|PY| Pharmaceutics - I

Q. No. 1 – 15 Carry One Mark Each

1. The alcohol content in an elixir is not more from

(A) 40% (B) 50% (C) 60% (D) 70%

2. ‘Essences’ are synonym for which one of the following preparation?

(A) spirit (B) elixir (C) solution (D) volatile oil

3. Wool fat is an example of

(A) olegneous base (B) absorption base
(C) emulsion base (D) water soluble base

4. Magmas are
(A) lotions (B) creams (C) emulsions (D) suspensions

5. Which one is not used as suspending agent?

(A) acacia (B) tragacanth (C) MC (D) starch

6. Type-A gelatin is used as emulsifying agent in

(A) acidic media (B) basic media
(C) neutral media (D) any one of above media

7. Which one is used as a super disintegrant?

(A) EXPLOTAB (B) anhydrous lactose
(C) starch (D) DIPAC

8. Molting of tablets occurs due to

(A) entrapment of air (B) wearing of punches
(C) uneven distribution of colour (D) inappropriate coating

9. How much tablets should be taken for the uniform potency test of tablets?
(A) 40 (B) 35 (C) 30 (D) 32

10. Which viscosity (poise) of mineral oil is appropriate for lipstick?

(A) 300 (B) 250 (C) 230 (D) 200

11. Which storage temperature is required for storage of polio vaccine for 24
months?
(A) 200C (B) 40C (C) -20C (D) -200C

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12. Which particle size distribution is required for the metered dose inhaler?
(A) < 10µm (B) < 8µm (C) < 15µm (D) < 22µm

13. How much bioavailability may be predicted during I.V. administration of drug?
(A) 100% (B) 99% (C) 79% (D) 98%

14. The instrument to measure particle volume is

(A) Coulter counter (B) Microscope
(C) Hempel burette (D) Anderson pipette

15. Flow rate of granules from the hopper can be improved by adding
(A) adhesive (B) lubricant (C) glidant (D) antiadherant

Q. No. 16 – 41 Carry Two Marks Each

16. Surfactnats are characterized by the presence of

(A) water and fat solubilising groups (B) only negative charge
(C) only positive charge (D) both A and B

17. All of the physico-chemical constants are useful in predicting the solubility of a
drug except
(A) pKa (B) pKb (C) S0 (D) I.E.P

18. Parenteral products undergo which type of testing to ensure that all
microorganisms have been destroyed or removed?
(A) clarity test (B) leaker test (C) pyrogen test (D) sterility test

19. Which of the following orders is true in terms of swelling property of polymers?
(A) Na − CMC > HPMC > Na − alginate (B) Na − alginate > Na − CMC > HPMC

(C) HPMC > Na − CMC > Na − alginate (D) HPMC > Na − alginate > Na − CMC

20. All of the following are hydrophilic polymers except

(A) ethyl cellulose (B) PVP (C) HPMC (D) alginate

21. All are methods for microsphere preparation except

(A) coacervation-phase separation (B) ultra sonication
(C) French pressure cell (D) spray drying

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22. Which is the suitable method for dissolution study of a gel formulation intended
for optical use?
(A) basket type assembly (B) rack type assembly
(C) franch diffusion cell (D) cell-culture

23 A sustained release formulation ideally release the drug as

(A) zero-order kinetics (B) first order kinetics
(C) non-linear kinetics (D) mixed order kinetics

24. Apparent volume of distribution refers to the

(A) Volume of vehicle needed to solubilise drug in parenterals
(B) Volume of that part in which a particular drug accumulates
(C) Hypothetical volume of body fluid containing the drug
(D) None of these

25. All types of flow can be exhibited by a semisolid formulation except

(A) dialatant flow (B) Newtonian flow
(C) pseudoplastic flow (D) thixotropic flow

26. All are schedule-x drugs except

(A) diazepam (B) dexamphetamine
(C) letrozole (D) codeine phosphate

27. Government opium factory is situated at

(A) Ghazipur (B) Lukhnow (C) Srinagar (D) Calcutta

28. Coca, Opium and Hemp come under

(A) poison act (B) cosmetics act (C) insecticide act (D) dangerous act

29. pH of a buffer solution is calculated by

(A) Noyes Whitney Equation (B) Michaelis Equation
(C) Handerson-Hesselback Equation (D) None of these

30. Permeability study should be done for drugs of

(A) High solubility and low permeability
(B) Low solubility and low permeability
(C) Low solubility and high permeability
(D) Both A and B

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31. For controlled drug delivery system which one is the first rate limiting step?
(A) distribution of drug (B) release of drug
(C) absorption of drug (D) disintegration of drug

32. Capacity limited process can be best described by which type of kinetics?
(A) Michaelis-Menten Kinetics (B) Linear Kinetics
(C) Mixed order Kinetics (D) pseudo-zero order

Common Data Questions: 33 to 35

Bioavailability is generally not a consideration when a drug is administered

through intravenous injection

33. But the only exception of the above statement is seen in case of
(A) highly soluble drug (B) high lipophilllic drug
(C) prodrugs (D) hydrolytically unstable drug

34. The above exception may be seen in case of

(A) clonazepam (B) diazepam
(C) dexamethasone phosphate (D) penicillin

35. In determining ‘relative bioavailability’, the reference standard obtained from

(A) oral dosage form (B) IV dosage form
(C) IM dosage form (D) any clinically proven dosage

Common Data Questions: 36 to 39

In wet granulation technique, the granules are prepared using granulating fluid
with or without granulating agent

36. The bulk density of the granules will be increased if granulated with
(A) only granulating fluid
(B) granulating fluid containing granulating agent
(C) only granulating agent
(D) A or B

37. the above phenomenon occurs due to

(A) increase of fines (B) decrease of fines
(C) increase of voids (D) decrease of voids

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38. Compressibility of granules can be determined by

(A) bulk density (B) Carr’s Index (C) % swellability (D) Young’s Index

39. All are used as granulating agents except

(A) Ethyl cellulose (B) Eudragit RS-100
(C) Eudragit RL-100 (D) EXPLOTAB

40. P Schedule-G 1 amaranth

Q Schedule-J 2 personnel health
R Schedule-O 3 arthritis
S Schedule-M 4 insulin
(A) P − 4 Q − 3 R − 1 S − 2 (B) P − 4 Q − 2 R − 1 S − 3
(C) P − 2 Q − 1 R − 4 S − 3 (D) P − 4 Q − 2 R − 3 S − 1

41. P Preservative 1 TiO2

Q Organoleptic additive 2 propyl paraben
R Opacifier 3 cocoa-butter
S β − polymorph 4 citrus oil
(A) P − 2 Q − 1 R − 4 S − 3 (B) P − 2 Q − 4 R − 1 S − 3
(C) P − 4 Q − 1 R − 2 S − 3 (D) P − 4 Q − 2 R − 1 S − 3

Linked Answer Questions: Q.42 to Q.45 Carry Two Marks Each

Statement for Linked Answer Questions: 42 & 43

The vials of injectable diazepam bears the label “when used intravenously, the
solution should be injected slowly, directly into the vein, taking at least one
minute for each 5-mg given”
42. The word ‘slowly’ is written due to fear of
(A) veinous thrombosis on rapid i.v. injection
(B) thrombophlebitis on rapid i.v. injection
(C) alarming adverse effects on rapid i.v. injection
(D) deposition at fatti tissue on rapid i.v. injection

43. The part “directly into the vein” refers

(A) Not to add to any other drug
(B) Not to adjust the volume of solution
(C) Not to inject at any site other than i.v.
(D) Not to mix with normal saline solution for slow infusion

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Statement for Linked Answer Questions: 44 & 45

Oral vaccine delivery is gaining its popularity now-a-days due to patient

compliance and other advantages

44. Vaccine can be delivered orally by

(A) Aqueous suspension of antigen
(B) Aqueous solution of antibody/antigen
(C) Non-aqueous solution of antigen
(D) Micro particles

45. The above formulation is absorbed by

(A) facilitated diffusion (B) stomach
(C) Peyars Patch (D) jejunum

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Answer Keys
1 A 2 D 3 B 4 D 5 D 6 A 7 A
8 C 9 C 10 D 11 D 12 A 13 A 14 A
15 C 16 A 17 D 18 D 19 C 20 A 21 C
22 C 23 A 24 C 25 B 26 C 27 A 28 D
29 C 30 D 31 B 32 A 33 C 34 C 35 D
36 A 37 A 38 B 39 D 40 A 41 B 42 B
43 D 44 D 45 C

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