scores. The students
involved were female seniors at a private
high school in suburban Maryland. It was hypothesized that there would be no significant effect that the
choice of foreign language study
has on the verbal score achieved on the SAT. This hypothesis was rejected because there was a
significant difference in SAT Verbal
averages among the students of three different foreign languages. French foreign language students
outperformed Spanish and Latin
foreign language students.
The correct answer is: female senior students
the study explored whether or not
the number of years of foreign language study had an impact on SAT verbal scores. The students
involved were female seniors at a private
high school in suburban Maryland. It was hypothesized that there would be no significant effect that the
choice of foreign language study
has on the verbal score achieved on the SAT. This hypothesis was rejected because there was a
significant difference in SAT Verbal
averages among the students of three different foreign languages. French foreign language students
outperformed Spanish and Latin
foreign language students.
Being homeless is a permanent social status.
Gance-Cleveland (in Nieswiadomy, 2008) examined the features, critical attributes, processes, and
benefits of school based support
groups for adolescents with an addicted parent. Participant observations were conducted weekly at two
high schools over one semester.
Interviews were conducted with program administrators, school administrators, group co-facilitators,
and participants. School-based support
group participation was found to enhance self-knowledge and led to self-care and self-healing.
The correct answer is: program administrators, school administrators, group co-facilitators
The government is the only one who can help the homeless.
Edwards (2007) explored the process of college men’s gender identity development. In order to try to
meet these expectations and be seen
as men, participants described putting on a performance that was like wearing a mask or “putting my
man face on.” This process included
learning societal expectations of them as men, as well as specific cultural group expectations. The men
in this study were all aware that
they did not neatly fit behind the mask, either as a result of personal characteristics or social identities.
Their resulting insecurities led them
to wearing the mask both consciously and unconsciously so that they would be seen as men by society.
The correct answer is: Grounded Theory Research
Edwards (2007) explored the process of college men’s gender identity development. In order to try to
meet these expectations and be seen
as men, participants described putting on a performance that was like wearing a mask or “putting my
man face on.” This process included
learning societal expectations of them as men, as well as specific cultural group expectations. The men
in this study were all aware that
they did not neatly fit behind the mask, either as a result of personal characteristics or social identities.
Their resulting insecurities led them
to wearing the mask both consciously and unconsciously so that they would be seen as men by society.
The correct answer is: college men
contended that, unfortunately, the
mother’s experience is often the hidden dimension in the family. Unstructured interviews were
conducted with 6 mothers living with suicidal
adolescents. Six themes were identified: failure as a good mother, the ultimate rejection, feeling alone
in the struggle, helplessness and
powerlessness in the struggle, cautious parenting, and keeping an emotional distance.
The correct answer is: 6 mothers living with suicidal adolescents
Gance-Cleveland (in Nieswiadomy, 2008) examined the features, critical attributes, processes, and
benefits of school based support
groups for adolescents with an addicted parent. Participant observations were conducted weekly at two
high schools over one semester.
Interviews were conducted with program administrators, school administrators, group co-facilitators,
and participants. School-based support
group participation was found to enhance self-knowledge and led to self-care and self-healing.
The correct answer is: Ethnographic Research
indicate about their feelings toward
one another, their social rank, or their profession.
The correct answer is: Physical behavior and gestures
“Good morning. I’m a health officer in our barangay and I also belong to the medical research team of
our community.”
The correct answer is: 1
“Can you describe how you first became aware of your sickness?”
Anything that might indicate membership in groups or in sub-populations of interest to the study, such
as profession, social status,
socioeconomic class, religion, or ethnicity

The correct answer is: Appearance
What do you feel when people admire your work?
The correct answer is: Open
Would you like to continue that kind of relationship?
The correct answer is: Mapping
What individuals’ preferences concerning personal space suggest about their relationships
The correct answer is: Personal space
The correct answer is: Leading
The correct answer is: Open
The characteristics of these individuals; what differentiates them from others; whether people consult
them or they approach other people;
whether they seem to be strangers or well known by others present.
The correct answer is: People who stand out
living cancer free for more than 5
years.”
“One area of this research is to record particular challenges that cancer patients face after
chemotherapy. Could you tell me your
experience?”

are alone or accompanied; number of
people
The correct answer is: Human traffic
Organizational chart of the institution being studied
The correct answer is: Graphics
Another way to find themes is to look for local terms that may sound unfamiliar or are used in unfamiliar
ways.
The correct answer is: Indigenous category
concepts underlying American
marriage and to show how these concepts are tied together. She began by looking at patterns of speech
and at the repetition of key words
and phrases, paying particular attention to informants' use of metaphors and the commonalities in their
reasoning about marriage. Nan, one
of her informants, says that "marriage is a manufactured product." This popular metaphor indicates that
Nan sees marriages as something
that has properties, like strength and staying power, and as something that requires work to produce.
Some marriages are "put together
well," while others "fall apart" like so many cars or toys or washing machines.
The correct answer is: metaphors and analogies
The correct answer is: Compare and contrast
Look carefully at words and phrases that indicate relationships among things.
The correct answer is: Connectors
The changing image of public transportation

The correct answer is: Pictures
The approach is based on a powerful trick most of us learned in kindergarten and requires paper and
scissors.
The correct answer is: Cutting and Sorting
The object is to look for metaphors in rhetoric and deduce the schemas, or underlying principles, that
might produce patterns in those
metaphors.
The correct answer is: Metaphors and analogies
Sherzer (in Ryan and Bernard, 2003) presents a detailed analysis of a two-hour performance by Chief
Olopinikwa of a traditional San Blas
Kuna chant. The chant was recorded in 1970. Like many linguistic anthropologists, Sherzer had taught an
assistant, Alberto Campos, to
use a phonetic transcription system. After the chant, Sherzer asked Campos, to transcribe and translate
the tape. Campos put Kuna and
Spanish on left- and right-facing pages. By studying Campos’s translation against the original Kuna,
Sherzer was able to pick out certain
recurrent features. Campos left out the chanted utterances of the responding chief (usually something
like "so it is"), which turned out to be
markers for verse endings in the chant. Campos also left out so-called framing words and phrases (like
"Thus" at the beginning of a verse
and "it is said, so I pronounce" at the end of a verse). These contribute to the line and verse structure of
the chant. Finally, "instead of
transposing metaphors and other figurative and allusive language into Spanish" Campos "explains them
in his translation".
The correct answer is: transitions
Another linguistic approach is to look for naturally occurring shifts in thematic content.
The correct answer is: Transitions
It is based on a simple observation: if you want to understand a concept, then look at how it is used.
The correct answer is: Key words in context (KWIC)

In a study of birth planning in China, Greenhalgh (in Ryan and Bernard, 2003) surveyed 1,011 ever-
married women, gathered social and
economic histories from 150 families. She conducted in-depth interviews with present and formal
officials (known as cadres), and collected
documentary evidence from local newspapers, journals and other sources. Greenhalgh notes that
"Because I was largely constrained from
asking direct questions about resistance, the informal record of field notes, interview transcripts, and
questionnaire data contains few overt
challenges to state policy." Greenhalgh concludes, however, that their conversations with the
researchers, both peasants and cadres made
strategic use of silence to protest aspects of the policy they did not like. Cadres, for example were loathe
to comment on birth-planning
campaigns; peasant women were reluctant to talk about sterilization. These silences form one part of
the unofficial record of birth planning
in the villages. More explicit protests were registered in informal conversations. From these interactions
emerged a sense of profound
distress of villagers forced to choose between a resistance that was politically risky and a compliance
that violated the norms of Chinese
culture and of practical reason.
The correct answer is: searching for missing information
Geographic map of the study area
The correct answer is: Pictures
Results rely heavily on words, and often quotations from those studied are included in the document.
impossible.

Bill and Jessica were almost done taking turns choosing the players for their teams. It was Jessica’s turn
to choose, and only Kurt was left.
Jessica said, “Kurt.”
The correct answer is: Jessica was pleased to have Kurt on her team.
You just opened a bag of potato chips and poured some juice in a glass when the phone rang. You went
out of the kitchen to answer it.
When you returned after a couple of minutes, you found the split juice and pieces of chips on the floor.
Your little sister was teary-eyed and
said, “I’m sorry. It was an accident.”
The correct answer is: Your sister decided to get her own snacks.
draw the conclusion
Conclusions should refer only to the population, area, or subject of the study.
homes. They did not meet again
until they were 39. When they met, they found out the following: Springer’s first wife was named Linda
and his second wife, Betty. Lewis
has also had a wife named Betty and one named Linda. Each had a son named James Allen. Each had
owned a dog named Toy. Their
favorite subject in high school had been math. They had both studied law enforcement after high school.
They had the same hobbies and
the same favorite vacation place. They even liked the same brand of cookies. (adapted from
What conclusion can you draw about the two men in the article?
The correct answer is: Even though these men were raised differently, they like many of the same
things.
References can be the same as bibliography.

Reference list allows readers to locate and use the sources and copy the ones cited.
The readers must be informed why this research counts and why is it important.
continue to support its endeavors
and activities.”
The correct answer is: He will still participate in the activities of the organization.
homes. They did not meet again
until they were 39. When they met, they found out the following: Springer’s first wife was named Linda
and his second wife, Betty. Lewis
has also had a wife named Betty and one named Linda. Each had a son named James Allen. Each had
owned a dog named Toy. Their
favorite subject in high school had been math. They had both studied law enforcement after high school.
They had the same hobbies and
the same favorite vacation place. They even liked the same brand of cookies. (adapted from
What conclusion can you draw about twins based on this article?
The correct answer is: Identical twins have a lot in common.
“English has been dubbed as the “language of the world”. Over a billion people in the world have
considered English as their second
language. With over 2,500 OFW’s leaving the country everyday to different parts of the globe, Filipinos
are expected to arm themselves
with English to communicate with the world.”(Excerpt from “Nursing the Carabao English”,in Yu& Plata,
2006)
The correct answer is: Communicating in English is an important tool for Filipinos who want to work
abroad.
Maria is watching too much television. A toddler shouldn’t be spending hours staring blankly at a screen.
Worse yet, some of her wild
behavior have been inspired by those awful cartoons she watches.
The correct answer is: Some cartoons are not good for Maria.
The correct answer is: We should use given information in inferring ideas.
umbrella. He would feel silly carrying it to
the bus stop on such a sunny morning.
The correct answer is: Mateo heard a weather forecast; it would rain in the afternoon.
The best research design is the qualitative research design.
others would have to come back
tomorrow.”
The correct answer is: Interview of applicants will be conducted today and tomorrow.
Recommendations should aim to solve or help solve problems discovered in the investigation.
Arrange the following parts of the research paper by numbering them chronologically from 1 to 10.
Methodology
Significance of the Study

Conclusions and Recommendations
Introduction
Review of Related Literature
Title
References
Statement of the Problem
Presentation and Interpretation of Data
Scope and Delimitation
The correct answer is: A judgment or final decision
order to situate people’s behavior
within their own socio-cultural context?
The correct answer is: Observation
The correct answer is: Memoing, verification and credibility
The correct answer is: APA format

observations or interviews principally
involving an inductive approach?
The correct answer is: Grounded theory
The correct answer is: A complete list of all works related to the study including the ones that are not
directly contained in the report.
The correct answer is: Word repetitions, key-indigenous terms, and key-words-in-contexts (KWIC)
The correct answer is: Check and recheck the data to ensure the initial conclusions are realistic,
supportable, and valid.
The correct answer is: Is parent attitude toward school uniforms related to their socioeconomic status?
The correct answer is: Recommendations should be logical and valid.
photos?
The correct answer is: Visual data
The correct answer is: Lying by fabrication
The correct answer is: The researcher generates a general explanation (a theory) of a process, and
action, or an interaction shaped by the
views of a large number of participants.
political, methodological, geographical,
literary)?
The correct answer is: Sector
The correct answer is: Sampling unit
The correct answer is: Research design
The correct answer is: Focus group discussion
The correct answer is: Manipulated data from the findings
times of the day in order to select a
site for a new 7-Eleven store. What type of data collection did he use?
The correct answer is: Observation
The correct answer is: The Life and Works of Rizal
The correct answer is: Canonigo, C.S. (1999). English grammar & composition part 1. Manila: CKC
Publication
The correct answer is: Because it helps researchers learn the perspectives held by study populations.
The correct answer is: A scientific endeavor

The correct answer is: The methodological framework
The correct answer is: Appearance
The correct answer is: Mapping questions
The correct answer is: Establish an initial rapport
The correct answer is: For beginning researchers, a qualitative research is advisable because the natural
setting is accessible.
What is pawing in context analysis?
The correct answer is: Marking the texts up with different colored highlighter pens.
The correct answer is: Courses of actions suggested by the researcher based on the findings of the study
Select one:
b. Involves the uncovering information relating to languages within cultural contexts.
c. Involves seeking meaning and developing interpretive explanation through the process of feedback.
d. Needs to maintain a detailed and critically reflective diary record and be prepared to subject
himself/herself to regular periods of debriefing
with a supervisor or colleague.
Feedback
The correct answer is: Data results
The correct answer is: all of the choices
topics introduced by a group
moderator?
The correct answer is: Focus group discussion
The correct answer is: Conclusion
The correct answer is: The layout of the site
that was taken?
The correct answer is: Action research

The correct answer is: Presenting the data in tabular form
interest
Answer: False
Select one: a. Involvement b. Research Adventure c. Emotions d. Knowledge
instruments

-Research is
of the Fruit Fly
Answer: PURE

Answer: PURE
information.
Images
Answer: APPLIED
choices
Answer: APA
Gibson)
Answer: 4
stand out
Answer: OPEN
-Much can be learned from a text by what is not mentioned.
science queries
Answer: 5
Transitions
how to do it.
Answer: False
Answer: False
deadlines?
Answer: Emotions
and easily?

statement is called
Answer: Qualitative research is the best design for a social inquiry since it explores and analyzes people's
values and perspective through
observation.
Answer: true
Answer: true
Answer: False
Answer: PURE
Answer: SCOPE
Answer: True
Answer: True
lead.
Answer: True
Answer: Fabrication
constantly reminded of the problem if you go to
town. They are always there asking for money. You don’t know though if they really need it or if they are
in fact doing quite well from begging.
yourself. They say a lot of people choose to
live on the streets – well I don’t believe that. I think that is an easy thing for the authorities to say – it
lets them off the hook. So really I guess the
should be done but I feel powerless to do
anything personally. I think that the time has come for the government to do something. It makes me
feel uncomfortable; I don’t know what to
do. Source: Grbich (2013)
Answer: False
following is NOT an indicator of the quality
of information found on the Internet?
Answer: APA
constantly reminded of the problem if you go to
town. They are always there asking for money. You don’t know though if they really need it or if they are
in fact doing quite well from begging.
yourself. They say a lot of people choose to
live on the streets – well I don’t believe that. I think that is an easy thing for the authorities to say – it
lets them off the hook. So really I guess the
should be done but I feel powerless to do
anything personally. I think that the time has come for the government to do something. It makes me
feel uncomfortable; I don’t know what to
do. Source: Grbich (2013)
Answer: False
personnel and supplies. The nurses indicated
that they focused on the patient’s body instead of on the patient’s mind. The camaraderie they
experienced with other nurses helped them
continue in their positions, despite what they felt to be a “thankless job.”
Answer: 8 nurses
Answer: Plagiarism
Answer: Chronology
FALSE for disagree.
modern society we have a problem
such as this. I don’t know though what we can do about it. I want to do something but I don’t know
what. You are constantly reminded of the
well from begging. But if you have any caring qualities you can’t ignore requests for help, when you have
so much for yourself. They say a lot of
people choose to live on the streets – well I don’t believe that. I think that is an easy thing for the
authorities to say – it lets them off the hook.
So really I guess the answer to your questions is that I am not sure what to think about homelessness. I
feel that something should be done but I
feel powerless to do anything personally. I think that the time has come for the government to do
something. It makes me feel uncomfortable; I
don’t know what to do. Source: Grbich (2013)
Answer: True
Answer: MLA
-What type of source is the newspaper clipping?
Answer: Syndicated
Answer: MLA
-Which of the following is the best way to maximize the process of reviewing of the related literature?
Answer: 5
Answer: True
answer.
indicate about their feelings toward
one another, their social rank, or their profession.
answer.

for impossible.
Answer: False
Answer: 2
correct answer.
activities.”
correct answer.
Answer: Graphics
Answer: 6

Answer: LEADING
Answer: true
others would have to come back
tomorrow.”
answer.
are alone or accompanied; number of
people
Answer: MAPPING
correct answer.
umbrella. He would feel silly carrying it to the
bus stop on such a sunny morning.
Answer: Case study

Answer: Qualitative
Answer: Check and recheck the data to ensure the initial conclusions are realistic, supportable, and
valid.
Answer: Observation
Multicultural Identities: Three Cases of
London's Inner-City Children
Answer: Static
Answer: textbook

mothers
note on the relationship between
analytic induction and grounded theorizing
Answer: Rather than
Answer: Interview

Answer: APA format
that was taken?
analysis, and the definition and
measurement of units of analysis.
Answer: Conclusion
Interdisciplinary discussion becomes more comprehensive through this principle.

A: sector
Paraphrasing must be done properly to avoid plagiarism. What is paraphrasing?
Drinking to cope is very common among college students and is related to much higher levels of alcohol
consumption, episodes of heavy
drinking, and levels of both negative and positive alcohol related consequences” (p. 486). Levenson and
Park (2002)
A: Levenson and Park (2002) found that drinking to cope is very common among college students and it
is related to much higher levels of
alcohol consumption and related consequences.
BAED-RSCH2111 Practical Research 1 (Week 20)
correct answer:
- Fabrication
2006,
http://www.rogerebert.com/reviews/an-inconvenient-truth-2006. Accessed 15 June 2016.
-MLA
study?
A: It is a continuing process because the research problem becomes more focused throughout the
research.
-APA
Live concert
-Dynamic
-CMS
Discovery Channel
-Syndicated
-Falsification
Textbooks
-Static
-Plagiarism
-APA
RSCH-111 WEEK 11: L.A 7
-Plagiarism
23, no. 4, 2006, p. 63.
-CMS
-Falsification
Paramount, 2006.
-MLA
- Dynamic
research long quiz 4

30/30
c-Misha Sanches
Which of the following is the first to help improve the use of the research literature?
Keep a researcher notebook
Title: John Adams
Cullough, David. John Adams, p. 703-726. New York : Simon & Schuster (2001). Print.
What does the researcher need to generate useful and thorough key word searches?
A search and reading strategy
Published accounts of researchers
APA
asking for their consent. What research
misconduct did he commit?
Plagiarism
The authenticity of the information
Paraphrasing other people’s information and citing the source of that information.
Web addresses ending in ac.uk or .edu are generally bona fide academic sources.
APA and MLA
Which one is an example of a correct in-text quotation?
Eguchi and Eguchi (2006) and Icassatti (2006) mentioned that students showed enthusiasm while using
these strategies.
Last week your professor talked about her theory of the best method for electoral reform in a lecture.
Since she knows all about it, do you need
to reference this?
You need to cite it in the body of your paper and in the reference list.
All of the choices

Related literature are materials usually printed and found in books.
Introduction
Syndicated
Title: John Adams
McCullough, 2001
Theme
MLA
literature with minor modification in
word structure without attribution?

Plagiarism
RSCH-110 QE
Which of the following can be found in the final part of the research paper?
Select one:
- Conclusion and recommendations of the study
Select one:
- The methodological framework
Select one:
Select one:
-Appearance
Select one:
-Recommendations should be logical and valid.
Which of the following is correct?
Select one:
-Only research conducted by academic staff with human participants requires ethical approval.
Select one:
- Rather than

Select one:
Select one:
- Ethnographic
Select one:
-all of the choices
Select one:
photos?
Select one:
-Visual data
Select one:
- Data results
Select one:
Select one:
Select one:
Select one:
- Grounded Theory
Select one:
Select one:
- Canonigo, C.S. (1999). English grammar & composition part 1. Manila: CKC Publication
order to situate people’s behavior within
their own socio-cultural context?
Select one:
-. Observation
Select one:
-. Because it helps researchers learn the perspectives held by study populations.
Select one:
- Grounded Theory
political, methodological, geographical,
literary)?
Select one:
- Sector
observations or interviews principally involving an
inductive approach?
Select one:
- Grounded theory
Select one:
Which of the following is the basic rule in data collection?
Select one:
- Begin with secondary data, then proceed if necessary to collect primary data.
Select one:
- Establish an initial rapport
Select one:
Select one:

Select one:
-Graphics
Select one:
- Conclusion
Select one:
- A scientific endeavor
Thea is interested to study the young people with dementia – chronic disorder caused by brain disease
or injury. What research design is
appropriate for her research inquiry?
Select one:
-Phenomenological research
Select one:
-Language based
Select one:
-Courses of actions suggested by the researcher based on the findings of the study
Select one:
- The Life and Works of Rizal

Select one:
- Action Research
-Research Design
How does key word in context (KWIC) work for novice researchers?
- Researchers identify key words and then systematically search the corpus of text to find all instances of
the word or phrase.
- A judgment or final decision
Select one:
- The researcher generates a general explanation (a theory) of a process, and action, or an interaction
shaped by the views of a large number of
participants.
Select one:
Select one:
-Word repetitions, key-indigenous terms, and key-words-in-contexts (KWIC)
Select one:
- The data that fail to fit the explanation or interpretation are not addressed.
Select one:
-Memoing, verification and credibility

Which of the following is not normally associated with qualitative data?
Select one:
-Pie charts
Select one:
-Qualitative
Select one:
-Presenting the data in tabular form
A study is based on 1000 people interviewed face-to-face in shopping areas. What qualitative data
Select one:
- Interview
Select one:
-Mapping questions
Select one:
- Is parent attitude toward school uniforms related to their socioeconomic status?
Select one:
Select one:
-To ensure sufficiently long reference list

-Check and recheck the data to ensure the initial conclusions are realistic, supportable, and valid.
Select one:
-Action Research
Select one:
-APA format
What is the optimal number of participants for a focus group discussion?
Select one:
- 8-12 members
theorizing
Select one:
Select one:
-Manipulated data from the findings
that was taken?
Select one:
-Action research
Select one:
-textbook
Select one:
- The layout of the site
Which of following should NOT be considered in conducting in-depth interview?
Select one:
- Pretend to be interested in hearing about the life of the interviewee.
Select one:
-Sampling unit
A teacher conducts an action research study of the problem-solving methods used by students in her
ninth-grade Algebra I classes. Which of the
following can she assume on the basis of her study?
Select one:
-Results apply only to Algebra I students in ninth grade.
Select one:
- Action Research
Select one:
- Static
analysis, and the definition and
measurement of units of analysis.

Select one:
- Enumerative approach
Select one:
- To accomplish a clear description of the phenomenon under study
Select one:
- A complete list of all works related to the study including the ones that are not directly contained in
the report
Select one:
-Lying by fabrication
Select one:
- Observation
Select one:
- Case study
Select one:
-Reviewed materials must be many.
According to historical accounts, face-to-face methods have been used since the early years of
civilization to collect population figures. Why
were these records kept?
Select one:
Select one:
- A key data gathering method in social sciences.
Select one:
A literature review should include material that is _____________________.
Select one:
- Directly related to the research questions
Select one:
- For beginning researchers, a qualitative research is advisable because the natural setting is accessible.
BAED-STAT2112 Statistics and Probability (Week 1-10)
WEEK 1
Learning Act. 1 Stats
Which of the following statement is TRUE.
Select one:
a. All of the statements are TRUE.
b. Countable number of values are called discrete variables

c. Non-countable values are called discrete variables
d. Infinite numbers are considered discrete variables.
Answer: Countable number of values are called discrete variables
Question 2
The speed of cars travelling in the road and the water consumption of household are examples of
Select one:
a. Discrete Continuous Random Variable
b. Continuous Discrete Random Variable
c. Continuous Random Variable
d. Discrete Random Variables
Answer: Continuous Random Variable
Question 3
True or False: The number of questions that you answer correctly on this quiz is an example of a discrete
random variable.
Answer:
false
Question 4
Select one:
a. Probability distribution equals to one.
b. Probability distribution equals to zero.
c. Probability distribution is used to compute discrete random variables
e. Probability distribution is used to compute continuous random variables
Answer: Probability distribution equals to zero.

Question 5
What is the probability distribution of occurring the all heads in a toss of three coins?
Select one:
a. 0.1255
b. 0.25
c. 1
e. 0
Answer: 0.1255
Short Quiz 1
Which of the following is CORRECT about Sample Space
Select one:
a. Sample space is also known as probability mass function.
b. Sample space is a subset of events.
c. Sample space should be always be a number from zero to one.
d. Sample space are possible outcomes
Answer: Sample space are possible outcomes
The sum of all the probabilities P(X = x) for all possible values of a discrete random variable X must equal
to _____
Answer: 1
How many possible outcomes when you simultaneously toss three fair coins.
Answer: 8
Salary, scores and age are examples of answer: continuous.. random variables
Which one of these variables is a not continuous random variable?
Select one:
a. The number of attendees in an Information Technology conference.

b. The tuition fee enrolled in different universities
c. The number of volunteers in a community
d. The number of senators elected in the Philippines
Answer: The number of senators elected in the Philippines
Countless number of values are also known as Answer continuous.. variables.
Which of the following random activity would you define as a discrete random variable?
Select one:
a. Distance travelled of a tourist bus.
b. Depth of building excavation.
c. None of the choices.
d. Height of students enrolled in an online course.
e. Wind speed during typhoon.
Answer: None of the choices.
1.
Select one:
a. The statement is NOT ALWAYS FALSE
b. The statement is TRUE.
c. The statement is FALSE.
d. The statement is NOT ALWAYS TRUE
Answer: The statement is TRUE.
A continuous random variable assigns a whole number to each possible outcome of an experiment.
Select one:
b. The statement has insufficient information.
c. True
d. False
Answer: True
This tells what the possible values of X and how probabilities are assigned to these values.
Answer: Probability Distribution
Week3 Stats
WEEK 3
Learning Activity 3 AND SHORT QUIZ 3
It is the measure of how many standard deviations below or above the population mean.
Select one:
a. Median
b. Z-score
c. Normal Distribution Measurement
d. Empirical Rule
Feedback
The correct answer is: Z-score
In an IT Certification Examination, the mean was 75 and the standard deviation was 5. If Pam z-scored is
1.5, what was her score in the
examination?
Select one:
a. 117.50
b. 487.50
d. 82.50
Feedback
The correct answer is: 82.50
Who is the famous mathematician where the normal distribution curve was named after?
Select one:
a. Carl Friedrich Gauss
b. William Gosset
c. Ronald Fisher
d. John Tukey
Feedback
The correct answer is: Carl Friedrich Gauss
Which of the following is not a characteristics of a normal distribution.
Select one:
a. Mount-shaped distribution
b. Bell-shaped
d. Perfectly asymmetric
Feedback
The correct answer is: Perfectly asymmetric
How many regions can be found at the left side of the normal distribution curve?
Select one:
a. 3
b. 2
c. 4
d. 1
Feedback
Short Quiz 3
In a normal distribution curve,
Select one:
a. Mean is equal to Median and Mode
c. Mean is equal to Mode
d. Mean is equal to Median
Feedback
The correct answer is: Mean is equal to Median and Mode
It is the measure of how many standard deviations below or above the population mean.
Select one:
a. Empirical Rule
b. Median
c. Z-score
d. Normal Distribution Measurement
Feedback
The correct answer is: Z-score
Given the set of data:
1, 1, 2, 2, 3, 3, 9, 10, 11, 12, 13, 14, 15, 16, 17, 18, 19, 20, 21, 22
Find the lower quartile
Select one:
a. 8
b. 3,4,5,6,7,8,9,10,11,12,
c. 3
d. 0
Feedback
1, what was her score in the
examination?
Select one:
a. 53.00
c. 80.50
d. 82.50
Feedback
Assuming z-score is -1, which of the following statement is TRUE.
Select one:
a. All values are greater than the mean.
b. All values are less than the mean.
c. All values are equal to the mean.
d. All values are equal to the z-score
Feedback
The correct answer is: All values are less than the mean.
1,1, 2, 2, 3, 3, 9, 10, 11, 12, 13, 14, 15, 16, 17, 18, 19, 20, 21, 22
Find the upper quartile
Select one:
a. 13,14,15,14,15,16,17,18,19,20,21,22
b. 18
c. 22
d. 0
Feedback
Find the median of the following data set.
11, 13, 15, 17, 19, 21, 22, 23, 25, 27, 29, 31, 33, 35, 37, 39, 41, 43, 51, 53, 55, 57, 59
Select one:
a. 36.45
b. 24
c. 30
d. 31
Feedback
1,1, 2, 2, 3, 3, 9, 10, 11, 12, 13, 14, 15, 16, 17, 18, 19, 20, 21, 22
How many numbers are in the lower quartile?
Select one:
a. 0
b. 10
c. 6
d. 3,4,5,6,7,8,9,10
Feedback
Normal Distribution Curve is also called
Select one:
a. Arc-Shaped Curve
b. Bell Curve
c. Basic Curve
Feedback
The correct answer is: Bell Curve
In a normal distribution curve, data are divided into 3 equal parts.
Select one:
a. The statement is TRUE.
c. The statement is FALSE.
d. The statement is SOMETIMES TRUE depending on the data set.
Feedback
The correct answer is: None of the choices
Week 5 Stats
Learning Activity 4
True or False: Variance Error is the difference between a sample statistic used to estimate a population
parameter and the actual but unknown
value of the parameter
The correct answer is: FALSE
True or False: Sampling Error is the degree of error expected for a given sample design
The correct answer is: TRUE
Identify whether each example describes a random sample. Answer with Yes or No.
The correct answer is: No
Given the following sample data, compute for the true mean. The answer must have two decimal places.
1112345558888

Given the following mean, compute for the Mean of Means. The answer must have two decimal places.
4.5, 9.2, 9.1, 8.4
Week 5 Stats short quiz 4
Short Quiz 4
Identify whether each example describes a random sample. Answer with Yes or No
Renmel closes his eyes, opens a book and randomly points to a word on the page. She repeats the
process for 30 times.
True or False: Mean of means is the sum of all means multiplied by the number of means
It is a part of population intended to represent a population as a whole.
Select one:
a. Mode
b. Deviation Error
c. Parameter
d. Standard deviation of the distribution of the sample means
e. Random Sample
f. Mean
g. Sampling Error
h. Population Mean
i. Median
j. Statistics
k. Distribution Error
l. Sample Distribution of sample means
m. Standard Curve
n. Sample
o. Standard Deviation
p. Sample
q. Population
The correct answer is: Sample
Identify whether each example describes a random sample. Answer with Yes or No
Women who volunteer to take a survey on human rights.
The distribution that describes the spread of the means of multiple samples from the sample population
Select one:
a. Deviation Error
b. Parameter
c. Sample
d. Standard Deviation
e. Distribution Error
f. Population
g. Random Sample
h. Mode
i. Sampling Error
j. Population Mean
k. Mean
l. Statistics
m. Median
n. Standard deviation of the distribution of the sample means
o. Sample Distribution of sample means

p. Sample
q. Standard Curve
The correct answer is: Sample Distribution of sample means
Identify whether each example describes a random sample. Answer with Yes or No.
Each audience in a game show is assigned a number from 111 to 666 and roll three standard dice to
choose random contestants.
The correct answer is: Yes
If the standard deviation of a population is 300, and samples of 25 units each are taken, what is the
Standard deviation of the distribution of the
sample means?
Given the following sample data, compute for the true mean. The answer should be rounded off to one
decimal place.
3 5 5 5 6 6 8 8 13 15 17 30
True or False: People whose names were drawn out of the survey is an example of a random sample
True or False: As the sample size increases, the standard error increases.
Learning Activity 6 Stats
To calculate the mean from a sample,
Select one:
a. Get the half of the sum of the all the values
b. Add all the values and divided by the total number of samples
c. Divide each value with the sum of all values
The correct answer is: Add all the values and divided by the total number of samples
Compute for the point estimate of the population parameter. Round off your answer to the nearest
hundredths or has two decimal places. Write
the measurement at the end of the answer.
Average Speed of a car Car 1 Car 2 Car 3 Car 4
80 kph 75 kph 60 kph 66 kph
The correct answer is: 7 0 . 2 5 k p h
This is defined by two values, between which a population parameter is said to lie.
Select one:
a. Interval Estimate
b. Points Estimate
c. Coefficient Estimate
d. Point to point Estimate
The correct answer is: Interval Estimate
Compute for the point estimate of the population parameter. Round off your answer to the nearest
hundredths or has two decimal places, if
necessary.
Scores of students in quizzes
Compute for the point estimate of the population parameter of the grades of students. (Round off your
answer to the nearest hundredths.)
Point estimate is
Select one:
b. always equal to the mean
c. used to estimate population parameter Correct
d. the number of samples

e. a range of possible values of population mean
Feedback
The correct answer is: used to estimate population parameter
A single value given as an estimate of a parameter of a population.
Select one:
a. Sample distribution Incorrect
b. Confidence Limit
c. Confidence coefficient
d. Sample Mean
Feedback
The correct answer is: Sample Mean
Short Quiz 6 Stats
Confidence interval is associated by confidence level
Select one:
a. TRUE
b. FALSE
The effectiveness of the sample android application can be measured by the proportion of mobile users
who install the application. To
determine this proportion for a specific android app, the distributed to 500 users and 450 user install
the app. The point estimate is
____________.
Select one:
a. .85
b. .80
c. .90
d. .95
The correct answer is: .90
Which measure of tendency is the best estimator?
Select one:
a. Mode
b. Mean
c. Standard Deviation
d. Median
The correct answer is: Mean
Confidence level indicates the level of assurance that confidence interval encloses the:
Select one:
a. unknown population mean
b. biased sample
c. known population mean
d. unbiased sample
The correct answer is: unknown population mean
Which of the following applies to confidence interval
Select one:
a. Confidence interval is used to the true mean of population
b. As the confidence interval for a given statistic increases in length, the confidence level increases
c. Confidence interval is associated by confidence level
e. All of the choices
A 95% confidence interval means 95% of all samples of size n would fall ______ our confidence interval
Select one:
a. Below
b. Outside
d. Within
e. Above
Feedback
The correct answer is: Within
You need to calculate for the confidence interval for the population mean. The population standard
deviation is known. There are 50 sample
observations. You will use 95 percent level of confidence. The appropriate value of z is:
Select one:
a. Cannot be determined
b. 1.64
c. 2.58
d. 1.96
e. 1
Point estimate is always equal to the sampling coefficient.
Select one:
a. FALSE. Change the statement to “Point estimate is equal to the number of samples”
b. FALSE. Change the statement to “Point estimate is used to estimate population parameter”
c. TRUE
d. FALSE. Change the statement to “Point estimate is a range of possible values of population mean”
The correct answer is: FALSE. Change the statement to “Point estimate is a range of possible values of
population mean”
Confidence coefficient is a single value given as an estimate of a parameter of a population.
Select one:
a. TRUE
b. FALSE. Change “confidence coefficient” to confidence limit
c. FALSE. Change “confidence coefficient” to sample mean
d. FALSE. Change “confidence coefficient” to Confidence Limit
The correct answer is: FALSE. Change “confidence coefficient” to sample mean
The confidence level is expressed as a fraction
Select one:
a. FALSE
Short Quiz 8
The “p hat” is calculated as
Select one:
a. Number of desired elements over the number of desired outcomes
b. Number of desired outcomes over the number of desired elements Correct
c. 1- (Number of desired elements over the number of desired outcomes)
d. (Number of desired outcomes over the number of desired elements) – 1
Feedback
The correct answer is: Number of desired outcomes over the number of desired elements
Sampling distribution of proportions is ______________ distributed
Select one:
a. Normally Correct
b. Randomly
c. Evenly
d. Unevenly
Feedback
The correct answer is: Normally
A survey was conducted to 300 Grade 10 students who have Internet access to determine who access
social media websites after attending
classes. Based on the survey, 250 students responded Yes. What is the population proportion to
students who do not access social media after
attending classes?
Select one:
a. 80%
b. 20%
c. 17% Correct
d. 83%
Feedback
The correct answer is: 17%
When the confidence level is 95%, the ____________________ are +- 1.96
Select one:
a. Margin of Errors
b. Confidence coefficients Correct
c. Confidence intervals
d. “p hat” values
Feedback
The correct answer is: Confidence coefficients
Point estimate is
Select one:
a. Always equal to the number or samples

b. A range of possible values for a population parameter.
c. Equal to the population mean
d. A statistical that estimates a population parameter Correct
Feedback
The correct answer is: A statistical that estimates a population parameter
The ^p is the ____________ estimate of p.
Select one:
a. balanced
b. unbiased Correct
c. biased
d. inverse
Given n=10, x¯ =28, s=2.0, 95% confidence. Assuming that the samples come from a normal distribution,
find the margin of error.
Select one:
a. 1.24 Correct
b. 26.76
c. 3.16
d. 0.63
Feedback
find the interval estimate of the
population mean.
Select one:
a. (11.34, 14.89)
b. (1.63, 2.25)
c. (21.36, 24.63)
d. (26.36, 29.63) Correct
Feedback
The correct answer is: (26.36, 29.63)
What is in the center of the confidence interval?
Select one:
a. Margin of Error
b. Point Estimate Correct
c. Population Parameter
d. Number of samples
Feedback
The correct answer is: Point Estimate
In a survey of 500 individuals, 300 likes to eat dinner in a restaurant. Estimate the sample proportion ^p
of those who like to eat dinner in a
restaurant based on the sample.
Select one:
a. 45%
b. 0.40
c. 55%
d. 0.60 Correct
Feedback
Margin of error is
Select one:
a. the product of confidence coefficient and standard deviation divided by the square root of the sample
size Correct
b. the quotient of confidence coefficient and standard deviation multiplied by the square root of the
sample size
c. the product of confidence coefficient and square root of the sample size divided by standard deviation
d. the quotient of confidence coefficient and square root of the sample size divided standard deviation
Feedback
The correct answer is: the product of confidence coefficient and standard deviation divided by the
square root of the sample size
Given n=100, x¯ =45, s=2.0, 90% confidence. Assuming that the samples come from a normal
distribution, find the interval estimate of the
population mean.
Select one:
a. (42.103, 43.970)
b. (43.355, 46.645)
c. (44.461, 45.329) Incorrect
d. (46.921, 47.727)
Feedback
distribution, find the margin of error.
Select one:
a. 0.348 Incorrect
b. 0.20
c. 0.392
d. 0.196
Feedback
A survey was conducted from the 250 individuals. Based on the result of the survey, 170 are satisfied
with the current Local Government
administration. Estimate the sample proportion ^p of those who are not satisfied based on the sample
provided.
Select one:
a. 55%
b. 0.32 Correct
c. 0.
d. 0.68
Feedback
A survey was conducted to 110 college students to determine who are using the Library Resource Center
of the university. Based on the survey,
only 30% responded Yes. Based on the survey, how many students are not using the Library Resource
Center?
Select one:
a. 33
b. 30
c. 67 Correct
d. 70
Feedback
A survey of 200 people finds that they work on average of 8 hours a day. If the margin of error at 98%
confidence level is 1.2 hours. How do you
compute for the lower confidence interval?

Select one:
a. 8 hours less 1.2 hours
b. Z score plus less the square root of 8 hours less 1.2 hours Correct
d. 8 hours less 1.2 hours multiplied by the z score at 98% confidence level
Feedback
The correct answer is: Z score plus less the square root of 8 hours less 1.2 hours
King Lo Electronics claims that the new brand of computer will last for 25,000 hours. A research
company conducted a test on the information.
The company randomly select and test 100 cellular phone. The data from the sample shows that the
mean life of the cellular phone is 20,000
hours, with a standard deviation of 1000 hours. Determine the 95% confidence interval of the mean life
of the cellular phone.
Select one:
a. (17,482, 18,649)
b. (19,804, 20,196) Correct
c. (23,467, 24,639)
d. (26,928, 27,375)
Feedback
The correct answer is: (19,804, 20,196)
Given the sample size (n=400) and sample proportion (p=0.56), find the approximate margin of error for
the 99% confidence interval:
Select one:
a. 0.043 Incorrect
b. 0.052
c. 0.064
d. 0.074
Feedback
Select one:
a. 0.053
b. 0.085
c. 0.072 Incorrect
d. 0.039
Feedback
A private organization telephone poll of 750 adults, aged 18 and older, living in the country found that
60% of citizen feel confident in the
accuracy of their doctor's advice, and don't feel the need to check for a second opinion or do additional
research. The margin of error for this
survey was given as ± 20 percentage points. Find a 95% confidence interval estimate of the percent of
adults who feel confident in the accuracy
of their doctor’s advice and don’t feel the need to check for a second opinion.
Select one:
a. (0.490, 0.601)
b. (0.452, 0.538)
c. (0.565, 0.640) Correct
d. (0.316, 0.483)
Feedback
Short Quiz 9
Select one:
a. 0.086
b. 0.059
c. 0.039 Incorrect
d. 0.330
Feedback
Suppose a new cancer treatment is given to a sample of 500 patients. The treatment was successful for
300 of the patients. Assume that these
patients are representative of the population of individuals who have this cancer.
Determine a 90% confidence interval for the proportion successful treated.
Select one:
a. 0.564 < p < 0.640
b. 0.640 < p < 0.742 Incorrect
c. 0.742 < p < 0.834
d. 0.834 < p < 0.927
Feedback
The correct answer is: 0.564 < p < 0.640
survey was given as ±10 percentage points.
Find a 90% upper confidence interval estimate of the percent of adults who feel confident in the
accuracy of their doctor’s advice and don’t feel
the need to check for a second opinion.
Select one:
a. 0.077
b. 0.329 Incorrect
c. 0.834
d. 0.290
Feedback
Lim Electronics claims that the new brand of cellular phone will last for 80,000 hours. A research
Select one:
a. (79,301 , 80,890) Incorrect
b. (59,706 , 60,294)
c. (59,301 , 60,890)
d. (79,706 , 80,294)
Feedback
The correct answer is: (59,706 , 60,294)
A survey of 900 female finds that they sleep on average of 8 hours a day. If the margin of error at 95%
confidence level is 1.3 hours. Find the
confidence interval?
Select one:
a. 4.50 hours < p < 5.89 hours
b. 6.70 hours < p < 9.30 hours Correct

c. 8.66 hours < p < 11.26 hours
d. 7.34 hours < p < 8.66 hours
Feedback
The correct answer is: 6.70 hours < p < 9.30 hours
Select one:
a. 0.055
b. 0.069
c. 0.047 Correct
d. 0.039
Feedback
Given the problem in item 9, what does the answer tells about?
Select one:
a. Lim Electronics can use the survey conducted for their advertisements.
b. The confidence interval does not support the claim of Lim Electronics.
c. The confidence interval support the claim of Lim Electronics. Incorrect
d. The information is not sufficient to conclude.
Feedback
The correct answer is: The confidence interval does not support the claim of Lim Electronics.
confidence level is 1.5 hours. What is the
solution to find the lower confidence interval?
Select one:
a. Z score plus less the square root of 9 hours less 1.5 hours
c. 9 hours less 1.5 hours Correct
e. 9 hours less 1.5 hours multiplied by the z score at 98% confidence level
Find a 90% lower confidence interval estimate of the percent of adults who feel confident in the
Select one:
a. 0.0726
b. 0.8932
c. 0.4508 Incorrect
d. 0.0934
Feedback
Calculate the sample proportion that was successfully treated.
Select one:
a. 0.85 Incorrect
b. 0.72
c. 0.30
d. 0.60
Feedback
In hypothesis testing, the computed statistics is compared to the critical value for decision making.
Select one:
a. The statement is TRUE. Correct
b. The statement is FALSE.
Feedback
The correct answer is: The statement is TRUE.
This separates the rejection region to the region where we do not reject the null hypothesis.
Select one:
a. Z score
b. Null value Incorrect
c. Critical value
d. chi value
The correct answer is: Critical value
Given a=0.05 and the test statistics, decide whether the null hypothesis is to be rejected or accepted:
–4
Select one:
a. Do not Reject
b. Reject Correct
c. Cannot be determined
Feedback
The correct answer is: Reject

St. Therese senior high school have an average achievement test score of 96. From a random sample of
49 students St. Therese students we find
the average achievement test score to be 98 with a standard deviation of 88. We want to know if these
high school students are representative
of the overall population. What can we conclude based?
Select one:
a. Accept null hypothesis
b. Reject null hypothesis
c. Accept alternative hypothesis Incorrect
d. Reject alternative hypothesis
Feedback
The correct answer is: Accept null hypothesis
2.35
Select one:
b. Reject
c. Do not Reject Incorrect
Feedback
Suppose that the z is the test statistics for hypothesis testing, calculate the value of the z for each of the
following. Express your answer in 2
decimal places. µ = 25, s = 5, n = 80, x¯ = 23.4
Answer:
-5
Incorrect
Feedback
The correct answer is: -2.86
Answer:
-12.83
Incorrect
Feedback
Short Quiz 12
Consider the scenario: In a recent survey, 320 persons out of 35 reported that they prefer to ride in a
public utility air-conditioned vehicle rather
than a jeepney. What is the value of the test statistics?
Select one:
a. 3.49 Incorrect
b. – 1.85
c. – 1.85
d. – 1.33
Feedback
The correct answer is: – 1.85
Supposed that the z is the test statistics for hypothesis testing, calculate the value of the z for each of
the following. Express your answer in 2
decimal places.
µ = 8.5, s = 4, n = 99, x¯ = 7.2
Answer:
34.32
Incorrect
Feedback
3.31
Select one:
b. Reject Correct
c. Do not Reject
than a jeepney.
What can we conclude based the value of the test statistics?
Select one:
a. Reject null hypothesis
b. Accept alternative hypothesis Incorrect
c. Reject alternative hypothesis
d. Accept null hypothesis
Feedback
Values supporting the ___________________ occurs in the rejection region.
Select one:
a. Critical values
b. Alternative hypothesis and critical values Incorrect
c. Null hypothesis
d. Null hypothesis and critical values
e. Alternative hypothesis
Feedback
The correct answer is: Null hypothesis and critical values
A sample is small when n=30.
Select one:
a. The statement is TRUE. Incorrect
b. The statement is FALSE. Replace the letter n with letter x.
c. The statement is FALSE. Replace the = with =
d. The statement is FALSE. Replace the word small with large.
Feedback
The correct answer is: The statement is FALSE. Replace the word small with large.
Select one:
a. The statement is FALSE.
b. The statement is TRUE. Correct
Feedback
0.131
Select one:
a. Do not Reject
b. Reject Incorrect
Feedback
The correct answer is: Do not Reject
1.11
Select one:
b. Do not Reject Correct
c. Reject
Feedback
decimal places.
µ = 77, s = 6, n = 109, x¯ = 78.2
Answer:
56.23
Incorrect
Feedback
decimal places.
µ = 8, s = 4, n = 99, x¯ = 7.2
Answer:
-1.99
Correct
Feedback
1.20
Select one:
b. Reject
c. Do not Reject Correct
Feedback
– 0.6
Select one:
c. Reject
Feedback
A Police Sub Station claims that 45% of crimes are related to cell phone snatching. In a random sample
of 150 accidents, it is found that 60 of the
accidents are related to cell phone snatching.
What is the standard error of the proportion?
Select one:
a. 0.033
b. 0.028
c. 0.066 Incorrect
d. 0.041
Feedback
What is the observed value of the sample proportion?
Select one:
a. 0.932
b. 0.400
c. 0.783
d. 0.600 Incorrect
Feedback
A businessman is increasing his price for processed food, claiming that the cost of labor and material is
going up and accounts for 75% of his
budget. In a random sample of 10 of the processed food, it is found out that in 6 of the processed food,
the cost of the material is higher.
Select one:
a. 0.442 Incorrect
b. 0.391
c. 0.137
d. 0.296
Feedback
At the 5% level of significance, test the contractor/engineer’s claim. Based on the test, what can you
conclude?
Select one:
a. Reject the null hypothesis
b. Accept the null hypothesis Correct
Feedback
The correct answer is: Accept the null hypothesis
At the 10% level of significance, test the Police Sub Station claims. Based on the test, what can you
conclude?
Select one:
a. Accept the null hypothesis Correct
b. Reject the null hypothesis
Feedback
What is the test statistic for this scenario?
Select one:
a. -0.066
b. 2.112
c. -1.231
d. 1.992 Correct
Feedback
Select one:
a. 0.899
b. 1.203
c. 0.996
d. 1.095 Correct
Feedback
Short Quiz 13 Stats
The traffic management office claims that 65% of road accidents are related to motorcycles. In a random
sample of 200 accidents, it is found
that 135 of the accidents are related to motorcycles.
At the 10% level of significance, test the traffic management office’s claim. Based on the test, what can
you conclude?
Select one:
Feedback

A building contractor/engineer is increasing his price for building projects, claiming that the cost of labor
and material is going up and accounts
for 65% of his budget. In a random sample of 30 of his projects it is found that in 20 of the projects the
cost of the material is higher.
Select one:
a. 0.983
b. 2.181
c. 3.004
d. 1.191 Correct
Feedback
Select one:
a. 0.087 Correct
b. 0.0632
c. 0.032
d. 0.051
Feedback
About 30% of the male population living in an urban area smokes cigarette. A researcher believes that
male aged 16-30 are more likely smokes
cigarette than other ages in the urban area population. The researcher surveys 300 male aged 16-30 and
finds that 80 of them smokes cigarette:
Select one:
a. 0.041
b. 0.089
c. 0.026 Correct
d. 0.011
Feedback
Select one:
a. -2.729
b. -0.998
c. -3.661
d. -1.260 Correct
Feedback
Select one:
a. 0.372
b. 0.419
c. 0.267 Correct
d. 0.189
Feedback
Select one:
a. 0.667 Correct
b. 0.429
c. 0.739
d. 0.921
Feedback
Select one:
a. 0.0548
b. 0.0808
c. 0.0993
d. 0.0741 Correct
Feedback
conclude?
Select one:
Feedback
Select one:
a. 0.963
b. 0.675 Correct
c. 0.367
d. 0.822
Feedback
Short Quiz 13 Stats

you conclude?
Select one:
Feedback
Select one:
a. 0.983
b. 2.181
c. 3.004
d. 1.191 Correct
Feedback
Select one:
a. 0.087 Correct
b. 0.0632
c. 0.032
d. 0.051
Feedback
Select one:
a. 0.041
b. 0.089
c. 0.026 Correct
d. 0.011
Feedback
Select one:
a. -2.729
b. -0.998
c. -3.661
d. -1.260 Correct
Feedback
Select one:
a. 0.372
b. 0.419
c. 0.267 Correct
d. 0.189
Feedback
Select one:
a. 0.667 Correct
b. 0.429
c. 0.739
d. 0.921
Feedback
Select one:
a. 0.0548
b. 0.0808
c. 0.0993
d. 0.0741 Correct
Feedback
conclude?
Select one:
Feedback
Select one:
a. 0.963
b. 0.675 Correct
c. 0.367
d. 0.822
Feedback
Select one:
a. 0.062
b. 0.077
c. 0.034 correct
d. 0.045
Short Quiz 15
Describe the relationship based when r value = 0.01
Select one:
a. No apparent correlation Correct
b. Weak positive correction
c. Strong positive correction
d. Minimal positive correction
Feedback
The correct answer is: No apparent correlation
Linear correlation coefficient is always a value between ____ and ____.
Select one:
a. 0, 100 Incorrect
b. 1, 100
c. +1, -1
d. 0, 1
Feedback
The correct answer is: +1, -1
Year and household monthly water consumption in the Philippines
Select one:
a. Water consumption is the explanatory variable and year is the response variable Incorrect
b. Year is the explanatory variable and water consumption is the response variable
Feedback
The correct answer is: Year is the explanatory variable and water consumption is the response variable
Describe the relationship based on the r-value r=0,
Select one:
a. No relationship
b. Deterministic relationship Incorrect
c. Weak relationship
d. Strong relationship
Feedback
The correct answer is: No relationship
The value of a perfect positive coefficient is ________.
Select one:
a. A positive number greater than 1
b. Equal to zero.
d. Equal to 1.
e. A positive number greater than 0. Incorrect
Feedback
The correct answer is: Equal to 1.
Select one:
a. Minimal positive correction Incorrect
c. No apparent correlation
d. Strong positive correction
Feedback
The correct answer is: Strong positive correction
The variable that causes an effect
Select one:
a. Response variable
b. Explanatory variable Correct
c. Trend variable
d. Correlation variable
Feedback
The correct answer is: Explanatory variable
This pattern is produced when the score of one observation is high, the score of the other observation to
be high.
Select one:
a. XY Plot
b. Positive Correlation
c. Direct Correlation Incorrect
d. Negative Correlation
Feedback
The correct answer is: Positive Correlation
Select one:
b. Cannot be determined
c. Year is the explanatory variable and water consumption is the response variable
Feedback
The variable that reflects the effect
Select one:
a. Explanatory variable
b. Response variable Correct
c. Correlation variable
d. Trend variable
Feedback
The correct answer is: Response variable
Select one:
a. Minimal positive correction
b. Strong positive correction Correct
d. Weak positive correction
Feedback
The symbol used to measure the strength and direction of a linear correlation
Select one:
a. r2
b. r
c. XY
d. None of the choices Incorrect
Feedback
The correct answer is: r
It is also called independent variable
Select one:
b. Response variable Incorrect
c. Trend variable
Feedback
Salary and number of years of experience
Select one:
a. Number of years is the explanatory variable and salary is the response variable Correct
b. Salary is the explanatory variable and number of years is the response variable
Feedback
The correct answer is: Number of years is the explanatory variable and salary is the response variable

Select one:
a. No apparent correlation
b. Minimal positive correction Incorrect
c. Weak positive correction
Feedback
The correct answer is: Weak positive correction
Expenditure is an example of a
Select one:
a. Trend variable
b. Explanatory variable
d. Response variable Correct
Feedback
Short Quiz 5 Stats
True or False: Empirical Rule states that 68% of the data falls within the 1 standard deviation.
True or False: In order to apply the Central Limit Theorem, a sample size must be greater than or equal
to 20.
True or False: In Central Limit Theorem, the standard deviation of the distribution of means is estimated
by dividing the standard deviation of
the population by the square of the sample size.
True or False: A random sample of size 49 is selected from a known population with a mean of 29 and a
standard deviation of 3.3. Samples of the
same size are repeatedly collected, allowing a sampling distribution of sample means to be drawn. The
sampling distribution of sample mean will
be approximately a normal curve.
Margin of Error is the value that _______________ from the mean to identify the confidence interval.
A: add/subtract
In a normal curve, a _____ of 1 means 1 deviation data are above the average.
The correct answer is: Z score
Empirical rule states that _______ % of data falls within 2 standard deviation.
True or False: Standard deviation of a distribution of means is the standard error of the mean.
True or False: If the population is normally distributed, the sampling distribution of sample mean is
equal to 1.
A: false
If there are 2 volunteers that are randomly selected from population of 10 for each sample, how many
will be the possible samples?
A: 45
The average of the population.
PROBLEM SOLVING: Write the answer corresponds to the problem.
REMINDERS
If the answer requires decimals, express your answer in 2 decimal places.
If your answer is more than 3 digits, DO NOT INCLUDE THE COMMA.
If there are three students that are randomly selected from population of 20 for each sample, how many
possible samples will there be?
True or False: In Central Limit Theorem, the mean of the sampling distribution of the mean is equal to
the population mean.
It is located at the middle of the normal curve.
Bell shaped curve.
The correct answer is: Normal Curve
In a normal curve, the mean always has a z score of ____
Week 6 Learning Activity 5 Stats Different questions. Comment below yung questions kapag wala pa rin
dito.
If the population is normally distributed,
Select one:
b. The sampling distribution of sample mean is normal Correct
c. Standard deviation is equal to Mean
d. Standard deviation is distributed along the normal curve
Feedback
The correct answer is: The sampling distribution of sample mean is normal
Standard deviation of a distribution of means is the standard error of the mean.
Select one:
a. The statement is TRUE Correct
c. The statement is FALSE
d. The statement do not have sufficient information to conclude

The correct answer is: The statement is TRUE
A random sample of size is 50 is selected from a known population with a mean of 13 and a standard
deviation of 3.3. Samples of the same size
are repeatedly collected, allowing a sampling distribution of sample means to be drawn. What is the
approximate standard deviation of the
sample means?
Select one:
a. 12.692
b. 0.066
c. 0.467 Correct
d. 15.15
Feedback
A random sample of size 50 is selected from a known population with a mean of 25 and a standard
deviation of 5.2. Samples of the same size are
repeatedly collected, allowing a sampling distribution of sample means to be drawn. What does the
problem tells us?
Select one:
a. All of the above statements does not describe the problem
b. Standard deviation of the sample mean is calculated by 5.2 divided by size of the sample which is 50
c. The sampling distribution of sample mean will be approximately a normal curve
d. Z score can be calculated by dividing 25 by the size of samples which is 50
Answer: c. The sampling distribution of sample mean will be approximately a normal curve
If there are 5 students that are randomly selected from population of 10 for each sample, how many will
be the possible samples?
Select one:
a. 250
b. 126
c. 50
d. 252
Answer: 252
In Central Limit Theorem, the standard deviation of the distribution of means is estimated by
Select one:
a. Mean of the population multiplied by the standard deviation of the population
b. Dividing the standard deviation of the population by the square root of the sample size
c. Dividing the mean of the population by the square root of the deviation of the population
d. Mean of the population divided by the mean of the sampling distribution
Answer:Dividing the standard deviation of the population by the square root of the sample size
Which of the following applies to Central Limit Theorem?
Select one:
a. None of the answers is correct.
b. All of the answers are correct.
c. Distribution of sample means may be assumed normal as long as sample size is greater than or equal
to 30.
d. When the sample size is large or above 30, the population is not normal Incorrect
e. Population is normally distributed when standard deviation is large
Feedback
The correct answer is: Distribution of sample means may be assumed normal as long as sample size is
greater than or equal to 30.
Short Quiz 7 Stats
Margin of Error is the value that ______ from the mean to identify the confidence interval.
Select one:
a. Subtracted
b. Added
d. Added and subtracted
The correct answer is: Added and subtracted
Compute for the confidence intervals of the following data:
Mean = 88
Standard deviation = 6
Sample size = 100
Confidence level = 95%
Select one:
a. 73.89, 79.89
b. 80.08, 84.23
c. 89.05, 92.45
d. 86.82, 89.18
The correct answer is: 80.08, 84.23
The number of degrees of freedom is ________ the sample size.
Select one:
b. Greater than
c. Equal to
d. Less than
The correct answer is: Less than
Compute for the confidence intervals of the following data: Mean = 66 Standard deviation = 5 Sample
size = 100 Confidence coefficient = 1.645
Select one:
a. 70.04, 71.34
b. 71.90, 72.22
c. 69.33, 70.02
d. 65.18, 66.82
Find the point estimate of the population parameter of the grades of students. The answer must be
rounded off to the nearest hundredths.
The correct answer is: 8 6 . 2 5
The range of possible values expected to capture the population mean is called the Margin of Error.
Select one:
a. TRUE
b. FALSE
Which of the following does not describes a T distribution?
Select one:
b. Bell shaped curve
c. Symmetrical
d. Mean of Means is equal to 0
The correct answer is: Mean of Means is equal to 0
Compute for the margin of error given the following data:
Mean = 80
Sample size = 100
Note that the answer must be rounded off to the nearest hundredths.
Answer:
Incorrect
Feedback
Which of the following is used to estimate population parameter?
Select one:
a. Point Estimate
b. Central Limit Theorem Estimate Incorrect
c. Mean Estimate
d. Biased Estimate
Feedback
Mean of means is also called
Select one:
a. Unbiased estimate
b. Interval Estimate Incorrect
c. Point Estimate
d. Population Mean
Feedback
Compute for the margin of error given the following data:
Mean = 77
Sample size = 100
Confidence coefficient = 2.58
Note that the answer must be rounded off to the nearest hundredths.
Answer:
Incorrect
Feedback
Learning activity 7 Stats
Compute for the confidence intervals of the following data:
Mean = 66
Sample size = 100
Select one:
a. 66.03, 69.03
b. 64.04, 67.96
c. 65.41, 66.59
d. 69.03, 70.99
Common choices for the confidence level.
Select one:
a. 68%, 95%, 99.7%
b. 90%, 95%, 99%
c. 95%, 99%, 100%
d. 0%, 50%, 100%
The correct answer is: 90%, 95%, 99%
In T distribution, if we increase the number of observations
Select one:
a. the distribution approaches the shape of a normal distribution
b. the mean approaches zero
c. the curve lies within the horizontal axis
d. the mean increases
e. all of the choices
The correct answer is: the distribution approaches the shape of a normal distribution
A single value given as an estimate of a parameter of a population.
Select one:
a. Confidence Limit
b. Sample Mean Correct
c. Sample distribution
d. Confidence coefficient
Feedback
The correct answer is: Sample Mean
For example, a 90% confidence interval covers 90% of the normal curve, so the probability of observing
a value outside of this area is
____________.
Select one:
a. Less than 10%
b. Higher than the 2 nd standard deviation Incorrect
c. Greater than 10%
d. Lower than the 2 nd standard deviation
Feedback
The correct answer is: Less than 10%
This is the value that is added to and subtracted from the mean to identify the confidence interval.
Select one:
a. Confidence Level
b. Margin of Error
c. Confidence Interval Incorrect
d. Standard Deviation Error
Feedback
The correct answer is: Margin of Error
Find the sample size given 95% confidence, Margin of Error = 0.15 and p ^ =0.25.
Select one:
a. 34 Incorrect
b. 33
c. 31
d. 32
Feedback
Find the sample size given 90% confidence, Margin of Error = 0.15 and ^p =0.25.
Select one:
a. 20 Incorrect
b. 22
c. 23
d. 21
Feedback
Select one:
a. 389
b. 215 Incorrect
c. 139
d. 152
Feedback
Select one:
a. 41
b. 42
c. 44 Incorrect
d. 43
Feedback
The Engineer of the building wants to use the proportion of the population to determine the sample size
needed to interview regarding their
idea about the new color design of the building. He wants to be able to assure with probability 0.90 that
his error will be most 0.10. Similar
surveys during past year that 85% approved the new color design. How large a sample does the Engineer
need?
Select one:
a. 278 Incorrect
b. 2,145
c. 1,372
d. 196
Feedback

Short Quiz 11 Stats
Determine whether each of the following is a null of an alternative hypothesis:
The proportion of computer in the software laboratory is lower than the total number of BS IT students
in the university.
Answer:
alternative hypothesis
Correct
Feedback
The correct answer is: Alternative hypothesis
The alternative hypothesis and null hypothesis should be ________________.
Select one:
a. Mutually exclusive
d. Mutually inclusive Correct
Feedback
The correct answer is: Mutually inclusive
The proportion of an employee income is greater than the monthly expenses of the employee.
Answer:
null hypothesis
Incorrect
Feedback
William collected a random sample of 88 people, asking how many times they open ABC web site per
day on average, and calculated x¯ = 50.30.
ABC suggests that µ = 55, and s = 10. William thinks the actual mean is less than the website owner
claims. What is the null and alternative
hypothesis?
Select one:
a. 55
b. Null hypothesis µ = 55, Alternative hypothesis µ < 55
c. Null hypothesis µ ? 55, Alternative hypothesis µ
d. Null hypothesis µ > 55, Alternative hypothesis µ = 55
e. 55, Alternative hypothesis µ ? 55 Correct
f. Null hypothesis µ
Feedback
The correct answer is: Null hypothesis µ = 55, Alternative hypothesis µ < 55
A type of test that is denoted by the symbol Ho.
Select one:
a. Rejection hypothesis Incorrect
b. Statistical hypothesis
c. Alternative hypothesis
d. Null hypothesis
Feedback
The correct answer is: Null hypothesis
The probability of making type I error is
Select one:
a. ß
b. 1- a
c. 1- ß
d. a Correct
e. µ - a
Feedback
The correct answer is: a
For the 99% confidence level,
Select one:
a. a
b. a
c. a
d. 0.001
e. a
f. 0.010
g. 0.005
h. 0.025 Correct
Feedback
A police precinct claims that there is ten crimes on the average are reported.
Answer:
Incorrect
Feedback
This refers to the area where the value of the test statistic lies for which we will reject the null
hypothesis.
Select one:
a. Rejection region and Null region

b. Rejection region and Critical region Correct
c. Null region and Critical region
d. Null region
e. Critical region
g. Rejection region
h. All of the choices
Feedback
The correct answer is: Rejection region and Critical region
The average income of an employee is 12,000 pesos.
Answer:
null hypothesis
Correct
Feedback
The level of significance is the
Select one:
a. 1 - p value
b. Same as confidence interval
c. Maximum allowable probability of Type II error
d. Minimum allowable probability of Type II error
e. Probability of committing a Type I error Correct
Feedback
The correct answer is: Probability of committing a Type I error
What is the null hypothesis to the claim that people like android phone than IOS? State the null
hypothesis.
Select one:
a. Less people like IOS than android
b. More people like android than IOS phone Correct
c. Less people like android and IOS phone
d. More people like IOS phone than android phone
Feedback
The correct answer is: More people like android than IOS phone
If the null hypothesis is true and rejected, the decision is incorrect – Type I Error
Select one:
a. Rejection Error
b. Type I Error Correct
c. Correction Error
d. Type II Error
Feedback
The correct answer is: Type I Error
The average internet usage of a College student is 6 hours.
Answer:
null hypothesis
Correct
Feedback
Short quiz 14
In a ____________, high values in one variable correspond to high values in the other variable.
Select one:
a. Perfect Correlation Incorrect
c. Scattered Correlation
Feedback
Graphical representation of the relationship between two variables.
Select one:
a. Line Plots Incorrect
b. XY intersection plot
c. scatter plot
d. Cartesian plane
Feedback
The correct answer is: scatter plot
When examining scatterplot and draw an ellipse around the data, long and narrow ellipses means
Select one:
a. Negative linear association
b. Weak linear association
c. Positive linear association Incorrect
d. Strong linear association
e. Cannot determine with the given information
Feedback
The correct answer is: Strong linear association

This measures relationship between bivariate data.
Select one:
b. Correlation Correct
d. Linear Regression
e. Scatterplot Analysis
Feedback
The correct answer is: Correlation
A _____________ is simply a scatterplot in which we connect successive chronological observations with

a line segment to give more
information about how the data values are changing over a period of time.
Select one:
a. XY Plot
b. Scatter Plot
c. Correlation Plot
d. Line plot Correct
Feedback
The correct answer is: Line plot
The data had a _________________ when one variable increases, the other variable also decreases.
Select one:
a. negative linear association Incorrect
b. proportional association
c. elliptical association
d. positive linear association
Feedback
The correct answer is: positive linear association
The goal of examining bivariate data is to show some relativity or association between two or more
variables.
Select one:
Feedback
The correct answer is: The statement is FALSE.
Learning Actvity 14 Stats
Given the data below, what is the direction of the association between the two variables.
Select one:
a. Positive linear association Incorrect
c. Strong linear association
e. Negative linear association
Feedback
The correct answer is: Negative linear association
The data had a _________________ when one variable increases, the other variable also increases.
Select one:
a. positive linear association Correct
d. negative linear association
Feedback

The line that is closest to the points is called _____________.
Select one:
a. Trend line Correct
b. Correlation line
c. Cross line
d. Scatter line
Feedback
The correct answer is: Trend line
The three important characteristics of a bivariate?
Select one:
a. Elliptical, Rounded, Scattered
b. Proportional, Directional, Elliptical
c. Direction, Shape, Strength
d. Line, Points, Shape Incorrect
Feedback
The correct answer is: Direction, Shape, Strength
The series of disconnected points is referred to as _________________________
Select one:
a. XY Plots
b. Trend line plots
c. Bivariate data
d. scatter plot Correct
Feedback
Short Quiz 16 Stats

The equation y=2x2 + 9 will produce a
Select one:
a. Parabola Correct
b. Ellipse
c. Circle
d. Straight line
Feedback
The correct answer is: Parabola
When slope is positive,
Select one:
a. y increases as x increases Correct
b. y decreases as x increases
c. y increases, x values approaches point of origin
d. y decreases, x values approaches 1
Feedback
The correct answer is: y increases as x increases
In the slope-intercept equation of a line, the slope of the line is represented as the coefficient of the
variable x.
Select one:
a. FALSE
c. TRUE Correct
Feedback
Given the table below, what is the linear equation?
Select one:
a. y=3x + 11 Incorrect
b. y=6x + 5
c. y=8x + 3
d. y=3x + 8
Feedback
Your answer is incorrect.
The correct answer is: y=8x + 3
If the line has no slope,
Select one:
a. The line is a horizontal line
b. The line is at the point of origin
c. The line intercepts the x and y axis
d. The line lies at the x axis Incorrect
Feedback
The correct answer is: The line is a horizontal line
Given the table below, what is the slope?
Select one:
a. 9
b. 11
c. 8
d. 3 Incorrect
Feedback
Given the equation y = 7x+ 30, what is the slope?

Answer:
4.2
Incorrect
Feedback
Given the table and graph, determine the slope intercept equation.
Select one:
a. y=5x + 1
b. y=10x + 2 Incorrect
c. y=5x + 2
d. y=10x + 1
Feedback
Given the equation 9y = 2x + 81, what is the y intercept?
Answer:
Incorrect
Feedback
The equation y=mx + b is also known as
Select one:
a. slope intercept form
b. y intercept Incorrect
c. correlation intercept form
d. xy intercept form
Feedback
The correct answer is: slope intercept form
Answer:
Correct
Feedback
Select one:
a. y=3x + 1
b. 2y=6x + 3
c. y=-3x + 3 Correct
d. 2y=6x + 1
The correct answer is: y=-3x + 3
Select one:
a. 2 Correct
b. 1
c. 8
d. 7
Feedback

Answer:
Incorrect
Feedback
Select one:
a. y=2x + 7 Correct
b. y=5x + 2
c. y=7x + 1
d. y=7x + 5
Feedback
Write the slope-intercept equation of the line that has slope 6 and y-intercept 4.
answer: 6x+4
Q: True or False: The Greek letter alpha represents the mean.
A: False
Q: This determines the degree to which values of a random variable dif
A: Variance
Q: Find the median of the following data set. 11, 13, 15, 17, 19, 21, 22, 23, 25, 27, 29, 31, 33, 35, 37, 39,
41, 43, 51, 53, 55, 57, 59
A: 31
Q: A single value given as an estimate of a parameter of a population.
A: Sample Mean
Q: Empirical Rule states that 68% of the data falls within the 1 standard deviation.
A: False
Q: The sum of all the probabilities P(X = x) for all possible values of a discrete random variable X must
equal 1.
A: The statement is TRUE.
True or False: Variance is the degree to which values of a random variable differ from the expected value
ANSWER: TRUE
Q: As the sample size increases,
A: sampling distribution becomes closer to a normal distribution.
Q: Given the following sample data, compute for the true mean. The answer must have two decimal
places.1 1 1 2 3 4 5 5 5 8 8 8 8
A: 4.53
Q: How many possible outcomes when you simultaneously toss three fair coins.
A: 8
Q: Identify if the random variable is a DISCRETE or CONTINUOUS. Weight of students in a university
A: CONTINUOUS
Q: True or False: In Statistics, variance is defined as the number of times an outcome can occur
compared to all possible outcomes.
A: False
Q: True or False: Mean is the sum of all possible values of random variables.
A: False
Q: Find the median of the following data set. 44, 46, 29, 39, 59, 59, 39
A: 39
Q: Which of the following does not describes a T distribution?
A: Mean of Means is equal to 0
Q: True or False: Random sample happened when data is collected in no certain order
A: True
Q: True or False: In order to apply the Central Limit Theorem, a sample size must be greater than or
equal to 20.
A: False
Q: To calculate the mean from a sample,
A: Add all the values and divided by the total number of samples
Q: Which of the following is used to calculate population parameter?
A: Point Estimate
Q: Identify whether each example describes a random sample. Answer with Yes or No The manager
chooses 30 employees randomly from
a department.
A: Yes
Q: Identify if the random variable is a DISCRETE or CONTINUOUS. Total number of volunteers in a

community
A: DISCRETE
Q: Normal Distribution Curve is also called
A: Bell Curve
Q: In Central Limit Theorem, the mean of the sampling distribution of the mean is equal to the
A: Population mean
Q: Which measure of tendency is the best estimator?
A: Mean
Q: The number of times out of 100 that the repeated experiment would be expected to capture the
population mean within the given
interval.
A: Confidence Level
Q: In a normal curve, a ___ of 1 means 1 deviation data are above the average.
A: Z score
Q: True or False: In Central Limit Theorem, the mean of the sampling distribution of the mean is equal to
A: True
Q: Confidence coefficient is a single value given as an estimate of a parameter of a population.
A: FALSE. Change “confidence coefficient” to sample mean
Q: For example, a 90% confidence interval covers 90% of the normal curve, so the probability of
observing a value outside of this area is
____________.
A: Less than 10%
Q: Use to check the normality of a distribution
A: Normal quantile plot
Q: Identify if the random variable is a DISCRETE or CONTINUOUS. Number of winning tournaments of a

varsity team
A: DISCRETE
Q: The weighted average of the possible values of random variables.
A: Mean
Q: Identify whether each example describes a random sample. Answer with Yes or No. Collects the
number of students who rides on the
train.
A: Yes
Q: Consider the given the probability distribution
A: 4.100
Q: PROBLEM SOLVING: Write the answer corresponds to the problem.
REMINDERS If the answer requires decimals, express your answer in 2 decimal places. If your answer is
more than 3 digits, DO NOT
INCLUDE THE COMMA.
A: 1140
Q: Which of the following describes a Normal Distribution Curve.
Q: True or False: Random distribution is the process of assigning a number to each member of the
population
A: False
Q: How many regions can be found at the left side of the normal distribution curve?
A: 3
A: Bell Curve
Q: Given the data set 10,11,11,12,12,12,13,13,13,13,24,24,14,15,15,16, how many numbers are in the
lower quartile?
A: 4
Q: In order to apply the Central Limit Theorem, a sample size must be greater than or equal to _______.
A: 30
Q: Who is the famous mathematician where the normal distribution curve was named after?
A: Carl Friedrich Gauss
Population Mean is an example of a parameter.
A: true
Q: True or False: People whose names were drawn out of the survey is an example of a random sample
A: True
Q: Empirical Rule states that _____ % of data falls within the first standard deviation from the mean.
A: 68
equal to
A: 1
Q: True or False: The number of questions that you answer correctly on this quiz is an example of a
discrete random variable.
A: False
Q: Identify whether each example describes a random sample. Answer with Yes or No. A teacher
conducts examination to all his students.
A: No
Q: Given the data set 10,11,11,12,12,12,13,13,13,13,24,24,14,15,15,16, find the upper quartile
A: 14
Q: What is the formula to calculate for the z-score?
A: Mean value of the variable subtracted from the observed value divided by the standard deviation
Q: Given the following table, what is the correct computation to find mean?
x,0,1,2
p(x),0.30,0.20,0.10
A: None of the choices
Q: True or False: As the sample size increases, the standard error increases.
A: False
It is the number of times an outcome can occur compared to all possible outcomes.
Select one:
a. Variance
b. Standard Deviation
c. Mean
d. Probability
What is the common symbol for the mean?
Select one:
a. ∑
b. Α
c. Ω
d. µ
True or False: Mean is computed as the weighted average of the possible numbers of random variables.
ANSWER: TRUE
Assuming z-score is 1, which of the following statement is TRUE.
Select one:
a. All values are less than the mean.
b. All values are equal to the z-score
c. All values are equal to the mean.
d. All values are greater than the mean.
True or False: To determine the value of the mean, multiply each possible outcome of the random
variables X by its associated probability
and the take the sum over all possible values of X.
Answer: true
How do you determine the value of the mean,
Select one:
a. Multiply each possible outcome of the random variables X by its associated probability and the take
the square root of the sum of all
possible values of X.
c. Sum each possible outcome of the random variables X by its associated probability and the take the
product of all possible values of X.
d. Multiply each possible outcome of the random variables X by its associated probability and the take
the sum over all possible values of
X.
True or False: The probability variance of a discrete random variable is a graph, a table or a formula that
specifies the probability associated with
each possible value that the random variable can assume. Answer: FALSE
true or False: One of the most important characteristics of any probability distribution is the mean.
~ true
The probability distribution of a discrete random variable is a graph, a table or a formula that specifies
the probability associated with each
possible value that the random variable can assume.
Select one:
a. The statement is INCORRECT. The word “formula” should not be included in the statement.
b. The statement is INCORRECT. The word “graph” should not be included in the statement.
c. The statement is INCORRECT. The word “graph and formula” should not be included in the statement.
d. The statement is ALWAYS CORRECT.
Which of the following applies to a normal distribution?
Select one:
a. Mean is greater than Median.
b. Data is exactly equal to the mean.
c. Exactly ½ of the data is above the mean and ½ of data is below.
d. Median is greater than Mean.
What are the percentages of normal distribution within 1, 2 and 3 standard deviation.
Select one:
a. Approximately 50% and 50% respectively
b. Exactly 25%, 25% and 50% respectively
c. Exactly 100% be applied to each standard deviation
d. Approximately 68%, 95% and 99.7% respectively
In order to apply the Central Limit Theorem, a sample size ________________________.
Select one:
a. Must be greater than zero.

b. Must be greater than sample distribution.
c. Must be equal than the sample mean.
d. Must be greater than 30.
This is a representative subset of a population.
Select one:
a. Standard Deviation
b. Sample
c. Statistics
d. Mean
In the Empirical Rule, _______ % of data will fall in with two standard deviation.
Select one:
a. 99.7
b. 34
c. 50
d. 100
e. 95
This is always in the center of the normal curve
Select one:
a. Mode
b. Median
c. Standard Deviation
d. Mean
True or False: Variance is the degree to which values of a random variable differ from the expected
value.
A: false
In a normal curve, the mean is located at the

Select one:
a. highest point of the curve
b. lowest point of the curve
c. midpoint of the curve
d. intersection of the lowest and highest point
The range of probability is
Select one:
a. can be any number (positive or negative)
b. from zero to 1
c. negative 1 to positive 1
d. from zero to any positive number
The standard deviation of the normal distribution is
Select one:
a. should always be a positive number
b. always equal to zero
c. always equal to one
d. greater than or equal to zero
This determines the degree to which values of a random variable differ from the expected value.
Select one:
a. Median
b. Standard Deviation
c. Variance
d. Mode
e. Mean
The mean of the normal distribution is

Select one:
a. should always be a positive number
b. always equal to zero
c. always equal to one
d. greater than or equal to zero
This are numbers that summarizes data for an entire population
Select one:
a. Standard Deviation
b. Mean
c. Sample Distribution of sample means
d. Standard deviation of the distribution of the sample means
e. Sample
f. Parameter
g. Random Sample
h. Standard Curve
i. Sampling Error
j. Population
k. Population Mean
l. Distribution Error
m. Median
n. Mode
o. Statistics
p. Sample
q. Deviation Error
True or False: The probability of an outcome that all heads face up when fairly tossing three coin is 3/8.
Answer: false
The range of possible values expected to capture the population mean.
Select one:
a. Standard Deviation Error
b. Confidence Interval
c. Margin of Error
d. Confidence Level
The t-distribution shape changes as the _______________ changes.
Select one:
a. Population Mean
c. Sample Mean
d. Sample size
The confidence level is expressed in terms of ____________.
Select one:
a. Percentage
b. Whole Number
c. Fraction
d. Ratio
In Central Limit Theorem, the standard deviation of the population is estimated by dividing the standard
deviation of the population by the
square of the sample size.
Select one:
a. The statement is TRUE
b. The statement is FALSE
c. The statement is SOMETIMES FALSE

d. The statement is SOMETIMES TRUE
A: False
A: Variance
41, 43, 51, 53, 55, 57, 59
A: 31
A: Sample Mean
A: False
equal 1.
places.1 1 1 2 3 4 5 5 5 8 8 8 8
A: 4.53
A: 8
A: CONTINUOUS
A: False
A: False
A: 39
A: True
equal to 20.
A: False
A: Point Estimate
a department.
A: Yes

community
A: DISCRETE
A: Normal Curve
A: Population mean

A: Mean
interval.
A: Confidence Level
Q: In a normal curve, a ___ of 1 means 1 deviation data are above the average.
A: Z score
A: True
____________.
A: Less than 10%

varsity team
A: DISCRETE
A: Mean
train.
A: Yes
A:
INCLUDE THE COMMA.
A: 1140
population
A: False
A: 3
A: Basic Curve
lower quartile?
A: 4
Q: In order to apply the Central Limit Theorem, a sample size must be greater than or equal to _______.
A: 30
A: True
Q: Empirical Rule states that _____ % of data falls within the first standard deviation from the mean.
A: 68
equal to
A: 1
A: False
A: No
A: 14
x,0,1,2
p(x),0.30,0.20,0.10
A: False
STAT-112-20172S / ► Week 10: Quarterly Exam / ► Quarterly Exam
A: False
A: Variance
41, 43, 51, 53, 55, 57, 59
A: 31
A: Sample Mean
A: False
equal 1.
places.1 1 1 2 3 4 5 5 5 8 8 8 8
A: 4.53
A: 8
A: CONTINUOUS
A: False
A: False
A: 39

A: True
equal to 20.
A: False
A: Point Estimate
a department.
A: Yes

community
A: DISCRETE
A: Normal Curve
A: Population mean
A: Mean
interval.
A: Confidence Level
Q: In a normal curve, a _ of 1 means 1 deviation data are above the average.
A: Z score
A: True
__________.
A: Less than 10%

varsity team
A: DISCRETE
A: Mean
train.
A: Yes
A:
INCLUDE THE COMMA.
A: 1140
population
A: False
A: 3
A: Basic Curve
lower quartile?
A: 4
Q: In order to apply the Central Limit Theorem, a sample size must be greater than or equal to _____.
A: 30
A: True
Q: Empirical Rule states that ___ % of data falls within the first standard deviation from the mean.
A: 68
equal to
A: 1
A: False
A: No
A: 14
x,0,1,2
p(x),0.30,0.20,0.10
A: False
Which of the following is tells about t distribution,
A: all of the choices
Two dice is rolled and the sum of face up is being recorded and represented as X. What is P(x <= 5)? 10
In a normal distribution curve,: Mean is equal to Median; None of the choices; Mean is equal to Mode;
Mean is equal to Median and Mode
True or False: Sampling Error is the degree of error expected for a given sample design TRUE
Identify whether each example describes a random sample. Answer with Yes or No A survey company
collects information on businessman in
Metro Manila on who will they vote for president on the next election. Yes
1. Given the data set, find the Mean Value or Expected value (round off your answer to the nearest
tenths): 4.2
Identify if the random variable is a DISCRETE or CONTINUOUS. The brightness of an LED bulb
CONTINUOUS
In a normal distribution curve, data are divided into 3 equal parts.: The statement is FALSE.; None of the
choices; The statement is TRUE.; The
statement is SOMETIMES TRUE depending on the data set.
None of the choices
False
value. False
4.5, 9.2, 9.1, 8.4 2.60
variables X by its associated probability and
the take the sum over all possible values of X. True
Identify whether each example describes a random sample. Answer with Yes or No. Collects the number
of students who rides on the train.
Yes
each possible value that the random variable can assume. False
True or False: Mean is the sum of all possible values of random variables. False
Identify whether each example describes a random sample. Answer with Yes or No Women who
volunteer to take a survey on human rights.
No
The speed of cars travelling in the road and the water consumption of household are examples of:
Continuous Discrete Random Variable; None
of the choices; Discrete Random Variables; Discrete Continuous Random Variable; Continuous Random
Variable Continuous Random Variable
Identify if the random variable is a DISCRETE or CONTINUOUS. Time travelled by an astronaut

CONTINUOUS
This determines the degree to which values of a random variable differ from the expected value.: Mean;
Median; Standard Deviation; Variance;
Mode Variance
It is a part of population intended to represent a population as a whole.: Sample; Mode; Random

Sample; Standard Curve; Standard deviation of
the distribution of the sample means; Statistics; Sampling Error; Standard Deviation; Population;
Distribution Error; Population Mean; Mean;
Sample; Median; Sample Distribution of sample means; Deviation Error; Parameter Sample
True or False: Parameters are numbers that summarizes data for an entire population TRUE
tenths): 4.2
possible value that the random variable can assume.: The statement is INCORRECT. The word “graph
and formula” should not be included in the
statement.; The statement is INCORRECT. The word “graph” should not be included in the statement.;
The statement is INCORRECT. The word
“formula” should not be included in the statement.; The statement is ALWAYS CORRECT.The statement
is ALWAYS CORRECT.
It is a part of population intended to represent a population as a whole.: Standard deviation of the

distribution of the sample means; Deviation
Error; Standard Deviation; Sampling Error; Mean; Parameter; Random Sample; Mode; Statistics;
Standard Curve; Sample; Sample Distribution of
sample means; Population; Median; Sample; Population Mean; Distribution Error Sample
The standard deviation of the normal distribution is: always equal to zero; greater than or equal to zero;
always equal to one; should always be a
positive number always equal to one

It is the measure of how many standard deviations below or above the population mean.: Z-score;
Normal Distribution Measurement; Median;
Empirical Rule Z-score
In a normal distribution curve,: Mean is equal to Median and Mode; Mean is equal to Median; Mean is
equal to Mode; None of the choices
In a normal distribution curve, data are divided into 3 equal parts.: The statement is TRUE.; The
statement is FALSE.; None of the choices; The
statement is SOMETIMES TRUE depending on the data set. None of the choices
Given the data set 10,11,11,12,12,12,13,13,13,13,24,24,14,15,15,16, how many numbers are in the
lower quartile?: 6; 1; 4; 0 4
Given the following table, what is the correct computation to find mean? : (0.30+0.20+0.10)/3; None of
the choices ; (0.30+0.20+0.10)/(0+1+2) ;
(0)(0.30) + (1)(0.20) + (2)(0.10); (0+1+2)(0.30+0.20+0.10) None of the choices
True or False: Random sample happened when data is collected in no certain order TRUE
Identify whether each example describes a random sample. Answer with Yes or No Renmel closes his
eyes, opens a book and randomly points to
a word on the page. She repeats the process for 30 times. No
True or False: Random distribution is the process of assigning a number to each member of the
population FALSE
Identify whether each example describes a random sample. Answer with Yes or No. The speed of
internet in all areas in the Visayas Region.
Yes
variables X by its associated probability and
the take the sum over all possible values of X. True
True or False: Standard deviation of the distribution of the sample means is computed as the population
standard deviation multiplied by the
square root of the sample size. FALSE

What is the probability distribution of occurring the all heads in a toss of three coins?: 0.25; 0.1255; 0;
None of the choices; 1 0.1255
Given the following mean, compute for the Mean of Means. The answer should be rounded off to the
nearest hundredths. 3.2 3.6 3.9 9.2
True or False: Sample Distribution of sample means is the the distribution that describes the spread of
the means of multiple samples from the
sample population TRUE
Identify whether each example describes a random sample. Answer with Yes or No. Collects the election
results in all areas in the Philippines
during election No
Which of the following random activity would you define as a discrete random variable?: Depth of
building excavation.; Height of students
enrolled in an online course.; None of the choices.; Wind speed during typhoon.; Distance travelled of a
tourist bus. None of the choices.
What is the common symbol for the mean?: Α; ∑; µ; Ω µ
What is the probability distribution of occurring the all heads in a toss of three coins?: 0.25; 0; None of
the choices; 0.1255; 1 0.1255
Given the following sample data, compute for the true mean. The answer should be rounded off to one
decimal place. 3 5 5 5 6 6 8 8 13
15 17 30 10.8
How do you determine the value of the mean,: Sum each possible outcome of the random variables X by
its associated probability and the take
the product of all possible values of X.; None of the choices; Multiply each possible outcome of the
random variables X by its associated
probability and the take the sum over all possible values of X.; Multiply each possible outcome of the
probability and the take the square root of the sum of all possible values of X. Multiply each possible
outcome of the random variables
X by its associated probability and the take the sum over all possible values of X.
This are numbers that summarizes data from a sample: Parameter; Sampling Error; Statistics; Sample
Distribution of sample means; Standard
Deviation; Population Mean; Mode; Standard Curve; Sample; Population; Median; Distribution Error;
Deviation Error; Standard deviation of the
distribution of the sample means; Random Sample; Mean; Sample Statistics
Which of the following is not a characteristics of a normal distribution.: None of the choices; Perfectly
asymmetric; Mount-shaped distribution;
Bell-shaped Perfectly asymmetric
It is the measure of how many standard deviations below or above the population mean.: Median;
Normal Distribution Measurement; Empirical
Rule; Z-score Z-score
Salary, scores and age are examples of ____________ random variables. Continuous
collects information on
businessman in Metro Manila on who will they vote for president on the next election. Yes
Identify if the random variable is a DISCRETE or CONTINUOUS. Total number of volunteers in a

community DISCRETE
In a normal curve, the bigger the values of standard deviation results to a: wider curve; straight live
curve; skewed to the right; narrower curve;
skewed to the left wider curve
Which of the following is CORRECT about Sample Space: Sample space should be always be a number
from zero to one.; Sample space are
possible outcomes; Sample space is a subset of events.; Sample space is also known as probability mass
function. Sample space are
possible outcomes
Assuming z-score is -1, which of the following statement is TRUE.: All values are less than the mean.; All
values are equal to the z-score; All values
are equal to the mean.; All values are greater than the mean. All values are less than the mean.
It is the measure of how many standard deviations below or above the population mean.: Normal
Distribution Measurement; Z-score; Empirical
Rule; Median Z-score
Which of the following statement is TRUE.: Non-countable values are called discrete variables; Infinite
numbers are considered discrete
variables.; Countable number of values are called discrete variables; All of the statements are TRUE.
Countable number of values are called
discrete variables
Identify if the random variable is a DISCRETE or CONTINUOUS. Number of winning tournaments of a

varsity team DISCRETE
possible value that the random variable can assume.: The statement is INCORRECT. The word “graph
and formula” should not be included in the
statement.; The statement is INCORRECT. The word “graph” should not be included in the statement.;
The statement is INCORRECT. The word
“formula” should not be included in the statement.; The statement is ALWAYS CORRECT.The statement
is ALWAYS CORRECT.
The range of probability is: can be any number (positive or negative); negative 1 to positive 1; from zero
to any positive number; from zero to 1
from zero to 1
Which of the following is incorrect?: Probability distribution is used to compute discrete random
variables; Probability distribution equals to
zero.; Probability distribution is used to compute continuous random variables; Probability distribution
equals to one.; None of the choices
Probability distribution equals to zero.

Assuming z-score is -1, which of the following statement is TRUE.: All values are equal to the mean.; All
are less than the mean.; All values are greater than the mean. All values are less than the mean.
Normal Distribution Curve is also called: Basic Curve; Arc-Shaped Curve; Bell Curve; All of the choices
Basic Curve
Identify whether each example describes a random sample. Answer with Yes or No. A teacher conducts
examination to all his students. No
Identify if the random variable is a DISCRETE or CONTINUOUS. Internet speed in an office CONTINUOUS
1.65
True or False: The larger the sample size the closer the sampling distribution was to a normal
distribution TRUE
Given the set of data: 1, 1, 2, 2, 3, 3, 9, 10, 11, 12, 13, 14, 15, 16, 17, 18, 19, 20, 21, 22 Find the lower
quartile : 8; 0; 3,4,5,6,7,8,9,10,11,12,; 3
Identify if the random variable is a DISCRETE or CONTINUOUS. Number of students in a University

DISCRETE
In a given experiment, the sum of all probabilities is: can be any number (positive or negative); One;
Zero; All positive numbers One
This is states that the percentages of data in a normal distribution within 1,2 and 3 standard deviations.:
Empirical Rule; None of the choices;
Normal quantile plot; Z score Empirical Rule
A fair six sided dice is tossed. The player loses 5 pesos if the result is “1”, and loses P5 pesos if the result
is a “6”, the rest of the numbers, player
wins P10. Which of the following table best describes the problem? : ; None of the choices; ;
to ______. 1
Given the set of data: 1,1, 2, 2, 3, 3, 9, 10, 11, 12, 13, 14, 15, 16, 17, 18, 19, 20, 21, 22 Find the upper
quartile : 18;
13,14,15,14,15,16,17,18,19,20,21,22; 22; 0 18
The data set that approximates a normal distribution is located at the left side of the curve wherein
mean is greater than median.: None of the
choices.; The statement is INCORRECT; The statement is ALWAYS TRUE.; The statement is SOMETIMES
TRUE. The statement is INCORRECT
Identify whether each example describes a random sample. Answer with Yes or No Selects all areas in
the Philippines who are affected by
typhoon and with 5th and 6th income class. Yes
It is computed as the population standard deviation divided by the square root of the sample size:
Random Sample; Standard Deviation; Median;
Parameter; Standard deviation of the distribution of the sample means; Deviation Error; Sample; Mean;
Population Mean; Sample Distribution of
sample means; Sampling Error; Sample; Statistics; Mode; Standard Curve; Distribution Error; Population
Standard deviation of the
distribution of the sample means
Yes
This are numbers that summarizes data for an entire population: Mean; Random Sample; Mode;
sample means; Deviation Error; Parameter; Standard Curve; Statistics; Population; Population Mean;
Sample; Median; Sampling Error; Sample
Distribution of sample means; Standard Deviation; Distribution Error; Sample Parameter
True or False: The Greek letter alpha represents the mean. False
It is measure of the number of standard deviations a particular data value: Z score; Normal quantile plot;
None of the choices; Empirical Rule
Z score
True or False: In Statistics, variance is defined as the number of times an outcome can occur compared
to all possible outcomes. False
Normal Distribution Curve is also called: Normal Curve; Arc-Shaped Curve; All of the choices; Basic Curve
Normal Curve
Identify if the random variable is a DISCRETE or CONTINUOUS. Mobile data consumed by a telephone
subscriber
CONTINUOUS Identify whether each example describes a random sample. Answer with Yes or No
Renmel closes his eyes, opens a book and
randomly points to a word on the page. She repeats the process for 30 times. No
The distribution that describes the spread of the means of multiple samples from the sample
population: Population Mean; Distribution Error;
Standard deviation of the distribution of the sample means; Sample Distribution of sample means;
Deviation Error; Statistics; Standard
Deviation; Parameter; Sampling Error; Mode; Sample; Mean; Standard Curve; Population; Sample;
Median; Random Sample Sample
Distribution of sample means
4.5, 9.2, 9.1, 8.4 2.60
Who is the famous mathematician where the normal distribution curve was named after?: William
Gosset ; Carl Friedrich Gauss ; John Tukey ;
Ronald Fisher Carl Friedrich Gauss
Which of the following random activity would you define as a discrete random variable?: Height of
students enrolled in an online course.; Wind
speed during typhoon.; None of the choices.; Distance travelled of a tourist bus.; Depth of building
excavation. None of the choices.
Which of the following statement is TRUE.: All of the statements are TRUE.; Countable number of values
are called discrete variables; Noncountable values are called discrete variables; Infinite numbers are
considered discrete variables. Countable number of values are
called discrete variables
Which of the following is CORRECT about Sample Space: Sample space is a subset of events.; Sample
space should be always be a number from
zero to one.; Sample space is also known as probability mass function.; Sample space are possible
outcomes Sample space are
possible outcomes
quartile : 3; 0; 8; 3,4,5,6,7,8,9,10,11,12,
1.65
True or False: Sampling Error is the degree of error expected for a given sample design TRUE Two dice is
rolled and the sum of face up is
being recorded and represented as X. What is P(x <= 5)? 10
Which of the following is incorrect?: None of the choices; Probability distribution is used to compute
discrete random variables; Probability
distribution is used to compute continuous random variables; Probability distribution equals to one.;
Probability distribution equals to zero. This tells what the possible values of X and how probabilities are
assigned to these values.
Probability Distribution equals to zero
Normal Distribution Curve is also called: Basic Curve; All of the choices; Arc-Shaped Curve; Bell Curve
Basic Curve
Find the median of the following data set. 11, 13, 15, 17, 19, 21, 22, 23, 25, 27, 29, 31, 33, 35, 37, 39, 41,
43, 51, 53, 55, 57, 59 : 36.45; 30; 31; 24
31
Identify if the random variable is a DISCRETE or CONTINUOUS. Speed of a tropical storm in the
Philippines CONTINUOUS
quartile : 18; 0; 22;
13,14,15,14,15,16,17,18,19,20,21,22 18
Find the median of the following data set. 44, 46, 29, 39, 59, 59, 39: 44; (44 + 46 + 29 + 39 + 59 + 59 +
39)/2; 39; (44 + 46 + 29 + 39 + 59 + 59 +
39)/7 39
It is also called 68-95-99.7 Rule.: Empirical Rule; None of the choices; Z score Rule; Variance Rule
Empirical Rule
Use to check the normality of a distribution: Normal quantile plot; Empirical Rule; Z score; None of the
choices Normal quantile plot
population FALSE
Yes
How do you determine the value of the mean,: Multiply each possible outcome of the random variables
X by its associated probability and the
take the sum over all possible values of X.; Sum each possible outcome of the random variables X by its
associated probability and the take the
product of all possible values of X.; Multiply each possible outcome of the random variables X by its
associated probability and the take the
square root of the sum of all possible values of X.; None of the choices Multiply each possible outcome
of the random variables X by its
associated probability and the take the sum over all possible values of X.
A curve is said to be symmetric if all data points lies at the right side of the curve.
A: false
As the confidence interval for a given statistic increases in length, the confidence level decreases.
A: false
The mean of the normal distribution is: always equal to one; always equal to zero; should always be a
positive number; greater than or equal to
zero always equal to zero
sample means? 60
In a normal curve, the bigger the values of standard deviation results to a: wider curve; narrower curve;
skewed to the right; skewed to
the left; straight live curve wider curve
distribution TRUE
True or False: The Greek letter alpha represents the mean. False
True or False: As the sample size increases, the standard error increases.FALSE True or False: Mean is
the sum of all possible values of random
variables. False
Identify whether each example describes a random sample. Answer with Yes or No Selects all areas in
the Philippines who are affected by
typhoon and with 5th and 6th income class. Yes
1.5, what was her score in the
examination?: 82.50; 487.50; None of the choices; 117.50 82.50
It is a part of population intended to represent a population as a whole.: Median; Sample; Mean; Mode;
Sample; Standard Deviation; Population
Mean; Standard Curve; Deviation Error; Standard deviation of the distribution of the sample means;
Parameter; Statistics; Population; Random
Sample; Distribution Error; Sample Distribution of sample means; Sampling Error Sample
Normal Distribution Curve is also called: Bell Curve; Basic Curve; Arc-Shaped Curve; All of the choices
Basic Curve
4.5, 9.2, 9.1, 8.4 2.60
True or False: Sampling Error is the degree of error expected for a given sample design TRUE
Assuming z-score is 1, which of the following statement is TRUE.: All values are equal to the mean.; All
values are greater than the mean.; All
values are equal to the z-score; All values are less than the mean. All values are greater than the mean.
Identify if the random variable is a DISCRETE or CONTINUOUS. Time travelled by an astronaut

CONTINUOUS
The process of assigning a number to each member of the population: Random Sample; Population
Mean; Median; Sample; Standard Curve;
Standard deviation of the distribution of the sample means; Sample; Sample Distribution of sample
means; Mean; Distribution Error; Sampling
Error; Population; Parameter; Statistics; Standard Deviation; Deviation Error; Mode Random Sample
This is states that the percentages of data in a normal distribution within 1,2 and 3 standard deviations.:
Normal quantile plot; Empirical Rule; Z
score; None of the choices Empirical Rule
Which of the following statement is CORRECT?: A discrete variable is a random variable where data can
take infinitely many variables; A
continuous random variable assigns a whole number to each possible outcome of an experiment; A
discrete variable are countable number of
possible values; Continuous random variables are finite numbers A discrete variable are countable
number of possible values
Consider the given the probability distribution What is the variance? : 2.466; 1.233; 1.99 ; 1.44 1.99
It is the difference between a sample statistic used to estimate a population parameter and the actual
but unknown value of the parameter:
Population Mean; Sample Distribution of sample means; Sample; Distribution Error; Population; Mean;
Sampling Error; Standard deviation of the
distribution of the sample means; Sample; Random Sample; Parameter; Standard Curve; Median;
Deviation Error; Mode; Standard Deviation;
Statistics Sampling Error
TRUE
quartile : 8; 0; 3; 3,4,5,6,7,8,9,10,11,12,
quartile : 18;
13,14,15,14,15,16,17,18,19,20,21,22; 22; 0 18
A continuous random variable assigns a whole number to each possible outcome of an experiment.:
None of the choices; True; False; The
statement has insufficient information. True
t is the difference between a sample statistic used to estimate a population parameter and the actual
Statistics; Sample Distribution of sample means; Standard deviation of the distribution of the sample
means; Standard Curve; Sample; Standard
Deviation; Sampling Error; Mode; Population; Deviation Error; Random Sample; Median; Parameter;
Mean; Population Mean; Distribution Error;
Sample Sampling Error
tenths): 4.2
Identify whether each example describes a random sample. Answer with Yes or No Renmel closes his
eyes, opens a book and randomly points to
a word on the page. She repeats the process for 30 times. No
Normal Distribution Curve is also called: Basic Curve; Arc-Shaped Curve; Normal Curve; All of the choices
Normal Curve
True or False: The bigger the sample size, the more closely the samples will be clustered around the true
value. TRUE
Identify if the random variable is a DISCRETE or CONTINUOUS. Number of winning tournaments of a
varsity team DISCRETE
This are numbers that summarizes data from a sample: Distribution Error; Population; Parameter;
Sample Distribution of sample means;
Deviation Error; Population Mean; Statistics; Sampling Error; Sample; Mode; Standard Curve; Random
Sample; Median; Standard deviation of
the distribution of the sample means; Sample; Standard Deviation; Mean Statistics
mean is greater than median.: The
statement is ALWAYS TRUE.; The statement is SOMETIMES TRUE.; None of the choices.; The statement
is INCORRECT The statement is
INCORRECT
The range of probability is: can be any number (positive or negative); from zero to any positive number;
negative 1 to positive 1; from zero to 1
from zero to 1
Yes

community DISCRETE
43, 51, 53, 55, 57, 59 : 24; 31; 36.45; 30
31
examination?: 80.50; None of the choices; 53.00; 82.50 53.00
Find the median of the following data set. 44, 46, 29, 39, 59, 59, 39: 44; 39; (44 + 46 + 29 + 39 + 59 + 59 +
39)/7; (44 + 46 + 29 + 39 + 59 + 59 +
39)/2 39
1 1 1 2 3 4 5 5 5 8 8 8 8 4.53
True or False: Standard deviation of the distribution of the sample means is computed as the population
standard deviation multiplied by the
square root of the sample size. FALSE
Which one of these variables is a not continuous random variable?: The number of volunteers in a
community; The number of attendees in an
Information Technology conference.; The tuition fee enrolled in different universities; The number of
senators elected in the Philippines The
number of volunteers in a community
Given the following table, what is the correct computation to find mean? : (0.30+0.20+0.10)/(0+1+2) ;
(0+1+2)(0.30+0.20+0.10) ; (0)(0.30) +
(1)(0.20) + (2)(0.10); (0.30+0.20+0.10)/3; None of the choices None of the choices
It is the measure of how many standard deviations below or above the population mean.: Normal
Distribution Measurement; Z-score; Median;
Empirical Rule Z-score
Identify whether each example describes a random sample. Answer with Yes or No. Select all 100 poor
households in a community in areas in
the Philippines affected by the earthquake. Yes
Identify if the random variable is a DISCRETE or CONTINUOUS. Weight of students in a university

CONTINUOUS
True or False: As the sample size increases, the standard error increases.FALSE Identify if the random
variable is a DISCRETE or CONTINUOUS.
Mobile data consumed by a telephone subscriber CONTINUOUS
TRUE
In a given experiment, the sum of all probabilities is: One; can be any number (positive or negative);
Zero; All positive numbers One
Which of the following statement is CORRECT?: A discrete variable are countable number of possible
values; A discrete variable is a random
variable where data can take infinitely many variables; Continuous random variables are finite numbers;
A continuous random variable assigns a
whole number to each possible outcome of an experiment A discrete variable are countable number of
possible values
The weighted average of the possible values of random variables.: Mode; Median; Mean; Standard
Deviation; Variance Mean
The standard deviation of the normal distribution is: always equal to zero; greater than or equal to zero;
always equal to one; should always be a
positive number always equal to one
Consider the given the probability distribution What is the variance? : 1.233; 1.99 ; 1.44 ; 2.466 1.99
True or False: One of the most important characteristics of any probability distribution is the mean. True
The mean of the normal distribution is: always equal to zero; should always be a positive number;
always equal to one; greater than or equal to
What is the probability distribution of occurring the all heads in a toss of three coins?: 1; None of the
choices; 0.1255; 0.25; 0 0.1255 What is
the probability of getting all head when a three coins are tossed? 1/8
Normal Distribution Curve is also called: Arc-Shaped Curve; Normal Curve; Basic Curve; All of the choices
Normal Curve
Normal Distribution Curve is also called: Arc-Shaped Curve; All of the choices; Basic Curve; Bell Curve
Basic Curve
population FALSE
Identify whether each example describes a random sample. Answer with Yes or No The manager
chooses 30 employees randomly from a
department. Yes
43, 51, 53, 55, 57, 59 : 24; 30; 31; 36.45
31
Countless number of values are also known as _____________ variables. Continuous It is computed as
the population standard
deviation divided by the square root of the sample size: Standard deviation of the distribution of the
sample means; Deviation Error; Sampling
Error; Mean; Standard Deviation; Mode; Statistics; Sample; Median; Random Sample; Population;
Standard Curve; Sample Distribution of sample
means; Population Mean; Sample; Parameter; Distribution Error Standard deviation of the distribution
of the sample means
How many possible outcomes when you simultaneously toss three fair coins. 8
It is the measure of how many standard deviations below or above the population mean.: Empirical
Rule; Normal Distribution Measurement; Zscore; Median Z-score
quartile : 0; 18; 22;
13,14,15,14,15,16,17,18,19,20,21,22 18
Identify whether each example describes a random sample. Answer with Yes or No. Collects the election
results in all areas in the Philippines
during election No
How many regions can be found at the left side of the normal distribution curve?: 4; 2; 1; 3 3
False
This tells what the possible values of X and how probabilities are assigned to these values. Probability
Distribution
Which of the following applies to a normal distribution?: Mean is greater than Median.; Median is
greater than Mean.; None of the choices; Data
is exactly equal to the mean.; Exactly ½ of the data is above the mean and ½ of data is below.
Exactly ½ of the data is above the mean and ½ of data is below.
The weighted average of the possible values of random variables.: Mode; Median; Variance; Standard
Deviation; Mean Mean
Which of the following is not a characteristics of a normal distribution.: Bell-shaped; None of the
choices; Perfectly asymmetric; Mount-shaped
distribution Perfectly asymmetric
Identify if the random variable is a DISCRETE or CONTINUOUS. Number of proposed thesis in a

universityDISCRETE
39)/7; 39; (44 + 46 + 29 + 39 + 59 + 59 +
39)/2 39
department. Yes
possible value that the random variable can assume.: The statement is INCORRECT. The word “graph”
should not be included in the statement.;
The statement is INCORRECT. The word “formula” should not be included in the statement.; The
statement is INCORRECT. The word “graph and
formula” should not be included in the statement.; The statement is ALWAYS CORRECT. The statement
is ALWAYS CORRECT.
What is the common symbol for the mean?: ∑; Α; Ω; µ µ
Normal Distribution Curve is also called: Bell Curve; All of the choices; Basic Curve; Arc-Shaped Curve
Basic Curve
What is the probability distribution of occurring the all heads in a toss of three coins?: 0.25; 0; 0.1255; 1;
None of the choices 0.1255
It is also called 68-95-99.7 Rule.: Z score Rule; Empirical Rule; Variance Rule; None of the choices
Empirical Rule
The standard deviation of the normal distribution is: greater than or equal to zero; always equal to one;
always equal to zero; should
always be a positive number always equal to one
Mean; Standard Deviation; Random Sample; Sampling Error; Standard deviation of the distribution of
the sample means; Sample Distribution of
sample means; Median; Parameter; Population Mean; Mode; Sample; Standard Curve; Population;
Distribution Error; Deviation Error; Sample;
Statistics Sampling Error
It is the degree of error expected for a given sample design: Population; Random Sample; Standard
deviation of the distribution of the sample
means; Median; Sampling Error; Sample Distribution of sample means; Sample; Deviation Error;
Population Mean; Standard Deviation;
Distribution Error; Standard Curve; Sample; Parameter; Statistics; Mode; Mean Sampling Error
population: Population; Sample; Sample; Sample
Distribution of sample means; Deviation Error; Standard Deviation; Sampling Error; Distribution Error;
Median; Mode; Standard deviation of the
distribution of the sample means; Standard Curve; Population Mean; Statistics; Random Sample; Mean;
Parameter Sample Distribution of
sample means
population. Sample Distribution of sample
means
Identify whether each example describes a random sample. Answer with Yes or No Shake a bag of
colored balls, reach in and select a
marble with eyes closed. Yes
distribution TRUE
A fair six sided dice is tossed. The player loses 5 pesos if the result is “1”, and loses P5 pesos if the result
is a “6”, the rest of the numbers, player
wins P10. Which of the following table best describes the problem? : None of the choices; ; ;
examination?: 53.00; 80.50; None of the choices; 82.50 53.00
Yes
Identify whether each example describes a random sample. Answer with Yes or No. Each audience in a
game show is assigned a number from
111 to 666 and roll three standard dice to choose random contestants. Yes
What is the probability of getting the same numbers on 3 dice when they are thrown simultaneously? 1
Find the median of the following data set. 44, 46, 29, 39, 59, 59, 39: (44 + 46 + 29 + 39 + 59 + 59 + 39)/2;
44; (44 + 46 + 29 + 39 + 59 + 59 + 39)/7;
39 39
Assuming z-score is 1, which of the following statement is TRUE.: All values are less than the mean.; All
are equal to the mean.; All values are greater than the mean. All values are greater than the mean.
The range of probability is: from zero to any positive number; negative 1 to positive 1; can be any
number (positive or negative); from zero to 1
from zero to 1
In a normal distribution curve,: Mean is equal to Median; Mean is equal to Median and Mode; Mean is
equal to Mode; None of the choices
value. False
variables X by its associated
probability and the take the sum over all possible values of X. True
It is also called 68-95-99.7 Rule.: Variance Rule; None of the choices; Z score Rule; Empirical Rule
Empirical Rule
possible value that the random variable can assume.: The statement is INCORRECT. The word “formula”
should not be included in the
statement.; The statement is ALWAYS CORRECT.; The statement is INCORRECT. The word “graph and
formula” should not be included in the
statement.; The statement is INCORRECT. The word “graph” should not be included in the statement.
The statement is ALWAYS CORRECT.
True or False: Mean of means is the sum of all means multiplied by the number of means FALSE
Identify if the random variable is a DISCRETE or CONTINUOUS. Number of proposed thesis in a

universityDISCRETE
department. Yes
sample means? 60
Identify whether each example describes a random sample. Answer with Yes or No Select all registered
voters in a community whose family
income is below 10,000 pesos. Yes
Which of the following random activity would you define as a discrete random variable?: Wind speed
during typhoon.; Depth of building
excavation.; Distance travelled of a tourist bus.; None of the choices.; Height of students enrolled in an
online course. None of the choices.
The standard deviation of the normal distribution is: always equal to one; should always be a positive
number; greater than or equal to
zero; always equal to zero always equal to one What is the probability of getting the same numbers on 3
dice when they are thrown
simultaneously? 1
Consider the given the probability distribution What is the variance? : 1.99 ; 1.44 ; 1.233; 2.466 1.99
Identify whether each example describes a random sample. Answer with Yes or No Shake a bag of
colored balls, reach in and select a marble
with eyes closed. Yes
Consider the given the probability distribution The value of the mean is ________. : 4.100 ; 1.233 ;
2.466; 0.082 4.100
A continuous random variable assigns a whole number to each possible outcome of an experiment.:
None of the choices; False; True; The
statement has insufficient information. True
A representative subset of a population: Random Sample; Deviation Error; Standard Curve; Population
Mean; Sample Distribution of sample
means; Standard deviation of the distribution of the sample means; Distribution Error; Median;
Sampling Error; Mean; Population; Sample;
Sample; Standard Deviation; Statistics; Parameter; Mode Sample

Which of the following statement is TRUE.: All of the statements are TRUE.; Non-countable values are
called discrete variables; Countable
number of values are called discrete variables; Infinite numbers are considered discrete variables.
discrete variables
The process of assigning a number to each member of the population: Population Mean; Parameter;
Sampling Error; Standard Deviation;
Sample; Distribution Error; Statistics; Random Sample; Mean; Sample Distribution of sample means;
Standard Curve; Sample; Mode; Deviation
Error; Median; Standard deviation of the distribution of the sample means; Population Random Sample
39)/2; (44 + 46 + 29 + 39 + 59 + 59 + 39)/7;
44 39
of students who rides on the
train. Yes
True or False: Mean of means is the sum of all means multiplied by the number of means FALSE
statement is INCORRECT; The statement is SOMETIMES TRUE.; None of the choices.; The statement is
ALWAYS TRUE. The statement
is INCORRECT
It is the measure of how many standard deviations below or above the population mean.: Empirical
Rule; Median; Z-score; Normal Distribution
Measurement Z-score
43, 51, 53, 55, 57, 59 : 36.45; 31; 24; 30
31
Which of the following is CORRECT about Sample Space: Sample space is a subset of events.; Sample
space are possible outcomes; Sample space
is also known as probability mass function.; Sample space should be always be a number from zero to
one. Sample space are possible
outcomes
False
Which of the following random activity would you define as a discrete random variable?: Depth of
building excavation.; Wind speed during
typhoon.; None of the choices.; Distance travelled of a tourist bus.; Height of students enrolled in an
online course. None of the choices.
How many regions can be found at the left side of the normal distribution curve?: 3; 2; 4; 1 3
subscriber CONTINUOUS
Who is the famous mathematician where the normal distribution curve was named after?: Carl Friedrich
Gauss ; John Tukey ; Ronald Fisher ;
William Gosset Carl Friedrich Gauss
Continuous Discrete Random Variable;
Discrete Continuous Random Variable; Continuous Random Variable; None of the choices; Discrete
Random Variables Continuous Random
Variable
Given the data set 10,11,11,12,12,12,13,13,13,13,24,24,14,15,15,16, find the upper quartile:

13,13,24,24,14,15,15,16; 24; 16; 14 14
1.: The statement is NOT ALWAYS
TRUE; The statement is FALSE.; The statement is TRUE.; The statement is NOT ALWAYS FALSE The
statement is TRUE.
Identify if the random variable is a DISCRETE or CONTINUOUS. Weight of students in a university

CONTINUOUS
rue or False: As the sample size increases, the standard error increases. FALSE
In a normal curve, the mean is located at the: midpoint of the curve; intersection of the lowest and
highest point; lowest point of the
curve; highest point of the curve highest point of the curve
Which of the following is incorrect?: Probability distribution equals to zero.; Probability distribution is
used to compute discrete random
variables; Probability distribution is used to compute continuous random variables; None of the choices;
Probability distribution equals to one.
True or False: Sampling Error is the degree of error expected for a given sample design TRUE Identify
whether each example describes a
random sample. Answer with Yes or No. Collects the election results in all areas in the Philippines during
electionNo What is the common
symbol for the mean?: ∑; Ω; Α; µ µ
True or False: One of the most important characteristics of any probability distribution is the mean. True
True or False: The formula of mean is relative to compute for the variance. True
quartile : 8; 0; 3; 3,4,5,6,7,8,9,10,11,12,
True or False: Variance Error is the difference between a sample statistic used to estimate a population
parameter and the actual but unknown
value of the parameter FALSE
False
Which of the following statement is TRUE.: Non-countable values are called discrete variables;
Countable number of values are called discrete
variables; All of the statements are TRUE.; Infinite numbers are considered discrete variables. Countable
number of values are called discrete
variables
The speed of cars travelling in the road and the water consumption of household are examples of: None
of the choices; Discrete Random
Variables; Continuous Random Variable; Continuous Discrete Random Variable; Discrete Continuous
Random Variable Continuous
Random Variable
collects information on
businessman in Metro Manila on who will they vote for president on the next election. Yes
Identify whether each example describes a random sample. Answer with Yes or No. A teacher conducts
examination to all his students. No
The sum of all the prob
abilities P(X = x) for all possible values of a discrete random variable X must equal to ______. 1
statement is SOMETIMES TRUE.; The statement is ALWAYS TRUE.; The statement is INCORRECT; None of
the choices. The statement is
INCORRECT
In a normal distribution curve, data are divided into 3 equal parts.: The statement is FALSE.; The
statement is SOMETIMES TRUE depending on
the data set.; None of the choices; The statement is TRUE. None of the choices
Identify whether each example describes a random sample. Answer with Yes or No Select all registered
voters in a community whose family
income is below 10,000 pesos. Yes
An example of a parameter.: Population Mean; Sample Distribution of sample means; Standard

deviation of the distribution of the sample
means; Random Sample; Population; Mode; Sample; Median; Mean; Deviation Error; Standard Curve;
Statistics; Parameter; Distribution Error;
Standard Deviation; Sample; Sampling Error Population Mean
quartile : 3,4,5,6,7,8,9,10,11,12,; 3; 8; 0
Given the set of data: 1,1, 2, 2, 3, 3, 9, 10, 11, 12, 13, 14, 15, 16, 17, 18, 19, 20, 21, 22 How many
numbers are in the lower quartile? : 10; 0;
3,4,5,6,7,8,9,10; 6 6
How do you determine the value of the mean,: Multiply each possible outcome of the random variables
X by its associated probability and the
take the square root of the sum of all possible values of X.; Multiply each possible outcome of the
probability and the take the sum over all possible values of X.; None of the choices; Sum each possible
outcome of the random variables X by its
associated probability and the take the product of all possible values of X. Multiply each possible
outcome of the random variables X by its
associated probability and the take the sum over all possible values of X.
1 1 1 2 3 4 5 5 5 8 8 8 8 4.53 Find
the median of the following data set. 44, 46, 29, 39, 59, 59, 39: 39; 44; (44 + 46 + 29 + 39 + 59 + 59 +
39)/7; (44 + 46 + 29 + 39 + 59 + 59 + 39)/2
39
This are numbers that summarizes data for an entire population: Parameter; Standard Deviation;
Distribution Error; Sample; Population Mean;
Median; Mode; Sample; Sampling Error; Standard deviation of the distribution of the sample means;
Deviation Error; Random Sample; Standard
Curve; Sample Distribution of sample means; Statistics; Population; Mean Parameter

Which of the following applies to a normal distribution?: None of the choices; Median is greater than
Mean.; Mean is greater than Median.; Data
is exactly equal to the mean.; Exactly ½ of the data is above the mean and ½ of data is below. Exactly ½
of the data is above the mean and ½
of data is below.

community DISCRETE
43, 51, 53, 55, 57, 59 : 31; 36.45; 30; 24
31
The mean of the normal distribution is: greater than or equal to zero; always equal to one; should
always be a positive number; always equal to
In a normal distribution curve,: Mean is equal to Mode; Mean is equal to Median; None of the choices;
Mean is equal to Median and
Mode Mean is equal to Median and Mode
to ______. 1
Parameter; Mean; Sample; Mode; Distribution Error; Standard deviation of the distribution of the
sample means; Median; Sampling Error;
Deviation Error; Standard Deviation; Standard Curve; Population; Population Mean; Statistics; Sample
Distribution of sample means; Sample;
Random Sample Sampling Error

Yes
It is the number of times an outcome can occur compared to all possible outcomes.: Probability;
Standard Deviation; Variance; Mean
Probability
Identify if the random variable is a DISCRETE or CONTINUOUS. The brightness of an LED bulb
CONTINUOUS
It is also called 68-95-99.7 Rule.: Z score Rule; None of the choices; Empirical Rule; Variance Rule
Empirical Rule
This are numbers that summarizes data from a sample: Random Sample; Statistics; Population Mean;
Sample; Deviation Error; Population;
Standard Deviation; Parameter; Sample Distribution of sample means; Sample; Standard Curve; Mode;
Median; Sampling Error; Standard
deviation of the distribution of the sample means; Distribution Error; Mean Statistics
Use to check the normality of a distribution: None of the choices; Normal quantile plot; Z score;
Empirical Rule Normal quantile plot
Which of the following statement is TRUE.: All of the statements are TRUE.; Non-countable values are
called discrete variables; Countable
number of values are called discrete variables; Infinite numbers are considered discrete variables.
discrete variables

community DISCRETE
subscriber CONTINUOUS
Identify whether each example describes a random sample. Answer with Yes or No Women who
volunteer to take a survey on human rights.
No
Which one of these variables is a not continuous random variable?: The number of senators elected in
the Philippines; The number of volunteers
in a community; The tuition fee enrolled in different universities; The number of attendees in an
Information Technology conference.
The number of senators elected in the Philippines
Yes
True or False: Mean is the sum of all possible values of random variables. False
to ______. 1
1.: The statement is FALSE.; The
statement is NOT ALWAYS TRUE; The statement is TRUE.; The statement is NOT ALWAYS FALSE The
statement is TRUE.
An example of a parameter.: Standard Deviation; Sample; Random Sample; Standard deviation of the
distribution of the sample means; Mode;
Median; Sampling Error; Standard Curve; Population Mean; Statistics; Parameter; Distribution Error;
Deviation Error; Mean; Sample; Sample
Distribution of sample means; Population Population Mean
Discrete Continuous Random
Variable; Continuous Random Variable; Continuous Discrete Random Variable; Discrete Random
Variables; None of the choices Continuous
Random Variable
1. Given the data set below, compute for the variance. (Round off your answer to the nearest
hundredths):
A: 5.98
The degree of error expected for a given sample design
A: sampling error
This is defined by two values, between which a population parameter is said to lie.
A: interval estimate
Which of the following applies to Central Limit Theorem?
A: Distribution of sample means may be assumed normal as long as sample size is greater than or equal
to 30.
These are numbers that summarizes data from a sample.
A: statistics
The average of the population.
A: mean
Confidence interval is associated by confidence level
A: true
In Central Limit Theorem, the mean of the sampling distribution of the mean is equal to the
A: population mean
Which of the following does describes a T distribution?
In order to apply the Central Limit Theorem, which of the statement applies?
A: A sample size greater than or equal to 30
Margin of Error is computed as quotient of the standard deviation and the ____________ of the sample
size multiplied by the confidence
coefficient.
A: square root
In a normal distribution curve, the total area of the curve is
A: 1
Number of rooms & employees are examples of _________________.
A: Discrete Random Variables
What is the formula to calculate the standard deviation of the sampling distribution?
A: Standard deviation of the population divided by the square root of the sample size
The formula to computer for the confidence interval is?
A:
The mean of sample should fall ________________ the lower and upper values of the confidence
interval.
A: within
Which of the following describes a T distribution?
As the confidence interval for a given statistics increases in length,
A: confidence level increases
T distribution is use to estimate population mean interval for:
A: Smaller samples
In a normal curve, z-score is ______________.
A: Always equal to zero.
Also known as Bell shaped curve.
A: normal curve
In a normal distribution, the tail of the curve __________ along the horizontal axis.
A: flatten
Formula to compute for the variance

A:
According to the Empirical Rule, ________ % of the sample estimates will fall within one standard error
above the population parameter.
The process of assigning a number to each member of the population
A: Random Sampling
BAED-STAT2112 Statistics and Probability (Week 11-20)
Short Quiz 8
Select one:
a. Number of desired elements over the number of desired outcomes
b. Number of desired outcomes over the number of desired elements Correct
c. 1- (Number of desired elements over the number of desired outcomes)
d. (Number of desired outcomes over the number of desired elements) – 1
Feedback
The correct answer is: Number of desired outcomes over the number of desired elements
Sampling distribution of proportions is ______________ distributed
Select one:
a. Normally Correct
b. Randomly
c. Evenly
d. Unevenly
Feedback
The correct answer is: Normally
A survey was conducted to 300 Grade 10 students who have Internet access to determine who access
social media websites after attending
classes. Based on the survey, 250 students responded Yes. What is the population proportion to
students who do not access social media after
attending classes?
Select one:
a. 80%
b. 20%
c. 17% Correct
d. 83%
Feedback
The correct answer is: 17%
When the confidence level is 95%, the ____________________ are +- 1.96
Select one:
a. Margin of Errors
b. Confidence coefficients Correct
c. Confidence intervals
d. “p hat” values
Feedback
The correct answer is: Confidence coefficients
Point estimate is
Select one:
a. Always equal to the number or samples
b. A range of possible values for a population parameter.
c. Equal to the population mean
d. A statistical that estimates a population parameter Correct
Feedback
The correct answer is: A statistical that estimates a population parameter
The ̂p is the ____________ estimate of p.

Select one:
a. balanced
b. unbiased Correct
c. biased
d. inverse
Select one:
a. 1.24 Correct
b. 26.76
c. 3.16
d. 0.63
Feedback
find the interval estimate of the
population mean.
Select one:
a. (11.34, 14.89)
b. (1.63, 2.25)
c. (21.36, 24.63)
d. (26.36, 29.63) Correct
Feedback
What is in the center of the confidence interval?
Select one:
a. Margin of Error
b. Point Estimate Correct
c. Population Parameter
d. Number of samples
Feedback
In a survey of 500 individuals, 300 likes to eat dinner in a restaurant. Estimate the sample proportion ^p
of those who like to eat dinner in a
restaurant based on the sample.
Select one:
a. 45%
b. 0.40
c. 55%
d. 0.60 Correct
Feedback
As the confidence interval for a given statistics increases in length, the confidence level ___________.
A: Increases - correct
Margin of error is
Select one:
a. the product of confidence coefficient and standard deviation divided by the square root of the sample
size Correct
b. the quotient of confidence coefficient and standard deviation multiplied by the square root of the
sample size
c. the product of confidence coefficient and square root of the sample size divided by standard deviation
d. the quotient of confidence coefficient and square root of the sample size divided standard deviation
Feedback
The correct answer is: the product of confidence coefficient and standard deviation divided by the
square root of the sample size
distribution, find the interval estimate of the
population mean.
Select one:
a. (42.103, 43.970)
b. (43.355, 46.645)
c. (44.461, 45.329) Incorrect
d. (46.921, 47.727)
Feedback
distribution, find the margin of error.
Select one:
a. 0.348 Incorrect
b. 0.20
c. 0.392
d. 0.196
Feedback
A survey was conducted from the 250 individuals. Based on the result of the survey, 170 are satisfied
with the current Local Government
administration. Estimate the sample proportion ^p of those who are not satisfied based on the sample
provided.
Select one:
a. 55%
b. 0.32 Correct
c. 0.
d. 0.68
Feedback
A survey was conducted to 110 college students to determine who are using the Library Resource Center
of the university. Based on the survey,
only 30% responded Yes. Based on the survey, how many students are not using the Library Resource
Center?
Select one:
a. 33
b. 30
c. 67 Correct
d. 70
Feedback
confidence level is 1.2 hours. How do you
compute for the lower confidence interval?
Select one:
a. 8 hours less 1.2 hours
b. Z score plus less the square root of 8 hours less 1.2 hours Correct
d. 8 hours less 1.2 hours multiplied by the z score at 98% confidence level
Feedback
The correct answer is: Z score plus less the square root of 8 hours less 1.2 hours
King Lo Electronics claims that the new brand of computer will last for 25,000 hours. A research
Select one:
a. (17,482, 18,649)
b. (19,804, 20,196) Correct
c. (23,467, 24,639)
d. (26,928, 27,375)
Feedback
The correct answer is: (19,804, 20,196)
Select one:
a. 0.043 Incorrect
b. 0.052
c. 0.064
d. 0.074
Feedback
Select one:
a. 0.053
b. 0.085
c. 0.072 Incorrect
d. 0.039
Feedback
survey was given as ± 20 percentage points. Find a 95% confidence interval estimate of the percent of
adults who feel confident in the accuracy
of their doctor’s advice and don’t feel the need to check for a second opinion.
Select one:
a. (0.490, 0.601)
b. (0.452, 0.538)
c. (0.565, 0.640) Correct
d. (0.316, 0.483)
Feedback
Short Quiz 9
Select one:
a. 0.086
b. 0.059
c. 0.039 Incorrect
d. 0.330
Feedback
Determine a 90% confidence interval for the proportion successful treated.
Select one:
a. 0.564 < p < 0.640
b. 0.640 < p < 0.742 Incorrect
c. 0.742 < p < 0.834
d. 0.834 < p < 0.927
Feedback
The correct answer is: 0.564 < p < 0.640
Find a 90% upper confidence interval estimate of the percent of adults who feel confident in the
Select one:
a. 0.077
b. 0.329 Incorrect
c. 0.834
d. 0.290
Feedback
Lim Electronics claims that the new brand of cellular phone will last for 80,000 hours. A research
Select one:
a. (79,301 , 80,890) Incorrect
b. (59,706 , 60,294)
c. (59,301 , 60,890)
d. (79,706 , 80,294)
Feedback
The correct answer is: (59,706 , 60,294)
A survey of 900 female finds that they sleep on average of 8 hours a day. If the margin of error at 95%
confidence level is 1.3 hours. Find the
confidence interval?
Select one:
a. 4.50 hours < p < 5.89 hours
b. 6.70 hours < p < 9.30 hours Correct
c. 8.66 hours < p < 11.26 hours
d. 7.34 hours < p < 8.66 hours
Feedback
The correct answer is: 6.70 hours < p < 9.30 hours
Select one:
a. 0.055
b. 0.069
c. 0.047 Correct
d. 0.039
Feedback
Given the problem in item 9, what does the answer tells about?
Select one:
a. Lim Electronics can use the survey conducted for their advertisements.
b. The confidence interval does not support the claim of Lim Electronics.
c. The confidence interval support the claim of Lim Electronics. Incorrect
d. The information is not sufficient to conclude.
Feedback
The correct answer is: The confidence interval does not support the claim of Lim Electronics.
confidence level is 1.5 hours. What is the
solution to find the lower confidence interval?
Select one:
a. Z score plus less the square root of 9 hours less 1.5 hours
c. 9 hours less 1.5 hours Correct
e. 9 hours less 1.5 hours multiplied by the z score at 98% confidence level
Find a 90% lower confidence interval estimate of the percent of adults who feel confident in the
Select one:
a. 0.0726
b. 0.8932
c. 0.4508 Incorrect
d. 0.0934
Feedback
Calculate the sample proportion that was successfully treated.
Select one:
a. 0.85 Incorrect
b. 0.72
c. 0.30
d. 0.60
Feedback
Find the sample size given 95% confidence, Margin of Error = 0.15 and p ^ =0.25.
Select one:
a. 34 Incorrect
b. 33
c. 31
d. 32
Feedback
Select one:
a. 20 Incorrect
b. 22
c. 23
d. 21
Feedback
Select one:
a. 389
b. 215 Incorrect
c. 139
d. 152
Feedback
Select one:
a. 41
b. 42
c. 44 Incorrect
d. 43
Feedback
The Engineer of the building wants to use the proportion of the population to determine the sample size
needed to interview regarding their
idea about the new color design of the building. He wants to be able to assure with probability 0.90 that
his error will be most 0.10. Similar
surveys during past year that 85% approved the new color design. How large a sample does the Engineer
need?
Select one:
a. 278 Incorrect
b. 2,145
c. 1,372
d. 196
Feedback
Short Quiz 11 Stats
The proportion of computer in the software laboratory is lower than the total number of BS IT students
in the university.
Answer:
Correct
Feedback
The alternative hypothesis and null hypothesis should be ________________.

Select one:
a. Mutually exclusive
d. Mutually inclusive Correct
Feedback
The correct answer is: Mutually inclusive
The proportion of an employee income is greater than the monthly expenses of the employee.
Answer:
null hypothesis
Incorrect
Feedback
William collected a random sample of 88 people, asking how many times they open ABC web site per
day on average, and calculated x¯ = 50.30.
ABC suggests that µ = 55, and s = 10. William thinks the actual mean is less than the website owner
claims. What is the null and alternative
hypothesis?
Select one:
a. 55
b. Null hypothesis µ = 55, Alternative hypothesis µ < 55
c. Null hypothesis µ ? 55, Alternative hypothesis µ
d. Null hypothesis µ > 55, Alternative hypothesis µ = 55
e. 55, Alternative hypothesis µ ? 55 Correct
f. Null hypothesis µ
Feedback
The correct answer is: Null hypothesis µ ≥ 55, Alternative hypothesis µ < 55
A type of test that is denoted by the symbol Ho.
Select one:
a. Rejection hypothesis Incorrect
b. Statistical hypothesis
c. Alternative hypothesis
d. Null hypothesis
Feedback
The probability of making type I error is
Select one:
a. ß
b. 1- a
c. 1- ß
d. a Correct
e. µ - a
Feedback
The correct answer is: a
For the 99% confidence level,
Select one:
a. a
b. a
c. a
d. 0.001
e. a
f. 0.010
g. 0.005
h. 0.025 Correct
Feedback
A police precinct claims that there is ten crimes on the average are reported.
Answer:
Incorrect
Feedback
hypothesis.
Select one:
a. Rejection region and Null region
b. Rejection region and Critical region Correct
c. Null region and Critical region
d. Null region
e. Critical region
g. Rejection region
h. All of the choices
Feedback
The correct answer is: Rejection region and Critical region

The average income of an employee is 12,000 pesos.
Answer:
null hypothesis
Correct
Feedback
The level of significance is the
Select one:
a. 1 - p value
b. Same as confidence interval
c. Maximum allowable probability of Type II error
d. Minimum allowable probability of Type II error
e. Probability of committing a Type I error Correct
Feedback
The correct answer is: Probability of committing a Type I error
What is the null hypothesis to the claim that people like android phone than IOS? State the null
hypothesis.
Select one:
a. Less people like IOS than android
b. More people like android than IOS phone Correct
c. Less people like android and IOS phone
d. More people like IOS phone than android phone
Feedback
The correct answer is: More people like android than IOS phone
If the null hypothesis is true and rejected, the decision is incorrect – Type I Error
Select one:
a. Rejection Error
b. Type I Error Correct
c. Correction Error
d. Type II Error
Feedback
The correct answer is: Type I Error
The average internet usage of a College student is 6 hours.
Answer:
null hypothesis
Correct
Feedback
Select one:
a. The statement is TRUE. Correct
Feedback
This separates the rejection region to the region where we do not reject the null hypothesis.
Select one:
a. Z score
b. Null value Incorrect
c. Critical value
d. chi value
The correct answer is: Critical value
–4
Select one:
a. Do not Reject
b. Reject Correct
Feedback
49 students St. Therese students we find
the average achievement test score to be 98 with a standard deviation of 88. We want to know if these
high school students are representative
of the overall population. What can we conclude based?
Select one:
a. Accept null hypothesis
b. Reject null hypothesis
c. Accept alternative hypothesis Incorrect
d. Reject alternative hypothesis
Feedback
2.35
Select one:
b. Reject
c. Do not Reject Incorrect
Feedback
Answer:
-5 - wrong
Incorrect
Feedback
Answer:
-12.83
Incorrect
Feedback
following. Express your answer in
2 decimal places. µ = 8, σ = 4, n = 99, x̄ = 7.2
A: -1.99 - correct
Short Quiz 12
than a jeepney. What is the value of the test statistics?
Select one:
a. 3.49 Incorrect
b. – 1.85
c. – 1.85
d. – 1.33
Feedback
The correct answer is: – 1.85
decimal places.
µ = 8.5, s = 4, n = 99, x¯ = 7.2
Answer:
34.32 - wrong
Incorrect
Feedback
3.31
Select one:
b. Reject Correct
c. Do not Reject
than a jeepney.
What can we conclude based the value of the test statistics?
Select one:
a. Reject null hypothesis
b. Accept alternative hypothesis Incorrect
c. Reject alternative hypothesis
d. Accept null hypothesis
Feedback
Values supporting the ___________________ occurs in the rejection region.
Select one:
a. Critical values
b. Alternative hypothesis and critical values Incorrect
c. Null hypothesis
d. Null hypothesis and critical values
e. Alternative hypothesis
Feedback
The correct answer is: Null hypothesis and critical values
A sample is small when n=30.
Select one:
b. The statement is FALSE. Replace the letter n with letter x.
c. The statement is FALSE. Replace the = with =
d. The statement is FALSE. Replace the word small with large.
Feedback
The correct answer is: The statement is FALSE. Replace the word small with large.
Select one:
a. The statement is FALSE.
b. The statement is TRUE. Correct
Feedback
0.131
Select one:
a. Do not Reject
b. Reject Incorrect
Feedback
1.11
Select one:
c. Reject
Feedback
decimal places.
µ = 77, s = 6, n = 109, x¯ = 78.2
Answer:
56.23
Incorrect
Feedback
decimal places.
µ = 8, s = 4, n = 99, x¯ = 7.2
Answer:
-1.99
Correct
Feedback
1.20
Select one:
b. Reject
c. Do not Reject Correct
Feedback
– 0.6
Select one:
c. Reject
Feedback
Select one:
a. 0.033
b. 0.028
c. 0.066 Incorrect
d. 0.041
Feedback
Select one:
a. 0.932
b. 0.400
c. 0.783
d. 0.600 Incorrect
Feedback
Select one:
a. 0.442 Incorrect
b. 0.391
c. 0.137
d. 0.296
Feedback
conclude?
Select one:
a. Reject the null hypothesis
b. Accept the null hypothesis Correct
Feedback

At the 10% level of significance, test the Police Sub Station claims. Based on the test, what can you
conclude?
Select one:
Feedback
Select one:
a. -0.066
b. 2.112
c. -1.231
d. 1.992 Correct
Feedback
Select one:
a. 0.899
b. 1.203
c. 0.996
d. 1.095 Correct
Feedback
A: 0.600
Short Quiz 13 Stats
you conclude?
Select one:
Feedback
Select one:
a. 0.983
b. 2.181
c. 3.004
d. 1.191 Correct
Feedback
Select one:
a. 0.087 Correct
b. 0.0632
c. 0.032
d. 0.051
Feedback
Select one:
a. 0.041
b. 0.089
c. 0.026 Correct
d. 0.011
Feedback
Select one:
a. -2.729
b. -0.998
c. -3.661
d. -1.260 Correct
Feedback
Select one:
a. 0.372
b. 0.419
c. 0.267 Correct
d. 0.189
Feedback
fcost of the material is higher.

Select one:
a. 0.667 Correct
b. 0.429
c. 0.739
d. 0.921
Feedback
Select one:
a. 0.0548
b. 0.0808
c. 0.0993
d. 0.0741 Correct
Feedback
conclude?
Select one:

Feedback
Select one:
a. 0.963
b. 0.675 Correct
c. 0.367
d. 0.822
Feedback
Short Quiz 13 Stats
you conclude?
Select one:
Feedback
Select one:
a. 0.983
b. 2.181
c. 3.004
d. 1.191 Correct
Feedback
Select one:
a. 0.087 Correct
b. 0.0632
c. 0.032
d. 0.051
Feedback

Select one:
a. 0.041
b. 0.089
c. 0.026 Correct
d. 0.011
Feedback
Select one:
a. -2.729
b. -0.998
c. -3.661
d. -1.260 Correct
Feedback
Select one:
a. 0.372
b. 0.419
c. 0.267 Correct
d. 0.189
Feedback
Select one:
a. 0.667 Correct
b. 0.429
c. 0.739
d. 0.921
Feedback
Select one:
a. 0.0548
b. 0.0808
c. 0.0993
d. 0.0741 Correct
Feedback

conclude?
Select one:
Feedback
Select one:
a. 0.963
b. 0.675 Correct
c. 0.367
d. 0.822
Feedback
Select one:
a. 0.062
b. 0.077
c. 0.034 correct
d. 0.045
Short quiz 14
In a ____________, high values in one variable correspond to high values in the other variable.
Select one:
a. Perfect Correlation Incorrect
c. Scattered Correlation
Feedback
Graphical representation of the relationship between two variables.
Select one:
a. Line Plots Incorrect
b. XY intersection plot
c. scatter plot
d. Cartesian plane
Feedback
When examining scatterplot and draw an ellipse around the data, long and narrow ellipses means
Select one:
a. Negative linear association

c. Positive linear association Incorrect
d. Strong linear association
e. Cannot determine with the given information
Feedback
The correct answer is: Strong linear association
Select one:
b. Correlation Correct
d. Linear Regression
e. Scatterplot Analysis
Feedback
The correct answer is: Correlation
A _____________ is simply a scatterplot in which we connect successive chronological observations with

a line segment to give more
information about how the data values are changing over a period of time.
Select one:
a. XY Plot
b. Scatter Plot
c. Correlation Plot
d. Line plot Correct
Feedback
The correct answer is: Line plot
The data had a _________________ when one variable increases, the other variable also decreases.
Select one:
a. negative linear association Incorrect
d. positive linear association
Feedback
variables.
Select one:
Feedback
The correct answer is: The statement is FALSE.
Learning Actvity 14 Stats
Given the data below, what is the direction of the association between the two variables.
Select one:
a. Positive linear association Incorrect
c. Strong linear association
e. Negative linear association
Feedback
The correct answer is: Negative linear association
The data had a _________________ when one variable increases, the other variable also increases.
Select one:
a. positive linear association Correct

d. negative linear association
Feedback
The line that is closest to the points is called _____________.
Select one:
a. Trend line Correct
b. Correlation line
c. Cross line
d. Scatter line
Feedback
The correct answer is: Trend line
Select one:
a. Elliptical, Rounded, Scattered
b. Proportional, Directional, Elliptical
c. Direction, Shape, Strength
d. Line, Points, Shape Incorrect
Feedback
The correct answer is: Direction, Shape, Strength
The series of disconnected points is referred to as _________________________
Select one:
a. XY Plots
b. Trend line plots

c. Bivariate data
d. scatter plot Correct
Feedback
Short Quiz 15
Select one:
a. No apparent correlation Correct
c. Strong positive correction
d. Minimal positive correction
Feedback
The correct answer is: No apparent correlation
Linear correlation coefficient is always a value between ____ and ____.
Select one:
a. 0, 100 Incorrect
b. 1, 100
c. +1, -1
d. 0, 1
Feedback
The correct answer is: +1, -1
Select one:
b. Year is the explanatory variable and water consumption is the response variable
Feedback
Describe the relationship based on the r-value r=0,
Select one:
a. No relationship
b. Deterministic relationship Incorrect
c. Weak relationship
d. Strong relationship
Feedback
The correct answer is: No relationship
The value of a perfect positive coefficient is ________.
Select one:
a. A positive number greater than 1
b. Equal to zero.
d. Equal to 1.
e. A positive number greater than 0. Incorrect
Feedback
The correct answer is: Equal to 1.
Select one:
a. Minimal positive correction Incorrect
Feedback
The variable that causes an effect
Select one:
a. Response variable
b. Explanatory variable Correct
c. Trend variable
Feedback
This pattern is produced when the score of one observation is high, the score of the other observation to
be high.
Select one:
a. XY Plot
c. Direct Correlation Incorrect
Feedback
Select one:
c. Year is the explanatory variable and water consumption is the response variable
Feedback
The variable that reflects the effect
Select one:
b. Response variable Correct
d. Trend variable
Feedback
Select one:
a. Minimal positive correction
b. Strong positive correction Correct
d. Weak positive correction
Feedback
The symbol used to measure the strength and direction of a linear correlation
Select one:
a. r2
b. r
c. XY
d. None of the choices Incorrect
Feedback
The correct answer is: r
It is also called independent variable
Select one:
b. Response variable Incorrect
c. Trend variable
Feedback
Salary and number of years of experience
Select one:
a. Number of years is the explanatory variable and salary is the response variable Correct
b. Salary is the explanatory variable and number of years is the response variable
Feedback
The correct answer is: Number of years is the explanatory variable and salary is the response variable
Select one:
a. No apparent correlation
b. Minimal positive correction Incorrect
c. Weak positive correction
Feedback
The correct answer is: Weak positive correction
Expenditure is an example of a
Select one:
a. Trend variable
b. Explanatory variable
d. Response variable Correct
Feedback
Short Quiz 16 Stats
Select one:
a. Parabola Correct
b. Ellipse
c. Circle
d. Straight line
Feedback
The correct answer is: Parabola
When slope is positive,
Select one:
a. y increases as x increases Correct
b. y decreases as x increases
c. y increases, x values approaches point of origin
d. y decreases, x values approaches 1
Feedback
The correct answer is: y increases as x increases
variable x.
Select one:
a. FALSE
c. TRUE Correct
Feedback
Select one:
a. y=3x + 11 Incorrect
b. y=6x + 5
c. y=8x + 3
d. y=3x + 8
Feedback
If the line has no slope,
Select one:
a. The line is a horizontal line
b. The line is at the point of origin
c. The line intercepts the x and y axis
d. The line lies at the x axis Incorrect
Feedback
The correct answer is: The line is a horizontal line
Select one:
a. 9
b. 11
c. 8
d. 3 Incorrect
Feedback
Answer:
4.2
Incorrect
Feedback
Select one:
a. y=5x + 1
b. y=10x + 2 Incorrect
c. y=5x + 2
d. y=10x + 1
Feedback
Answer:
Incorrect
Feedback
The equation y=mx + b is also known as
Select one:
a. slope intercept form
b. y intercept Incorrect
c. correlation intercept form
d. xy intercept form
Feedback
The correct answer is: slope intercept form
Answer:
Correct
Feedback
Select one:
a. y=3x + 1
b. 2y=6x + 3
c. y=-3x + 3 Correct
d. 2y=6x + 1
The correct answer is: y=-3x + 3

Select one:
a. 2 Correct
b. 1
c. 8
d. 7
Feedback
Answer:
Incorrect
Feedback
Select one:
a. y=2x + 7 Correct
b. y=5x + 2
c. y=7x + 1
d. y=7x + 5
Feedback
Write the slope-intercept equation of the line that has slope 6 and y-intercept 4.
answer: 6x+4
HINDI MO FEEL NO? HAYAAN MO DAGDAGAN KO PARA SAYO YIE
Answer : b. Number of desired elements over the number of desired outcomes
Find the sample size given 95% confidence, Margin of Error = 0.05 and p=0.15
Answer : 196
Given the sample size (n=230) and sample proportion (p=0.35) find the approximate margin of error for
the 95% confidence interval
Answer : 0.083
Proportion is a fraction expression where the __________ is in the numerator and the _________ is the
denominator
Answer : Favorable response, Total number of responses
Given the formula in determining the minimum sample size needed when estimating the population
proportion and if no
approximation is known, what value of p will be used?
Answer : 0.5
What is the formula of z score?
Answer
Given the data below, what is the direction of the association between the two variables
Answer : a. Positive linear association
Choose the correct scatter plot using the following data
Answer :
Using the following data, find the margin of error. Your answer must be in 3 decimal places.
m = 700, p = 0.75,95% confidence
Answer : 0 , 0 3 2
variables
Answer : b. The Statement is FALSE.

Point estimate is
Answer : d. A statistical that estimates a population parameter
Graphical representation of the relationship between two variables
Answer : c. scatter plot
Given the equation 9y = 18x + 9, what is the slope?
Answer : 1
Given the data, what is the strength of the association between the two variables
Answer : Weak linear association
The graph below describes a _____________ correlation.
Answer : c. Perfect Positive Correlation
Given the table, determine the slope intercept equation.
Answer : a. y = x – 6
Given the following data. Find the lower bound of confidence interval. Your answer must be in two
decimal places.
Sample size = 100, Mean = 75, Standard Deviation = 20.99% confidence
Answer : 6 9 , 8 4
The alternative hypothesis and null hypothesis should be ____________
Answer : c. Mutually exclusive
The graph below describes a ______
Answer : d. Zero Correlation
Compute for the correlation coefficient.
Answer : 0.964
Given the following data, find the upper bound of confidence interval. Your answer must be in two
decimal places.
Sample size = 100, Mean = 80, Standard Deviation = 20, Confidence coefficient = 1.645
Answer : 8 3 , 2 9
Using the following data, find the upper bound of confidence interval. Your answer must be in 3 decimal
places.
M = 400, p = 0.75 , 90% confidence
Answer : 0 , 7 9 0
The series of disconnected points is referred to as _____________ .
Answer : scatter plot
Linear correlation coefficient is always a value between ____ and _____
Answer : a. +1, -1
Given the following data, find the margin of error. Your answer must be in two decimal places
Answer : 3 . 9 2
Given the table, determine the slope intercept equation
Answer : c. y = 2x + 1
Answer : a. Direction, Shape, Strength
hypothesis.
Answer : a. Rejection and Critical region
Identify what is illustrated in the photo.
Answer : Confidence Interval
Given the following data, find the margin of error. Your answer must be in two decimal places
Answer : 7 6 , 7 1
Answer : c. Correlation
Using the following data, find the lower bound of confidence interval. Your answer must be in 3 decimal
places.
M = 400, p̄ = 0.75, 90% confidence
Answer : 0 , 7 1 4
Answer : 7
The graph below describes a _____.
Answer : d. Positive Correlation
Given the following data, find the margin of error. Your answer must be in two decimal places.
Sample size = 100, Mean = 75, Standard Deviation = 20, 99% confidence
Answer : 5 . 1 6
The value of a perfect positive coefficient is _________.
Answer : d. Equal to 1
When the confidence level is 90%, the Confidence coefficients is +-.
Answer : a. 1.645
Sampling distribution of proportions is randomly distributed.
A: FALSE. Replace the word Sampling distribution with Confidence Coefficient - correct
Given n=60, x̄ =250, s=3, 99% confidence. Assuming that the samples come from a normal distribution,
find the interval estimate of
A: (58.59, 61.41) - correct
Find the sample size given 95% confidence, Margin of Error = 0.12 and ̂p = 0.30.
A: 57 - correct
Margin of Error is in the center of the confidence interval?
A: FALSE. Replace the word “Margin of Error” with “Point Estimate” - correct
A: 0.083 - correct
Find the sample size given 90% confidence, Margin of Error = 0.05 and ̂p =0.30.
A: 228 - correct
A: 89 - correct
A: 35 – correct
Given the table, determine the slope of intercept equation.
Answer : a. y = 2x + 5
The formula given below will give an output of
Answer : c. Margin of Error
Identify the following formula :
Answer : d. Sample Size
True of False. The series of disconnected points is referred to as Bivariate.
A: false - correct
A: 23 - correct
A: 0.74 - correct
the following. Express your
answer in 2 decimal places.
µ = 20.8, σ = 4, n = 99, x̄ = 21.2
A: 0.99 - correct
Common choices of confidence level are
A: 90%, 95%, 99% - correct

Identify the following formula: 1- q̂
A: Sample Proportion - correct
Proportion is a fraction expression where the _____________________ is in the numerator and the
_____________________ is the
denominator.
A: Favorable response, Total number of responses - correct
A sample is small when n ≤ 30
A: The statement is FALSE. Replace the word small with large. - correct
Given α=0.05 and the test statistics, decide whether the null hypothesis is to be rejected or accepted:
1.60
A: Do not Reject - correct
Find the sample size given 95% confidence, Margin of Error = 0.05 and ̂p=0.15.
A:196 - correct
find the interval estimate of
A: (249.07, 250.93) – correct
A: 0.05 - correct
the following. Express your
answer in 2 decimal places.
µ = 31.2, σ = 3, n = 66, x̄ = 32
A: 2.17 - correct
A: 81 - correct
A: 152 – correct
The management of a local grocery store wants to estimate the average amount their customers spend
at the store to within 0.50
pesos, with a 90% confidence. What is the minimum sample size required, if the standard deviation is
assumed to be 4.50 pesos.
A: 220 - correct
A: 80 - correct
Find the sample size given 99% confidence, Margin of Error = 0.11 and ̂p = 0.35.
A: 126 - correct
A: 0.07 – correct
A survey was conducted to 200 Grade 6 students who uses the internet in research instead of the school
library. Based on the
survey, 160 students responded Yes. What is the population proportion to students who uses the library
in their research?
A: 80% - correct
169 students St. Therese
students we find the average achievement test score to be 850 with a standard deviation of 88. We
want to know if these high school
students are representative of the overall population: What can we conclude based on the hypotheses
and test statistic?
A: Reject null hypothesis - correct
A: 1.15 - correct
0.1 – correct
– 3.1
A: reject – correct
1.0
A: do not reject - correct
When the confidence level is 90%, the Confidence coefficients is +-
A: 1.645 - correct
Bivariate is defined as the analysis of a single variable.
A: false - correct
Which of the following is a characteristics of a bivariate?
A: All of the choices - correct
Given the equation 3y = x+15, what is the y intercept?
A: 5 - correct
Given the equation 9y = x+9, what is the y intercept?
A: 1 - correct
Scatter plot is a series of connected points to form a line.
A: false - correct
Year is an example of a
A: Explanatory variable - correct
A: 8 - correct
A perfect correlation pattern is produced when

A: Points on a scatterplot lie on a straight line - correct
If the line has no slope or equal to zero
The line is a horizontal line - correct
A: parabola - correct
Three characteristics of a bivariate are
A: Shape, direction and strength - correct
Which of the following is INCORRECT about correlation coefficient.
A: correlation coefficient can never be a zero value - correct
A: parabola - correct
House rent and house floor area
A: House floor area is the explanatory variable and house rent is the response variable - correct
Given the equation 5y = 20x+ 30, what is the slope?
A: 4 - correct
variable y.
A: FALSE – correct
A: 7
A: 2
Using the following data, find the lower bound of confidence interval. Your answer must be in 3 decimal
places.
n=700, p̂ = 0.75, 95% confidence
A: 0.718 - correct
Using the following data, find the upper bound of confidence interval. Your answer must be in 3 decimal
places.
n=700, p̂ = 0.75, 95% confidence
A: 0.780 - correct
Using the following data, find the margin of error. Your answer must be in 3 decimal places
n=400, p̂ = 0.75, 90% confidence
A: 0.036 - correct
Given the following data, find the lower bound of confidence interval. Your answer must be in two
decimal places.
A: 76.71 - correct
Given the following data, find the lower bound of confidence interval. Your answer must be in two
decimal places.
A: 69.84 – correct
Given the following data, find the upper bound of confidence interval. Your answer must be in two
decimal places.
A: 80.16 - correct
Given the following data, find the margin of error. Your answer must be in two decimal places.
A: 5.16 - correct
approximation is known, what value of p̂ will be used?
Answer : 0.5
Given n=10, x̄ =28, s=2.0, 95% confidence. Assuming that the samples come from a normal distribution,
find the margin of error
Answer : 1.24
Identifying the following formula :
Answer : c. Sample Size
What is the formula in determining the minimum sample size needed in estimating the population
mean?
Answer : d.
approximation is known, what value of p̄ will be used?
Answer : b. 0.5
This formula below will determining the minimum sample size needed when estimating the
Answer : b. population mean
What is the formula of z score?
Answer : a.
Identify the following formula
Answer : b. Confidence Interval
Given the formula in determining the minimum sample size needed when estimating the
population proportion and if no approximation is known, what value of p̄ will be used?
Answer : d. 0.5
Given the table and graph, determine the slope intercept equation
Answer : d. 8
Answer : d. 2
Given the table, find the slope intercept equation.
Answer : d. Y = x + 4
Given the following data, compute for the correlation coefficient. Round your answer into 2 decimal
places. If the answer is a whole
number do not put a decimal after it.
Answer : 1
Given the following data, compute for the correlation coefficient. Round your answer into 2 decimal
places. If the answer is a whole
number do not put a decimal after it.
Answer : -1
Answer : b. y = 2x + 5
Given the table below, what is the slope intercept equation?
Answer : c. 𝐘 =
𝒙+𝟐
The graph below describes a ______________ correlation.
Answer : c. Perfect Negative Correlation
Given the table, find the slope intercept equation.
Answer : b. Y = 3x + 6
Given the following data, compute for the correlation coefficient. Round your answer into
2 decimal places. If the answer is a whole number, do not put a decimal after it.
Answer : 0.92
Given the table below, what is linear equation?
Given the table below, what is linear equation?
Answer : d. y = 2x + 7
Answer : d. y = x – 6
Compute for the correlation coefficient.
Answer : c. 0.721
Answer : b. y = 2x + 1
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Identify whether the statement is a strength, weakness, opportunity or threat. Naughty students who
might try to hack the student record system and
change the information saved.
Answer: threat
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Identify whether Ricka’s role is accountable, responsible, consult or inform: Ricka should finish
conducting unit and system testing.
Answer: accountable
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I cannot type anything but my mouse is working, I am using a brand new USB keyboard, which port
should I check?
Answer: D
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True or False: Monitoring and evaluating means brainstorming.
Answer: False
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Axel is finally documenting his work. What could he be writing?
Select one:
a. requirements of the program
b. system analysis
c. bug reviews and errors
d. instructions for the users
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Machine language and assembly language are collectively referred to as _________________________.
Select one:
d. High-level language
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True or False: Nothing good ever comes from giving feedback. If anything, anyone who does give will
only get scolded by the boss.
Answer: False
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When the software used was checked, the project manager discovered that some of the programmers
are using an old version of Java. This cause is
categorized under
Answer. Materials
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Identify whether Ricka’s role is accountable, responsible, consult or inform: Ricka should be told about
the students who volunteered to test the
student record system.
Answer: inform
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Machine language is also known as Binary language.
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The following can be used as a channel for conveying messages, EXCEPT:
Select one:
c. hyperlinks
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Refer to the pseudocode below and answer the following question:
What is the first thing that the program will do?
Select one:
a. ask for BMI

b. print height
c. ask for height
d. print BMI
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____________________ in the workplace protection of sensitive business information through

precautionary measures like confidentiality clauses or
non-disclosure agreements.
Select one:
d. Confidentiality
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Capacity
Select one:
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FORTRAN stands for _____. Formula Translator
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True or False: Documenting the decision is the last action needed to be taken to solve the problem.
Answer: False
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In ____________________, the trainee’s learning is focused on utilizing existing abilities and

competencies, with the coach interacting with the trainee
in a professional way.
Select one:
a. Coaching
b. Meeting
c. Problem Solving
d. Mentoring
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Students
Answer: internal
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True or False: Organizational policies and procedures are used as a guide in decision making and help
employees understand the company’s goals and
values.
Answer: True
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Java can only be used for business purposes like processing records and employees.
Select one:
a. True
b. False
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Battery level, Internet connection and date and time are usually located in the Notification Area.
Select one:
a. True
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Actions that you need to take to reach the goals you set are called ____________________.
Select one:
c. Objectives
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Adaptability
Select one:
h. Portability
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True or False: To establish empathy means to interpret the message received.
Answer: False
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When the program was written, some
team mates are talking too loud and distracted the others. This cause is categorized under:
Answer: Environment
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Create the project charter for the student record system.
Answer: Gantt chart
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Refer to the image below to answer the following question.
By default, what is the value of limit?
Select one:
a. 0
b. 2
c. 1
d. 3
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WRONG.
Get_Average_Grade() for a routine to compute for average.
Select one:
a. Correct
b. Wrong
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In adding a new printer, the _____________ will guide you on the steps to be taken.
Select one:
a. Printer Guide
b. Printer Affix
c. Printer Install
d. Printer Wizard
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True or False: Gantt chart is one of the tools used in identifying workloads. It states who is responsible or
accountable for one task or activity.
Answer: False
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My brother gave me an external hard drive as a present. I wanted to save my movies and pictures in it,
where should it be connected?
Answer: D
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Fix bugs and errors detected in the system.
Answer: Gantt chart
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In the correct order, the essential parts of the communication process are:
Select one:
a. Source, Message, Encoding, Channel, Decoding, Receiver, Feedback
b. Source, Message, Encoding, Channel, Receiver, Decoding, Feedback
c. Source, Message, Encoding, Channel, Decoding, Feedback, Receiver
d. Source, Message, Encoding, Receiver, Decoding, Channel, Feedback
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Programmers
Answer: internal
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True or False: To solve a problem means to know first what the problem is before coming up with the
feasible solutions.
Answer: True
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True or False: Listing down the issues related to the problem is second to the last step in an effective
problem solving process.
Answer: False
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Learnability
Select one:
a. Portability
b. Security
c. Maintainability
e. Usability
f. Compatibility
h. Reliability
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Monica accidentally unplugged the mouse PS/2 port. What will happen to the mouse connected thru
the universal serial bus port?
Select one:
a. The mouse will stop working.
b. None of the choices.
c. The mouse will freeze.
e. The mouse will be disabled.
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Identify whether the statement is a strength, weakness, opportunity or threat. The student record
system is dependent on the Internet and will not
function without Internet connection.
Answer: weakness
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A Gantt chart that shows the schedule for the development process of the student record system.
Answer: instrument
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A product or service must go through this phase to ensure that it is fit to use and that its quality matches
with the company’s standards.
Select one:
a. Performance Appraisal
b. Quality Control
c. Safety Programs
d. Reflective Behavior
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WRONG.
ComputeTotalScore() for a routine to sum up the scores.
Select one:
a. Wrong
b. Correct
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The record system has undergone the function testing successfully.
Answer: milestone
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True or False: Stakeholders are people or group who are directly or indirectly affected by a company’s
decision, policies and objectives.
Answer: True
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True or False: Distributing the information to the involved staff and/or department is the last step in the
planning process.
Answer: True
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Programmers’ Adviser
Answer: internal
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True or False: Feedback is not needed in communication.
Answer: False
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The first computer concept invented is called _________________________.
Select one:
a. COBOL
b. Analytical Engine
c. FORTRAN
d. PlanKalKul
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ago. Some volunteers are testing XYZ in accordance
with the ISO/IEC 25010:2011. Read their feedback below and decide which product quality attribute is
being described.
“The XYZ has in-app purchases or micro transactions and asks for my credit card details. It’s safe so far
and didn’t have any issues with information
leak.”
Select one:
a. Portability
c. Compatibility
d. Security
e. Maintainability
f. Reliability
g. Usability
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Integrity
Select one:
g. Security
Started on Thursday, 28 December 2017, 1:20 PM
State Finished
Completed on Thursday, 28 December 2017, 1:39 PM
Grade 8.00 out of 10.00 (80%)
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version of
the document.
Answer:
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if they
problem.
true people
_________________ problem.
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Select one:
a. HR staff
b. IT staff
c. Everyone
d. Admin staff
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True or False: If you want to inform every one of events, memos and other announcements, use the
bulletin
board.
Answer:
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Answer: true
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Select one:
a. The focus is on inspiring respect for professional skills.
true
c. The focus is on technical or professional development.
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True or False: It is fine to use strong or shocking colors for PowerPoint presentation slides.
Answer:
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or
Select one:
false
a. Technical
b. Interpersonal
c. Boundaries
d. Feedback
e. Active listening
f. Communication
g. Interpretation
h. Channel
i. Negotiation
j. Empathy
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off on
their own.
Answer:
false
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Select one:
a. Creating a sense of equality by encouraging employees to voice out their opinions.

b. Conducting regular trainings to update company policies.
c. Involving all employees in the formulation and execution of company programs.
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True or False: Through feedback, programmers can learn if the system or program has all the functions
and
features defined by the clients.
Answer:
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if they
Due to a tight deadline, the programmers decided to write the code immediately without a plan. This
cause is
classified under Answer method.
_________________ problem.
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true
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True or False: All team members must be doing their parts diligently for the success of the team’s
efforts.
Answer:
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True or False: You can send the message in whatever format you like, since the receiver can just try to
interpret
and understand the message in any way.
Answer:
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true false
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Select one:
a. Encoding refers to the method of conveying the message, such as speaking, writing or gesturing.
b. The source is the information or subject matter of communication.
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from it. It
Select one:
a. Quality Control
b. Performance Appraisal
c. Reflective Behavior
d. Safety Programs
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Answer:
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Select one:
a. Exhibit
b. Business meeting
c. Seminar
true true
d. Meet and greet
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only
Answer:
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True or False: Taking home of a little bit of office supplies will surely be ignored and won’t do much
harm to the
company.
Answer:
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The file for the second version of risk management is properly named.
Answer:
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Select one:
b. Placing fire extinguishers within the workplace
c. Having a first aid kit at hand
false
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Select one:
a. Conducting investigations
c. Collecting office records
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Which one of the following practices will result to a proper presentation?
Select one:
a. Using slides with strong shocking background colors
b. Using font styles that are readable
c. Using pictures or images that are of no relevance to the presentation
d. Using font styles that are readable and Using pictures or images that are of no relevance to the
presentation
off on
their own.
A: False
Answer: true
only
Answer: false
True or False: Understanding everyone’s interest is the second step in the problem solving process. This
is when
you choose the optimal solution.
Answer: false
audience is
A: technical words
The first version of the risk management file should be named Risk Management V01.
A: true
Select one:
a. Negotiation
b. Communication
c. Technical
d. Interpretation
e. Feedback
f. Active listening
g. Interpersonal
h. Empathy
i. Boundaries
j. Channel
True or False: Team building activities are important to further improve team interaction and
cooperation.
Answer:
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explanation
Answer: false
Select one:
a. The focus is on technical or professional development.
version of
the document.
Answer: true
if they
problem.
or

Select one:
a. Interpretation
b. Interpersonal
c. Technical
d. Empathy
e. Active listening
f. Channel
g. Negotiation
h. Communication
i. Feedback
j. Boundaries
the
problem.
A:
methods
Select one:
b. Teammates
c. Colleagues
e. Superiors
The following are all part of the communication process, EXCEPT for one:
Select one:
a. Feedback
b. Source
c. Printing
d. Decoding
Select one:
a. IT staff
b. HR staff
c. Everyone
d. Admin staff
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if they
One programmer, who is just a recent graduate, was assigned to do a big task. His colleagues are not
aware that
he doesn’t have the skills required. This falls under Answer .
_________________ problem.
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if they
The problem identified in the diagram is a buggy java Answer.
people
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Select one:
a. The source is the information or subject matter of communication.
b. Encoding refers to the method of conveying the message, such as speaking, writing or gesturing.
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This Internet online resource allows the user to interact either as a learner or instructor.
Select one:
Answer: udemy
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Answer:
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operation

____________________ skills.
Select one:
a. Technical
b. Soft
c. Business
true
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Answer: true
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Select one:
a. Placing fire extinguishers within the workplace
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Select one:
a. Boundaries
b. Technical
c. Communication
d. Interpretation
e. Channel
f. Active listening
g. Empathy
h. Interpersonal
i. Negotiation
j. Feedback
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operation

____________________ skills.
Select one:
b. Soft
c. Business
d. Technical
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True or False: Employees should be encouraged to take on career paths that not only develop their
skills, but also
improve their performance in the work that they do.
Answer:
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true
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Select one:
a. The focus is on realizing trainee’s potential skills.

d. The focus is on technical or professional development.
Question 7
Complete
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Select one:
a. Meet and greet
b. Exhibit
c. Seminar
d. Business meeting
Question 8
Complete
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Select one:
a. Having a first aid kit at hand
b. Using faulty cable wiring all over the place
d. Placing fire extinguishers within the workplace
Question 9
Complete
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Select one:
a. Negotiation
b. Interpretation
c. Feedback
d. Active listening
e. Technical
f. Communication
g. Empathy
h. Interpersonal
i. Channel
j. Boundaries
Question 10
Complete
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True or False: Evaluating the options require determining the advantages and disadvantages of each
option.
Answer:
true
Started on Friday, 5 January 2018, 6:50 PM
State Finished
Completed on Friday, 5 January 2018, 6:58 PM
Grade 10.00 out of 10.00 (100%)
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or
Select one:
a. Communication
b. Technical
c. Empathy
d. Boundaries
e. Active listening
f. Negotiation
g. Interpersonal
h. Interpretation
i. Channel
j. Feedback
Question 2
Complete
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the
problem.
Answer:
Question 3
Complete
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True or False: In naming files, provide simple and short names that could easily be understood by
everyone.
Answer:
true true
Question 4
Complete
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Answer:
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Complete
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around
Select one:
a. Concert
b. Seminar
false
c. Workshop
d. Conference
Question 6
Complete
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Answer covers quality, service and delivery of the goods or services from the vendor to the client.
Question 7
Complete
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task.
Select one:
a. Standard
b. Feedback
c. Values
value
d. Goal
Question 8
Complete
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from it. It
Select one:
a. Reflective Behavior
b. Safety Programs
c. Quality Control
Question 9
Complete
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organization
or company.
Answer:
Question 10
Complete
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Answer:
Question 8
Complete
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audience is
Select one:
true true
a. Channel
b. Interpersonal
c. Negotiation
d. Interpretation
e. Technical
f. Feedback
g. Active listening
h. Communication
i. Boundaries
j. Empathy
Question 9
Complete
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Select one:
a. Philippine Computer Society
b. Computer Society of the Philippines
c. Philippine Computer Society and VIP International Unite
d. Computer Society of the Philippines and Philippine Computer Society
e. Computer Society of the Philippines and VIP International Unite
f. VIP International Unite
g. All of the choices
h. None of the choices
Question 10
Complete
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Answer is considered a personal type of written communication and it includes postcards and written
letters.
`programmers.
Answer: true
Select one:
a. Feedback
b. Communication
handw
c. Technical
d. Interpretation
e. Empathy
f. Channel
g. Active listening
h. Boundaries
i. Negotiation
j. Interpersonal
Question 2
Complete
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True or False: Ice breaker activities can be related or not to the presentation.
Answer: true
around
Select one:
a. Seminar
b. Conference
c. Workshop
d. Concert
Question 2
Complete
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True or False: According to Hicks, the first step in an effective problem solving process is clearly defining
the
problem.
Answer:
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Complete
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explanation
true
Answer:
Question 4
Complete
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This is the method by which a message is conveyed, such as speaking, writing or gesturing.
Select one:
a. Negotiation
b. Interpersonal
c. Interpretation
d. Technical
e. Empathy
f. Boundaries
g. Communication
h. Channel
i. Active listening
j. Feedback
Question 5
Complete
false
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if they
Few programmers are complaining about slow Internet connection and this affects their work. This
cause is
categorized in Answer .

equipment
_________________ problem.
Question 6
Complete
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operation

____________________ skills.
Select one:
a. Technical
b. Business
d. Soft
Question 7
Complete
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True or False: You should also look at the problem from a different point of view and listen to others’
suggestion.
This is the third step – listing all possible solutions.
Answer:
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Complete
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false
Answer:
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Complete
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Answer: Informall oral communication may be done in a workplace and it takes different forms such as
telephone
conversations, face-to-face conversations and brainstorming.
Question 10
Complete
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True or False: Nowadays, teammates have no need for communications technology since they can just
interact
face to face.
Answer:
environmental
measures.
false false
Select one:
a. True
b. False
Question 3
Complete
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A printed progress report to be submitted to the adviser.
Answer:
Question 4
Complete
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the
Confidentiality
instrument
Select one:
a. Maintainability
b. Reliability
c. Compatibility
d. Usability
e. Security
f. Portability
Question 5
Complete
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In the 5S method, this stage refers to arranging items in a way that they are easy to find and pick up.
Select one:
a. Shitsuke
b. Seiton
c. Seiketsu
d. Seiri
Question 6
Complete
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performance.
Select one:
a. Seiso
b. Seiketsu
c. Shitsuke
d. Seiri
Question 7
Complete
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the
Accessibility
Select one:
a. Usability
b. Compatibility
c. Maintainability
d. Security
e. Reliability
f. Portability
Question 8
Complete
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The 5s method is based on the ____________________.
Select one:
a. Takoyaki Production System
b. Tonari Production System
c. Tatsumaki Production System
d. Toyota Production Sytem
Question 9
Complete
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target
market are identified.
Select one:
a. False
b. True
True or False: One of the ways to motivate teamwork in the workplace is to make sure that maintenance
is
conducted and planned for system enhancement.
Answer: false
bother
about the effects of one’s business to the environment.
Select one:
a. False
A: ergonomic
factors are concerned whether employees are comfortable, stressed or possibly be injured due to the
arrangement of things in the workplace.
True or False: Reviewing the related literature includes review of concepts, theories and previous
research
findings.
Answer: true
Enforcing environmental policies is one of the major causes of job loss and unemployment.
Select one:
a. True
b. False
True or False: To gather data, you can either conduct an interview, survey, observation, mail
questionnaire,
coding and tabulation.
Answer: false
Risks, which could harm the product’s quality, must be determined and managed well along with the
actions to
be taken.
Select one:
a. False
b. True
Collective bargaining refers to the bargain sale of previously used office equipment.
Select one:
a. False
b. True
The user interface design and layout has been completed.
Answer: milestone
the
Installability
Select one:
a. Maintainability
c. Reliability
d. Portability
f. Security
g. Usability
h. Compatibility
Question 3
Complete
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the
Interoperability
Select one:
a. Functional Suitability
b. Compatibility
c. Maintainability
d. Security
e. Reliability
f. Portability
g. Usability
Question 4
Complete
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the
Maturity
Select one:
a. Compatibility
b. Portability
c. Reliability
d. Performance Efficiency
e. Security
f. Functional Suitability
g. Usability
h. Maintainability
Question 5
Complete
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The Montreal protocol is designed to help protect the ozone layer.
Select one:
a. True
b. False
A: briefing
Qualitative research aims to gain insights on opinions, behaviors and attitude through Answer:
UNSTRUCTURED techniques.
Question 10
Complete
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the
Testability
Select one:
a. Maintainability
Conceptual research is usually carried out by and thinkers to come up with new concepts. Answer:
philosopher
True or False: Most of the readers will skim the conclusion first to get an idea of what the paper is all
about.
Answer:
Question 13
Complete
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Select one:
a. True
b. False
false
True or False: There are five main elements of a written report – topic, style, structure, facts and
contents.
Answer: false
emissions
of several countries.
Select one:
a. True
b. False
True or False: Dates in file names should be written in YYYY-MM-DD format. Asnwer: true
union, or any
local or national laws about it.
Select one:
a. True
b. False
Question 20
Complete

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Students ‘Grandparents
Answer: external
Started on Saturday, 6 January 2018, 9:51 PM
State Finished
Completed on Saturday, 6 January 2018, 10:13 PM
Grade 18.00 out of 20.00 (90%)
Question 1
Complete
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The minutes dated back December 3, 2016 is properly named.
Answer:
Question 2
Complete
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the

Recoverability
false
Select one:
a. Portability
b. Security
c. Usability
d. Compatibility
e. Maintainability
g. Functional Suitability
h. Reliability
Question 3
Complete
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The 5S Method is a Japanese perspective technique developed by EiichiroOda.
Select one:
a. False
b. True
Question 4
Complete
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The protection of the natural resources is possible through the collective efforts of each group in the
society.
Select one:
a. False
b. True
Question 5
Complete
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The minutes of the meeting for December 1, 2016 is appropriately named.
Answer:
Question 6
Complete
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True or False: A milestone refers to the scope and out of scope of a project. It is defined so that the
project is
implemented on time and on budget.
true
Answer:
Question 7
Complete

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Select one:
a. phasing out harmful substances
b. reducing greenhouse gas emissions
c. banning the use of perfumes
d. using locally produced products
Question 8
Complete
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True or False: Email, SMS and Gantt chart are samples of communication frequency that you could
utilize.
false
Answer:
Question 9
Complete
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of the
Identify whether Ricka’s role is accountable, responsible, consult or inform: Ricka should be notified that
the
project proposal has been approved.
Answer:
Question 10
Complete
false inform
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Select one:
a. Department of Wealth
b. Department of Health
c. Department of Sanitation
d. Department of Cleanliness
Question 11
Complete
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True or False: Organizational aims are different from the mission statement; they refer to the results an
organization is aspiring for.
Answer:
Question 12
Complete
true
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There were only two staff accountable and responsible for the overall changes of the document.
Answer:
Question 13
true
Complete
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During solution implementation, the problem solvers should be Answer: PROACTIVE to assure that the
problem
is being addressed properly.
Question 14
Complete
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ago. Some
decide

“XYZ is so cool! I tried to install it in my old computer and it still runs smoothly. Given that the
computer’s video
card is a bit faulty.“
Select one:
b. Reliability
c. Usability
d. Security
e. Maintainability
f. Portability
g. Compatibility
Question 15
Complete
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By conducting a research, you can help the society by contributing to the body of Answer .
Question 16
Complete
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know le
Environmental issues have no relation to the workplace.
Select one:
b. False
Question 17
Complete
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In a nutshell, a research is conducted by identifying a problem, identifies formulating a Answer ,
gathering and analyzing data, presenting the findings, and drawing a conclusion.
Question 18
Complete
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Business industries will not be affected by the environmental crisis.
Select one:
a. True
hypoth
b. False
Question 19
Complete
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True or False: Usually, the summary of the report is the first thing that’s being read.
Answer:
Question 20
Complete
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True or False: To present the results and findings of a research, you can use a bar graph, line graph or
pie chart.
Answer:
True or False: Seminar lectures, conference talks, presentations of reports and group meetings are
samples of
informal oral communication conducted in a workplace.
Answer: False
true true
These are developed by industries as a guide for establishments and business enterprises to conduct
their
operations in a way that prevents or reduces environmental harm.
Answer: Environmental codes of practice
be used
in a workplace.
Answer: true
be used
in a workplace.
Answer: false
Quantitative research, compared to qualitative research, uses measurable Answer to uncover patterns.
Protecting the environment and natural resources also means protecting stable employment.
Select one:
a. True
of the
Identify whether Ricka’s role is accountable, responsible, consult or inform: Ricka should assure that the
project
schedule is followed strictly.
Answer: responsible
Select one:
a. Seiso
data
b. Seiri
c. Shitsuke
d. Seiketsu
Humans rely on natural resources for survival.
Select one:
a. True
b. False
Question text
without giving
a care for the environment.
Select one:
a. True
b. False
the
Functional Appropriateness
ISO/IEC 25010:2011’s SQuaRE stands for System Quality Assurance and Requirements Evaluation. This
standard is
used in evaluating the quality of software.
Select one:
a. False
b. True
True or False: You can emphasize the key points in your report by stating them in the references and
conclusion.
Answer:
Question 19
Complete
Question text
ago. Some
decide
“One good thing I find with XYZ as when my laptop shuts down accidentally, my game score and status
can still be
recovered. No need to repeat a level.”

Select one:
b. Reliability
True or False: In an effective written communication, structure refers to the facts presented in the
paper.
Answer: false
environmental harm.
Select one:
b. False
Question 2
Complete
false
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Select one:
a. banning the use of pesticides
b. using imported products
c. reducing greenhouse gas emissions
d. phasing out harmful substances
Question 3
Complete
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the
Reusability
Select one:
a. Reliability
b. Portability
c. Usability
e. Compatibility
f. Maintainability
g. Security
Question 4
Complete
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the
Operability
Select one:
b. Security
c. Usability
d. Compatibility
e. Portability
f. Reliability
g. Maintainability
Question 5
Complete
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The project objectives file follows the standards of naming convention.
Answer: FALSE
Question 6
Complete
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Sometimes, people conduct research to earn Answer :respect from others.
Question 7
Complete
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Select one:
a. False
b. True
Question 8
Complete
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True or False: Researches are primarily conducted to solve a problem and to contribute the body of
knowledge in
a particular field.
Answer:
Question 9
Complete
true
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True or False: Protocols are set of standards rules which describes how something should be done and
different
companies have different protocols as well.
Answer:
Question 10
Complete
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Increase work productivity by arranging items in such a way that they are easy to find and pick up.
Select one:
a. False
b. True
Question 11
Complete
true
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the
Time behavior
Select one:
a. Portability
b. Reliability
c. Performance Efficiency
d. Maintainability
e. Compatibility
f. Security
g. Usability
Question 12
Complete
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Answer refers to the supplier’s / vendor’s capacity to conduct long term contractual obligations.
Question 13
Complete
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True or False: Statutory requirements are identified by the vendors or suppliers and they include value,
stability,
diversity and capacity.
Answer: FALSE
Question 14
Complete
stability
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can afford
alternative cleaner technology.
Select one:
a. False
b. True
Question 15
Complete
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Fundamental research covers generalization and formulation of Answer .
Question 16
Complete
theory
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True or False: Research findings are not applicable in developing government policies. Researchers
should be
purely academic.
Answer:
Question 17
Complete
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ISO 9001 international standard for quality’s core processes are divided into two (2) – product delivery
process
and support process.
Select one:
a. False
b. True
Question 18
Complete
false
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Answer research is concerned in solving a problem that the private organization or the society is facing.
Question 19
Complete
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Select one:
a. True
b. False
Question 20
Complete
applied
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If a researcher is conducting a Answer research, he / she has no control over variables.
____________________ is a means by which the employees, speaking through the unions they belong
to, can come
to an agreement with their employers about employment, environmental and other work-related
concerns.
ANSWER; Collective bargaining
unstructured
descrip
ago. Some
decide
improvements
– like additional characters and skills.”
Select one:
g. Maintainability
Research can be used to accurately represent the Answer: characteristics
of a particular individual or group, an event or a situation.
The cost / benefit analysis document is appropriately named.
Answer: false
Grade 9.00 out of 10.00 (90%)
Question 1
Complete
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This type of programming language uses series of 0s and 1s to represent data.
Select one:
a. Machine language
b. High-level language
d. Assembly language
Question 2
Complete
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PASCAL is an example of a low-level language.
Select one:
a. False
b. True
Question 3
Complete
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C# has features that are directly based on the Short Code.
Select one:
a. False
b. True
Question 4
1.00
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Arlan right clicked on his taskbar and unchecked the Lock Taskbar. What will happen if he drags his
taskbar to the
right side of his screen?
Select one:
a. Start button will be located at the bottom right.
c. All icons will transfer to the right.
d. None of the choices.
e. Taskbar will display vertically at the right.
Question 5
Complete
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Answer
charles
is the father of computer.
Question 6
Complete
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Something’s wrong with the serial port. Which port should I investigate?
Answer:
Question 7
Complete
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This refers to the process of using programming languages to instruct the computer to perform specific
tasks.
Select one:
a. Programming
b. Troubleshooting
c. Scanning
d. Debugging
Question 8
Complete
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Using the Answer
java
language, you can write windowed applications, build databases, as well as control
handheld devices.
Question 9
Complete
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Bridget’s mouse is not responding and she has to close her browser. Which of the following is an
alternative way
using a keyboard to close an application?
Select one:
a. Alt + F4
b. Ctrl + C
c. Esc + 1
d. Shift + X
Question 10
Complete
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COBOL is the programming language ideally used for _________________________ purposes.
Select one:
a. Business
b. Artificial intelligence
c. Systematic
d. Internet
Who is the first computer programmer?
Select one:
a. Lady Lovelace Ada Augusta
b. Sir Wilhelm Maximilian Wundt

c. Lady Agatha Russell
d. Sir KonradZuse
Question 3
Complete
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The earphones is an example of a _______________, while Internet Explorer is an example of

_______________.
Select one:
a. platform operating system
b. hardware, computer user
c. input device, output device
d. peripheral device, application program
Question 4
Complete
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Windows is to Personal Computer (PC) while Mac OSX is to Mac laptops and computers.
Select one:
a. True
b. False
FORTRAN was the first ever “modern” computer language.
Select one:
a. True
b. False
user.
Select one:
a. False
b. True
Question 1
Complete
out of 1.00
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Maria has two printers – Printer Z and Printer A. She set Printer Z as the default printer. What will
happen the
next time she prints a document?
Select one:
e. All of the choices. wrong
Which of the following statements is TRUE?
Select one:
a. Natural language can be used in programming.
b. Today’s programming languages are all limited in scope and application.
c. A programming language may have its own area of specialization.
d. Poorly constructed coding statements are acceptable.
Question 3
Complete
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The monitor suddenly turned black, which port should I check?
Answer:
Question 4
Complete
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If you are confused on what to do, press F2 on your keyboard and the Windows Help feature will open.
Select one:
a. True
b. False
user.
Select one:
a. True
b. False
computer programs
are actually a set of computer instructions that are developed using a programming language.
Ctrl + S is the shortcut key for Save while Ctrl + S + A is the shortcut key for Save As.
Select one:
a. False
b. True
Image files can be opened using MS Paint, Notedpad and Windows Photo Viewer.
Select one:
a. False
b. True
The mouse suddenly stopped working. Which port should I check?
Answer: b
Since natural languages are vaguely structured, they cannot be used for programming.
Select one:
a. False
b. True
C++, an extension of the C language, introduced object-oriented programming.
Select one:
a. True
b. False
I think I plugged the speakers wrong. The power is turned on but I can’t hear any sound Which port
should I
check?
Answer: f
Which of the following is not a default margin options when setting up the page for printing?
Select one:
a. Narrow
b. Wide
c. Normal
d. Regular
LISP and PROLOG are programming languages that are best used when dealing with Artificial
Intelligence.
Select one:
a. False
b. True
COBOL stands for Convenient Business Oriented Language.
Select one:
a. True
b. False
Question 1
Complete
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WRONG.
Student.StudentBirthday for a class property.
Select one:
a. Wrong
b. Correct
Question 2
Complete
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Answer
short c
was the first language implemented for BINAC.
Question 3
Complete
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We were playing games locally and I got disconnected. I think something’s wrong with this port.
Answer:
Question 4
Complete
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Refer to the image below to answer the following question. What type of image is shown?
Select one:
a. Program chart
b. Data flow
c. Control flow
d. Flow chart
Question 5
Complete
out of 1.00
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Answer: high-level language is a type of programming language that is composed of symbols and words
that
follow some rules similar to that of a natural language.

Refer to the image below to answer the following question. What happens when Limit is equal to 3?
Select one:
c. Program goes back to login page.
Question 7
Complete
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The set of rules that must be strictly followed when using a programming language is called
AnswerSYNTAX
Question 8
Complete
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Refer to the pseudocode below and answer the following question: What if the computed BMI equals to
10, what
will the program do?
Select one:
b. Print Underweight.
Question 9
Complete
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A deleted file or folder found in the Recycle Bin can still be restored.
Select one:
b. True
Question 10
Complete
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.MPEG, .MP3 and .MOV are filename extensions for videos.
Select one:
b. False
Question 11
Complete
lag question
Question text
Refer to the image below to answer the following question. What symbol is used to begin and end the
program?
b. Terminal
Question 12
Complete
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My headset is working but the microphone is not. Which port should I check?
Answer:
Question 13
Complete
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You will find running application programs and process in the Task Manager.
Select one:
b. True
Question 14
Complete
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Ana is working on a new project and she was asking for the program’s purpose, processes, algorithm,
restrictions
and some notes. According to the program development life cycle, in which phase is Ana working on?
Select one:
c. Analyze the Problem
Complete
Question text
The following are statements that describe milestones in the programming language.
I. FORTRAN, the first modern computer language, was developed.
II. Java was released by Sun Microsystems
III. C was developed based on some of B’s features.
IV. Ada Lovelace invented the first computer program for analytical engine application.
V. COBOL was created by the US Department of Defense
Which of the following shows the correct order of events?

Select one:
a. IV, I, V, III, II
Question 16
Complete
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Refer to the pseudocode below and answer the following question: If the calculated BMI results to 26,
what will
the program do?
Select one:
a. display Normal
b. display Overweight
c. display Obese
d. display Underweight
Question 17
Complete
out of 1.00
Question text
WRONG.
PresentAdress for a column name in the table “Student”.
b. Wrong
Question 18
Complete

WRONG.
Employees for a table name.
Select one:
a. Wrong
Question 19
Complete
Question text
Refer to the image below to answer the following question. What process is illustrated in the diagram?
Select one:
b. Social media login limit.
Question 20
Complete
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WRONG.
passingSCORE for a constant variable.
Select one:
a. Wrong
C# was released by Answer
micros
microsoft.
Question 2
Complete
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A Answer
progra
is the code or language that allows a user to instruct a computer to perform specific tasks.
Question 3
Complete
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Max is already writing the code for his project. In which phase of the PDLC is he working on?
Select one:
a. Testing and Debugging
b. Analyze the Problem
c. Documentation
d. Coding and Execution
Question 4
Complete
out of 1.00
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Refer to the image below to answer the following question. John tries to log in for the fourth time, what
does he
see on his screen?

Select one:
d. Password Reset Page
Question 5
Complete
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Who is considered as a user (component of an operating system)?
Select one:
a. Students
c. Programmer
e. IT Staff
Question 6
Complete
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Programs written in high-level languages are translated into machine-readable form using interpreters
or
compilers.
Select one:
a. False
b. True
Question 7
Complete
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Java is an example of
Select one:
c. High-level language
d. Advanced language
Question 8
Complete
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Refer to the image below to answer the following question. What happens every time the given
username and
password is incorrect?
Select one:
a. Limit is set to 0.
b. 1 is added to Limit.
c. 3 is set as the Limit.
d. Limit is set to 1.
Question 9
Complete

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Refer to the pseudocode below and answer the following question: The program calculated for the BMI
and it is
equal to 50, what will the program do?
Select one:
a. Display Underweight.
b. Nothing, it is above 30.
c. Loop the program.
d. Print Obese.
Question 10
Complete
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I found out that the keyboard is defective so I switched to the old keyboard which uses PS/2 port, where
should I
plug it in?
Answer:
Question 11
Complete
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He is known as the father of the Java programming language.
Select one:
a. Dennis Ritchie
b. BjarneStroustrup
c. J.W. Mauchly
d. James Gosling
Question 12
Complete
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Even when you close all running application programs, there are still process running in the background.
Select one:
a. True
b. False
Question 13
Complete
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Jet is writing the pseudocode for his program. Which phase of program development life cycle is he in?
Select one:
a. Documentation
b. Formalize the Solution
c. Design the Program

d. Test the Program
Question 14
Complete
out of 1.00
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WRONG.
studentAge for a variable name.
Select one:
b. Correct
Question 15
Complete
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Refer to the image below to answer the following question. What type of flowchart symbol contains the
text
“Limit >=3?”?
Select one:
a. Terminal
b. Decision
c. Flow lines
d. Connector
Question 16
Complete
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Jamie finished debugging her program. What is the next step she should do?
Select one:
a. Documentation
b. Design the Program
c. Test the Program
d. Formalize the Solution
Question 17
Complete
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WRONG.
limitIsReached for a Boolean variable.
Select one:
a. Wrong
b. Correct
Question 18
Complete
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Over time, man’s efforts to find better ways to communicate with computers resulted to the evolution
of
programming languages.
Select one:
a. True
b. False
Question 19
Complete
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WRONG.
CEILING_GRADE for a constant variable.
Select one:
a. Correct
Question 20
Complete
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Refer to the pseudocode below and answer the following question: What happens after weight is given?
b. ask for height
PROG111 - Programming (Java) NC II Part 1
LONG QUIZ4
emissions of several countries.
answer False
Q2.
target market are identified.
-True
Question 3
-False
Question 4
ISO/IEC 25010:2011’s product quality model has eight (8) major characteristics.
-True
Question 5
union, or any local or national laws about it.
- False
Question 6
without giving a care for the environment.
Select one:
a False
Question 7
Select one:
-Seiketsu
Question 8
Seiri is making work easier by reducing unnecessary items to deal with.
- True
Question 9
improvements – like additional characters and skills.”
Select one:
a. Compatibility
Question 10
Complete
bother about the effects of one’s business to the
environment.
Select one:
- False
Question 11
environmental measures.
Select one:
True
Question 12
can afford alternative cleaner technology.
Select one:
False
Question 13
Interoperability
-Compatibility
Question 14
Critical thinking skills is an essential skill which includes listening effectively, adapting communication
skills and understanding underlying issues.
Select one:
-False
Question 15
The 5S Method is a Japanese perspective technique developed by Eiichiro Oda.
b. False
Question 16
environmental harm.
-False
Question 17
Testability
ans. Maintainability
Question 18
Recoverability
Reliability
Question 19
Pre-review activities in the review process includes review planning, preparation and individual review.
Select one:
a. True
Question 20
performance.
-Shitsuke
Question 21
Accessibility
Usability
Question 22
“I find it really enjoying to play XYZ since I can invite my friends from social media profile. It works well
with this social media app!”
Select one:
ans.compatibility
Question 23
Select one:
ans. reducing greenhouse gas emissions
Question 24
ans. Department of Health
Question 25
ans. phasing out harmful substances
Question 26
ans. True
Question 28
Installability
ans.Portability
Question 27
Select one:
ans. True
The following are what programmers will learn through feedback, EXCEPT:
Select one:
a. That the system or program is easy to use and is user friendly
b. That the system or program is accurate and reliable. wrong
c. That the system or program is lacking in sponsors.
d. That the system or program is secured
____________________ standards create honest and healthy interactions in the workplace and
cultivate an atmosphere of respect,
trust and honesty among individuals in the company.

Select one:
a. Competency
b. Quality
c. Ethical
d. All of the choices wrong
Which of the following can be used to present ideas?
Select one:
b. PowerPoint
c. Handouts
d. Videos
True or False: A team refers only to a group of people who work in the same workplace and who see
each other on a regular
basis.
Answer: false
The file for the second version of risk management is properly named
Answer: true
explanation when you use technical terms.
Answer:
false
Feedback
Question 2
Correct
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This is a yearly activity that focuses on evaluating the employees’ work performance and productivity.
Select one:
a. Quality Control
b. Reflective Behavior
c. Safety Programs
Feedback
The correct answer is: Performance Appraisal
Question 3
Correct
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version of the document.
Answer:
true
Feedback
Question 4
Correct

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Select one:
a. Boundaries
b. Communication
c. Empathy
d. Interpretation
e. Feedback
f. Negotiation
g. Active listening
h. Channel
i. Interpersonal
j. Technical
Feedback
The correct answer is: Interpretation
Question 5
Correct
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operation and maintenance, and
troubleshooting computer systems are some examples of ____________________ skills.
Select one:
a. Business
b. Technical
d. Soft
Answer:
False
True or False: Treating employees as actual people and making them feel a sense of value make for a
stronger foundation of a
company.
Answer:
True
Question 2
Correct
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Select one:
a. Technical
b. Communication
c. Empathy
d. Interpersonal
e. Negotiation
f. Channel
g. Interpretation
h. Boundaries
i. Feedback
j. Active listening
Question 3
Incorrect
Flag question
Question text
____________________ standards create honest and healthy interactions in the workplace and
cultivate an atmosphere of respect,
trust and honesty among individuals in the company.
Select one:
a. Competency
b. Ethical
c. Quality
Question 4
Incorrect
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Select one:
a. Collecting office records
c. Conducting investigations
Question 5
Correct
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task.
Select one:
a. Goal
b. Standard
c. Values
d. Feedback
Select one:
c. Placing fire extinguishers within the workplace
Question 2
Correct
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Select one:
a. Conducting regular trainings to update company policies.
b. Involving all employees in the formulation and execution of company programs.
c. Creating a sense of equality by encouraging employees to voice out their opinions.
Question 3
Correct
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explanation when you use
technical terms.
Answer:
False
Question 4
Correct
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operation and maintenance, and
troubleshooting computer systems are some examples of ____________________ skills.
Select one:
a. Business
b. Technical

d. Soft
Question 5
Correct
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version of the document.
Answer:
TRUE
organization or company.
Answer:
True
Question 2
Correct
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Answer:
True
Question 3
Incorrect

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Answer
Memos
is considered a personal type of written communication and it includes postcards and written letters.
Question 4
Correct
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Select one:
a. Interpretation
b. Communication
c. Channel
d. Technical
e. Boundaries
f. Negotiation
g. Active listening
h. Feedback
i. Empathy
j. Interpersonal
Question 5
Correct

Flag question
Question text
The following are what programmers will learn through feedback, EXCEPT:
Select one:
a. That the system or program is lacking in sponsors.
b. That the system or program is secured
c. That the system or program is accurate and reliable.
d. That the system or program is easy to use and is user friendly
Answer:
True
Question 2
Correct
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Select one:
a. Channel
b. Negotiation
c. Interpersonal
d. Boundaries
e. Communication
f. Active listening
g. Interpretation
h. Technical
i. Empathy
j. Feedback
Question 3
Correct
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if they are considered
problems in Materials, Measurement, Method, People, Equipment or Environment.
When the programmers started writing the code, the customer/client keeps on changing and adding
more requirements. This cause is
under Answer
Method
Some of the programmers were not present during requirements gathering, this cause is classified as a
_________________ problem.
Question 4
Correct
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It is the process of conveying and receiving a message. It is the act by which messages are created and
shared.
Select one:
a. Interpretation
b. Feedback
c. Negotiation
d. Boundaries
e. Interpersonal
f. Communication
g. Channel
h. Empathy
i. Technical
j. Active listening
Question 5
Correct
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Select one:
a. Teammates
b. Colleagues
e. Superiors
Question text
Given that:
int x = -77;
int z = 43;
result = (z != 43) ? true : false;
Select one:
False
Question text
Select one:
False
Question text
Answer:
True
Question text
FALSE.
Answer:
TRUE
Question text
objects.
Answer:
False
Question text
There are no errors in the program.
Select one:
False
Question text
FALSE.
Answer: False
Question text
True or False: Many programmers can be literate with Java programming language for it is intended to
be that way.
Answer:
True
Question text
True or False: You’ll know there’s an error if you see a red circle with an exclamation point in Netbeans
IDE.
Answer:
True
Question text
Given that:
int x = -77;
int z = 43;
result = (x = 100) >= z;
Select one:
True
The file is accurately named – Students.java.
-false
There are three (3) separators found in line 13.
-FALSE
-True
result = 90 < x || -1 < z;
-True
-False
Assuming there are no errors in the code, line 13 would display When I graduate, I’d be 18.
-True
Figure 2 shows the Netbeans Integrated Development Environment.
-True
The last line of code will output 100.0.
-True
True or False: An exclamation point in Java means NOT. Therefore, != means not equal to.
-True
There are two types of comments used in the program above – end of line and Javadoc comments.
-True

-False
There are keywords found in line 7.
-True
In line 11, the value of personage is 18.
-TRUE
If there are no errors in the program, the first line of output would read Hi, I’m a normal person.
-False
result = (x * z + (z += 7)) >= 100;
-False
True or False: Logical OR operator will result to false if one of the expressions is false.
-False
True or False: Semicolon (;) is a separator used to end a Java statement.
-True
True or False: There are five types of integer data types – byte, short, int, long and float.
-False
True or False: Single equal sign (=) is used for assigning values while double equal sign (==) is used in
comparing values.
-True
True or False: Java’s ternary operator is a short hand for the if-then-else statement which uses a
question mark and a colon.
-True
True or False: JDK or Java Design Kit is required to compile and run Java apps and applets.
-True
On line 6, average is equal to 0. But on line 9, average will be equal to 100.
-False
True or False: Identifiers in Java are, in simple words, name that you give to Java class, variables and
methods.
-True
True or False: When you run javac in a command line interface, it will automatically create another file
with a filename extension .class.
-True
-FALSE
There are five (5) separators used in line 8.
-TRUE
There are no errors on line 8.
-FALSE
True or False: Syntax is basically the spelling and grammar errors compiled in a Java programming
language. It should be avoided in writing apps and
applets.
-False
objects.
-False
If you run this program, the second line of output will read Your score is:.
-True
True or False: Java is a low level programming language.
-False
There are also punctuators used in line 10, in between System, out and println, the parentheses and
semicolon.
-TRUE
If there are no errors and this simple program runs through CLI, the first line will display: Hi, students!
-False

-True
Substrings can contain 1 or 2 arguments.
-true
-bar
The index of the letter “y” in string “Doggy” is 5.
-False
-foo
TRUE OR FALSE: The value “val_3” is a white space “ “.
-False
True or False: Variable 1st_num is a good variable name in Java programming.
-False
TRUE OR FALSE: “val_2” contains “The”
-True
True or False: Instance variables are declared inside a method but outside a class.
-False
True or False: Variable names in Java are not necessarily case sensitive.
-False
Determine the output
-36
True or False: Public, private and protected are some of the return types used in Java programming.
-False
True or False: Divide and conquer strategy, in programming, is also known as the top-down design.
-True
If there are no errors in the program, line 9 would display I weigh 160.
-False
True or False: A boolean variable can only have two values; it is either true or false.
-True
result = !((x * 10) < z);
-False
result = -(-z) == 43;
-True
True or False: If you get an error while running the javac command in the CLI, it could be resolved by
editing the Path value in Environment Variables.
-True
True or False: The subtraction assignment operator subtracts the left and right operand and assigns the
difference to the operand at the right.
-False
x += x;
result = x == 154;
-False
The second line of output will be: You are in Year 11.
-True
True or False: The conditional AND operator uses two ampersand (&&) symbols.
-True
result = 43 <= z;
-True
True or False: You’ll know that a variable is a class variable when you see that variable inside a class with
the word static.
-True
The string method “length( )” returns the number of characters within a string.
-True
A string can contain numbers.
-True
TRUE OR FALSE: This is an example of concatenation.
-True
TRUE OR FALSE: The value of “val_4” is “fox”
-False
TRUE OR FALSE: “val_2” contains “The”.
-True
-f6
Languages which use procedural programming include C, (Answer) FORTRAN, Pascal and BASIC.
-C++
True or False: Local variables are declared inside the default method.
-False
Strings can be declared with str.
-False
True or False: Procedural programming involves instructing the system as to how to complete a task.
-True
TRUE OR FALSE: The output of this code is “The quick brown fox”
-False
Among the expressions below which is a statement?
-True
Expressions can be long and complex.
-true
number++; is an expression
-true
For-loops has a set number of iterations before starting.
-True
The equals( ) method can compare more than 2 arrays.
-False
While loops can use Booleans at test expressions.
-True
The test expression of the if statement is _______
-less than or equal to
There are four (4) major features of an object-oriented programming language – encapsulation,
inheritance, polymorphism and abstraction.
-True
Using a break; statement causes the loop to jump to the next iteration.
-False
x+1 is example of a statement.
-False
number++; is a block
-False
Arrays are
-Objects
The operator “new” allocates a memory block the size of what is declared.
-true
A class block can be an expression
-False
Statements can be expressions.

-False
Integer arrays can be populated with characters.
-False
Declaration clauses are declared as “number + 1”.
-False
Loops can be stopped with a break; statement.
-True
The equivalent of Paragraphs in coding is?
-Expressions
If statements cannot be nested in switches
-true
The length( ) method returns the size (number of indices) has.
-True
When polymorphism is used, the Java object can only take one form. Subclasses should have the same
function with the parent class.
-False
Arrays can contain (Answer) number of elements.
-Any
“||” and “&&” can be used in conditional statements.
-True
A class statement has three (3) major parts – declaration, initialization and instantiation.
-False
Declaring an object in Java uses the new keyword to create a new object.
-False
Please refer to Figure 2 to answer the question below: If the expression “num = 0” is changed to “num =
5” the final output will be
-5
Expressions can be statements.
-True
Blocks can contain more blocks of code.
-True
If-else statements can be nested in?
-All of the choices
Statements are equivalent to paragraphs.
-False
A (answer) array is an array containing true or false values.
-boolean
Switches are always used with if-else statements
-False
True or False: The modulus operator returns the remainder of a division operation instead of the
quotient.
-true
String val_1 = “564298”;
-5698
-4
The return value of the length( ) method is an integer
-true
A superclass is also known as a parent class.
-true
For-loops can be nested in while loops.
-true
In instantiating an object, the keyword instance is used.
-False
Object oriented programming utilizes the top down method
-False
Expressions are like clauses.
-true
The sort( ) method is always ascending.
-true
Arrays are data types.
-False
Variables must be declared as (Answer) for it to be fully hidden.
-private
While statements check the test expression at the end.
-False
The else statement can be used alone.
-False
The fill( ) method (Answer) the array with specific values.
-Fills
The output of println is
-55555
The person’s weight is declared correctly with the correct data type (byte) and value (160).
-FALSE

val_2 = val_1;
val_1 = val_3;
-bar
val_2 = val_1;
val_1 = val_3;
-foo
Switches can work properly even without the “break” expression.
-True
Blocks can be one liner or huge classes.
-True
The test expressions in conditional statements can be left empty.
-False
Abstraction works by hiding the implementation details and showing only the functions necessary.
-True
A single array can hold multiple data types
-False
A polymorphic object can pass more than one Is-a test.
-True
Another loop can be used as test expression.
-False
True or False: Public, static and void are sample of Java reserved keywords.
-True
The value of “pStr” in line 24 is
-True
The default syntax of a constructor is <class_name>(parameter, parameter){ }
-False
A nested class is not an inner class.
-False
Nested classes causes them to become abstracted
-False
A nested class is also called
-inner class
If you want some variables and methods hidden from other classes, you could implement encapsulation
where these variables and methods are
wrapped in a single unit.
-True
A constructor can only have 1-2 overloads or parameters.
-False
All possible data types of an array can be retuned as a string by the toString( ) method.
-True
Abstracted classes can contain 1 or more abstract methods.
-True
Abstraction shows the every bit of detail and implementation on how an application does something.
-False
Initialization is a process where the constructor is called for.
-True
The default syntax of a constructor is <class_name>( ){ }
-True
Classes cannot be nested.
-False
Abstract classes cannot have nested classes.
-False
The parent class of a nested class is called an outer class
-True
An inner class can be constructed directly without reference to the outer class.
-False
Arrays can be read backwards
-True
A single array can hold
-One data type
Abstracted methods already have implementations inside.
-False
are special methods to initialize objects.
-constructors
Constructors have 3 basic rules to follow.
-False
Nesting classes increases encapsulation.
-True
Each index can only contain (Answer) element.

-one
The sort( ) method can be set to sort only a part of an array.
-False
Subclasses or child classes could have different behaviors but still share the same functions from their
parent class.
-True
Abstract methods must have an explicit return value
-False
An abstract class must not contain abstract methods.
-False
Abstracted classes can be nested.
-True
A subclass constructor cannot invoke a superclass constructor.
-False
A class acquiring fields and methods of another class is called inheritance.
-True
Parallelsorting utilizes
-More cpu processing cores
method can copy one array to another.
-arraycopy()
Conditional test expressions can contain declarations
-True
A child class inherits all the methods of every other class.
-False
f the value of “pStr” in line 7 is changed to _______ then the value of “pStr” in line 24 will be changed as
well.
-True
The type of loop that checks the test expression at the end.
-do-while
An array of integers should be declared as
-int[]
A class which contains the abstract keyword in its declaration is known as an
-abstract class
Please refer to figure 1 to answer the question below: In figure 1 if(x==5) is
-skipped
The first line of the code should have either a yes or no value.
-False
-200
What does ‘new’ in int[ ] myArray = new int[n] do?
-Assigns memory for the array
is also known as a parent class.
-Super class
String val_1 = “foobar”;
String val_2 = “”;
-boar
Polymorphic objects can pass (answer) Is-a test.
-More than one

True or False: Traditional comments start with /** (forward slash and two asterisks) and ends with */
(asterisk and forward slash).
-False
True or False: Netbeans is one of the IDEs or Integrated Development Environment to run Java
programs.
-True
For-loops can check the test expression at the end.
-False
Polymorphism is the ability of a Java object to take
-Directly
Constructors can have
-any number
When the program runs, and assuming there are no errors, its first line will be begin printing.
-FALSE
Which of these is a proper decrement?
-x-10;
All are methods of the array class except
-substring()
The error in Figure 2 is
-“tralse”;
A constructor (answer) contain an explicit return type
-cannot
Abstracted methods need (answer) for implementations.
-sub-classes
Line 14 will yield an error. It will be corrected if you place */ after the method.
-FALSE
The name of a constructor must be (answer) as your class.
-same
The limit of dimensions an array can have without errors is
-255
This type of declaration is discouraged.
-String myArray[ ];
The following figure shows the Netbeans Integrated Development Environment.
-True
The equivalent of clauses in coding is?
-Expressions
Int num = 1; for(num=num;num<=10;num++) is an acceptable code snippet.
-true
Loop that has a pre-determined number of iterations
-while
An int can be used even if it is declared outside a for-loop.
-true
Overload methods must be the same name as the class
-true
What the break statement in this example does is ________.
-Ends the whole instance of the loop
The random( ) method sorts the array randomly.
-False
The last part in a for loop setup can be an ________.
- both
The “1” in arrayName[1] is called an ________.

-Index
The continue; statement ends all the iterations of a loop.
- False
Which is not a proper increment?
- n+-;
Infine for-loops can be declared as for( ){ }.
- False
If-if is more logical than else-if.
- False
The else statement can be removed if not needed.
-True
Expressions, Statements and Blocks are like composing sentences and paragraphs.
-True
You can declare a new method in the subclass which is not declared in the superclass.
-True
The return value of the equals( ) method is ________ .
-None of the choices
The Arrays.sort( ) method sorts an array into _________ order.
-Ascending
This type of declaration is discouraged: “int myArray[ ]”
- True
An if-else-if-else statement is a block.
-True
If the increment num=num+2 is changed to num++, the final value of num will be ________.
-5
The term of each pass through a loop makes is called?
-iteration
Loops must always have a continue or break statement.
-False
1+2+3/4*5 is an unambiguous expression
-False
Conditional statements can contain more conditional statements.
- True
int num = 1;
if(num==1 && num<=1){
body;
The conditional statement will _______.
- execute the body
byte( ][ ][ ) myArray; is an example of ________.
- An error
An array _______ hold objects.
- can
A reference variable can be reassigned to other objects provided that it is not declared ________.
- final
The test expression of conditional statement cannot contain _______
-!
Each pass through of a loop is called a cycle.
- True
If the increment “num = num + 2” is changed to “num = num + 1” the final output will be _______.
-0
Ifs and else-ifs test expressions return true or false.
- True
_______ classes increase the encapsulation of you methods and data.
- nesting
Constructed methods are initialized with 0 or null depending on the data type.
- true
The else statement catches whatever argument the if and else-if didn’t
- True
An iteration of a loop is equivalent to one pass through.
- true
38. If we change the initial value of num in line 6 to “num = 0”, the println output will be _______
-0
The else-if statement can be used alone.
- false
Abstract methods need sub-classes to contain their implementations.
-true
The method arraycopy( ) does what?
- Copies the contents of an array to a destination array.
An array can be infinitely long.
- False
A loop can contain no expressions or statements inside.
- true
Conditional statements are the same as declaration statements.
- False
You cannot use inherited methods directly in a child class.
- False
The equals( ) method compares 2 arrays.
- True
Method invocations are statements
- True
To implement encapsulation, you have to declare class variables with the private modifier.
- True
Inner class methods can be called by constructing the inner class.
- False
Encapsulated data are hidden from other classes.
- True
underlined one).
GIVEN: public int getArea
Answer: Method Name
Fill in the blanks with the correct answer.
Answer: val_1 + val_2
The filename of the Java file above is computesum.java.
Answer: False
underlined one).
GIVEN: int getArea
Answer: Return Type
Fill in the blank:

Answer: foo
Procedural programming will be tricky for applications.
Answer: small
Strings can directly concatenated to an int.
Answer: False
TRUE OR FALSE: The value of “val_3” is 3
Answer: FALSE
Fill in the blank:
Answer: barfoo
Answer: access modifier
TRUE OR FALSE: The assigned values of “val_1” & “val_2” are integers.
Answer: FALSE
Fill in the blank:
Answer: 200
True or False: A method could be declared without any parameters.
Answer: False
Fill in the blank:
Answer: foo
FALSE.
There are no errors in line 11.
Answer: TRUE

Answer: error
True or False: Non-procedural programming focuses on how a task is done rather than on what task
should be done.
Answer: False
Answer: class name
Answer: chocolate bar
True or False: If you are running a program through CLI, the class name and the file name should be
different.
Answer: False
Fill in the blank:
Answer: 6
The “indexOf( )” method returns the first instance of the specified character.
Answer: True
Please refer to figure 1 to answer the question below:
If we change the initial value of num in line 6 to “num = 0”, the println output will be
Answer: 0
Strings can readily accept int values.
Answer: True
True or False: Keywords are Java reserved words which are used as identifier for interface, constants
and constructs.
Answer: True
GIVEN: int noOfEmployee
Answer: local variable
True or False: After compiling a Java program through the CLI, run it using the java and press Enter.
Answer: True
Balls with worn-off fuzz becomes _________ that will eventually affect its flight and the player's control
on it.
Answer : very light
Refer to the program below. Read each statement carefully and write the output for each line specified.
Line 22 will display on the screen.
Answer: 1
True or False: Version control is done so that the latest version of a file is saved and the older ones are
archived or deleted.
Answer: false
some of the programmers were not present during requirements gathering, this cause is classified as
aAnswer
method x
problem.
Refer to the image below to answer the following question. What will happen if the username is
incorrect but the password
given is correct?
Answer : 3
NamingAnswer
conven
is accepted as a standard rule in naming files or records and must be done consistently on all
documents.
Which among the following advice does NOT help in establishing empathy in communication?
Select one:
a. Let the other person explain his/her point, but think only of what you are going to say next.
b. Do not take offense in differences in perspective and reactions.
c. Emphasize that you are open to whatever opinion the other person may have.
d. Be patient and match the pace of the other person when communicating.
Which one of the following statements is FALSE?
Select one:
a. Communication happens between two or more persons.
b. Communication involves talking and listening only.
c. Communication skills can be learned and improved.
d. Communication skills form a big part of academic performance and career
It is a skill which refers willingness to interpret the words and feelings of the source. It is characterized
by open-mindedness.
Answer : active listening
WRONG.
ContactNumber for a column name in the table “Student”.
Select one:
a. Wrong
b. Correct
Lizzy printed her reports in all the major subjects. She forgot if she has already printed her English
report. What can she do to
avoid printing it twice?
Select one:
a. Click on the printer icon and press Ctrl + L to show the list.
b. Press the Power button on the printer to restart.
c. Right click on the printer and choose See what’s printing.
d. Double click on the printer icon and choose Print list. X wrong
This is a multi-way branch statement.
Select one:
a. continue
b. label
c. switch
d. break
hoose the proper operator precedence when evaluating an expression using the number code below:
comparisons - 1
logical operations - 2
increment - 3
arithmetic operations - 4
Select one:
a. 2-1-4-3
b. 1-2-4-3
c. 3-4-1-2
d. 4-3-1-2
A process that involves recognizing and focusing on the important characteristics of a situation or object.
Select one:
a. encapsulation
b. inheritance
c. polymorphism
d. abstraction
How many reserved keywords are currently defined in the Java language?
Select one:
a. 51
b. 49
c. 48
d. 50
Which method is used to change the name of a thread?
Select one:
a. public String setName(String name)
b. public void setName(String name)
c. public String getName()
d. public void getName()
This is the model for Object-Oriented Inheritance.
Select one:
a. "sort of" relationship wrong
b. "is a kind of" relationship
c. "has a" relationship
d. "want to be" relationship
package is a collection of ---.
Select one:
a. both classes and interfaces
A process that involves recognizing and focusing on the important characteristics of a situation or object.
Select one:
b. abstraction
This type of operator is used to create an object.
Select one:
b. new
This statement is used inside the switch to terminate a statement sequence.

Select one:
c. break
Which of the following is NOT a looping statement?
Select one:
d. switch
This is the ability of the Java application to perform multiple tasks at the same time.
Select one:
a. multiprogramming
Choose the symbol based on the given key feature.
Logical ANDAnswer 1
&&
Logical OR Answer 2
||
Feedback
Question 5
Correct
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Question text
Choose the symbol based on the identified key feature.
byte Answer 1
8 bit
increment Answer 2
++
Shown in the picture below is the __________ stroke. (tennis)
Answer : backhand
DIRR – 112
GBIO – 121
CHEM - 112
(PARA SA STEM HEHEZ)
Critical facilities and lifelines are usually affected by a high magnitude hazard.
A: true
People in disaster affected areas do not suffer from psychological trauma after experiencing a
devastating calamitous event.
A: false
Disasters can cause death, diseases, destruction and displacement.
A: true
A disaster has occurred because a hazard hit an area without people and their assets.
A: false
Elements at risk can also be categorized into tangible and intangible. The intangibles include social
cohesion, community structure, and
cultural losses.
A: true
Physical risk factors can either lessen or aggravate one's vulnerability to hazards, for example the level
of strength of a building and the
presence or absence of fire exits in the case of an earthquake.
A: true
Disasters can set back years of development efforts of a country.
A: true
Disaster risk reduction aims to reduce the damages and loss caused by hazards. One of the key risk
reduction measures is to reduce
exposure to hazards.
A: true
Hazards have different adverse impacts on the elements at risk in an urban and rural setting.
A: true
The elements at risk are hazard-specific. Who and what can be damaged depends on the hazards as well
as the characteristics of the
area.
A: true
Hazards and disasters are one and the same.
A: false
Exposure is one of the key determinants of disaster risk.
A: true
The Philippines and its cities are not among countries and cities with significant population and
economic exposure to typhoons,
earthquakes, tsunamis, storm surges, volcanoes, and landslides, according to recent studies by risk
analysis firm Verisk Maplecroft.
A: false
People living in poor developing countries have more vulnerabilities than those living in developed
countries.
A: true
Philippines is one of top three countries with regards to being at-risk to hit by hazards.
A: true
Gender and age are risk factors that make recovery more difficult.
A: true
Disaster cause problems and hardships to population and communities.
A: true
The Philippine Disaster Risk Reduction and Management Act of 2010 defines exposure as "the degree to
which the elements at risk are
likely to experience hazard events of different magnitudes".
A: true
Aside from physical exposure, livelihoods and economic assets can be considered in measuring exposure
of the elements at risk.
A: true
The focus of the .... science perspective in analyzing disaster is what damage and loss it could cause to
physical aspects such as people
and their properties and assets; public and private buildings and infrastructures.
A: physical/natural
People l iving in .... are constantly endangered to tsunami, storm surges and sea level rise.
A:coastline/coastal areas
The following should be done after an earthquake except
A: Don't use matches, candles, or any flame. Broken gas lines and fire don't mix.
All submarine earthquakes can cause tsunamis.
A: false
If you experience the signs of impending tsunami, the best action to take is
A: immediately leave the low-lying coastal areas and move to higher ground
A process where particles of loosely consolidated and water-saturated deposits of sand are rearranged
into more compact state, squeezing
water and sediments towards the surface in the form of sand fountain and creating a condition
resembling to a "quick sand" is called
A: liquefaction
Landslides and liquefaction due to ground shaking brought about by an earthquake are considered
A: secondary effects
In interpreting earthquake hazard maps, the color code for high risk areas is
A: red
Ground rupture which is the surface expression of an earthquake choices magnitude 5.5-6.0 is known as
A: primary effect of earthquakes
Fires, spills of hazardous chemicals and flooding are considered as
A: collateral effects
The deformation on the ground that marks the intersection of the fault plane with the earth's surface is
known as
A: ground rupture
The color code for no risk areas is
A: white
A phenomenon which produce giant sea waves generated mostly by vertical displacement of the ocean
floor associated with a strong and
shallow submarine earthquake is called
A: tsunami
The intense vibration of the ground is known as
A: ground shaking
There is impending tsunami if
After an earthquake, always be prepared for aftershocks.
A: true
The Dock, Cover and Hold is a "must do" after an earthquake.
A: false
The color code for medium risk areas is
A: orange
The color code for low risk areas is
A: yellow
Armed conflicts and wars are natural hazards.
A: false
Water supplies, electricity and transportation can be severely affected by strong typhoons with strong
winds.
A: true
_____________is a phenomenon, which produce giant sea waves generated mostly by vertical
displacement of the ocean floor associated
with a strong and shallow submarine earthquake.
A: tsunami
Psychological trauma is not good for overall well-being of a person.
A: true
Displacement and living in an evacuation center cause problems and hardships to population and
communities.
A: true
Understanding of vulnerability and capacity can be best done through

_________________________________.
A: vulnerability and capacity assessment
Susceptibility, ___________, fragility are other terms for vulnerability
A: weakness
Elements at risk include people, properties, livelihood, location, etc. .
A: true
Disaster risk and hazards are not the same.
A: true
Exposure elements, exposed elements, or vulnerable elements are other terms used to refer to the
elements at risk.
A: true
_______________ is a process where particles of loosely consolidated and water-saturated deposits of

sand are rearranged into more
compact state, squeezing water and sediments towards the surface in the form of sand fountain and
creating a condition resembling to a
"quick sand".
A: liquefaction
Savings: good governance: and, life-saving skills are examples of __________
A: capacity
Environmental pollution is purely a human made hazard.
A: false
Examples of measures to increase capacity and reduce vulnerability.
A: a, b and c
Hazards have different adverse impacts on the elements at risk in an urban and rural setting.
A: true
____________refers to the intense vibration of the ground.
A: earthquake
Women: poor people: and, people with disability are usually included in marginalized and most
___________groups.
A: vulnerable
Complex web of interlinked conditions which include physical, social, economic, environmental factors.
A: vulnerability
Hazard is not a dangerous event or substance.
A: false
Critical facilities and lifelines are more likely to be affected by a high magnitude hazard.
A: true
Death, destruction, diseases and displacement are associated to disasters.
A: true
Develop a family ______ consisting of where to meet your family after an earthquake.
A: plan
After an earthquake check yourself and others for injuries: provide first aid for anyone who needs it:
and, turn on the _________ and listen
for news.
A: radio
Categorization of factors for capacities and vulnerabilities.
Hazard and risk are interrelated but not the same.
A: true
Houses that are built according to good design and construction principles have a better chance to
withstand the onslaught of a strong
earthquake than those that are poorly constructed.
A: true
Examples of measures to increase ____________and reduce vulnerability include training and

education: sustainable livelihood: and,
adequate food supply.
A: capacity
Who and what elements at risk can be damaged depends on the hazards and the characteristics of the
area or location.
A: true
__________condition is a factor, which make people and their property more vulnerable.
A: unsafe
The development efforts of a country is affected by a disaster because the money intended for
development may be diverted to more
pressing relief efforts.
A: true
When a hazard strikes a vulnerable people, with very low capacity, living in an unsafe location, disaster
may occur and recovery may take
more time.
A: true
Some ______________tools for capacity and vulnerability assessment include resources mapping:
community watching: transect walk:
livelihood and coping analysis.
A: Participatory
_____________________refers to the deformation on the ground that marks the intersection of the
fault plane with the earth's surface.
A: ground rupture
While other elements at risk can be affected by hazards, people are not because they can escape.
A: false
Philippines is in the top three most disaster-prone countries of the world.
A: true
Don't use __________ during an earthquake, as they'll probably get stuck anyway.
A: elevators
The concept which explains why given a level of exposure to the hazard, some people or sectors in the
community or society are more at
risk or less at risk.
A: vulnerability
Some participatory tools for capacity and vulnerability assessment include.
A: a, b and c
Earthquake is natural hazards resulting from geological processes.
A: true
Exposure is the degree to which the elements at risk are likely to experience hazard events of different
magnitudes.
A: true
Gender and very young and very old age are considered risk factors.
A: true
A good attitude and mental health are factors in good decision making, particularly during emergencies.
A: true
Fire is an example of a natural hazard.
A: false
Usually included in marginalized and most vulnerable groups.
A: a, b and c
Social cohesion, community structure, and cultural losses are some kinds of intangibles elements at risk.
A: true
Examples of capacities.
A: a, b and d
Understanding of vulnerability and capacity can be best done through ... and ... .
There is impending _________if there is severe ground shaking: if seawater recedes from the coast: and,
if there is a loud "roaring" sound
similar to that of a train or jet aircraft.
A: tsunami
Some factors which make people and their property vulnerable.
A: a, b and c
Typhoon Haiyan is an example of a hazard that became a disaster because of the extent of damages it
wrought in the Visayas Islands.
A: true
Other terms for vulnerability.
A: Susceptibility, weakness, fragility
Ash fall rarely endangers human lives, but it can have devastating effects on the things that people rely
upon from day to day living.
A: false
The two indicators for an impending tsunami.
A: there is severe ground shaking; if seawater recedes from the coast Or, if there is a loud "roaring"
sound similar to that of a train or jet
aircraft.
Hazards can be classified according to origin, which could be from nature, from man's activity or a
combination of both.
A: true
Lava flows are streams of molten rock that pour or ooze from an erupting vent.
A: true
During volcanic eruption, check for injured and trapped persons near the slide, without entering the
direct slide area. Direct rescuers to their
locations.
A: false
People living near volcanoes may not detect premonitory events before and eruption.
A: false
Fire is an example of a human-sourced hazard.
A: true
People, properties and location are examples of elements at risk.
A: true
Increase in the frequency of volcanic quakes with rumbling sounds and occurrence of volcanic tremors
are signs of impending volcanic
eruption.
A: true
Knowing the ways of protecting the school from ash fall, landslides and debris ?ows by consulting your
local disaster coordinating council
must be done before a volcano erupts.
A: true
There is impending tsunami if
Provinces that are at risk to tsunami.
A: Sulu/Tawi-tawi/Basilan/Batanes
Hazard of high magnitude should always be welcome by children because there will be no class.
A: false
The legend in the map tells you what different colors and signs mean in the map. It works as a decoder
of the data presented in the map.
A: true
The three things that should be done after an earthquake.
A: Check yourself and others for injuries; Provide first aid for anyone who needs it; Turn on the radio and
listen for news/Use the phone to
connect to family.
Both ash fall and pyroclastic flows can destroy agricultural lands.
A: true
During volcanic eruption, less priority if given for evacuation outside the area of ash shower to
pupils/students with breathing problems.
They should be advised to cover their nose, preferably with a wet piece of cloth.
A: false
The GPS coordinates are a unique identifier of a precise geographic location on the earth, usually
expressed in alphanumeric characters.
A: true
The earthquake that hit Bohol some years back cannot be an example of a disaster because the extent
of damages it wrought in the Bohol
island is negligible.
A: false
Most volcanoes provide various type of warnings before eruptions begin.

A: true
During a volcanic eruption, follow the instructions that go with the warning. If there is a directive to
evacuate, do so immediately.
A: true
Closing windows and doors to reduce entry of ash if heavy ash fall is expected to hit the community
must be done during a volcanic
eruption.
A: false
The Marawi armed political conflict is an example of a natural hazard.
A: false
Ballistic projectiles are rocks that an erupting volcano may hurl into the air.
A: true
Do not "Dock, Cover and Hold " during an earthquake, just stand and wait for news.
A: false
In assessing disaster risk, the formula used is DR=HEV, where DR stand for Development Research, H for
Hazard, E for Exposure and V
for Vulnerability.
A: false
Do not panic and be sensitive to the possibility of aftershocks, after an earthquake.
A: true
The following should be done during an earthquake except
A: Anchor heavy furniture, cupboards, and appliances to the walls or floor
Environmental pollution is detrimental to health.
A: true
The following should be done before an earthquake except
A: Don't use matches, candles, or any flame. Broken gas lines and fire don't mi
Volcano hazard maps illustrate potential for ground-based volcanic impacts-lava flows, pyroclastic flows,
ash fall, volcanic gases, and more
far-reaching hazards (such as lahars) in valleys that drain the volcano.
A: true
Example of geological hazard. EARTHQUAKE
Example of combination of human made and natural hazards. FLOODING
Example of human made hazard . FIRE
Shows the dangerous areas. HAZARD MAPS
Very high risk. RED COLOR SIGNIFIES
No risk. WHITE COLOR SIGNIFIES
Big sea waves. TSUNAMI
High risk province. SULU
During an earthquake. “Dock, cover and hold”
agency that deals with volcanoes. PHIVOLCS
Hazard maps are used to help understand the areas that may be affected by specific volcanic eruption
phenomena.
A: true
During and after an emergency, you should not think only of yourself, you should provide first aid for
anyone who needs it, if you are
capable.
A: true
In interpreting a hazard map, look for the title, which is located at the bottom portion of the geological
map. It is important because it tells
you right away what kind of hazard map it represents or the area where the map is based.
A: false
Earthquake is a human sourced hazard resulting from geological processes.
A: false
Elements at risk, particularly people can be affected by hazards, but they can manage even without
disaster preparedness.
A: false
Volcanic ash does not consist of fragments of pulverized rock, minerals, and volcanic glass created
during volcanic eruptions and
measuring less than 2 mm in diameter.
A: false
The three things that should be done before an earthquake.
A: Learn first aid; Learn how to turn off the gas, water, and electricity in your home; Make up a plan of
where to meet your family after an
earthquake
Pyroclastic flows contain a high-density mix of hot lava blocks, pumice, ash and volcanic gas.
A: true
The three things that should be done during an earthquake.
A: Do not panic; Fix heavy furniture, cupboards, and appliances to the walls or floor; If you're in a car,
stop driving until the earthquake
stops/Don't use elevators
Water supplies, electricity and transportation are not always protected and therefore can be affected by
strong typhoons with strong winds.
A: true
Hazard Maps show the places in the country which are at risk to the following:
A: earthquake;tsunami Or, landslides
In assessing disaster risk, the framework used is DR=HEV, where DR stand for disaster risk, H for Hazard,
E for Exposure and V for
Vulnerability.
A:
In assessing risk, the framework used is R=HEV, where R stand for risk, H for Health, E for Evacuation and
V for Vulnerability.
A: Vulnerability and Capacity Assessment
Typhoon Haiyan cannot be an example of a disaster because the extent of damages it wrought in the
Visayas Islands is negligible.
A: false
In interpreting earthquake hazard maps, the color code for no risk areas is:
A: white
Understanding of vulnerability and capacity can be best done through.
On November 8, 2013, Super Typhoon ______ cut a devastating path across the Central Philippines
(Visayas).
A: Haiyan(or Yolanda)
_____is a very important tool. It shows what places in the country, which are at risk to earthquakes.
A: map
If you experience the signs of impending tsunami, the best action to take is:
A: immediately leave the low-lying coastal areas and move to higher ground
Exposure is not one among the key determinants of disaster risk.
A: false
Be careful around broken glass and debris. Wear boots or sturdy shoes to keep from cutting your feet.
A: true
A disaster will surely not occur when a hazard hit an area with vulnerable people and assets.
A: false
Communities with many vulnerabilities and low capacities are susceptible to experience __________.
A: disasters
People living in rich developed countries have more vulnerabilities than those living in poor developing
countries.
A: false
Developmental perspective considers disasters as a challenge to ___________ as they negate years of

hard earned advances in
education, health, social and economic areas.
A: development
For locally-generated tsunamis, where you might feel the ground shake, you may only have a few
minutes to move to higher ground.
A: true
E for Exposure and V for
Vulnerability.
A: true
_____shows the places in the country which are at risk to tsunamis
A: map
Categorization of factors for capacities and vulnerabilities could include:
Elements at risk, particularly people can be affected by hazards, thus disaster preparedness is important.
A: true
When water lines are broken, so there is no _____ to extinguish the fire.
A: water
of strength of an office and the
presence or absence of emergency exits in the case of an earthquake.|
A: true
People live within or close to volcano danger zones, are to be affected by _____ flow and ash fall.
A: (lava)
Livelihoods and economic assets can be considered in measuring exposure of the elements at risk.
A: true
Hazard and risk are not interrelated at all.
A: false
Hazards always have similar adverse impacts on the elements at risk in an urban and rural setting.
A: false
The intangibles elements at risk include social cohesion, community structure, and cultural losses.
A: true
Earthquake is human sourced hazards resulting from political processes.
A:false
Landslide and is a potential __________ hazard.
A: earthquake
Landslides and liquefaction due to ground shaking brought about by an earthquake are considered:
A: secondary effects;
Tsunami is a potential ________ hazard.
A: earthquake
The province/s that are at risk to tsunamis include.
Elements at risk do not include people, properties and location.
A: false
Disasters do not cause death, diseases, destruction and displacement.
A: false
An earthquake may be classified as either tectonic or volcanic.
A: true
________as it is, is not a disaster, but can cause massive and complex disasters.
A: hazard
Disaster do not cause problems and hardships to population and communities.
A: false
Other potential earthquake hazards include:
In interpreting earthquake hazard maps,
A: red
In interpreting earthquake hazard maps.
A: red - wrong
Hazard Maps show the places in the country which are at risk to
___________ refers to the intense vibration of the ground.
A: ground shaking
__________ earthquakes are those induced by rising lava or magma beneath an active volcano.
A: volcanic
People living in the __________ slopes are defenseless in the face of landslides.
A: mountain
shallow submarine earthquake is called:
A: tsunami
Responsible people should check water, gas, and electric lines for damage.
A: true
The focus of the natural science perspective in analyzing disaster is what _______and loss it could cause
to physical aspects such as
people and their properties and assets: public and private buildings and infrastructures.
A: damage
A: false
Understanding of vulnerability and capacity can be done through.
The following should be done after an earthquake except:
A: Use the phone to connect to face book
During an earthquake, the following should NOT be done except:
A: If you're in a car, continue to drive until the earthquake stops,
During and after an emergency, if you're at school or work, _______ the emergency plan or the
instructions of the person in charge.
A: follow
Lahars are a specific kind of mudflow made up of volcanic debris.
A: true
Started on Thursday, 11 January 2018, 11:27 AM
State Finished
Completed on Thursday, 11 January 2018, 11:32 AM
Grade 50.00 out of 50.00 (100%)
Question 1
Complete
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Select one:
a. Tawi-tawi
c. Batanes
e. Sulu
f. Basilan
Question 2
Complete
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Select one:
a. all of the choices
b. landslide
c. ground subsidence
d. tsunami
Question 3
Complete

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During and after an emergency, you should think only of yourself and should not provide first aid for
anyone who needs it.
Select one:
True
False
Question 4
Complete
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Select one:
a. people with disability
b. women
c. poor
Question 5
Complete
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Gender and age are considered risk factors.
Select one:
True
False
Question 6
Complete
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Other terms for vulnerability:
Select one:
a. Susceptibility, weakness, fragility
b. weakness, constraints, capacity
c. issues, problem, capacity
d. challenges, problem, opportunity
Question 7
Complete
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There are people in disaster affected areas who are more prone to suffer from psychological trauma
after experiencing devastating calamities.
Select one:
True
False
Question 8
Complete
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People living within or near a _____ line, are more susceptible to be overwhelmed by an earthquake
hazard.
Select one:
a. defect
b. mistake
c. fault
d. imperfection
Question 9
Complete
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Select one:
a. water
b. spray
c. none of the given choices are correct
d. splash
Question 10
Complete
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When an earthquake breaks a dam or levee along a river, the water from the river or the reservoir
floods the area and may damage buildings
and drown people.
Select one:
True
False
Question 11
Complete
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Tectonic Hazards and disasters are not the same.
Select one:
True
False
Question 12
Complete
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After an earthquake, just relax and do not think of aftershocks.
Select one:
True
False
Question 13
Complete

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Select one:
True
False
Question 14
Complete
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which the elements at risk are likely to
experience hazard events of different magnitudes".
Select one:
True
False
Question 15
Complete
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Select one:
True
False
Question 16
Complete
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There is impending tsunami if:
Select one:
b. if there is a loud "roaring" sound similar to that of a train or jet aircraft
c. there is severe ground shaking;
d. if seawater recedes from the coast;
Question 17
Complete
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countries.
Select one:
True
False
Question 18
Complete
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known as:
Select one:
a. Both
b. ground deformation
c. ground rupture
Question 19
Complete
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Philippines is not one of the disaster-prone countries of the world.
Select one:
True
False
Question 20
Complete
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After an earthquake, you should Check yourself and others for injuries.
Select one:
True
False
Question 21
Complete
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Select one:
a. map
b. chart
c. survey
d. plan
Question 22
Complete
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Select one:
True
False
Question 23
Complete
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Select one:
a. orange is the color code for high risk areas
b. white
c. red
d. yellow
Question 24
Complete
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If you smell gas after an emergency, close all the windows and doors and sleep soundly.
Select one:
True
False
Question 25
Complete
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capacity.
Select one:
True
False
Question 26
Complete

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The Philippines and its cities are one of the countries and cities with significant population and economic
exposure to typhoons, earthquakes,
tsunamis, storm surges, volcanoes, and landslides, according to recent studies by risk analysis firm Verisk
Maplecroft.
Select one:
True
False
Question 27
Complete
Flag question
Question text
Select one:
a. map
b. chart
c. plan
d. surve
Question 28
Complete
Flag question
Question text
Disasters do not have an effect to the development efforts of a country.

Select one:
True
False
Question 29
Complete
Flag question
Question text
Select one:
True
False
Question 30
Complete
Flag question
Question text
Select one:
True
False
Question 31
Complete
Flag question
Question text
of strength of an office and the presence
or absence of emergency exits in the case of an earthquake.
Select one:
True
False
Question 32
Complete
Flag question
Question text
Critical facilities and lifelines are not affected at all by a high magnitude hazard.
Select one:
True
False
Question 33
Complete
Flag question
Question text
Select one:
b. reading
c. research
d. vulnerability and capacity assessment
Question 34
Complete
Flag question
Question text
Fires, spills of hazardous chemicals and flooding are considered as:
Select one:
a. secondary effects
b. primary effect of earthquakes
c. collateral effects
Question 35
Complete
Flag question
Question text
If you are at the beach or near the ocean and you feel the earth shake, move immediately to higher
ground.
Select one:
True
False
Question 36
Complete
Flag question
Question text
Select one:
a. white
b. yellow
c. orange
d. red
Question 37
Complete
Flag question
Question text
Select one:
a. all of the choice
b. secondary effects;
c. primary effect of earthquakes;
Question 38
Complete
Flag question
Question text
Select one:
a. life-saving skills
b. savings
c. good governance
Question 39
Complete
Flag question
Question text
Select one:
a. prominence
b. height
c. range
d. mountain
Question 40
Complete
Flag question
Question text
Select one:
True
False
Question 41
Complete
Flag question
Question text
The following should be done before an earthquake:
Select one:
a. make up a plan of where to meet your family after an earthquake
c. learn first aid
d. learn how to turn off the gas, water, and electricity in your home
Question 42
Complete
Flag question
Question text
Select one:
a. Use the phone to connect to face book
b. Turn on the radio and listen for news
c. Check yourself and others for injuries
d. Provide first aid for anyone who needs it
Question 43
Complete
Flag question
Question text
Select one:
a. Don't use elevators (they'll probably get stuck anyway).
b. panic, if you're indoor, and run, If you're outside
c. If you're in a car, continue to drive until the earthquake stops,
d. Fix heavy furniture, cupboards, and appliances to the walls or floor,
Question 44
Complete
Flag question
Question text
Rich people don't usually have savings, much so insurance.
Select one:
True
False
Question 45
Complete
Flag question
Question text
_________ earthquakes are caused by sudden displacements along fault lines in the solid and rigid layer
of the earth's surface.
Select one:
a. formative
b. architectural
c. constructural
d. tectonic
Question 46
Complete
Flag question
Question text
Ground subsidence is a potential ___________ hazard.
Select one:
a. earthquake
b. tsunami
c. flash flood
d. none of the given choices are correct
Question 47
Complete
Flag question
Question text
________ can be assessed and quantified as low, medium and high.
Select one:
a. problem
b. danger
c. risks
d. accident
Question 48
Complete
Flag question
Question text
Select one:
a. orange is the color code for medium risk areas
b. red
c. white
d. yellow
Question 49
Complete
Flag question
Question text
One of the key risk reduction measures is to reduce exposure to hazards.
Select one:
True
False
Question 50
Complete
Flag question
Question text
Select one:
a. copy
b. follow
c. stalk
d. observe
State Finished
Grade 50.00 out of 50.00 (100%)
Question 1
Complete
Flag question
Question text
to physical aspects such as people and
their properties and assets: public and private buildings and infrastructures.
Select one:
a. impairment
b. harmful
c. destruction
d. damage
Question 2
Complete
Flag question
Question text
The following hazards are potential earthquake hazards:
Select one:
a. liquefaction
b. ground rupture
c. ground shaking
Question 3
Complete
Flag question
Question text
Psychological perspective is concerned about the negative consequences of disaster to ________ health,
particularly the Post Traumatic Stress
Disorder.
Select one:
a. intellectual
b. mental
c. brain
d. cognitive
Question 4
Complete
Flag question
Question text
Ground subsidence is a potential ___________ hazard.

Select one:
a. tsunami
b. flash flood
c. none of the given choices are correct
d. earthquake
Question 5
Complete
Flag question
Question text
Select one:
a. reading
c. vulnerability and capacity assessment
d. research
Question 6
Complete
Flag question
Question text
E for Exposure and V for Vulnerability.
Select one:
True
False
Question 7
Complete
Flag question
Question text
Select one:
a. poor construction design
c. poverty
d. unsafe locations
Question 8
Complete
Flag question
Question text
Tectonic Hazards and disasters are not the same.
Select one:
True
False
Question 9
Complete
Flag question
Question text
If you are at the beach or near the ocean and you feel the earth shake, move immediately to higher
ground.
Select one:
True
False
Question 10
Complete
Flag question
Question text
Gender and age are considered risk factors.
Select one:
True
False
Question 11
Complete
Flag question
Question text
The elements at risk are not hazard-specific. Who and what can be damaged depends not on the
hazards and the characteristics of the area.
Select one:
True
False
Question 12
Complete
Flag question
Question text
Select one:
a. mountain
b. prominence
c. height
d. range
Question 13
Complete
Flag question
Question text
Select one:
a. livelihood and coping analysis
b. community watching (transect walk)
c. resources mapping
Question 14
Complete
Flag question
Question text
Select one:
a. earthquake
b. none of the given choices are correct
c. flash flood
d. tsunami
Question 15
Complete
Flag question
Question text
Select one:
True
False
Question 16
Complete
Flag question
Question text
Select one:
True
False
Question 17
Complete
Flag question
Question text
Select one:
a. women
b. people with disability
c. poor
Question 18
Complete
Flag question
Question text
There are people in disaster affected areas who are more prone to suffer from psychological trauma
after experiencing devastating calamities.
Select one:
True
False
Question 19
Complete
Flag question
Question text
Select one:
a. follow
b. copy
c. stalk
d. observe
Question 20
Complete
Flag question
Question text
After an earthquake, you should Check yourself and others for injuries.
Select one:
True
False
Question 21
Complete
Flag question
Question text
After an earthquake, just relax and do not think of aftershocks.
Select one:
True
False
Question 22
Complete
Flag question
Question text
In interpreting earthquake hazard maps, the color code for low risk areas is:
Select one:
a. yellow
b. orange
c. white
d. red
Question 23
Complete
Flag question
Question text
One of the key risk reduction measures is to reduce exposure to hazards.
Select one:
True
False
Question 24
Complete
Flag question
Question text

hard earned advances in education,
health, social and economic areas.
Select one:
a. development
b. growth
c. enlargement
d. evolution
Question 25
Complete
Flag question
Question text
Other terms for vulnerability:
Select one:
a. challenges, problem, opportunity
b. Susceptibility, weakness, fragility
c. weakness, constraints, capacity
d. issues, problem, capacity
Question 26
Complete
Flag question
Question text
Ground rupture which is the surface expression of an earthquake above magnitude 5.5-6.0 is known as:
Select one:

b. primary effect of earthquakes
c. secondary effects
Question 27
Complete
Flag question
Question text
Select one:
True
False
Question 28
Complete
Flag question
Question text
Select one:
b. physical, economic, environmental
c. social, infrastructure, institutional
d. physical, social, motivational
Question 29
Complete

Flag question
Question text
__________ is the government agency that monitors the coming and going of typhoons and tropical
depression
Select one:
a. NASA
b. PHILVOLCS
c. PAGASA
d. None of the given choices are correct
Question 30
Complete
Flag question
Question text
(Visayas).
Select one:
a. Rosing
b. Ondoy
c. Juan
d. Haiyan(or Yolanda)
Question 31
Complete
Flag question
Question text
Fires, spills of hazardous chemicals and flooding are considered as:
Select one:
a. primary effect of earthquakes
b. collateral effects
d. secondary effects
Question 32
Complete
Flag question
Question text
Disasters do not have an effect to the development efforts of a country.
Select one:
True
False
Question 33
Complete
Flag question
Question text
capacity.
Select one:
True
False
Question 34
Complete
Flag question
Question text
Select one:
True
False
Question 35
Complete
Flag question
Question text
countries.
Select one:
True
False
Question 36
Complete
Flag question
Question text
If you smell gas after an emergency, close all the windows and doors and sleep soundly.
Select one:
True
False
Question 37
Complete
Flag question
Question text
Select one:
True
False
Question 38
Complete
Flag question
Question text
The Philippines and its cities are one of the countries and cities with significant population and economic
exposure to typhoons, earthquakes,
tsunamis, storm surges, volcanoes, and landslides, according to recent studies by risk analysis firm Verisk
Maplecroft.
Select one:
True
False
Question 39
Complete

Flag question
Question text
Select one:
True
False
Question 40
Complete
Flag question
Question text
Select one:
a. immediately leave the low-lying coastal areas and move to higher ground
b. wait for official evacuation orders
c. go near the sea to gather corrals and fishes
Question 41
Complete
Flag question
Question text
of strength of an office and the presence
or absence of emergency exits in the case of an earthquake.
Select one:
True
False
Question 42
Complete
Flag question
Question text
Select one:
a. all of the choice
b. secondary effects;
c. primary effect of earthquakes;
Question 43
Complete
Flag question
Question text
During and after an emergency, you should think only of yourself and should not provide first aid for
anyone who needs it.
Select one:
True
False
Question 44
Complete
Flag question
Question text
Critical facilities and lifelines are not affected at all by a high magnitude hazard.
Select one:
True
False
Question 45
Complete
Flag question
Question text
When an earthquake breaks a dam or levee along a river, the water from the river or the reservoir
floods the area and may damage buildings
and drown people.
Select one:
True
False
Question 46
Complete
Flag question
Question text
Select one:
True
False
Question 47
Complete
Flag question
Question text
Select one:
True
False
Question 48
Complete
Flag question
Question text
Select one:
a. If you're in a car, continue to drive until the earthquake stops,
b. Don't use elevators (they'll probably get stuck anyway).
c. panic, if you're indoor, and run, If you're outside
d. Fix heavy furniture, cupboards, and appliances to the walls or floor,
Question 49
Complete
Flag question
Question text

Select one:
a. Use the phone to connect to face book
b. Provide first aid for anyone who needs it
c. Check yourself and others for injuries
d. Turn on the radio and listen for news
Question 50
Complete
Flag question
Question text
Select one:
True
False
State Finished
Grade 50.00 out of 50.00 (100%)
Question 1
Complete
Flag question
Question text
Environmental pollution is good for the health.

Select one:
True
False
Question 2
Complete
Flag question
Question text
Select one:
a. hazard
b. risk
c. problem
d. danger
Question 3
Complete
Flag question
Question text
Select one:
True
False
Question 4
Complete
Flag question
Question text
Select one:
a. training and education
c. adequate food supply
d. sustainable livelihood
Question 5
Complete
Flag question
Question text
__________ is the government agency that monitors and records the cases of earthquakes in the
Philippines.
Select one:
a. NASA
b. None of the given choices are correct
c. PAGASA
d. PHILVOLCS
Question 6
Complete
Flag question
Question text
Hazard is a dangerous event or substance.
Select one:
True
False
Question 7
Complete
Flag question
Question text
If you are at home and hear there is a tsunami warning, you should make sure your entire family is
aware of the warning.
Select one:
True
False
Question 8
Complete
Remove flag
Question text
The magnitude of a _______is a big factor in the making of a disaster.
Select one:
a. danger
b. hazard
c. risk
d. problem
Question 9
Complete
Flag question
Question text
Select one:
a. landslides
b. earthquakes
d. tsunami
Question 10
Complete
Flag question
Question text
People living in coastal areas are constantly threatened to experience tsunami, ______ surges and sea
level rise.
Select one:
a. typhoon
b. storm
c. whirlwind
Question 11
Complete
Flag question
Question text
Select one:
a. surve
b. map
c. plan
d. chart
Question 12
Complete
Flag question
Question text
Water supplies, electricity and transportation are always protected and therefore cannot be affected
even by strong typhoons with strong
winds.
Select one:
True
False
Question 13
Complete
Flag question
Question text
Select one:
a. orange is the color code for high risk areas

b. red
c. yellow
d. white
Question 14
Complete
Flag question
Question text
When a natural hazard strikes elements at risk with high level of exposure and with many
_________________, most likely this hazard would
result to disaster.
Select one:
a. accountability
b. liability
c. vulnerabilities
d. obligation
Question 15
Complete
Flag question
Question text
One of the common side effects of an earthquake is ______, which is often associated with broken
electrical and gas lines.
Select one:
a. fire
b. burning
c. conflagration
d. blaze
Question 16
Complete
Flag question
Question text
Select one:
True
False
Question 17
Complete
Flag question
Question text
Select one:
True
False
Question 18
Complete
Flag question
Question text
resembling to a "quick sand" is called:
Select one:
a. liquefaction
b. ground subsidence
c. Both
Question 19
Complete
Flag question
Question text
Select one:
True
False
Question 20
Complete
Flag question
Question text
There is impending tsunami if:
Select one:
a. there is severe ground shaking;
b. if there is a loud "roaring" sound similar to that of a train or jet aircraft

d. if seawater recedes from the coast;
Question 21
Complete
Flag question
Question text
People living within or near a _____ line, are more susceptible to be overwhelmed by an earthquake
hazard.
Select one:
a. fault
b. imperfection
c. defect
d. mistake
Question 22
Complete
Flag question
Question text
All submarine earthquakes are pleasant experience as if one is riding a submarine.
Select one:
True
False
Question 23
Complete

Flag question
Question text
Select one:
a. accident
b. tragedy
c. disasters
d. calamity
Question 24
Complete
Flag question
Question text
Complex web of interlinked conditions, which include physical, social, economic, environmental factors.
Select one:
a. disaster risk
b. development
c. risk reduction
d. vulnerability
Question 25
Complete
Flag question
Question text
known as:
Select one:
a. Both
b. ground deformation
c. ground rupture
Question 26
Complete
Flag question
Question text
Select one:
a. magma
b. lava
c. all of the given choices are correct
d. lahar
Question 27
Complete
Flag question
Question text
Select one:
a. red
b. orange is the color code for medium risk areas
c. yellow
d. white
Question 28
Complete
Flag question
Question text
Select one:
True
False
Question 29
Complete
Flag question
Question text
The Dock, Cover and Hold is a "must do" before an earthquake.
Select one:
True
False
Question 30
Complete
Flag question
Question text
Philippines is not one of the disaster-prone countries of the world.

Select one:
True
False
Question 31
Complete
Flag question
Question text
Rich people don't usually have savings, much so insurance.
Select one:
True
False
Question 32
Complete
Flag question
Question text
Select one:
True
False
Question 33
Complete
Flag question
Question text
Select one:
True
False
Question 34
Complete
Flag question
Question text
community or society are more at risk or
less at risk.
Select one:
a. vulnerability
b. capacity
c. traditional
d. education
Question 35
Complete
Flag question
Question text
Select one:
a. survey
b. map
c. plan
d. chart
Question 36
Complete
Flag question
Question text
Select one:
True
False
Question 37
Complete
Flag question
Question text
Select one:
True
False
Question 38
Complete
Flag question
Question text
_________ earthquakes are caused by sudden displacements along fault lines in the solid and rigid layer
of the earth's surface.
Select one:
a. tectonic
b. architectural
c. constructural
d. formative
Question 39
Complete
Flag question
Question text
Select one:
a. ground subsidence
b. tsunami
d. landslide
Question 40
Complete
Flag question
Question text
Select one:
a. sensitive
c. volcanic
d. quick
Question 41
Complete
Flag question
Question text
Select one:
b. storm surge
c. tidal waves
d. tsunami
Question 42
Complete
Flag question
Question text
which the elements at risk are likely to
experience hazard events of different magnitudes".
Select one:
True
False
Question 43
Complete
Flag question
Question text
Select one:
a. water
c. splash
d. spray
Question 44
Complete
Flag question
Question text
Select one:
a. orange
b. red
c. white
d. yellow
Question 45
Complete
Flag question
Question text
The following should be done before an earthquake:
Select one:
a. make up a plan of where to meet your family after an earthquake
c. learn how to turn off the gas, water, and electricity in your home
d. learn first aid
Question 46
Complete
Flag question
Question text
Select one:
a. flash flood
b. landslide
c. earthquake
d. all of the given choices are correct
Question 47
Complete
Flag question
Question text
________ can be assessed and quantified as low, medium and high.
Select one:
a. problem
b. risks
c. accident
d. danger
Question 48
Complete
Flag question
Question text
Select one:
a. good governance
b. life-saving skills
c. savings
Question 49
Complete
Flag question
Question text
Select one:
c. Basilan
d. Batanes
e. Tawi-tawi
f. Sulu
Question 50
Complete
Flag question
Question text
Select one:
a. earthquake
b. ground rupture
d. Ground shaking
State Finished
Grade 50.00 out of 50.00 (100%)
Question 1
Complete

Flag question
Question text
Hazard is a dangerous event or substance.
Select one:
True
False
Question 2
Complete
Flag question
Question text
Select one:
True
False
Question 3
Complete
Flag question
Question text
Select one:
a. accident
b. tragedy
c. calamity
d. disasters
Question 4
Complete
Flag question
Question text
__________ is the government agency that monitors the coming and going of typhoons and tropical
depression
Select one:
a. None of the given choices are correct
b. PAGASA
c. PHILVOLCS
d. NASA
Question 5
Complete
Flag question
Question text
Select one:
a. tsunami
b. landslides
d. earthquakes
Question 6
Complete
Flag question
Question text
community or society are more at risk or
less at risk.
Select one:
a. vulnerability
b. traditional
c. capacity
d. education
Question 7
Complete
Flag question
Question text
__________ is the government agency that monitors and records the cases of earthquakes in the
Philippines.
Select one:
a. NASA
b. PAGASA
c. PHILVOLCS
d. None of the given choices are correct
Question 8
Complete

Flag question
Question text
Select one:
True
False
Question 9
Complete
Flag question
Question text
Select one:
True
False
Question 10
Complete
Flag question
Question text
Psychological perspective is concerned about the negative consequences of disaster to ________ health,
particularly the Post Traumatic Stress
Disorder.
Select one:
a. intellectual
b. cognitive
c. mental
d. brain
Question 11
Complete
Flag question
Question text
Water supplies, electricity and transportation are always protected and therefore cannot be affected
even by strong typhoons with strong
winds.
Select one:
True
False
Question 12
Complete
Flag question
Question text
E for Exposure and V for Vulnerability.
Select one:
True
False
Question 13
Complete
Flag question
Question text
The Dock, Cover and Hold is a "must do" before an earthquake.
Select one:
True
False
Question 14
Complete
Flag question
Question text
Ground rupture which is the surface expression of an earthquake above magnitude 5.5-6.0 is known as:
Select one:
b. secondary effects
c. primary effect of earthquakes
Question 15
Complete
Flag question
Question text
The elements at risk are not hazard-specific. Who and what can be damaged depends not on the
hazards and the characteristics of the area.
Select one:
True
False
Question 16
Complete
Flag question
Question text
Select one:
a. immediately leave the low-lying coastal areas and move to higher ground
b. go near the sea to gather corrals and fishes
c. wait for official evacuation orders
Question 17
Complete
Flag question
Question text
Select one:
b. sustainable livelihood
c. training and education
d. adequate food supply
Question 18
Complete
Flag question
Question text
All submarine earthquakes are pleasant experience as if one is riding a submarine.
Select one:
True
False
Question 19
Complete
Flag question
Question text
Environmental pollution is good for the health.
Select one:
True
False
Question 20
Complete
Flag question
Question text
Select one:
a. danger
b. risk
c. hazard
d. problem
Question 21
Complete
Flag question
Question text
Select one:
True
False
Question 22
Complete
Flag question
Question text
Select one:
a. livelihood and coping analysis
c. community watching (transect walk)
d. resources mapping
Question 23
Complete

Flag question
Question text
Select one:
True
False
Question 24
Complete
Flag question
Question text
Select one:
a. lava
b. magma
c. all of the given choices are correct
d. lahar
Question 25
Complete
Flag question
Question text
One of the common side effects of an earthquake is ______, which is often associated with broken
electrical and gas lines.
Select one:
a. conflagration
b. fire
c. blaze
d. burning
Question 26
Complete
Flag question
Question text
resembling to a "quick sand" is called:
Select one:
a. Both
b. liquefaction
c. ground subsidence
Question 27
Complete
Flag question
Question text
Select one:
a. social, infrastructure, institutional
b. physical, economic, environmental
c. physical, social, motivational

Question 28
Complete
Flag question
Question text
The magnitude of a _______is a big factor in the making of a disaster.
Select one:
a. problem
b. hazard
c. danger
d. risk
Question 29
Complete
Flag question
Question text
Select one:
True
False
Question 30
Complete
Flag question
Question text
to physical aspects such as people and
their properties and assets: public and private buildings and infrastructures.
Select one:
a. harmful
b. impairment
c. damage
d. destruction
Question 31
Complete
Flag question
Question text
Select one:
a. sensitive
b. quick
c. volcanic
Question 32
Complete
Flag question
Question text
Select one:
True
False
Question 33
Complete
Flag question
Question text
Select one:
a. landslide
b. flash flood
c. earthquake
d. all of the given choices are correct
Question 34
Complete
Flag question
Question text
When a natural hazard strikes elements at risk with high level of exposure and with many
_________________, most likely this hazard would
result to disaster.
Select one:
a. liability
b. obligation
c. vulnerabilities
d. accountability
Question 35
Complete
Flag question
Question text
Select one:
b. tsunami
c. tidal waves
d. storm surge
Question 36
Complete
Flag question
Question text
Select one:
True
False
Question 37
Complete

Flag question
Question text
Select one:
a. earthquake
b. flash flood
c. tsunami
Question 38
Complete
Flag question
Question text

hard earned advances in education,
health, social and economic areas.
Select one:
a. evolution
b. growth
c. development
d. enlargement
Question 39
Complete
Flag question
Question text
People living in coastal areas are constantly threatened to experience tsunami, ______ surges and sea
level rise.
Select one:
a. whirlwind
b. storm
c. typhoon
Question 40
Complete
Flag question
Question text
Select one:
b. ground rupture
c. Ground shaking
d. earthquake
Question 41
Complete
Flag question
Question text
Select one:
True
False
Question 42
Complete
Flag question
Question text
Select one:
True
False
Question 43
Complete
Flag question
Question text
In interpreting earthquake hazard maps, the color code for low risk areas is:
Select one:
a. yellow
b. red
c. white
d. orange
Question 44
Complete
Flag question
Question text
The following hazards are potential earthquake hazards:
Select one:
b. ground shaking
c. liquefaction
d. ground rupture
Question 45
Complete
Flag question
Question text
Select one:
True
False
Question 46
Complete
Flag question
Question text
(Visayas).
Select one:
a. Ondoy
b. Rosing
c. Juan
d. Haiyan(or Yolanda)
Question 47
Complete
Flag question
Question text
Select one:
True
False
Question 48
Complete
Flag question
Question text
Select one:
b. unsafe locations
c. poverty
d. poor construction design
Question 49
Complete

Flag question
Question text
If you are at home and hear there is a tsunami warning, you should make sure your entire family is
aware of the warning.
Select one:
True
False
Question 50
Complete
Flag question
Question text
Complex web of interlinked conditions, which include physical, social, economic, environmental factors.
Select one:
a. disaster risk
b. risk reduction
c. development
d. vulnerability
During a landslide stay ___________ and ___________.
A: Alert and awake
A sudden rise of ocean water from its normal tide is __________.
A: Storm surge
__________ are conditions with prolonged deficit in water.
A: Drought
Landslides are downward movement of geological materials such as soil and rocks.
A: true
___________: low susceptibility-less likely to experience landslide be prepared ___________:
moderately susceptible: be cautious
___________: highly susceptible: be alert ad ready to evacuate
A: Yellow, Green and Red
Sinkholes are geologic process that could be natural or man-made in nature.
A: true
Geologic hazards have several factors that triggers its occurrence, one common cause is the adjustment
of the earth as the molten core
moves.
A: true
_____________, legends, bar scale, ____________, and coordinates are the major parts/elements found
in geologic maps.
A: Title, Orientation Compass
Sinkholes typically develop slowly, but can also form suddenly when a collapse occurs.
A: true
Sinkholes doesn't have types, it is generally a collapse in the ground. It is all the same.
A: false
_________ , legends, bar scale, ________________, and coordinates are the major parts/elements
found in geologic maps.
A: Title, Orientation Compass
_______________ are the primary source of information for various aspects of land-use planning,
including the siting of buildings and
transportation systems
A: Geologic Maps
During a landslide stay ... and ... .
A: alert, awake
For any hazard one must learn about the ________________________ plans for your area. And develop
for your own family as well.
A: contact
Swelling of rivers may lead to __________.
A: flood
During a landslide, ... or stay out of the path of landslide or debris flow.
A: evacuate
Human activities can't cause landslides.
A: false
Rainfall is influenced by "Hanging __________".
A: habagat
Landslides and sinkholes can both be caused by man-made interventions such as bomb explosion.
A: true
Slumps, rock fall, and debris are general types of landslide.
A: true
During a landslide, _____________ or stay out of the path of landslide or debris flow
A: Evacuate
Ensure to have a __________ for medical emergencies
A: First aid kit
If you suspect an imminent landslide or sinkhole danger ____________ your local fire, police, or public
works department.
A: contact
Typhoons move in a __________ movement.
A: Counterclockwise
Thunderstorms are associated with __________.
A: Heavy Rainfall
______________ tells you what different colors and signs mean in the map. Works as a decoder of the
data presented in the map.
A: Legends
Acid rains dissolve minerals in the soil causing sinkholes.
A: True
__________ is important to receive information about status of disaster
A: Radio
After a landslide, listen to _____________________for the latest emergency information.
A: Local radio
If you suspect an imminent landslide or sinkhole danger ... your local fire, police, or public works
department.
A: Contact or Call
Typhoons are created through a process called __________.
A: Cyclogenesis
Rain-induced landslides can't be considered as a geological hazard.
A: false
The color ____________ usually means that there are no or 0% chance for a landslide or sinkhole to
occur in that particular area in the
map.
A: white
The lull period in the storm indicates the __________ is passing your area.
A: eye
Which are the three basic tools for monitoring?
A: Rain gauge, Wind vane and Anemometer
The onset of the El Nino phenomenon may foretell dry spells or a ________.
A: Drought
Examples of hydro metrological hazards.
A: Typhoons, floods, heavy rain and drought

Wind direction is provided by a
A: wind vane
is the stage when the plume begins to form above the burning fuel. It begins to draw or entertain air
from the surroundings space
into the column.
A: Growth/s – wrong (fire) – wrong INCIPIENT – wrong growth stage - wrong
is the material or substance being oxidized or burned in the combustion process. In scientific terms, the
A: fuel
The Philippines is highly prone to hydro-meteorological hazards, which are climate and water related.
A: true
In the map, yellow means high susceptibility-less likely to experience landslide.
A: false
To find the direction of the _______, a person should face the wind and the center of the storm lies
approximately 90 degrees on your left
hand side.
A: storm
Both ____________ and pyroclastic flows can destroy agricultural lands, like what happened during Mt.
Pinatubo and Mt. Mayon eruptions.
A: ash flow
pertains to the malicious burning of property, using certain chemicals, bombs, etc., and causing fire to
start.It involves the movement of
electrons between two objects in contact with each other. Electrical charges are produced on the
objects when they are separated. If the
charge builds up, it will develop enough energy to jump as a spark to a nearby grounded or less highly
charged object.
A: static electricity
A measures rainfall.
A: raingauge
The common _______signs of an incoming flood include intense rainfall, dam or levee failure as well as
other events such as slow moving
tropical storms.
A: warning
is the condition of being safe from the risk or danger of fire. It is also the quality or state of not
presenting or involving risk or danger of fire
A: fire safety
_____________ projectiles are rocks that an erupting volcano may hurl into the air.
A: Ballistic projectiles
If left unprepared, the population in the many villages of the country may be highly vulnerable to hydro
metrological hazard. as these
hazards may become disasters.
A: true
Drought events is characterized by of ________ water for domestic and agriculture purposes.
A: shortage
The color green usually means that there are no or 0% chance for a landslide or sinkhole to occur in that
particular area in the map.
A: false
During a landslide, stay where you are and watch the debris flow, praying that you will not be carried by
the debris.
A: false
Early signs of drought indicate dry spells with _______ below the normal level, which If extends to 3
months, a drought is declared.
A: rainfall
1 mm of rainfall is equivalent to liter/s of water per sqm.
A: 1
is a chemical reaction. It is the rapid oxidation of a fuel producing heat and light.
A: combustion – wrong / spontaneous ignition – wrong / OXIDIZING AGENTS - wrong

These are set by students or staff of the school and can obviously not be predicted. Most of the time
they are started in trashcans or in piles
of garbage because it is the easiest thing to light
A: intentional fires – wrong / intentional fire – wrong / intentional – wrong / fire - wrong
_________is one weather bureau in the Southeast Asian region that has established a regional network
of monitoring stations for tropical
typhoons and other hydro-meteorological events
A: PAGASA
Geologic hazards have several factors that triggers its occurrence, one common cause is the adjustment
of the earth as the molten core
moves.
A: true
Risks and of a community are shown by a hazard map
A: hazard/s – wrong / exposure – wrong / location – wrong / warnings - wrong
Another sign that we should know about landslide are doors or windows that stick or jam for the first
time.
A: true
People close to ___________ may detect some precursor to eruption, so they need to be careful, they
may even be ordered to evacuate.
A: volcanoes
A base map shows and land use
A: topography
Atmospheric pressure is measured in terms of
A: milibars – wrong / barometer – wrong air pressure - wrong
During a landslide or any hazard, we should stay alert, watchful and awake.
A: true
Hazard maps are available with Projec

A: NOAH
A hazard map is a representation of specific hazards in the area.
A: visual
A family should not develop a family plan, so that each member knows where to meet after an
emergency.
A: true
The three components of fire are fuel, and oxygen.
A: heat – wrong / oxidizing agents – wrong
is the pin at the top of the extinguisher that keeps the handle from being accidentally pressed.
A: pull
Legends tell you what different language and signs mean in the map.
A: false
After a landslide, never listen to local radio or TV station, you need to rest and you don't need the latest
emergency information, because
the landslide is over.
A: false
is reducing the temperature below the fire point
A: cooling
Geological maps are the secondary source of information for various aspects of land-use planning,
including the siting of buildings and
transportation systems.
A: false
Lahars are a specific kind of ____________ made up of volcanic debris.
A: Mudflows
General flood advisories are issued by _______ to inform and warn people flood levels and status of
water levels in river basins.
A: PAGASA
__________is one basic tools for monitoring rainfall, which is measured in millimeters. One millimeter
of rainfall is equivalent to 1 liter of
water per square meter.
A: Raine gauge
A hazard map are coded to show various hazards in the area.
A: color
in a combustion reaction is known as the "reducing agent".
A: fuel/s - wrong
New cracks or unusual bulges in the ground, street pavements or sidewalks is one of the signs that we
should know to be prepared for a
landslide or sinkholes.
A: true
It is not important that one must learn about the emergency-response and evacuation plan for any
hazard in your area.
A: false
The swelling of ______ and lakes, or the occurrence of storm surge may lead to hydro-meteorological
events contribute to flooding
particularly in flood-prone areas.
A: rivers
A measures atmospheric pressure.
A: barometer
Title, legends, bar scale, orientation compass and coordinates are the major parts/elements found in
geologic maps.
A: true
In CBDRM, the people are at the heart of decision-making and implementation of disaster risk reduction
and management activities at the
community level.
A: true
The disaster risk reduction plan is a guide in transforming at risk communities to become disaster
__________communities.
A: resilient
DRR is important for the developing countries only.
A: false
Community based disaster risk management or CBDRRM has been recognized in the Philippines as a
necessary approach to put
communities out of harm's way.
A: true
__________, which should be part of the community preparedness plan, is the process of moving
persons or property from a dangerous or
potentially dangerous place, for reasons of safety and their protection.
A: evacuation
Safety and security of the individuals, household and communities is not as important as education and
health.
A: false
Disaster risk reduction is the responsibility of the government alone, because they are paid to do DRR.
A: false
Sustainable development goals can be achieved even without reducing the risks.
A: false
In planning for evacuation, the community should Identify safe place for evacuation and identify the
shortest and ________ route.
A: safest
There are six global targets to reduce disaster risks as agreed in the Sendai Framework on Disaster Risk
Reduction.
A: false
Communities should rely on the assistance of the government during calamities as government is
responsible for helping communities.
A: false
CBDRRM is a process of disaster risk reduction and management in which at risk communities are never
allowed to engage in the
identification, analysis, treatment, monitoring and evaluation of disaster risks.
A:false
____________ unites the community and its supporters in commitments and actions to undertake to
reduce disaster risk.
A: planning
The economic impact of disasters is lessening as the years go by even considering the impact of Climate
Change.
A: false
Participatory community risk assessment includes hazard, exposure and vulnerability assessment.
A: true
CBDRM aims to reduce peoples' vulnerabilities and enhance their capacities.
A: true
Disaster risk reduction refers only to providing emergency assistance during disasters.
A: false
There are only three priorities for action in the Sendai Framework on Disaster Risk Reduction.
A: false
Early _________, which should be part of the community preparedness plan, is the provision of timely
and effective information, advisory,
and warning to individuals, families, communities, or populations on the existence of danger, and what
can be done to prevent, avoid, or
minimize danger.
A: warning
Local people need not prioritize DRR in their lives, as they have so many things to think about.
A: false
Project NOAH combines science and technology for DRRM. It is also is a responsive program that aims to
provide a 6-hour lead-time
warning to agencies involved in disaster prevention and mitigation.
A: true
___________ with indication of evacuation sites and routes is necessary part of the tools included in the
emergency kit.
A: map
___________ liters per person per day is required for drinking and for sanitation.
A: four
The Act repealed PD No. 1566 of 1978 and transforms the disaster management system from disaster
response towards disaster risk
reduction.
A: true
Project NOAH is Nationwide Operational Awareness of Hazards.
A: false
DRRM ensures that disaster risk reduction and climate change measures are gender responsive,
sensitive to indigenous knowledge
systems, and respectful of human rights.
A: true
We should avoid ___________ or sugary food as this will make you thirsty.
A: salty
In the survival kit, it is important to include the following documents: ___________ certificates,
passport, marriage contract, diploma,
insurance certificates, land titles, etc.
A: Birth certificates
___________ kit includes disposable gloves, adhesive strips, sterile medical tap, thermometer, adhesive
bandage, among others.
A: first aid
A survival kit is necessary during emergencies, when help or support to family is absent, it refers to
emergency supplies, that a family
needs to survive.
A: true
A person can survive without water intake for five days, but not without food for a day.
A: false
PAGASA and PHIVOLCS support the NOAH project.
A: true
The DRRM Act is reactive in addressing disasters and focused on the need for response.
A: false
DRRM provides maximum care, assistance and services to vulnerable sectors/ individuals of
communities.
A: true
The Philippine DRRM Act of 2010 is the new law for disaster management.
A: true
Mainstreaming of DRRM into the school curricula of secondary and tertiary level of education, including
the NSTP is one of the provisions
of the Act.
A: true
Emergency survival kit should contain food, water and blanket only.
A: false
When a family is isolated for several days due to difficulty in access to go out to secure food, or for help
to come in, survival kit is very
important in order to survive.
A: true
Public information is not necessary before emergency, it is important only during disasters.
A: false
The development, promotion and implementation of NDRRM plan is one of the policies of DRRM.
A: true
Ballistic projectile is the most dangerous volcanic hazard.
A: true
Typhoons, floods, heavy rain and drought are examples of ____________ hazards.
A: Hydro metrological
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The disaster risk reduction plan is a guide in transforming at risk communities to become disaster
_________ communities.
Select one:
a. Flexible
b. Resilient
c. Tough
d. Strong
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Hazard maps are the primary source of information for various aspects of land-use planning, including
the siting of buildings and transportation
systems.
Select one:
True
False
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and effective information, advisory, and
warning to individuals, families, communities, or populations on the existence of danger, and what can
be done to prevent, avoid, or minimize
danger
Select one:
a. Advisory
b. Notification
c. Caution
d. Warning
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Close windows and doors to reduce entry of ash if heavy ash fall is expected to hit the community. Bring
animals and livestock into closed
shelters.
Select one:
True
False
Question 5
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Disaster Risk Reduction is important for
_________ countries, as well as developed countries.
Select one:
a. Increasing
b. Decreasing
c. Growing
d. Developing
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_________, which should be part of the community preparedness plan, is the process of moving persons
or property from a dangerous or
Select one:
a. House
b. Hospital
c. Evacuation
d. Center
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_________ and security of the individuals, household and communities is as important as education and
health.
Select one:
a. Well-being
b. Security
c. Safety
d. Wellfare
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Volcanoes are difficult to know when they would erupt because they don't provide any type of warnings
before eruptions begin.
Select one:
True
False
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Volcanoes are natural systems, and their activities are always predictable.
Select one:
True
False
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Project NOAH combines ___________ and technology for DRRM.
Select one:
a. Biology
b. Science
c. Chemistry
d. Physics
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Green means moderately susceptible; be cautious.
Select one:
True
False
Question 12
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In interpreting a hazard map, look for the title, which is located at the top portion of the geological map.
It is important because it tells you right
away what kind of hazard map it represents or the area where the map is based.
Select one:
True
False
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The three components of fire, known as the fire triangle are: fuel, heat and _________.
Select one:
a. Fire
b. Water
c. Oxygen
d. Wind
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Community based disaster risk reduction and management or CBDRRM is a process of disaster risk
reduction and management in which at risk
communities are engaged in the, _________ treatment, monitoring and evaluation of disaster risks.
analysis,
Select one:
a. Distinguishing
b. Verification
c. Identification
d. Confirmation
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The Philippine Atmospheric, Geophysical Astronomical Services Administration (PHIVOLCS) enumerates

volcanic phenomena directly associated
with eruption.
Select one:
True
False
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Static _________ involves the movement of electrons between two objects in contact with each other.
Electrical charges are produced on the objects when they are separated. If the charge builds up, it will
develop enough energy to jump as a spark
to a nearby grounded or less highly charged object.
Select one:
a. Static
b. Electricity
c. Energy
d. Power
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Check for injured and trapped persons near the slide, without entering the direct slide area, after
volcanic eruption.
Select one:
True
False
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During a landslide, evacuate or stay out of the path of landslide or debris flow.
Select one:
True
False
Question 19
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Disaster risk reduction refers to the prevention, mitigation, preparedness and to providing _________
assistance during disasters.
Select one:
a. Calmness
b. Emergency
c. Success
d. Solution
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_________ of DRRM into the school curricular of secondary and tertiary level of education, including the
NSTP is one of the provisions of the Act.
Select one:
a. Mainstreaming
b. Normal
c. Conventional
d. Ordinary
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Fire safety is the condition of being _________ from the risk or danger of fire. It is also the quality or
state of not presenting or involving risk or
danger of fire.
Select one:
a. Guarded
b. Secure
c. Sheltered
d. Safe
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Lava flows are streams of molten rock that come from a heavy rain.
Select one:
True
False
Question 23
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In the map, yellow means low susceptibility-less likely to experience landslide, but still be prepared.
Select one:
True
False
Question 24
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Growth is the stage when the plume begins to form above the burning _________, when it begins to
draw or entertain air from the surroundings
space into the column.
Select one:
a. Petroleum
b. Fuel
c. Diesel
d. Gas
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In order to get the real measure of the data presented in the map, use the color provided in the map.
Select one:
True
False
Question 26
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Project NOAH is Nationwide Operational _______ of Hazards.
Select one:
a. Accurate
b. Ability
c. Assessments
d. Acceptance
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The pages in the map tell you what different colors and signs mean in the map. It works as a decoder of
the data presented in the map.
Select one:
True
False
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Select one:
True
False
Question 29
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Sustainable _________ goals cannot be achieved without reducing the risks.
Select one:
a. Advancement
b. Improvement
c. Increase
d. Development
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For any hazard one must learn about the emergency-response and evacuation plans for your area.
Select one:
True
False
Question 31
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DRRM ensures that disaster risk reduction and _________change measures are gender responsive,
sensitive to indigenous knowledge systems,
and respectful of human rights.
Select one:
a. Temperature
b. Climate
c. Humidity
d. Weather
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Those who are living near volcanoes may detect premonitory events before eruption of volcanoes.
Select one:
True
False
Question 33
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Decoder tells you what different colors and signs mean in the map.
Select one:
True
False
Question 34
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Priority should be given to pupils/students with breathing problems during volcanic eruption, They
should be advised to cover their nose,
preferably with a wet piece of cloth.
Select one:
True
False
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Select one:
True
False
Question 36
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An orientation compass in the geological map can orient you, which direction is to the north, south, east
and west.
Select one:
True
False
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Lahars are a specific kind of mudflow made up of flooding debris.
Select one:
True
False
Question 38
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Volcanic ash consists of fragments of pulverized rock, minerals, and volcanic glass created during
volcanic eruptions and measuring less than 2
mm in diameter.
Select one:
True
False
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Ash fall endangers human lives and can have devastating effects on the things that people rely upon
from day to day living.
Select one:
True
False
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sensitive to indigenous knowledge systems, and
respectful of human rights.
Select one:
True
False
Question 41
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_________ unites the community and its supporters in commitments and actions to undertake to
reduce disaster risk.
Select one:
a. Planning
b. Arrangement
c. Organization
d. Preparation
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Red means highly susceptible; be alert and ready to evacuate.
Select one:
True
False
Question 43
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Only ash fall and not the pyroclastic flows can destroy agricultural lands.
Select one:
True
False
Question 44
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Fire is a chemical reaction resulting from the rapid oxidation of a fuel producing _________ and light.
Select one:
a. Humidity
b. Heat
c. Intensity
d. Warmth
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_________ community risk assessment includes hazard, exposure and vulnerability assessment.
Select one:
a. Attendance
b. Participatory
c. Assistance
d. Cooperation
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Fuel is the material or substance being oxidized or burned in the _________ process.
Select one:
a. Combustion
b. Explosion
c. Ignition
d. Flaming
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Arson pertains to the malicious burning of property, using certain chemicals, bombs, etc., and causing
_________ to start.
Select one:
a. Combustion
b. Fire
c. Conflagration
d. Blaze
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A family should develop a family plan, so that each member knows where to meet after an emergency.
Select one:
True
False
Question 49
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Knowing the ways of protecting the school from ash fall, landslides and debris flows by consulting your
local disaster coordinating council must
be done during a volcanic eruption.
Select one:
True
False
Question 50
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are not signs of impending volcanic
eruption.
Select one:
True
False
The Act repealed PD No. 1566 of 1978 and transforms the disaster management system in the country
from disaster _________ towards disaster
risk reduction.
Select one:
a. Answer
b. Rejoinder
c. Reaction
d. Response
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mm in diameter.
Select one:
True
False
Question 3
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Only observations are used to help understand the areas that may be affected by specific volcanic
eruption phenomena.
Select one:
True
False
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Select one:
True
False
Question 5
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In order to get the real measure of the data presented in the map, use the color provided in the map.
Select one:
True
False
Question 6
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A volcanologist is not so educated in geophysics that works and observes active volcanoes.
Select one:
True
False
Question 7
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Ballistic projectiles are rocks that an erupting volcano may hurl into the air.
Select one:
True
False
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Select one:
True
False
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In planning for evacuation, the community should Identify safe place for evacuation and identify the
shortest and _________ route.
Select one:
a. Safest
b. Secure
c. Guarded
d. Sheltered
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Active volcanoes can bring damaging effects to people, property, livelihood and environment during an
eruption.
Select one:
True
False
Question 11
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Knowing the ways of protecting the school from ash fall, landslides and debris flows by consulting your
local disaster coordinating council must
be done during a volcanic eruption.
Select one:
True
False
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If you suspect an imminent landslide or sinkhole danger contact (or call or inform) your local fire, police,
or public works department.
Select one:
True
False
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Select one:
True
False
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Select one:
True
False
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Disaster risk reduction is the responsibility of _________, not the government alone, because everybody
needs to be safe.
Select one:
a. Anybody
b. Everybody
c. Each one
d. All
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True
False
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systems.
Select one:
True
False
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necessary approach to put communities out
of harm's way.
Select one:
True
False
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Fuel is the material or substance being oxidized or burned in the _________ process.
Select one:
a. Flaming
b. Explosion
c. Combustion
d. Ignition
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Only active volcanoes may release to the atmosphere gasses in the form of water vapor, hydrogen
sulfide, sulfur dioxide, carbon monoxide,
hydrogen chloride and hydrogen fluoride.
Select one:
True
False
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Project NOAH is Nationwide Operational _______ of Hazards.

Select one:
a. Ability
b. Acceptance
c. Assessments
d. Accurate
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For any hazard one must learn about the emergency-response and evacuation plans for your area.
Select one:
True
False
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An orientation compass in the geological map can orient you, which direction is to the north, south, east
and west.
Select one:
True
False
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During a landslide stay alert and awake.
Select one:
True
False
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Flowers in the ground is one of the signs that we should know as it may cause sinkholes.
Select one:
True
False
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True
False
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In CBDRM, the people are at the heart of decision-making and _________ of disaster risk reduction and
management activities at the community
level.
Select one:
a. Application
b. Implementation
c. Discharge
d. Operation
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Title, legends, bar scale, Orientation Compass and coordinates are the major parts/elements found in
geologic maps.
Select one:
True
False
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Cooling is reducing the _________ below the fire point.
Select one:
a. Warmth
b. Climate
c. Temperature
d. Condition
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Close windows and doors to reduce entry of ash if heavy ash fall is expected to hit the community. Bring
animals and livestock into closed
shelters.
Select one:
True
False
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The government is responsible for helping people during calamities, however _________ or people
should develop their coping capacities and
should rely on themselves, while seeking assistance from the government.
Select one:
a. Communities(CORRECT ANSWER)
b. Group(WRONG)
c. Set
d. Area
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True
False
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Ash fall endangers human lives and can have devastating effects on the things that people rely upon
from day to day living.
Select one:
True
False
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Select one:
a. Physics
b. Biology
c. Science
d. Chemistry
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There are _________ global targets to reduce disaster risks as agreed in the Sendai Framework on
Disaster Risk Reduction.
Select one:
a. Seven
b. Six
c. Two
d. Five
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True
False
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with eruption.
Select one:
True
False
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The economic impact of disasters is ________ as the years go by, considering the impact of Climate
Change.
Select one:
a. Growing
b. Increasing
c. Decreasing
d. Developing
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There are _________ priorities for action in the Sendai Framework on Disaster Risk Reduction.
Select one:
a. Five
b. Seven
c. Three
d. Four
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are not signs of impending volcanic
eruption.
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True
False
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True
False
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Lahar, ash fall, pyroclastic flow, ballistic projectile, volcanic gasses and lava Flow are some of the
volcanic related hazards.
Select one:
True
False
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True
False
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analysis,
Select one:
a. Confirmation
b. Verification
c. Identification
d. Distinguishing
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Earthquake hazard maps illustrate potential for ground-based volcanic impacts-lava flows, pyroclastic
flows, ash fall, volcanic gases, and more
Select one:
True
False
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Volcanologists focus on knowing the movement and formation of molten rock deep under the earth's
surface, and what can be possibly done to
avoid the impact of this phenomenon in the community.
Select one:
True
False
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_________, which should be part of the community preparedness plan, is the process of moving persons
or property from a dangerous or
Select one:
a. Evacuation
b. House
c. Hospital
d. Center
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True
False
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Select one:
a. Ordinary
b. Conventional
c. Normal
d. Mainstreaming
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Select one:
a. Growing
b. Increasing
c. Decreasing
d. Developing
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_________ community risk assessment includes hazard, exposure and vulnerability assessment.
Select one:
a. Cooperation
b. Participatory
c. Attendance
d. Assistance
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with eruption.
Select one:
True
False
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DRRM ensures that disaster risk reduction and _________change measures are gender responsive,
sensitive to indigenous knowledge systems,
and respectful of human rights.
Select one:
a. Temperature
b. Humidity
c. Weather
d. Climate
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Lahar, ash fall, pyroclastic flow, ballistic projectile, volcanic gasses and lava Flow are some of the
volcanic related hazards.
Select one:
True
False
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Title, legends, bar scale, Orientation Compass and coordinates are the major parts/elements found in
geologic maps.
Select one:
True
False
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Fire safety is the condition of being _________ from the risk or danger of fire. It is also the quality or
state of not presenting or involving risk or
danger of fire.
Select one:
a. Sheltered
b. Safe
c. Guarded
d. Secure
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Lava flows are streams of molten rock that come from a heavy rain.
Select one:
True
False
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and effective information, advisory, and
warning to individuals, families, communities, or populations on the existence of danger, and what can
be done to prevent, avoid, or minimize
danger
Select one:
a. Warning
b. Caution
c. Advisory
d. Notification
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True
False
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mm in diameter.
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True
False
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True
False
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The color white usually means that there are no or zero percent chance for a landslide or sinkhole to
occur in that particular area in the map.
Select one:
True
False
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The government is responsible for helping people during calamities, however _________ or people
should develop their coping capacities and
should rely on themselves, while seeking assistance from the government.
Select one:
a. Group
b. Set
c. Area
d. Communities
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True
False
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If you suspect an imminent landslide or sinkhole danger contact (or call or inform) your local fire, police,
or public works department.
Select one:
True
False
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systems.
Select one:
True
False
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True
False
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_________ people, particularly those in dangerous locations need to prioritize Disaster Risk Reduction in
their lives, even they have so many
things to think about, because their safety is at stake.
Select one:
a. Restricted
b. Local
c. District
d. Regional
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Select one:
a. Decreasing
b. Growing
c. Developing
d. Increasing
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analysis,
Select one:
a. Confirmation
b. Verification
c. Distinguishing
d. Identification
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Select one:
True
False
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During a landslide, evacuate or stay out of the path of landslide or debris flow.
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True
False
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False
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True
False
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_________ and security of the individuals, household and communities is as important as education and
health.
Select one:
a. Well-being
b. Wellfare
c. Security
d. Safety
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Earthquake hazard maps illustrate potential for ground-based volcanic impacts-lava flows, pyroclastic
flows, ash fall, volcanic gases, and more
Select one:
True
False
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True
False
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Only observations are used to help understand the areas that may be affected by specific volcanic
eruption phenomena.
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True
False
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True
False
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Disaster risk reduction is the responsibility of _________, not the government alone, because everybody
needs to be safe.
Select one:
a. Anybody
b. All
c. Everybody
d. Each one
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The Act repealed PD No. 1566 of 1978 and transforms the disaster management system in the country
from disaster _________ towards disaster
risk reduction.
Select one:
a. Response
b. Rejoinder
c. Answer
d. Reaction
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A volcanologist is not so educated in geophysics that works and observes active volcanoes.
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True
False
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Only active volcanoes may release to the atmosphere gasses in the form of water vapor, hydrogen
sulfide, sulfur dioxide, carbon monoxide,
hydrogen chloride and hydrogen fluoride.
Select one:
True
False
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Select one:
a. Normal
b. Mainstreaming
c. Conventional
d. Ordinary
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necessary approach to put communities out
of harm's way.
Select one:
True
False
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Active volcanoes can bring damaging effects to people, property, livelihood and environment during an
eruption.
Select one:
True
False
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Volcanoes are difficult to know when they would erupt because they don't provide any type of warnings
before eruptions begin.
Select one:
True
False
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Arson pertains to the malicious burning of property, using certain chemicals, bombs, etc., and causing
_________ to start.
Select one:
a. Combustion
b. Conflagration
c. Fire
d. Blaze
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The DRRM Act is _________ in addressing disasters and focused on the need for prevention, mitigation,
preparedness, and response.
Select one:
a. Driven
b. Entriprising
c. Proactive
d. Energetic
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During a volcanic eruption, do not follow the instructions that go with the warning because the waning
may be wrong, it's too difficult.
Select one:
True
False
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sensitive to indigenous knowledge systems, and
respectful of human rights.
Select one:
True
False
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During a landslide stay alert and awake.
Select one:
True
False
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True
False
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Select one:
a. Biology
b. Chemistry
c. Science
d. Physics
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Volcanoes are natural systems, and their activities are always predictable.
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True
False
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True
False
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True
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There are _________ priorities for action in the Sendai Framework on Disaster Risk Reduction.
Select one:
a. Seven
b. Five
c. Three
d. Four
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There are _________ global targets to reduce disaster risks as agreed in the Sendai Framework on
Disaster Risk Reduction.
Select one:
a. Six
b. Two
c. Seven
d. Five
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Most of the time _________ fire are started in trashcans or in piles of garbage because it is the easiest
thing to light.
Select one:
a. Knowing
b. Deliberate
c. Intentional
d. Intended
GBIO - 121
They are hollow cylinders and are the thickest of the cytoskeleton structures
A: microtubules
The exchange of genetic material between non-sister chromatids of homologous chromosomes.
A: crossing over
It is closely related DNA–containing organelles include chloroplasts, chromoplasts, and a diverse group
of leucoplasts.
A: plastids
The relationship is evident (protein structure determines its function) , (nucleic acids structure results in
a genetic code) , anatomy (longer
necked giraffes are more functional than short neck giraffes) , as well as cells.
A: structure-function relationship
The belief that living organisms grow directly from decaying organic substances was the accepted
explanation for the appearance of small
organisms.
A: spontaneous generation
The smallest unit of structure and function of all living organisms.
A: cell
True or False: People with both normal undefected mtDNA and not normal, defected mtDNA, may not
inherit mitochondrial disease.
Answer: true
The division of the cell’s nucleus the final step before two daughter cells are produced.
A: mitosis
True or False: Tight junctions are the closely associated areas of cells.
Answer: false
The smallest cell currently known has a diameter of only 400 nm.
A: prokaryotic cells
True or False: Mitosis begins immediately at the conclusion of interphase, specifically at the end of the
G2 phase.
Answer: true
A watery fluid that contains cytoskeletal fragments, dissolved particles and organelles.
A: cytosol
They are structures that carry out specific functions inside the cell.
A: organelles
True or False: Cells come in the same shape
Answer: false
They are usually single–celled and smaller than eukaryotic cells.
A: Prokaryotic cells
True or False: Biologists in the early part of the 19th century suggested that all living things were made
of cells.
Answer: true
True or False: A mitochondrion, is a membrane–enclosed organelle that is found in most prokaryotic.
Answer: FALSE
Sperm cells are the only human cell with
A: flagella
True or False: A desmosome is a cell junction specialized for cell-to-cell adhesion.
A: true
True or False: Rudolf Virchow observed that cells cannot divide to produce more cells.
A: false
One of Schwann's original conclusions stated that cells formed in a similar way to crystals.
A: cell theory
They are also called the plasma membrane which is the physical boundary between the intracellular
space which is the physical boundary
between the intracellular space ( the inside of the cell) and the extracellular environment.
A: cell membrane
True or False: The spindle starts to form during prophase of mitosis.
Answer: true
True or False: Prophase is the first and longest phase of mitosis.
Answer: true
They are found in simple and stratified squamous epithelium, and in muscle tissue where they find
muscle cells to one another.
A: desmosome
It forms the “strings” which support celery stalks
A: collenchyma
True or False: During mitotic phase (M) is when the nucleus and then the cytoplasm divide.
A: true
The organelles on which proteins are made during protein synthesis
A: ribosomes
One gap junction channel is composed of how many connexions.
A: two
True or False: The nucleus of many cells also contains an organelle called a nucleolus.
A: true
A repeating series of events that include growth , DNA synthesis, and cell division.
A: cell cycle
True or False: As a cell grows, its volume increses more quickly than its surface area.
A: true
It strengthen and support parts of the plant which have completed elongation.
A: sclerenchymal cells
The Father of microscopy

A: Antony van Leeuwenhoek
True or False: Biologists found cells everywhere
A: true
True or False: Porins form channels that allow small molecules to freely diffuse across the membrane to
the other.
Answer: true
It organizes the inside structure of the cell by holding organelles and providing strength
A: Intermediate filaments
They may form a mass of abnormal cells.
A: CANCER
True or False: The nucleolus is inside the nucleus, and is where ribosomes are made.
Answer: true
During this phase, the cell grows rapidly while performing routine metabolic processes.
A: Growth Phase 1
Such cell types found lining your small intestine, where they absorb nutrients from your food through
protrusions.
A: microvilli
Which of the following statements is not a part of cell theory
A: Not all living things are made of one or more cells
His carefully crafted microscopes and insightful observations f microbes led to the title the" The Father
of Microscopy." Give the complete
name.
A: Antony Van Leeuwenhoek
He is a British biologist and early microscopes that looked at thin slices of cork under a microscope. Give
the complete name.
A: Robert hooke
It makes and stores plant pigments

A: chromoplast
They are microscopic organisms that have neither a membrane-bound nucleus nor membrane-bound
organelles.
A: prokaryotes
An outer gelatinuous layer both joins and separates adjacent plant cells.
A: middle lamella
True or False: A gap junction or nexus is a specialized intercellular connection between a variety of
animal cell types.
Answer: true
The kind of microscopes that use more than one lens have been invented around 1595 by Zacharias
Jansen , a Dutch spectacle maker.
A: Compound Microscope
They are found in most eukaryotic cells and they are absent in some plants and most fungi.
A: centrioles
One component of cells that is common to all cells.
A: cytoplasm
True or False: The cell cycle is not controlled by regulatory proteins at three key checkpoints in the cycle.
A: false
They are most closely resemble the generalized plant cell, desmosomes.
A: parenchymal cells
True or False: Prokaryotes have 80S ribosomes each consisting of a small (20S) and a large (60s) subunit.
Answer: false
It is a type of junctional complex present only in vertebrates
A: Tight Junction
True or False: Cancer is a disease that occurs when the cell cycle is longer regulated.
Answer: true
It normally range between 1-100 um in diameter

A: eukaryotic cells
The process by which the information in a gene is “decodes’ by various cell molecules to produce a
functional gene product, such as a
protein molecule or an RNA molecule.
A: gene expression
The Cell’s DNA is copied in the process of DNA replication.
A: Synthesis phase
True or False: In plant cells, the spindle forms with centrioles.
Answer: false
True or False: Changes in the DNA or RNA sequence can have significant phenotypc effects or they can
have no effects.
Answer: true
A new methodologies are developed, testing for more mutations will become more common and less
expensive.
A: Cystic fibrosis
This kind of disorder that can be inherited in a dominant or recessive manner.
A: genetic disorder
It is the diffusion of water molecules across a selectively permeable membrane from an area of highly
concentration to an area of lower
concentration.
A: osmosis
A mutation that is lethal prior to birth or shortly after birth.
A: homozygous
It is the representation of genetic inheritance.
A: pedigree
A kind of genetic disorder that reduced activity of a protein needed for blood clotting.
A: Hemophilia A
The exchange of genetic materials can happen many times within the same pair of homologous
chromosomes, creating unique
combination of alleles.
A: Homologous combination
True or False: The mutation can be passed from one generation to the next.
A: true
It separates chromatids, similar to anaphase of mitosis.
A: Anaphase II
True or False: Individuals can be diagnosed prior to birth by genetic testing.
A: true
The stage when the synaptonemal complex degrades and homologous chromosomes disassociate
slightly from each other.
A: Diplotene stage
Human cells have ________pairs of chromosomes
A: 23
True or False: For autosomal dominant disorders, a person with the disorder has a 50% chance of
passing on the gene to their offspring.
A: true
True or False: Mitosis is the multi-phase process in which the nucleus of a eukaryotic cell multiply.
A: false
An outer, gelatinous layer both joins and separates adjacent plant cells.
A: middle lamella
They are caused by mutations in genes on the X chromosome. Only a few disorders have this inheritance
pattern.
A: X-linked dominant
True or False: It is an autosomal recessive disorder, requiring the inheritance of a defective gene from
each parent.
A: true
A condition caused by abnormalities, such as mutations in your genes or chromosomes.
A: Genetic disorder
The genetic material from two non-sister chromatids actually intertwine around each other and some
material from non-sister chromatid
switch chromosomes that is the material breaks off and reattaches at the same position in the
homologous chromosome.
A: chiasma
It has normally has a negative regulatory effect on bone growth.
A: Achondroplasia Gene 3 (FGFR3)
This is an example of a recessive disorder.
A: Tay-Sachs Disease
True or False: Tay-Sachs results from mutations in the HEXA gene located on chromosomes.
A: true
In this stage, chromosome further condense
A: Diakinesis
The most common form of dwarfism in humans, and it is caused by a dominant mutation.
A: Achondroplasia
More than 98% of achondrolasia is caused by this at nucleotide 1138 of the FGFR3 gene, which causes a
glycine to arginine substitution.
A: G to A point mutation
It is an autosomal recessive inheritable disorder caused by a mutation in a gene called the cystic
fibrosis , transmembrane conductance
regulator (CFTR)
A: Cystic fibrosis
Anyone can be a carrier of the Tay-Sachs mutation, but the disease is most common among the:
A: Ashkenazi Jewish population

Each chromosome contains two sister chromatids and each chromosomes has a ____________ present
in the nucleus.
A: crossing-over
It is an autosomal dominant disorder.
A: Achondroplasia
The stage occurs as the chromosomes pair with their homologue forming homologous chromosome
pairs
A: Zygotene
True or False: Homozygous achondroplasia is usually a lethal condition.
A: true
occurs when the plasma membrane folds inward to form a channel allowing dissolved substances to
enter the cell.
A: Pinocytosis
True or False: One in 22 people of European descent are carriers of a mutated CFTR gene.
A: true
True or False: The phragmosome suspends the cell nucleus in the center of the cell in preparation for
prophase.
A: true
An affected person usually has unaffected parents who each carry a single copy of the mutated gene.
A: Autosomal recessive
Collagen genes result in bone disorders, specifically the spectrum of osteogenesis imperfect, or brittle
bone diseases
A: Type I collagen genes
True or False: During interphase the cell grows, performs routine life process, and prepare to divide.
A: true
During this phase, the cell makes final preparations to divide.
A: Growth phase 2 (G2)

It begins after DNA replicates during interphase of the cell cycle.
A: Meiosis
True or False: Proteins are made on ribosomes.
A: true (false)
One of the main principles of biology.
A: Cell Theory
A specialized inter-cellular connection between a variety of animal cell-types.
A: Gap junction
True or False: The variety of cell shapes seen in prokaryotes and eukaryotes reflects the functions that
each cell has confirming the
structure-functional relationship seen throughout seen throughout biology.
A: true
True or False: All cells come from the other cells.
A: true
The field of Biology that studies cells.
A: Cell biology
They are made of two thin actin chains that are twisted around one another.
A: microfilaments
True or False: Research in cell Biology is closely linked to molecular biology, as well as genetics,
biochemistry and developmental biology.
A: true
It includes both mitosis and cytokinesis.
A: Mitotic Phase
True or False: When a ribosome finishes reading an mRNA molecule, the two ribosomal subunits
associate.
A: false
During the centromeres of the chromosomes line up along metaphase plate or equatorial plane, in
essence the approximate middle of the
cell.
A: Metaphase
In 1858, the German doctor that observed that cells divide to produce more cells. He proposed that all
cells arise only from other cells.
A: Rudolf Virchow
True or False: The eukaryotic cells spends most of its “life” in interphase of the cell cycle.
A: True
True or False: ATP is produced by the enzyme, ATP synthase, which is a membrane protein of the
mitochondria inner membrane.
A: true
The relationship is evident (protein structure determines its function) , (nucleic acids structure results in
a genetic code) , anatomy (longer
necked giraffes are more functional than short neck giraffes) , as well as cells.
A: structure-function relationship
True or False: A large central vacuole may occupy for 40 to 90% of a plant cell volume.
A: false
It is the phase in which the sister chromatid separate.
A: anaphase
True or False: Single celled (unicellular) organisms like bacteria can be composed of trillions of cells.
A: false
Eukaryotic DNA organized in one or more linear molecules called
A: chromosomes
They are rod-like structures made of short microtubules.
A: Centrioles
True or False: The cell cycle is a repeating series of events that cells go through.
A: true
True or False: The Cell cycle in prokaryotes is more complicated than cell cycle in eukaryotes.
A: false
True or False: Centrosomes a are associated with the nuclear membrane during prophase of the mitosis
A: true
The watery substance that does not contain organelles, is made of 80% to 90% water.
A: cytosol
True or False: Mitosis is a single stage process.
A: false
It has a long, thin cellular extension, allowing for very quick and accurate communication and responses.
A: Neurons
True or False: Ribosomes can be found alone or in groups within the cytoplasm.
A: true
The two German scientists who suggested that cells were the basic unit of structure and function of all
living things.
A: Theodor Schwann and Matthias Jakob Schleiden
It is located outside the cell membrane and shapes, supports, and protects the cell.
A: cell wall
True or False: Cancer cells grow rapidly and may form a mass of abnormal cells.
A: true
True or False: Centrosomes a are associated with the nuclear membrane during prophase of the mitosis.
A: true
It is the final step in cell division
A: cytokinesis
It is due to a deficiency in the enzyme phenylalanine hydroxylase (PAH)
A: Phenylketonuria
A tail that is water fearing
A: hydrophobic
True or False: The water-fearing, hydrophobic tails face each other in the middle of the cell membrane,
because water is not found in this
space.
A: true
True or False: Over 80% of unrelated individuals with with Achondropasin have the same mutation
making it one of the most common
mutations in the human genome.
A: false
True or False: Gated ion channels can open or close in response to different types of stimuli such as
electrical or chemical signals.
A: true
True or False: Cystic fibrosis (CF) can result from more than a thousand different mutations in the human
genome.
A: true
If it is diagnosed early enough, an affected newborn can grow up with normal brain development.
A: PKU
True or False: A hypertonic solution is one having a lower concentration of a substance on the outside of
a cell that is found within the cells
themselves.
A: false
True or False: The hypertonic solution has a lower water concentration than the hypotonic solution.
A: true
True or False: Molecules in the cell membrane does not allow it to be semi-permeable.
A: false
is a type of vacuole that removes excess water from a cell.

A: contractile vacuole
It allows only certain materials to pass through. Characteristic of the cell membrane.
A: semipermeable
True or False: Ion channels are very specific as they allow only certain ions through the cell membrane.
A: true
is the energy-requiring process of pumping molecules and ions across membranes uphill against a
gradient.
A: Active transport
It is the to an area of lower concentration.
A: false (true)
It is the ability of an organism to maintain stable internal conditions such body temperature regardless
of outside conditions.
A: homeostasis
True or False: A uniport can be either a channel protein or a carrier of a protein.
A: true (false)
The plasma membrane pulls away from the cell wall as it shrivels.
A: plasmolysis
True or False: Cells are found in all different types of environments, and these environments are
constantly changing.
A: true
The general term for all of the material inside the cell excluding the nucleus of eukaryotic cells.
A: cytoplasm
is a cell junction specialized for cell-to- cell adhesion
A: desmosome
it is a cell junction specialized for cell-to- cell adhesion
A: desmosome
is the process of capturing a substance or particle from outside the cell by engulfing it with the cell
membrane.
A: Endocytosis
True or False: The hydrophobic interior of the phospholipid bilayer allow ions or polar molecules
through because they are hydrophilic or
water loving.
A: false
True or False: Osmosis cannot be seen very effectively when potato slices are added to a high
concentration of salt solution.
A: false
is to transport of two substrates in the same direction across the membrane.
A: Symport
True or False: The cell cycle is controlled mainly by regulatory proteins.
A: true
Lipid barrier that surrounds the cell; also known as the plasma membrane.
A: cell membrane
The protein that assists molecules entering or leaving the cells.
A: transport protein
True or False: There is no water found on both the inside and the outside of cells.
A: false
describes the process of vesicles fusing with the plasma membrane and releasing their contents to the
outside of the cell.
A: Exocytosis
They are caused by mutation on the Y chromosome
A: Y-linked disorders
True or False: Homeostasis is a dynamic equilibrium rather than an unchanging state.
A: true
True or False: The inside of the plasma membrane is hydrophobic so certain molecules can easily pass
through the membrane.
A: false
True or False: If a cell has a cell wall, wall helps maintain the cell’s water balance.
A: true
A “cellular eating” occurs when the dissolved materials enter the cell.
A: Phagocytosis
True or False: Fish cells like all cells have semi-permeable membranes.
A: true
It is an autosomal recessive genetic disorder characterized by the inability to metabolize the amino acid
pheylalanine.
A: Phenylketonuria
True or False: An increased surfaced area to volume ratio means decreased exposure to the
environment.
A: false
True or False: Sclerenchymal cells strengthen and support parts of the plant which have completed
elongation.
A: true
True or False: Cells are essentially carbohydrates lipids, proteins and nuclei acids in a water
environment.
A: true
During this stage, the nucleus membrane disintegrates and microtubule spindles invade the center of
the cell.
A: prometaphase
True or False: The greater the surface area to volume ratio of a cell the easier it is for the cell to get rid
of wastes and take it essential
materials such as oxygen and nutrients.
A: true
True or False: The Cell Theory has withstood intense examination of cells by modern powerful
microscope and other instruments.
A: true
True or False: Tubulin are protein that forms microtubules.
A: true
They are hair-like structures on the surface of the cell that attach to other bacterial cells or surfaces
A: pili
serves as a “jelly” in which organelles are suspended and held together by the cell membrane.
A: Cytoplasm
The action potential signalling contraction is passed efficiently and effortlessly.
A: gap junction
It is the diffusion of water molecules across a selectively permeable membrane from an area of higher
concentration.
A: Osmosis
True or False: Cells as the primary building block of life.
A: true
True or False: Cells share the same needs.
A: true
True or False: Big cells, such as white blood cells, often grow more nuclei so that they can supply enough
proteins and RNA.
A: true
True or False: All metabolic functions carried out by a prokaryotic take place in the plasma membrane or
the cytosol.
A: true
True or False: Single-celled organisms like bacteria are obviously composed of three cells.
A: false
In this stage, chromosomes further condense.
A: diakinesis stage
True or False: The smaller subunit binds to thee transfer RNA (tRNA) while the larger subunits find to the
mRNA pattern.
A: false
This is the process of capturing a substance of particle from outside the cell by engulfing it with the cell
membrane.
A: endocytosis
The mixture of a solute in a solvent.
A: Solution
True or False: A bigger cell is more effective and transporting materials, including waste products, than a
smaller cell.
A: false
It concerns the understanding of the interactions between the various systems of a cell, including the
relationship between DNA, RNA and
proteins.
A: Molecular biology
TEXT:
It is a kind of disorders that can be inherited in a dominant or recessive manner.
A: Achondroplasia (WRONG)
True or False: As a cell grows, its volume decreases more quickly that its surface area.
A: false
A sheet of cytoplasm that bisects the middle of the cell.
A: PHRAGMASOME
The division of the cell's nucleus wherein the final step before two daughter cells are produced.
A: MITOSIS
The process of pairing the homologous chromosomes

A: SYNAPSIS
It is the final step in cell division.
A: CYTOKINESIS
It actually includes both mitosis and cytokinesis.
A: MITOTIC PHASE
An outer gelatinous layer that both joins and separates adjacent plant cells.
A: MIDDLE LAMELLA
The exchange of genetic materials between non-sister chromatids of homologous chromosomes.
A: CROSSING OVER
It is a cell junction specialized for cell-to-cell adhesion.
A: DESMOSOME
It is a cellular "scaffolding" or "skeleton" that crisscrosses the cytoplasm.
A: CYTOSKELETON
It is essentially the opposite of prophase and prometaphase.
A: TELOPHASE
It concerns the understanding of the interactions between the various systems of a cell, including the
relationship between DNA, RNA and
proteins.
A: Molecular biology
stage occurs when the synaptonemal complex degrades and homologous chromosomes disassociate
slightly from each other.
- Diplotene
True or False: During mitotic phase (M) is when the nucleus and then the cytoplasm divide.
- true
During this stage, the nucleus membrane disintegrates and microtubule spindles invade the center of
the cell.
- prometaphase
Collagen genes that result in bone disorders, specifically the spectrum of osteogenesis, imperfect or
brittle bone disease.
- Type I collagen genes
True or False: Sclerenchymal cells strengthen and support parts of the plant which have completed
elongation.
- true
True or False: Tubulin are protein that forms microtubules.
- true
Ability of an organism to maintain stable internal conditions such body temperature, regardless of
outside conditions.
- homeostasis
serves as a “jelly” in which organelles are suspended and held together by the cell membrane.
- Cytoplasm
True or False: As a cell grows, its volume decreases more quickly that its surface area.
- false
A representation of genetic inheritance.
- pedigree
A “cellular eating” occurs when the dissolved materials enter the cell.
- Phagocytosis
It is a type of vacuole that removes excess water from a cell.
- contractile vacuole
It is the diffusion of water molecules across a selectively permeable membrane from an area of higher
concentration.
- Osmosis
It is an autosomal recessive genetic disorder characterized by the inability to metabolize the amino acid
pheylalanine.
- Phenylketonuria
True or False: Cells are essentially carbohydrates lipids, proteins and nuclei acids in a water
environment.
- true
True or False: All cells come from the other cells.
- true
During this phase, the cell makes final preparations to divide.
- Growth phase 2
The action potential signalling contraction is passed efficiently and effortlessly
- gap junction
This is the process of capturing a substance of particle from outside the cell by engulfing it with the cell
membrane.
- endocytosis
Anyone can be a carrier of the Tay-Sachs mutation, but the disease is most common among this people.
- Ashkenazi Jewish population
is to transport of two substrates in the same direction across the membrane.
- Symport
It is the diffusion of water molecules across a selectively permeable membrane from in area a higher
concentration to an of lower
concentration.
- osmosis
True or False: Single-celled organisms like bacteria are obviously composed of three cells.
- false
True or False: A bigger cell is more effective and transporting materials, including waste products, than a
smaller cell.
- false
It describes the process of vesicles fusing with the plasma membrane and releasing their contents to the
outside cell.
- Exocytosis
human cells have
- 23
True or False: An increased surfaced area to volume ratio means decreased exposure to the
environment.
- false
The stage occurs as the chromosomes pair with their homologue forming homologous chromosomes
pairs.
- Zygotene
True or False: Big cells, such as white blood cells, often grow more nuclei so that they can supply enough
proteins and RNA.
- true
True or False: Cells share the same needs.
- true
True or False: The smaller subunit binds to thee transfer RNA (tRNA) while the larger subunits find to the
mRNA pattern.
- false
True or False: The greater the surface area to volume ratio of a cell the easier it is for the cell to get rid
of wastes and take it essential
materials such as oxygen and nutrients.
- true
True or False: The Cell Theory has withstood intense examination of cells by modern powerful
microscope and other instruments.
- true
The most common form of dwarfism in humans, and it is caused by a dominant mutation.
- Achondroplasia
True or False: Cells as the primary building block of life.
- true
True or False: All metabolic functions carried out by a prokaryotic take place in the plasma membrane or
the cytosol.
- true
The mixture of a solute in a solvent.
- Solution
In this stage, chromosomes further condense.
- diakinesis
protein assists molecules entering or leaving the cell.
- transport
It is a kind of disorders that can be inherited in a dominant or recessive manner.
- hemophilia A
It begins after DNA replicates during interphase of the cell cycle.
- Meiosis
TEXT:
A sheet of cytoplasm that bisects the middle of the cell.
A: PHRAGMASOME
The division of the cell's nucleus wherein the final step before two daughter cells are produced.
A: MITOSIS
The process of pairing the homologous chromosomes
A: SYNAPSIS
It is the final step in cell division.
A: CYTOKINESIS
It actually includes both mitosis and cytokinesis.
A: MITOTIC PHASE
An outer gelatinous layer that both joins and separates adjacent plant cells.
A: MIDDLE LAMELLA
The exchange of genetic materials between non-sister chromatids of homologous chromosomes.
A: CROSSING OVER
It is a cell junction specialized for cell-to-cell adhesion.
A: DESMOSOME
It is a cellular "scaffolding" or "skeleton" that crisscrosses the cytoplasm.
A: CYTOSKELETON
It is essentially the opposite of prophase and prometaphase.
A: TELOPHASE
Its bases are like the letters of a four-letter alphabet: These "letters" can be combined to form "words".
Groups of three bases form
words. They carry genetic information in living organisms.
A: Genetic code
During a chemical reaction, the reactants are used up to create the products.
A: true
They are molecules which have many different functions in living things, and are made of amino acids.
A: Proteins
Water is one of the most common ingredients in solutions.
A: true
Nucleic acids contain the information needed for cells to make proteins.
A: true
When water (H2O) breaks down into hydrogen (H2) and oxygen (O2).
A: decomposition reaction
These are the main chemical components of living organisms
A: organic compounds
A type of simple sugar which results from bonding two single sugars together. Also commonly called two
sugars.
A: disaccharide
Described as the "energy currency of the cell" or the "molecular unit of currency."
A: ATP
Carbon atoms are bonded to as many hydrogen atoms as possible.
A: True
DNA and RNA have one function relating to the genetic code and proteins.
A: False
The sterol __________ is an important part of cell membranes and plays other vital roles in the body.
A: Cholesterol
Small building block molecule
A: Monomer
Proteins has no ability to bond with other molecules.
A: false
Proteins are similar to one another in the number and order of amino acids.
A: false
They have a "kink" or bend in their chain.
A: Unsaturated fats
Enzymes can catalyse up to several million reactions per second.
A: true
Nucleic acids are found not only in all living cells but also in viruses.
A: true
Protein, fats and carbohydrates are three of the main building blocks that make up your body.
A: true
They are organic compounds that contain carbon, hydrogen, oxygen, nitrogen, and phosphorus.
A: Nucleic acids
Two monosaccharides will bond together through a dehydration reaction in which a water molecule is
lost.
A: true
Glycogen is used for long term energy storage in animal cells.
A: true
________ is a strongly polar solvent and polar solvents are better at dissolving polar solutes.
A: water
Fats are liquid at room temperature, whereas oils are fluid.
A: false
Proteins can differ in both the number and order of amino acids.
A: true
Antibodies are known as "biological catalysts".
A: false
Phospolipids serve as the main component of the protective outer membrane of all cells.
A: true
Although some lipids in the diet are essential excess dietary lipids can be harmful.
A: true
are pairs of bases that bond together.
A: complementary bases
Many organic compounds and other important biochemical are polar, so they dissolve well in water.
A: true
The name given to the collection of the lump sum of chemical reactions performed by an organism to
survive
A: metabolism
These are proteins that protect you against disease.

A: Antibodies
The largest proteins have more than 20,000 amino acids.
A: false
The unique blueprints to make the proteins that give you your traits.
A: DNA
It refers to a substance that speeds up chemical reactions.
A: catalyst
When ATP is used in DNA synthesis, the ribose sugar is first converted to deoxyribose by ribonuleotide
reductase.
A: True
Life could exist without enzymes.
A: false
It's important for you and other animals to eat food with protein because we cannot make certain
amino acids on your own.
A: true
The binding of complementary bases allows DNA molecules to take this well-known shape.
A: double helix
It is a single simple 6-carbon ring with the chemical formula C6H12O6.
A: glucose
A human stores glycogen in liver cells.
A: true
Animals use this for long term energy storage and to keep warm
A: fats
Protein that identifies pathogens by other substances as being harmful.
A: antibody
There are only 10 common amino acids needed to build proteins.

A: false
Fructose has the same chemical formula as glucose but the atoms are arranged differently.
A: true
Enzymes are type of protein that speed up chemical reactions.
A: true
DNA consists of three chains of nucleotides.
A: false
All cells are soluble in or does not mix with water.
A: false
Starches are one of the more common polysaccharides.
A: true
Reduction is the decrease of electrons or an increase in oxidation state by a molecule, atom, or ion.
A: false
In Saturated fats, some carbon are not bonded to as many hydrogen atoms as possible.
A: false
Complex carbohydrate form when simple sugars bind together into a chain.
A: true
Strongly polar solvents like water can dissolve strongly nonpolar pollutes likes oil.
A: false
Enzymes bind both reactant molecules called the substrate tightly and specifically at the ________ on
the enzyme molecule.
A: active site
Most anabolic reactions are endergonic.
A: true
The substances that form as a result of a chemical reaction.
A: products
It is a saccharide polymer containing a small number (typically two to ten) of monosaccharides
A: oligosaccharides
DNA and RNA contain genetic instructions for protein, help synthesize proteins, and pass genetic
introductions on to daughter cells and
offspring.
A: True
It sometimes referred to as animal starch.
A: glycogen
Molecules that absorb specific wavelengths (colors) of light
A: pigment molecules
The proteins which speed up chemical reactions.
A: enzyme
Which of the following consists of cells which contain organelles called chloroplasts (small green ovals)
A: Elodea
Group of molecules, including chloropyll in the thylakoid membrane of a chloroplast, captures light
energy.
A: photosystem
The green pigment present in most plants which absorbs solar energy and helps convert that energy into
chemical energy.
A: chlorophyll
Space outside the thylakoid membranes of a chloroplast site of the Calvin cycle of photosynthesis.
A: stroma
When fossil fuels are burned, the chemical energy changes to thermal energy.
A: true
Sub-organelle within the chloroplast which organize patterns of proteins and other molecules which
conduct photosynthesis.
A: Thylakoid
The organelle of photosynthesis; its helps maximize photosynthesis.
A: chloroplast
Heterothroph can make their own food so they must eat or absorb it.
A: false
Chemical energy in our cells
A: ATP
It is the energy which can be found in moving objects.
A: kinetic energy
It refers to energy that is stored in objects, typically because of their position or shape.
A: Potential energy
Refers to organelles which conduct photosynthesis, and closely resemble cyanobacteria.
A: chloroplasts
Eukaryotic organelles, such as mitochondria, evolved from ancient, free-living prokaryotes that invaded
other prokaryotic cells.
A: Theory of Endosymbiosis
_______ play an important role in neutralizing acids throughout the body.
A: Bicarbonate ions
Energy transformation obeys the law of conservation of energy which states that energy cannot be
created or destroyed.
A: true
Series of electron-transport molecules that pass high-energy electrons from molecule to molecule and
capture their energy.
A: electron transport chain
It can not be created or destroyed only transformed.
A: Energy
Property of matter that is defined as the ability to do work.
A: Energy
When energy changes during Energy Transformation the energy is used up.
A: false
NADH (nicotinamide adenine dinucleotide) and ATP (adenosine triphosphate) are used during cellular
respiration.
A: false
Stacks of sac-like thylakoid membranes, found in chloroplasts and photosynthetic bacteria.
A: grana
NADP+ accepts an electron at the end of the light reactions electron transport chain of photosynthesis.
A: true
Mechanical energy commonly changes between kinetic and potential energy.
A: true
A pigment within plant cells which absorbs light.
A: Chlorophyll
Molecules that accept and temporarily hold high-energy electrons.
A: electron carrier
Kinetic energy can be used to change the position or shape of an object giving it potential energy.
A: true
Refers to the substance involved in a chemical reaction that is present at the beginning of the reaction.
A: reactant
Refers to molecules which accept and temporarily hold high-energy electrons.
A: Electron carrier
When this occurs, the light is absorbed by chlorophyll in the membrane of chloroplasts in the plant cell.
A: Light dependent reactions
Sunlight contains many different wavelengths which are visible when they separate into a rainbow.
A: true
An organism in a symbiotic relationship

A: Symbiont
Hydrogen ions are pumped into the thylakoids, forming an electrochemical gradient whose energy
builds ATP molecules.
A: true
Organism that produces organic compounds from energy and simple inorganic molecules; also known as
a producer.
A: Autotrophs
correlates with energy use, which reflects the link between oxygen and energy metabolism.
A: Respiration rate
Cellular respiration in the presence of oxygen; produces 36-38 ATP molecules glucose.
A: Aerobic respiration
It can power other metabolic pathways, or in many organisms, provide energy for further ATP synthesis.
A: hot hydrogen
During the light-dependent stage of photosynthesis only water were used to produce oxygen gas.
A: false
The second stage of photosynthesis; results in the formation of a sugar.
A: calvin cycle
The oldest and most widespread pathway for making ATP
A: Glycolysis
Photosynthesis cells arranged into tightly packed sheaths around the veins of a leaf.
A: Bundle-sheath cells
First stage of photosynthesis in which light energy from the sun is captured and transformed into
chemical energy also known as the light
reaction.
A: light-dependent reaction
Light does not provides energy to split water molecules into electrons, hydrogen ions, and oxygen gas.
A: false
Short term energy carrier; temporarily stores energy during cellular respiration.
A: NADH
A photosynthetic adaptation to arid conditions in some plants; allows stomata to be closed during the
day.
A: CAM photosynthesis
Energy-carrying molecule that cells use to power their metabolic process; energy currency of the cells.
(Note: acronym is also accepted)
A: ATP
The splitting of a water molecule to replace electrons used during the light reactions; splitting by light.
A: photolysis
Exchange of gases between the body and the outside air.
A: respiration
The enzyme that combines one molecule of CO2 with a 5 carbon sugar; called ribulose biphosphate
(RUB P; the most abundant enzyme
on earth).
A: RuBiSCO
Bacteria which make yogurt.
A: Lactobacillus acidophilus
The process of "splitting glucose".
A: glycolysis
The process which converts carbon dioxide in the air to organic molecules as in photosynthesis.
A: Carbon fixation
It is essential to have efficient cellular respiration; most organisms need oxygen for a single purpose to
release energy from food for use by
cells.
A: Oxygen
Every seconds, the sun fuses over 600 million tons of hydrogen into 596 tons of helium, converting over
4 tons of helium into light and heat
energy.
A: true
The movement of carbon and oxygen between the ground, atmosphere, oceans and living organisms
A: carbon-oxygen cycle
The 3-carbon product of glycolysis is called
A: Pyruvate
Ion channel and enzyme complex; chemically bonds a phosphate group to ADP, producing ATP as H+
ions flow through the ion channel.
A: ATP synthase
Glucose is the energy-rich product of photosynthesis and a universal food for life.
A: true
Kinetic Energy is the process in which energy changes from one type or form to another.
A: false
The process in which one kind of energy changes into another kind
A: Energy conversion
It provides up to 85% of the energy needs of new "flex-fuel" cars
A: Ethanol
It completes the breakdown of glucose which began with glycolysis.
A: Krebs Cycle
It is formed by the reduction of pyruvate.
A: Lactic acid
The Matrix of the Mitochondria is the site of Krebs Cycle reactions.
A: true
The type of anaerobic respiration carried out by yogurt bacteria such as Lactobacillus.
A: Lactic acid fermentation
The aerobic phases of cellular respiration in eukaryotes occur within these organelles.
A: Mitochondria
Behind each release of gas is an army gut bacteria undergoing some crazy biochemistry.
A: true
According to this theory, engulfing of some certain aerobic bacteria led to eukaryotic cells with
mitochondria.
It actually prefers fermentation over aerobic respiration
A: Saccharomyces cerevisiae
It is a type of anaerobic respiration that includes glycolysis followed by the conversion of pyruvic acid to
ethanol and carbon dioxide and the
regeneration of NAD+
from NADH.
A: Alcoholic fermentation
Hydrogen ions flows "down" the gradient from outer to inner compartment through the ion
channel/enzyme ATP synthase
A: true
Fill in the blank: _________ is an energy carrier molecule produced during the Krebs Cycle of Aerobic
Cellular respiration.
A: FADH2
Carbon is the final electron; no part of the process - from the Kreb Cycle.
A: false
Refers to the substance involved in a chemical reaction that is present at the beginning of the reaction.
A: reactant
When bread bakes, yeast releases carbon dioxide gas.
A: true
It allows glycolysis to continue making ATP.
A: NAD+
It is importantuse to lactic acid fermentation to allow the continuous production of some ATP your
muscle cells.
A: true
The oxygen gradually formed a protective ozone layer, which helped many living organisms on Earth.
A: true
Aerobic respiration begins with the entry of the product of glycolysis, pyruvate into the mitochondria.
A: true
Although humans are obligate aerobes, our muscles cells have not given up on ancient pathways which
allow them to keep producing ATP
quickly when oxygen runs low.
A: true
The Krebs Cycle takes place within the Matrix.
A: true
The third stage of cellular respiration uses the energy stored during the earlier stages in NADH and
FADH2to make ATP.
A: true
The process for making ATP in the absence of oxygen converts glucose to ethanol and carbon dioxide.
A: ethanol fermentation
For Lactobacillus bacteria, the acid resulting from fermentation kills bacterial competitors in buttermilk,
yogurt, and some cottage cheese.
A: true
Lactic Acid fermentation makes ATP in the absence of oxygen by converting glucose to lactic acid.
A: true
Eukaryotic single-celled microorganism classified in the kingdom Fungi.
A: yeast
Fill in the blank: In the ________ , citric acid is carried through a series of chemical reactions which
gradually release energy and capture it
in several carrier molecules.
A: Citric Acid Cycle and Krebs Cycle
The process of producing ATP in the absence of oxygen, through glycolysis alone.
A: Fermentation
We employ this to use their anaerobic talents to help bread use and grapes ferment.
A: Yeast
Muscle cells cannot continue to produce ATP when oxygen runs low using lactic acid fermentation.
A: false
The primary task of the initial state of cellular respiration.
A: false
It can be either a channel protein or a carrier protein, utilized in a facilitated diffusion.
A: uniporter
It means to maintain a stable internal environment.
A: homeostatis
These are essential in carrying out cellular respiration, as they are capable of "splitting" glucose apart to
release chemical energy and
produce carbon dioxide.
A: Enzymes
IDENTIFICATION: This refers to the lipid barrier that surrounds the cell.
A: cell membrane
Proteins are molecules that have many different functions in living things
A: True
An organism which requires oxygen for cellular respiration.
A: Obligate anaerobe
refers to the difference in the concentration of the molecules in the two areas.
A: Concentration Gradient
allows glycosis to continue to make ATP in low-oxygen conditions.
A: lactic acid fermentation
___________ is an energy-carrying molecule which cells use to power their metabolic processes.
A: Adenosine Triphosphate
means "water-loving"
A: hydrophilic
This theory proposes that eukaryotic organelles evolved from ancient, free-living prokaryotes that
invaded other prokaryotic cells.
IDENTIFICATION. This serves a way for small molecules or ions to move across the cell membrane
without input of energy by the cell.
A: passive transport
Antibodies protect you against disease.
A: true
Physics tells us that organize system such as living organisms, tend to disorder without a constant input
energy.
A: true
IDENTIFICATION. They allow formation of a concentration gradient between the extracellular fluid and
the cytosol.
A: ion channels
Within plant cells or algal cells, chloroplasts organize that enzymes, chlorophyll, and accessory pigment
molecules necessary for
photosynthesis.
A: true
is type of transport protein, acts like a pore in the membrane that allows transport of substances across
a cell membrane.
A: channel protein
The light reactions of photosynthesis also obviously occur during night hours.
A: false
Property of matter that is defined as the ability to do work.
A: energy
A metabolic process that uses energy released by the oxidation of nutrients to produce adenosine
triphosphate (ATP).
A: oxidative phosphorylation
Fill in the blank: When the four ATP produced in glycosis and the Krebs Cycle are added, the total of
______ ATP fits the overall equation
for aerobic cellular respiration. (note: numerical answer only)
A: 38
DNA is the unique blueprint to make the proteins that give you your traits.
A: true
These are organelles specialized in carrying out aerobic respiration. They have their own DNA and
ribosomes.
A: Mitochondria
Potential energy is the energy of moving objects.
A: false
FILL IN THE BLANK: A ________is an organism which requires oxygen for cellular respiration.
A: obligate aerobes
FILL IN THE BLANK: Certain molecules require the assistance in the form of ________ to get across the
plasma membrane.
A: transport proteins
Kinetic energy is stored in objects typically because of their position or shape.
A: false
IDENTIFICATION: ____________ is a series of chemical reactions which completes the breakdown of
glucose begun in Stage 1 of aerobic
cellular respiration.
A: Citric Acid Cycle
means "water-hating"
A: hydrophobic
The rate of gas exchange between the body and the outside air.
A: respiration rate
All living things require an ongoing source of energy to do the work of life.
A: true
Organic compound is the secondary components of living organism
A: false
refers to the movement of substances across the cell membrane.
A: cell transport
FILL IN THE BLANK: One of the ways for molecules to pass through a phospholipid membrane,
__________ requires that the cell uses
energy to pull in or pump out certain molecules and ions.
A: active transport
The structure within the chloroplast, this consists of stacks of sac-like thylakoid membranes.
A: grana
Life requires photosynthesis for fuel and for the oxygen to burn that fuel.
A: true
The source of energy for food is sunlight energy.
A: true
When the binding of complementary bases takes place, DNA molecules form a double helix.
A: true
Disaccharide is a type of simple sugar results from bonding two single sugars together.
A: true
Cytosine and guanine doesn't always bond together.
A: false
The formation of new combinations of alleles.
A: genetic recombination
They are called the paired chromosomes as they are formed by a complex with four chromatids.
A: bivalent or tetrad chromosomes
Each cell undergoes this stage, producing four haploid cells, each with a unique combination of genes
and chromosomes.
A: cytokinesis
It refers to the suspended state of the oocytes.
A: Dictyotene stage
A type of cell division which halves the number of chromosomes.
A: Meiosis
Longest phase of meiosis
A: Prophase I
This refers to the pairing of a chromosome during meiosis.
A: synapsis
In this stage, the new plate is rotated by 90 degrees when compared to meiosis 1, perpendicular to the
previous plate.
A: Metaphase II
The first stage of Prophase 1
A: leptotene
The _____________________ of chromosomes, as suggested by Mendel, are based on the fact that
some chromosomes inherited from
the father are facing one side of the cell, while some are facing the other side.
A: independent assortment
CHEM-112
Basic component that makes up any kind of material.
A: atom
This basically makes up any kind of material
A: atom
Anything that occupies space and has mass
A: matter
What is the general term for any body that has mass and occupies space?
A: matter
General term referring to anything that occupies space and has mass
A: matter
Study of materials and its components
A: Chemistry
General term for anything with mass and has volume
A: matter
Quantities standardized for scientific use
A: SI
Smallest building block of any material
A: atom
Branch of chemistry that deals with compounds containing carbon
A: organic
Path of electron around the nucleus of an atom
A: orbit
Most basic building block of any substance

A: atom
Quantity with square unit
A: SI
What kind of base forms hydroxide ions when mixed with water?
A: weak
Path followed by an electron around the nucleus of an atom
A: orbit
What do you call the path of an electron around the nucleus of an atom?
A: orbit
Science that deals with the chemical composition of chemical processes associated with the Earth and
other planets.
A: geochemistry
Reaction involved when a complex reactant is broken down into a simpler product.
A: decomposition
What kind of reaction is involved when a complex reactant is simplified?
A: decomposition
Science dealing with the composition of processes involving the Earth and other planets
A: geochemistry
Quantity that refers to the space occupied by a body
A: volume
Quantity referring to the space occupied by a body
A: volume
Gas law involving constant pressure.
A: charle’s law
Product of the combination of atoms during chemical reactions
A: molecule
Results from the combination of atoms during chemical reactions
A: molecule
What substance results from the combination of atoms during chemical reactions?
A: molecule
Term used to refer to a charged atom
A: ion
In one molecule of water, how many percent is hydrogen?
A: 11.19
Consider one molecule of water. How many percent of this molecule is hydrogen?
A: 11.19
In the oxidation of methane alcohol in air, if 209 grams of this substance are used up, how many grams
of water are produced?
A: 235
How heavy (in grams) is one molecule of ethanol
A: 46.07
Consider the burning of methanol in air. If 209 grams of methanol are used up in the combustion, how
much water (in grams) is produced?
A: 235
What is the chemical reaction characterized by the union of reactants
A: synthesis
What is the chemical reaction characterized by the union of reactants?
A: synthesis
How heavy is a molecule of sodium hypochlorite? Express your answer in grams.
A: 74.44
How heavy (in grams) is one molecule of sodium hypochlorite?
A: 74.44
When burning 1200 grams of carbon, how much carbon monoxide (in grams) will be produced?
A: 2800
In the burning of 1200 grams of carbon, how many grams of carbon monoxide will be produced?
A: 2800
When 124 grams of aluminum reacts with 601 grams of Fe2O3, determine how many grams of Al2O3
are formed.
A: 234
How many molecules are in 3 moles of calcium tetrachloride?
A: 1.8066 x 10^24
In a molecule of ammonia, how many percent is nitrogen?
A: 82.24
Consider a molecule of ammonia. How many percent of this molecule is nitrogen?
A: 82.24
How heavy (in grams) is one molecule of ethanol?
A: 46.07
Consider a molecule of ethane. How many percent of ethane is carbon?
A: 79.89
In one molecule of ethane, how many percent of this molecule is carbon?
A: 79.89
In a molecule of potassium hydroxide, how many percent of this molecule is oxygen?
A: 28.52
The molecular mass of hydrochloric acid is how many grams?
A: 36.46
The mass of hydrochloric acid is how many grams?
A: 36.46
How many grams is a molecule of hydrochloric acid?

A: 36.46
How heavy is a molecule of sodium hypochlorite? Express your answer in grams
A: 74.44
How many molecules are there in 8 moles of benzoic acid?
A: 4.8176 x 10^24
Consider the reaction of 124 grams of Al with 601 grams of Fe2O3. Compute for the mass (in grams) of
Al2O3 formed.
A: 234
Consider one molecule of sodium sulfate. Determine the percentage of sulfur in it.
A: 22.57
In a molecule of sodium sulfate, determine the percentage of sulfur in it.
A: 22.57
In one molecule of sodium sulfate, how many percent of it is sulfur?
A: 22.57
How many molecules are there in 0.75 mole of sodium chloride?
A: 4.5165 x 10^23
A 0.75 mole of sodium chloride has ___ x 1023 atoms. Note: The answer must be in 4 decimal places.
A: 4.5165
Find the molecular mass of hydrogen peroxide in grams?
A: 34.01
What is the molecular mass (in grams) of hydrogen peroxide?
A: 34.01
Determine the molecular mass (in grams) of dinitrogen trioxide?
A: 76.01
A: 46.07
How many grams is one molecule of ethanol?
A: 46.07
Suppose you want to burn 1200 grams of graphite. How much oxygen (in grams) would you need?
A: 1600
If you want to burn 1200 grams of carbon, how many grams of oxygen would you need?
A: 1600
How many grams is one molecule of calcium oxide?
A: 56.08
How heavy (in grams) is calcium oxide?
A: 56.08
How heavy (in grams) is one molecule of sulfuric acid?
A: 98.07
How many grams is a molecule of sulfuric acid?
A: 98.07
What is the mass (in grams) of sulfuric acid?
A: 98.07
Determine how many atoms of carbon dioxide does 0.55 mole of this molecule has? ____ x 1021
A: 7.53
A 0.55 mole of carbon dioxide has ___ x 1021 atoms.
A: 7.53
How many molecules does 0.55 mole of carbon monoxide has?
A: 7.53 x 10^21
What do you call the particle with more positive charges than negative charges?
A: cation
What is the molecular mass (in grams) of calcium carbonate?

A: 162.11
What do you call the agent in a redox reaction from which electrons are released?
A: reducing
Agent in a redox reaction from which electrons are removed.
A: reducing
The twelve-gauge copper wire is roughly cylindrical and has a diameter of approximately 0.1040 in. The
density of copper is 8.92 g/cm3 and
copper atoms have an approximate atomic radius of 135 pm. What is the mass (in grams) of a 100-ft
piece of copper wire?
A: 1491
Quantity used to measure distance between two points.
A: length
Quantity that measures the distance between two bodies
A: length
Made up of proton/s, neutron/s, and electron/s.
A: atom
Composed of proton/s, neutron/s, and electron/s
A: atom
This body is composed of proton/s, neutron/s, and electron/s.
A: atom
Which of the following is the lightest particle?
A: electron
Term used to refer to a charged atom.
A: ion
Which is the lightest: proton, neutron, or electron?
A: electron
Particle that contains more positive charges than negative charges.
A: cation
Particle with more positive charges than negative charges
A: cation
Science that deals with the composition of materials.
A: chemistry
Study dealing with the composition of materials
A: chemistry
What kind of acid completely dissociates when mixed with water?
A: strong
Composed of a nucleus and electron/s.
A: atom
Always has a nucleus and electron/s
A: atom
Science that deals with energy and its interactions with matter.
A: physics
Science of energy and its interactions with different materials
A: physics
Particle with more negative charges than positive ones.
A: anion
Particle having more negative charges than positive ones
A: anion
Type of bond between a cation and an anion.
A: ionic
Form of atom that is positively charged with respect to its neutral state.
A: cation
What type of bond exists between a cation and an anion?
A: ionic
Atom with a positive charge with respect to its neutral state
A: cation
Chemistry that deals with compounds with carbon
A: organic
What quantity is constant in Charles's law?
A: pressure
Formed when atoms combine through bonds.
A: molecule
How many grams is one molecule of sodium bicarbonate?
A: 84.01
What is the mass (in grams) of sodium bicarbonate?
A: 84.01
Amount of material contained by a body.
A: mass
Measurement of the amount of material in a body
A: mass
This refers to the amount of material in any given body.
A: mass
An atom that is negatively charged.
A: anion
Negatively-charged atom
A: anion
Chemistry of materials related to living tissues.
A: biochemistry
Chemistry living tissues.
A: biochemistry
This branch of chemistry is related to living tissues.
A: biochemistry
Method of comparing an unknown quantity with a known quantity
A: measurement
Process of comparing an unknown quantity with a known quantity.
A: measurement
Bond formed by the sharing of electrons between atoms.
A: covalent
Bond formed through the sharing of electrons between atoms
A: covalent
What kind of bond is formed by the sharing of electrons between atoms?
A: covalent
Comparison of something unknown with a standard.
A: measurement
Quantity used to express the amount of a substance.
A: mole
What is the percentage of hydrogen in propanoic acid?
A: 8.16
How many percent of propanoic acid is hydrogen?
A: 8.16
Quantity expressed with cubic unit.

A: volume
Three moles of methane has ____ x 1024 molecules.
A: 1.8066
Eight moles of benzene has ____ x 1024 molecules. Note: The answer must be in 4 decimal places.
A: 4.8176
Reaction wherein the anions and cations of two compounds switch places to form two entirely different
compounds.
A: double replacement
This reaction involves the anions and cations of two compounds switching places to form two entirely
different compounds.
Uses Avogadro’s number to have a numerical value.
A: mole
Reaction that involves the transfer of protons from an acid to a base.
A: acid-base
Reaction characterized by production of a complex product from simple reactants.
A: synthesis
A: anaphase
What type of reaction is characterized by the production of a complex product from simple reactants?
A: synthesis
How many percent of one molecule of potassium hydroxide is oxygen?
A: 28.52
How much (in percent) of one molecule of potassium hydroxide is oxygen?
A: 28.52
This particle has more negative charges than positive ones.

A: anion
A: (synthesis)
Reaction generally described as: AB + C AC + B
A: single replacement
This type of reaction is generally described as: AB + C -> AC + B
What is the process of comparing an unknown quantity with a known quantity?
A: measurement
Chemical reaction characterized by the combination of reactants.
A: synthesis
How much volume (in L) will 0.20 mol hydrogen iodide at 300 K and 100.0 kPa occupy? Use R = 8.314
kPa*L/(K*mol) = 0.08205 atm*L/(mol*K).
A: 5
How many molecules are present in 3 moles of methanal?
A: 1.8066 x 10^24
Type of bond between an anion and a cation
A: ionic
In a titration experiment, 500 mL of gaseous hydrochloric acid at 300 K and 100 kPa dissolved in pure
water is needed to neutralize 12.5 mL of
sodium hydroxide. What is the concentration of the basic solution (in mol/L)?
A: 1.60
Substance formed when atoms bond with each other
A: molecule
Identify which quantity is constant in Boyle's law.
A: temperature
What is the resulting concentration (in mol/L) of aqueous hydrochloric acid if 500 mL of its gaseous form
at 300 K and 100 kPa will be dissolved
in 100 mL pure water? Use 8.314 kPa*L/(K*mol).
A: 0.200
Consider the reaction of 3.66 g of a sample containing zinc (atomic weight = 65.4) and magnesium
(atomic weight = 24.3) with a dilute acid to
yield 2.470 L of hydrogen gas at 101.0 kPa and 300 K. What is the percentage of zinc in the sample?
A: 30
(2 points) Suppose 4 moles of nitrogen gas are confined to a 6.0 L container at 1770C and 12.0 atm. If
the container will be allowed to
isothermally expand to 36.0 L, determine the final pressure experienced by the gas. (Express the answer
in atm)
A: 2
Gas law involving constant pressure and temperature.
A: avogadro’s law
Quantities specifically used in scientific measurements
A: SI
(2 points) A 60.0 liter tank of gaseous chlorine at 270C and 125 atm suddenly had a leak. When this leak
was discovered, the pressure was
found to have reduced to 50 atm. Determine how many moles of chlorine escaped from the tank.
A: 187.5
Consider 6.2 liters of an ideal gas compressed at 3.0 atm and maintained at 37 degrees Celsius.
Determine how many moles of this gas
are contained.
A: 0.75
One liter of an air sample at 250 degrees Celsius and 1 atm is compressed to 3 mL at a pressure of 1000
atm. Determine the temperature
of the air sample in kelvins.

A: 983
Gas law involving constant temperature.
A: Boyle's Law
Treating 50.0 mL of silver nitrate solution with excess hydrogen iodide gas produces 2.35 grams of silver
iodide. Compute for the concentration
(in M) of the silver nitrate solution.
A: 0.2
(3 points) Suppose methanol will be burned in air. If 209 grams of this substance are used up in the
reaction, how many grams of water are
produced?
A: 235
(2 points) Consider a 0.316 mole sample of nitrogen gas. If this is placed in a 4-L container at 315 K, what
is the pressure (in torr) of the gas?
A: 1550
Which of the following atoms has the greatest number of unpaired electrons?
A: Cr
Which one of the following statements about orbitals is incorrect?
A: orbitals can hold two electrons provided they are spinning in the same direction
This type of wave has certain allowable states or energies.
A: standing
Which one of the following statements about d orbitals is incorrect?
A: d orbitals are filled before p orbitals in the same principal energy level
Electrons enter the 4s sub-level before the 3d sub-level because...
A: the 4s orbital has a lower energy
Quantum number that describes the average distance of the orbital from the nucleus.
A: principal
How many valence electrons does an electrically neutral atom of lead have?
A: 4
Which one of the following statements about s orbitals is incorrect?
A: they can only hold one electron
Smaller units that make up the sub-atomic particles of the nucleus.
A: Quarks
What alternative term do you use to refer to electron clouds or the probable path of electrons.
A: orbital
Which one of the following is not the electronic configuration of atom of a noble gas?
A: 1s22s2
Which element does not form chemical bonds more easily: gallium or nihonium?
A: nihonium
What is the classification of orbitals when they have the same energy?
A: degenerate
What is the electronic configuration of a sodium ion Na+?
A: 1s22s22p6
What is the electronic configuration of an oxide ion O2-?
A: 1s22s22p6
Higher electronegativity: niobium or tin?
A: tin
Another term for electron clouds or the approximate path followed by electrons.
A: orbital
Principle that states that it is impossible to know the exact position and momentum of an electron at the
same time.
A: uncertainty principle
Which one of the following is not isoelectronic with the others?

A: Mg+ - wrong/ Ne – wrong/ F- wrong/ Na- wrong / Mg & Ne – wrong/ Mg & Na – wrong/ Mg & F –
wrong/ F & Na – wrong/ F & Ne –
wrong/ Ne & Na – wrong/ Na, Ne, F – wrong/ Na, F, Mg – wrong/ Mg, F, Ne – wrong/ Mg, Na, Ne –
wrong/ Mg, Na, Ne, F – wrong
This quantum number gives you an idea on the shape of the electron orbital.
A: angular momentum
Number of energy levels in an atom of tungsten
A: 6
Which element has a larger atom: technetium or gold?
A: gold
Which element forms chemical bond more easily: rutherfordium or flerovium?
A: flerovium
(2 points) A hydrogen electron moves with a velocity of 2.2 x 106 m/s in its ground state energy level.
What is the de Broglie wavelength of
this particle? x 10-10 m
A: 3.3
Which statement about copper is incorrect?
A: the electronic configuration of copper atoms is 1s22s22p63s23p64s23d9
This states that it is impossible to know where and how fast an electron is at the same time.
A: uncertainty principle
Which element requires more energy to release an electron: copper or roentgenium?
A: copper
Which of the atom pairs both have only three unpaired electrons in their d orbitals?
A: V and Co
This quantum number describes how the direction of the electron along its orbit.
A: spin
Particle that is approximately as heavy as a proton but is neutrally charged.

A: neutron
An atom of meitnerium has how many energy levels?
A: 7
Which one of the following ions has an electronic configuration similar to argon?
A: Ti4+
The electronic configuration of an atom an element with atomic number 8 is...
A: 1s22s22p4
This is the basis of the assumption that electrons are added to an atom starting with the lowest energy
orbital.
A: Aufbau principle
The order of filling orbitals is...
A: 1s, 2s, 2p, 3s, 3p, 4s, 3d, 4p
How many energy levels does an atom of plutonium have?
A: 7
How many valence electrons does an electrically neutral atom of thallium have?
A: 3
Number of valence electrons in an electrically neutral atom of antimony
A: 5
Lower ionization energy: sulfur or polonium?
A: polonium
Which element more easily releases an electron: technetium or indium?
A: indium
Which one of the following statements about p orbitals is incorrect?
A: they are found in all principal energy levels
What is the absolute value of the possible values for the spin quantum number of an electron?
A: ½
Higher atomic radius: chlorine or osmium?
A: osmium
Which element has a smaller atom: zirconium or tellurium?
A: tellurium
Type of ion to be formed by tin.
A: anion
Which of the following is a salt?
A: zinc selenide
Which of these compounds can conduct electricity when mixed with a solvent?
A: Lithium oxide
Type of ion assumed by a non-metal.
A: anion
Form of atom that forms ionic bonds.
A: ions
Type of ion to be formed by antimony.
A: anion
What element is the anion in sodium selenide?
A: selenium
Which among these compounds will boil first?
A: Chlorine trifluoride
Type of ion to be formed by potassium.
A: cation
Which of these compounds has weaker bonds between its component atoms?
A: Arsenic trioxide
Bond formed between a metal and a non-metal.

A: ionic
Which of the following is not a salt?
A: iodine trichloride
Which of these compounds will relatively melt first?
A: Bromine pentafluoride
What element is the cation in potassium oxide?
A: Potassium
Which of these compounds is more difficult to boil?
A: Barium Selenide
Type of ion to be formed by magnesium.
A: cation
Which of the following is not a salt?
A: carbon tetrachloride
Happens to electrons that results to formation of ionic bonds.
A: transfer
Which of these compounds can exist only in solid form?
A: Barium iodide
Which of these compounds will relatively melt last?
A: Potassium bromide
What element is the cation in sodium fluoride?
A: sodium
What element is the cation in calcium chloride?
A: calcium
What element is the anion in silver oxide?
A: oxygen
Which of these compounds has a relatively high melting point?
A: Sodium bromide
Type of ion assumed by a metal.
A: cation
Which of the following is a salt?
A: zinc fluoride
Which of these compounds can never conduct electricity even in aqueous solution?
A: Dioxygen difluoride
Happens to electrons in ionic bonding.
A: transferred
Which of these compounds has stronger bonds between its atom components?
A: Potassium chloride
All of the following compounds (in solid form) are hard EXCEPT for…
A: Ethanol
How many covalent bonds can an atom of oxygen form?
A: 6
How many dots should be around a neutral atom of tennessine?
A: 7
What type of bond can form between nitrogen and hydrogen?
A: covalent
Shows the number of valence electrons of an atom in a Lewis representation.
A: dot
Number of lone pairs around the central atom in the bent geometry of a polar compound.
A: 2
What kind of compound is chlorine trifluoride?

A: Covalent
Which element is more electronegative: tin or antimony?
A: antimony
When formed as a compound, in which of these two elements will there be more electrons: germanium
or phosphorous?
A: phosphorous
What is the geometry of the non-polar covalent compound with no lone pairs around the central atom
but has three bonding electron groups
it?
A: Trigonal planar
Manner of bonding between two non-metals.
A: sharing
Kind of compound with one side positive and the other negative.
A: polar
Tendency of an atom to attract electrons in a bond.
A: electronegativity
Which of the following compounds is a good conductor of electricity when in a solution?
A: Potassium nitride
What is the bonding mechanism in ammonium sulfide?
A: transfer of electrons
Geometry of polar compound with one lone pair around the central atom.
A: pyramidal
Which of these two elements will attract electrons more than the other: nihonium or oxygen?
A: oxygen
Number of maximum valence electrons an atom can have.
A: 8
Observed in determining how many bonds an atom can have.
A: Octet rule
Which of the following molecules does not involve sharing of molecules?
A: zinc selenide
Identify which of the following compounds with boil first when heated.
A: Chlorine trifluoride
Type of bonding between molecules wherein the electrons are shared.
A: Covalent
Which compound can serve as a good insulator?
A: ozone
Representation of the number of valence electrons of the atom of an element.
A: all of the choices are correct
Which of the following is not a covalent compound?
A: zinc fluoride
What type of bond will possibly form between carbon and potassium?
A: Ionic
Which of the following is a covalent compound?
A: carbon tetrachloride
Which of the following has covalent bonds in it?
A: iodine trichloride
Identify the compound that will easily dissolve in water.
A: Zinc phosphate
Which of the following compounds melts first when subjected to the same amount of heat?
A: Carbon monoxide
What element is the anion in barium sulfide?

A: Sulfur
Identify the following compounds if they are ionic or covalent:
Fe2O3
A: Ionic
The ability of an atom to attract electrons in the presence of another atom is a measurable property
called
A: electronegativity
A set of covalently bonded atoms that have an overall charge, making them an ion.
A: Polyatomic ion
A carbon atom has fix electrons, four of which are in the outer shell of the atom, its valence shell.
A: true
It is an ion with more electrons than protons giving it a net negative charge.
A: anion
Different compounds that have the same molecular formula.
A: isomers
It is a change in the chemical bonds of one or more molecules.
A: Chemical reaction
Although each isotope has varying numbers of neutrons, there is difference to the chemical reactions of
the carbon atom.
A: false
It is a substance made by combining two or more different materials in a such a way that no chemical
reaction occurs.
A: mixture
What do you call two monomers that are connected?
A: Dimer
Covalent bonding can be visualized with the aid of
A: Lewis diagram
They are organic molecules consisting entirely of carbon and hydrogen, such as methane (CH4)
A: Hydrocarbons
A type of chemical bond where two atoms are connected to each other by the sharing of two or more
electrons.
A: Covalent bond
A bond in which or more electrons from one atom are removed and attached to another atom resulting
in positive and negative ions which
allow each other.
A: ionic bond
Organic acids that contain a carbon atom that participates in both a hydroxyl and a carbonyl functional
group.
A: Carboxylic acids
They are specific atoms, ions, or groups of atoms having consistent properties.
A: Functional groups
They are specific atoms, ions, or groups of atoms having consistent properties.
This functional group is produced from the condensation of an alcohol with a carboxylic acid and is
named based on these components.
A: Esters
It is a natural component of crude oil and has been classified as a carcinogen.
A: bezene
These are compounds with a nitrogen atom, a lone pair of electrons, and three substituents.
A: aminos
Class of organic compounds characterized by an oxygen atom connected to two alkyl or aryl groups.
A: esters
It is the simplest hydrocarbon molecule, with a central carbon atom bond to form different hydrogen
atoms.
A: methane
This is a model that is based on the repulsive behaviour of electron-pairs.
A: VSEPR
They are formed by successive bonds between carbon atoms and may be branched or unbranched.
A: Hydrocarbon chains
It contains a carbon-carbon double bond.
A: alkenes
Having a closed ring of alternate single and double bonds with delocalized electrons.
A: Aromatic chain
Carbon atoms have six protons in the nucleus and six electrons orbiting around the nucleus.
A: true
Carbon compounds containing boron and silicon are among the hardest substances known.
A: true
Monomers covalently bonded to one another in longer chains.
A: polymers
They are organic molecules consisting entirely of carbon and hydrogen, such as methane (CH4).
A: Hydrocarbons
It refers to a specific group of atoms bonded in a certain arrangement that give a compound certain
physical and chemical properties.
A smaller organic molecule that often plays its own functional roles in living organisms.
A: monomer
C4
A: Covalent

H2O
A: Covalent
The basic geometry for a molecule containing a central atom with three pairs.
A: trigonal planar
They are classes of organic compounds that contain a carbonyl (C=0) group.
A: Aldehydes and ketones
A class of organic compounds in which the carbon atoms are arranged in an open chain.
A: Aliphatic
It is present in many biological molecules including some amino acids and most steroids, which includes
cholesterol and the hormones
estrogen and testosterone.
A: Benzene ring
In this type of reaction, a water molecule is released as a product, effectively dehydrating the reactants
as a larger biomolecule is
synthesized.
A: Dehydration synthesis
KNO3
A: ionic
CH4
A: covalent
The most electronegative element
A: Fluorine
It is a dark grey crystalline solid with a purple vapour. It is very slight with soluble in water, but dissolve
freely in organic solvents.
A: Iodine
They are highly acidic and almost exclusively existing in an ionized state in solutions by releasing two
hydrogen ions.
A: phosphates
Carbon compounds come in the form of diamond graphite, charcoal, carbon block and fullerene.
A: true
Functional groups characterized by the presence of an “OH” group.
A: Alcohols
Reactions incorporate the atoms from a water molecule into each monomer as the chemical bond
between the monomers is broken.
A: Hydrolysis
An organic compound that consist of a carbon bonded to an OH group
A: propanol
The building blocks of proteins
A: AMINO ACIDS
Carbon double bonded to oxygen
A: CARBONYL GROUP
The electron cloud is divided into 7 principal energy levels numbered n=1 to n=7 with n=1 closest to
nucleus. n is called
A: principal quantum number
Name the compound.
SiF4
A: Silicon tetrafluoride
Name the compound. BeI2
A: Beryllium iodide
This describes the wavelike behaviour of either one electron or a pair of electrons in an atom.
A: ATOMIC ORBITAL
Name the compound. HF

A: hydrogen monofluoride
Lipid molecules hold a large amount of energy and are energy storage molecules.
A: TRUE
What are the atoms that have to pair to form these given chemical formulas?
KF= Potassium+fluorine
MgI2= Magnesium+iodine
AlCl3= Aluminum+chlorine
CaCl2= Calcium+chlorine
Na2O= Sodium+Oxygen
They carry genetic information in the cell. They also help in synthesis of proteins, through the process of
translation and transcription.
A: Deoxyribonucleic acids
It is a type of chemical bond where a pair of electrons is unequally shared between two atoms
A: POLAR COVALENT BOND
The ionization energy of the elements within a group generally increases from top to bottom. This is due
to electron shielding.
A: FALSE
A compound that contains COO
A: Carboxylic acid
It is found in many different compounds. It is the sixth most abundant element in the universe.
A: CARBON
This type of compound always contains the carbon atom.
A: ORGANIC
The higher the energy is, the more readily the atom becomes a cation.
A: FALSE
Determine if the elements in the following compounds are metals or non-metals. Describe the type of
bonding that occurs in the compound.
SO2 Non-metal Non-metal Ionic
MgBr2 Metal Non-metal Covalent
CaO Metal Non-metal Ionic
H2O Non-metal Non-metal Covalent
Cu - Zn alloy Metal Metal Metallic
Name the compound.K2O
A: Potassium oxide
Electronegativity is a qualitative property and there is standardized method for calculating

electronegativity.
A: false
When a protein in an assembly of more than one polypeptide or subunits of its own, this is said to be
the structure of protein that is
categorized as
A: Quarternary
A carboxylic acid that has a long hydrocarbon chain and derived from a natural source.
A: Fatty acid
It is a large molecule or macromolecule, composed of many repeated subunits, that is not artificially
manufactured.
A: Natural Polymer
Basic component that makes up any kind of material.
A: atom
This basically makes up any kind of material
A: atom
Anything that occupies space and has mass
A: matter
What is the general term for any body that has mass and occupies space?
A: matter
General term referring to anything that occupies space and has mass
A: matter
Study of materials and its components
A: Chemistry
General term for anything with mass and has volume
A: matter
Quantities standardized for scientific use.
A: SI
Smallest building block of any material
A: atom
Branch of chemistry that deals with compounds containing carbon
A: organic
Path of electron around the nucleus of an atom
A: orbit
Most basic building block of any substance
A: atom
Quantity with square unit
A: pressure
What kind of base forms hydroxide ions when mixed with water?
A: weak
Path followed by an electron around the nucleus of an atom
A: orbit
What do you call the path of an electron around the nucleus of an atom?
A: orbit
Science that deals with the chemical composition of chemical processes associated with the Earth and
other planets.
A: geochemistry
A: decomposition
What kind of reaction is involved when a complex reactant is simplified?
A: decomposition
Science dealing with the composition of processes involving the Earth and other planets
A: geochemistry
Quantity that refers to the space occupied by a body
A: volume
Quantity referring to the space occupied by a body
A: volume
Gas law involving constant pressure.
A: charle’s law
Product of the combination of atoms during chemical reactions
A: molecule
Results from the combination of atoms during chemical reactions
A: molecule
What substance results from the combination of atoms during chemical reactions?
A: molecule
Term used to refer to a charged atom
A: ion
In one molecule of water, how many percent is hydrogen?
A: 11.19
Consider one molecule of water. How many percent of this molecule is hydrogen?
A: 11.19
In the oxidation of methane alcohol in air, if 209 grams of this substance are used up, how many grams
of water are produced?
A: 235
How heavy (in grams) is one molecule of ethanol
A: 46.07
Consider the burning of methanol in air. If 209 grams of methanol are used up in the combustion, how
much water (in grams) is produced?
A: 235
What is the chemical reaction characterized by the union of reactants
A: synthesis
What is the chemical reaction characterized by the union of reactants?
A: synthesis
How heavy is a molecule of sodium hypochlorite? Express your answer in grams.
A: 74.44
How heavy (in grams) is one molecule of sodium hypochlorite?
A: 74.44
When burning 1200 grams of carbon, how much carbon monoxide (in grams) will be produced?
A: 2800
In the burning of 1200 grams of carbon, how many grams of carbon monoxide will be produced?
A: 2800
When 124 grams of aluminum reacts with 601 grams of Fe2O3, determine how many grams of Al2O3
are formed.
A: 234
How many molecules are in 3 moles of calcium tetrachloride?
A: 1.8066 x 10^24
In a molecule of ammonia, how many percent is nitrogen?
A: 82.24
Consider a molecule of ammonia. How many percent of this molecule is nitrogen?
A: 82.24
A: 46.07
Consider a molecule of ethane. How many percent of ethane is carbon?
A: 79.89
In one molecule of ethane, how many percent of this molecule is carbon?
A: 79.89
In a molecule of potassium hydroxide, how many percent of this molecule is oxygen?
A: 28.52
The molecular mass of hydrochloric acid is how many grams?
A: 36.46
The mass of hydrochloric acid is how many grams?
A: 36.46
How many grams is a molecule of hydrochloric acid?
A: 36.46
How heavy is a molecule of sodium hypochlorite? Express your answer in grams
A: 74.44
How many molecules are there in 8 moles of benzoic acid?
A: 4.8176 x 10^24
Consider the reaction of 124 grams of Al with 601 grams of Fe2O3. Compute for the mass (in grams) of
Al2O3 formed.
A: 234
Consider one molecule of sodium sulfate. Determine the percentage of sulfur in it.
A: 22.57
In a molecule of sodium sulfate, determine the percentage of sulfur in it.

A: 22.57
In one molecule of sodium sulfate, how many percent of it is sulfur?
A: 22.57
How many molecules are there in 0.75 mole of sodium chloride?
A: 4.5165 x 10^23
A 0.75 mole of sodium chloride has ___ x 1023 atoms. Note: The answer must be in 4 decimal places.
A: 4.5165
Find the molecular mass of hydrogen peroxide in grams?
A: 34.01
What is the molecular mass (in grams) of hydrogen peroxide?
A: 34.01
Determine the molecular mass (in grams) of dinitrogen trioxide?
A: 76.01
What is the molecular mass (in grams) of dinitrogen trioxide?
A: 76.01
A: 46.07
How many grams is one molecule of ethanol?
A: 46.07
Suppose you want to burn 1200 grams of graphite. How much oxygen (in grams) would you need?
A: 1600
If you want to burn 1200 grams of carbon, how many grams of oxygen would you need?
A: 1600
How many grams is one molecule of calcium oxide?
A: 56.08
How heavy (in grams) is calcium oxide?
A: 56.08
How heavy (in grams) is one molecule of sulfuric acid?
A: 98.07
How many grams is a molecule of sulfuric acid?
A: 98.07
What is the mass (in grams) of sulfuric acid?
A: 98.07
Determine how many atoms of carbon dioxide does 0.55 mole of this molecule has? ____ x 1021
A: 7.53
A 0.55 mole of carbon dioxide has ___ x 1021 atoms.
A: 7.53
How many molecules does 0.55 mole of carbon monoxide has?
A: 7.53 x 10^21
What do you call the particle with more positive charges than negative charges?
A: cation
What is the molecular mass (in grams) of calcium carbonate?
A: 162.11
What do you call the agent in a redox reaction from which electrons are released?
A: reducing
Agent in a redox reaction from which electrons are removed.
A: reducing
The twelve-gauge copper wire is roughly cylindrical and has a diameter of approximately 0.1040 in. The
density of copper is 8.92 g/cm3 and
copper atoms have an approximate atomic radius of 135 pm. What is the mass (in grams) of a 100-ft
piece of copper wire?
A: 1491
Quantity used to measure distance between two points.
A: length
Quantity that measures the distance between two bodies
A: length
Made up of proton/s, neutron/s, and electron/s.
A: atom
Composed of proton/s, neutron/s, and electron/s
A: atom
This body is composed of proton/s, neutron/s, and electron/s.
A: atom
Which of the following is the lightest particle?
A: electron
Term used to refer to a charged atom.
A: ion
Which is the lightest: proton, neutron, or electron?
A: electron
Particle that contains more positive charges than negative charges.
A: cation
Particle with more positive charges than negative charges
A: cation
Science that deals with the composition of materials.
A: chemistry
Study dealing with the composition of materials
A: chemistry
What kind of acid completely dissociates when mixed with water?
A: strong
Composed of a nucleus and electron/s.
A: atom
Always has a nucleus and electron/s
A: atom
Science that deals with energy and its interactions with matter.
A: physics
Science of energy and its interactions with different materials
A: physics
Particle with more negative charges than positive ones.
A: anion
Particle having more negative charges than positive ones
A: anion
Type of bond between a cation and an anion.
A: ionic
Form of atom that is positively charged with respect to its neutral state.
A: cation
What type of bond exists between a cation and an anion?
A: ionic
Atom with a positive charge with respect to its neutral state
A: cation
Chemistry that deals with compounds with carbon
A: organic
What quantity is constant in Charles's law?

A: pressure
Formed when atoms combine through bonds.
A: molecule
How many grams is one molecule of sodium bicarbonate?
A: 84.01
What is the mass (in grams) of sodium bicarbonate?
A: 84.01
Amount of material contained by a body.
A: mass
Measurement of the amount of material in a body
A: mass
This refers to the amount of material in any given body.
A: mass
An atom that is negatively charged.
A: anion
Negatively-charged atom
A: anion
Chemistry of materials related to living tissues.
A: biochemistry
Chemistry living tissues.
A: biochemistry
This branch of chemistry is related to living tissues.
A: biochemistry
Method of comparing an unknown quantity with a known quantity
A: measurement
Process of comparing an unknown quantity with a known quantity.
A: measurement
Bond formed by the sharing of electrons between atoms.
A: covalent
Bond formed through the sharing of electrons between atoms
A: covalent
What kind of bond is formed by the sharing of electrons between atoms?
A: covalent
Comparison of something unknown with a standard.
A: measurement
Quantity used to express the amount of a substance.
A: mole
What is the percentage of hydrogen in propanoic acid?
A: 8.16
How many percent of propanoic acid is hydrogen?
A: 8.16
Quantity expressed with cubic unit.
A: volume
Three moles of methane has ____ x 1024 molecules.
A: 1.8066
Eight moles of benzene has ____ x 1024 molecules. Note: The answer must be in 4 decimal places.
A: 4.8176
Reaction wherein the anions and cations of two compounds switch places to form two entirely different
compounds.
This reaction involves the anions and cations of two compounds switching places to form two entirely
different compounds.
Uses Avogadro’s number to have a numerical value.
A: mole
Reaction that involves the transfer of protons from an acid to a base.
A: acid-base
Reaction characterized by production of a complex product from simple reactants.
A: synthesis
A: anaphase
What type of reaction is characterized by the production of a complex product from simple reactants?
A: synthesis
How many percent of one molecule of potassium hydroxide is oxygen?
A: 28.52
How much (in percent) of one molecule of potassium hydroxide is oxygen?
A: 28.52
This particle has more negative charges than positive ones.
A: anion
A: (synthesis)
Reaction generally described as: AB + C AC + B
This type of reaction is generally described as: AB + C -> AC + B
What is the process of comparing an unknown quantity with a known quantity?

A: measurement
Chemical reaction characterized by the combination of reactants.
A: synthesis
How much volume (in L) will 0.20 mol hydrogen iodide at 300 K and 100.0 kPa occupy? Use R = 8.314
kPa*L/(K*mol) = 0.08205 atm*L/(mol*K).
A: 5
How many molecules are present in 3 moles of methanal?
A: 1.8066 x 10^24
Type of bond between an anion and a cation
A: ionic
In a titration experiment, 500 mL of gaseous hydrochloric acid at 300 K and 100 kPa dissolved in pure
water is needed to neutralize 12.5 mL of
sodium hydroxide. What is the concentration of the basic solution (in mol/L)?
A: 1.60
Substance formed when atoms bond with each other
A: molecule
Identify which quantity is constant in Boyle's law.
A: temperature
What is the resulting concentration (in mol/L) of aqueous hydrochloric acid if 500 mL of its gaseous form
at 300 K and 100 kPa will be dissolved
in 100 mL pure water? Use 8.314 kPa*L/(K*mol).
A: 0.200
Consider the reaction of 3.66 g of a sample containing zinc (atomic weight = 65.4) and magnesium
(atomic weight = 24.3) with a dilute acid to
yield 2.470 L of hydrogen gas at 101.0 kPa and 300 K. What is the percentage of zinc in the sample?
A: 30
(2 points) Suppose 4 moles of nitrogen gas are confined to a 6.0 L container at 1770C and 12.0 atm. If
the container will be allowed to
isothermally expand to 36.0 L, determine the final pressure experienced by the gas. (Express the answer
in atm)
A: 2
Gas law involving constant pressure and temperature.
A: avogadro’s law
Quantities specifically used in scientific measurements
A: SI
(2 points) A 60.0 liter tank of gaseous chlorine at 270C and 125 atm suddenly had a leak. When this leak
was discovered, the pressure was
found to have reduced to 50 atm. Determine how many moles of chlorine escaped from the tank.
A: 187.5
Consider 6.2 liters of an ideal gas compressed at 3.0 atm and maintained at 37 degrees Celsius.
Determine how many moles of this gas
are contained.
A: 0.75
One liter of an air sample at 250 degrees Celsius and 1 atm is compressed to 3 mL at a pressure of 1000
atm. Determine the temperature
of the air sample in kelvins.
A: 983
Gas law involving constant temperature.
A: Boyle's Law
Treating 50.0 mL of silver nitrate solution with excess hydrogen iodide gas produces 2.35 grams of silver
iodide. Compute for the concentration
(in M) of the silver nitrate solution.
A: 0.2
(3 points) Suppose methanol will be burned in air. If 209 grams of this substance are used up in the
reaction, how many grams of water are
produced?
A: 235
(2 points) Consider a 0.316 mole sample of nitrogen gas. If this is placed in a 4-L container at 315 K, what
is the pressure (in torr) of the gas?
A: 1550
The noble gases possess very high ionization energies because of their full valence shells.
A: TRUE
Electron affinity is a quantitative measurement of the energy change that occurs when an electron is
added to a neutral gas atom.
A: TRUE
Encircle the one that is not an example of polar compounds
A: Sulphur dioxide
This model of the atom uses complex shapes of orbitals, volumes of space in which there is likely to be
an electron. This model is based on
probability rather than certainty.
A: Quantum mechanical model
They are atoms which have the same atomic number but different mass numbers.
A: isotopes
This type of polymer is derived from petroleum oil and made by scientists and engineers.
A: Synthetic
Ionization energy increases from left to right on the periodic table.
A: true
In Ionic bonds, the metal loses electrons to become a positively-charged cation, whereas the non-metal
accepts those electrons to become
a negatively-charged ion.
A: true
The least electronegative atom and should be the central atom.
A: nitrogen
Name the compound.
SrO
A: Strontium oxide
This compound, usually formed by the dehydration-condensation reaction of an oxoacid, yields two
molecules of the acid when it reacts
with water.
A: Acid anhydride
It is molecule that is present in living organisms, including large macromolecules such as proteins,
carbohydrates, lipids and nucleic acids,
as well as small molecules such as primary metabolites secondary metabolites and natural products.
A: Biomolecules
Electron shielding describes the ability of an atom’s inner electrons to shield its positively-charged
nucleus from its valence electrons.
A: true
In Ionic bonds, the metal loses electrons to become a positively-charged cation, whereas the non-metal
accepts those electrons to become
a negatively-charged ion.
A: true
Periodic trends are specific patterns that are present in the periodic table that illustrate different aspects
of a certain element, including its
size and its electronic property.
A: true
True or false: Treating employees as actual people and making them feel a sense of value make for
stronger foundation of a
company.
Answer : True
Answer : c. All of the choices
Answer : b. Computer Society of the Philippines and Philippine Computer Society
Answer : c. Seminar
The problem identified in the diagram is a buggy java
Answer : program
Answer : c. Interpersonal
This following are all safety procedures that may be observed by a company, EXCEPT for:
Answer : c. Using faulty cable wiring all over the place
Answer : False
__________ report is presented through narrative, graphic or tabular information.
Answer : Printed
Answer report is presented through narrative, graphic or tabular information.
Answer : Printed

Few programmers are complaining about slow Internet connection and this affects their work. this cause
is categorized in
_________.
Answer : equipment
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BAED-ENGL2112 READING AND WRITING SKILLS (WEEK 1-20)

Identify the topic sentence in the following paragraph:

Type TRUE if the given statement is correct and FALSE if it is incorrect.

The final draft does not require editing or revising.

Which of the following statements is not true?

b. Learning to write is a sequential process.

c. With this in mind

Arrange the following sentences to form a comprehensive paragraph.

goes to the side which succeeds in rallying people

are down and wipe out

source of livelihood for people living along its shores.

The correct answer is: B

The correct answer is: C

Which is the fitting 3rd sentence in the paragraph?

The correct answer is: B

The correct answer is: However

Type TRUE if the given statement is correct and FALSE if it is incorrect.

Output is important, but an effective written work is still valued.

A stage in writing where you look for any mechanical errors.

d. Writing the final draft

windmill sail stabs Don Quixote.

What type of description is used in the paragraph?

The correct answer is: Subjective description

The correct answer is: Falling action

---What type of figure of speech is used in the following sentence?

The lady in the water screamed like a banshee

The correct answer is: Simile

----Read the following narrative essay:

beat-up blue Schwinn.

THE writer presented what point of view?

The correct answer is: First person

What narrative device was used in the paragraph?

The correct answer is: Flashback

--- Read the following example of a definition paragraph:

What is the strategy used in the development of the paragraph?

The correct answer is: Denotation

----Refer to the given paragraph below on The Great Wall of China:

from 15-30 feet wide, and it reaches in height to about 25 feet.

What type of description is used in the paragraph?

The correct answer is: Objective description

-----Read the following example of a definition paragraph:

Soren Kierkegaard, another famous existentialist, comprehends absurd as a synonym to paradox. He

What is the strategy used in the development of the paragraph?

The correct answer is: Extensive definition

-----Given the following sentence from the story, Dead Stars:

The correct answer is: Simile

-----The latin word from which the word "narration" comes

The correct answer is: narrare

Which of the following statements is true?

a. Organizing is when you express your thoughts in comprehensible sentences

c. Brainstorming shows relationships among a variety of ideas

In writing a text, these two elements must be present: content and

Type TRUE if the given statement is correct and FALSE if it is incorrect.

The correct answer is: False

The correct answer is: False

The correct answer is: sequential

The correct answer is: Freewriting

Complete the following sentence: "Writing without _________

form and content

The correct answer is: form and content

In writing a text, these two elements must be present: content and

The correct answer is: form