Math 4317 - Fall 2010

Homework 7 — Solutions
Work all these problems and talk to me if you have any questions on them, but carefully write up
and turn in only problems 3, 5, 10, 11, 12, and 13. Due: December 2
3) Show that any continuous function [0, 1] → R can be arbitrarily well approximated by a function
of the form
X n
h(x) = ak ebk x ,
k=1

where ak and bk are real numbers and n is some positive integer.

Solution: It is clear the set of such functions B forms an algebra and that the function x 7→ 1 is in set
(just take a1 = 1 and b1 = 0). Finally given x, y ∈ [0, 1] with x 6= y then since h(x) = ex is injective
we see h(x) 6= h(y). So B separates points in [0, 1]. Thus by the Stone-Weierstrass Approximation
Theorem we see that any continuous function on [0, 1] can be approximated arbitrarily well by a
function in B.
5) Prove the “Limit comparison test”. That is showPthat if {aP n } and {bn } are two sequences of
an
positive numbers and lim bn = l > 0, then the series an and bn are either both convergent or
both divergent.
1
Solution: Note that there is some N such P that for n ≥ N we have 2 l < an /bn < 2l. Thus we
1
see that 0 ≤P
P lb < an < 2lbn . Thus if P an converges we can use a comparison test to see that
2 n
1 1
lb
2 n
= P2
l bn converges and hence bn does too. Similarly
P if an diverges then a comparison
test says 2lbn also diverges which of course implies that bn diverges.
10) Determine where the following series define continuous functions.

X∞
(−1)n X
∞
1
and .
n=1
x2 + n n=1
x2 − n2

n
Solution: Notice that for each fixed x ∈ R we have the terms (−1) alternating sign and their
x2 +n
P n
absolute values decrease to zero as n goes to infinity. So if we let sk (x) = kn=1 (−1)
x2 +n
then we know
from a theorem in class that the sequence sk (x) converges to s(x) and
1
|s(x) − sk (x)| < .
x2 + n
1
Also notice that x2 +n
≤ n1 . Now given an ǫ > 0 we choose N so that 1
N
< ǫ and notice that

1 1 1
ks(x) − sk (x)k < ≤ ≤ <ǫ
x2 +n n N
P (−1)n
for all x ∈ R and n ≥ N. Thus ∞ n=1 x2 +n = s(x) uniformly on R, and since the terms in the series
are continuous we see that s(x) is continuous on all of R.
For the second series notice that if x = n an integer then one of the terms in the series is not
even defined there, so the series certainly cannot converge to anything for x = n. (I had meant for
the series to start with n = 0 but since I did not the series will also converge for x = 0.) Now let
I ⊂ R be a closed interval not containing an integer (other than possible 0, I will ignore this issue
below, but hopefully it will be clear how this works if the interval contains 0). So there is an integer
m such that K ⊂ (m − 1, m). For any n ≥ 2m we have
1 1 1 2
≤ 2 ≤ 2 1 2 = 2.
|x2 2
−n | n −m 2 n − 2n n
P
If we call Mn = n22 then we know that ∞ n=1 Mn converges. Thus by the M-test (and the fact that
the first few terms in a series have nothing to do with convergence) we know the series converges
uniformly on K. Therefore, the series defines a continuous function on K. Since any point in R − Z
is contained in such a compact interval we see that the series defines a continuous function on
(R − Z) ∪ {0}.
P
11) If {cn } is a sequence of real numbers such that ∞ n=1 cn converges, then show the series

X
∞
xn
cn
n=1
1 − xn

converges absolutely and uniformly on [−a, a] for any a < 1. And it converges uniformly on (−∞, −b]
and [b, ∞) for b > 1.
1
Solution: Notice that for |x| ≤ a < 1 one may easily check that 1−x n is increasing on [−a, a] for n

odd and increasing on [0, a] for n even. Also when n is even the function is symmetric. From this it
1 1
is easy to conclude that 1−x n ≤ 1−an for all x ∈ [−a, a]. We also notice that for 0 < a < 1 we have
1
1−an
is decreasing
P as n increases. P
Since cn converges we know the power series cn xn converges at x = 1. Thus the radius of
convergence is at least 1. Since we knowP a power series is absolutely convergent at any point within
the interval of convergence we see that |cn an | is convergent. Now
xn 1 1
|cn n
| ≤ |cn xn | ≤ |cn an |
1−x 1−a 1−a
P 1
for any x ∈ [−a, a]. Since we know that Mn is convergent where Mn = 1−a |cn an | we can use the
P∞ xn
M-test to conclude that n=1 cn 1−xn is uniformly and absolutely convergent on [−a, a].
We now argue the uniform convergence on [b, ∞) (the argument for (−∞, −b] is similar). You
can do this directly but there is a simplifying trick. That is to notice that
X
∞
xn X X∞
(1/x)n
cn =− cn − cn
n=1
1 − xn n=1
1 − (1/x)n

so if we can show that the two series on the right are uniformly convergent then the series on the
left will be too (and of course the first series on the right converges uniformly by hypothesis). So
we are left to see that the series
X∞
(1/x)n
cn
n=1
1 − (1/x)n
converges uniformly for x ∈ [b, ∞). To see this notice thatP for xw∈ [b, ∞) we have 1/x ∈ (0, a]
n
where a = 1/b. So the series in the equation above is just ∞ c
n=1 n 1−w n with w = 1/x ∈ [0, a]. Since
a < 1 we know this series converges uniformly on [−a, a] and hence on (0, a]. Thus our series in
1/x converges uniformly for x ∈ [b, ∞). (If this last statement if not clear to you, you should try to
prove it!)

2
 P n
12) If {an } is a bounded sequence, then show that the radius of convergence of ∞ n=0 an x is at
least 1.
P∞ n
Solution: If |x| < 1 then the series n=0 |x| converges by a theorem from class. Let P∞ C be an
constant such that |an | < C (which we have since the series is bounded). Then the series n=0 C|x|
n n
converges
P∞ by a theorem from class.P∞ Sincen |an x | ≤ C|x| we can use a comparison test to say that
n
n=0 |an x | converges. Thus P∞
n=0 an x converges absolutely (and hence converges) if |x| < 1.
Thus the radius of convergence of n=0 an xn is at least 1.
P n
13) Suppose f (x) = ∞ n=0 an x has a positive radius of convergence. Show that f (−x) = f (x) for
all x in the interval of convergence if and only if an = 0 for all odd n.
P n
P∞ n
Solution: If xP is in the interval of convergence then ∞ n=0 an x and n=0 an (−x) both converge.
∞ n n
Thus so does n=0 (an − (−1) an )x and it converges P∞to f (x) − 2n+1
f (−x) = 0. Notice that an −
n
(−1) an = 0 if n is even and 2an if n is odd. So n=0 2a2n+1 x = 0. (Recall, we showed
in
P∞class that2n+1 interspersing
P∞ some zeros does not change what a series converges to.) Thus 0 =
2n
a
P∞2n+1
n=0 x = x a
n=0 2n+1 x for all x in the interval of convergence. For x 6= 0 we see
2n
0 = n=0 a2n+1 x , but since the series defines a continuous function on the interval P∞ of convergence
weP all get the equality at x = 0. Plugging in x = 0 we see Pa∞1 = 0. Thus we see 0 = n=1 a2n+1 x2n+1 =
3 ∞ 2n−2 2n−2
x n=1 a2n+1 x . Arguing as above we see 0 = n=1 a2n+1 x for all x in the interval of
convergence. Thus plugging in x = 0 we see a3 = 0. Continuing in this manner (technically using
induction) we see that a2n+1 = 0 for all n.