MCN Bullet Review

1. Abortion is termination of pregnancy before the age of _______________ at __________ weeks.

2. Tonic neck and Moro reflex disappears at _____ months.
3. Sucking, rooting, palmar reflexes diappears at ___- ___ months.
4. Bethamethasone (Celestone) is given ________ hours before delivery during preterm labor to
promote ____________ maturity and prevents respiratory distress syndrome among infants.
5. A mature lung indicates a lecithin, spingomyelin ratio of ___:___.
6. First eruption of tooth occurs on 6th month usually the lower __________ incisors.
7. Asymmetric Moro reflex indicates Erb’s paralysis or _________________ (neuromuscular disease).
8. Greenish amniotic fluid indicates fetal distress on Breech presentation. True or false? __________.
9. Rupture of amniotic sac (bag of water) can be confirmed by doing _____________ test and
_______________ test.
10. When a mother begins to feel light headedness, low BP, and with signs of fetal distress, the
initial intervention is to turn the patient on her __________ side.
11. Normal infant physiological weight loss of ___ to ___pounds occurs between 7-10 days because of
decrease maternal hormones supply, decreased infant feeding and loss of fluids and defecation.
12. The shape of anterior fontanel is _________________ that normally closes at 12-18 months.
13. Supplemental/solid foods are offered to infants at __________ month usually ___________ (food).
14. Premature contractions of uterus start before the completion of ____________ weeks.
15. Drugs like ritodrine, procainamide, and terbutaline are called ___________ to prevent or stop
preterm labor.
16. After evacuation of H-mole, the mother is not allowed to pregnant within ____months and is
instructed to monitor her _____ for one year.
17. Painless, bright red vaginal bleeding during pregnancy is highly indicative of _________________.
18. Breast milk is a good source of iron for infants. True or false? ______________.
19. Burping the baby during feeding is done 3 times during the entire feeding. True or false?
_________________.
20. To prevent sore/cracked nipples, the mother should 1. ________________, and 2.__________________.
21. ______________ 1st stool that is greenish and sticky and usually within 24 hours after fetal birth.
22. The stool of a breastfeed baby is loose, seedy, and infrequent. True or false? _______.
23. An infant walks with assistance at ___ months.
24. Social smile on an infant appears ___ months.
25. Push pull toys are best for toddlers. True or false? ______.
26. Fear of strangers among infants starts at ____ months.
27. Object permanence (awareness of an object out sight still exist) occurs at ____ months.
28. Postpartum bleeding of more than ____ ml is considered hemorrhage.
29. The priority assessment of a baby weighing 12 pounds aside from airway is assessment of serum
_____________.
30. Separation anxiety is common which group? _______________.
31. This group has imaginary friends, afraid of ghost and castration, highly imaginative: ____________.
32. This group is focused on their physical appearance, the way they dress, walk, talk etc:
________________.
33. To prevent Meconium aspiration syndrome, ______________ is done as soon as the head is
delivered.
34. Acracynosis is bluish discoloration of fingers is considered abnormal. True or false?
_______________.
35. Physiological jaundice occurs 24 hours after delivery. True or false? __________.
36. Rh incompatibility occurs when the maternal Rh is _________ and fetal Rh is _____.
37. To prevent Rh incompatibility, the mother receives Rh immune globulin (Rhogam) _____ hours
after delivery.
38. __________________ is the premature separation of the palacenta that causes dark bleeding,
sudden abdominal pain, and possible shock.
39. ______________ abortion characterized by absence of cervical dilation and fetal survival is likely.
40. Non reactive test in non contraction stress test means the fetus is healthy. True or false?
__________________.
41. Before assessing fetal heart tone, the nurse performs _____________maneuver.
42. Also called the mask of pregnancy? _________________.
43. Hegar’s sign and Chadwik’s sign are ________________ signs of pregnancy.
44. Quickening is felt at __________ weeks.
45. In this phase according to Rubin, the postpartum mother is ready to accept the responsibility of
nursing the baby, independent, and receptive to teaching usually 3-10 days postpartum.
46. Mobiles, music boxes, mirrors, and rattles are best for ________________.
47. It is alright to mix medication to breast milk or milk formula. True or false.
48. Food can be used as a reward in a child to cause positive behaviors. True or false? ____________.
49. Dental care on a child starts during ______________________________.
50. 1st dental check up is on ____________ years old.
51. When offering solid foods, egg white is offered 1 st, then the egg yolk. True or false?
_______________.
52. At __________months, the child can drink from a cup.
53. The best prevention to postpartum thrombophlebitis is ____________________.
54. When the patient is on Coumadin, she should avoid _____________ to prevent decreasing the
effect of the drug.
55. By 18 months, toddlers are picky eaters, experiences food jags. Eats large amount at one time,
and little the the next. True or false? _______________.
56. When the uterus is soft on postpartum, the initial action is to __________ the uterus.
57. When the fundus of the uterus is not on the center on postpartum, the nurse will initially assess
for the presence of distended ______________.
58. Phase in the 1st stage of labor where the cervix is 1-3 cm dilated, the mother is excited, the pain
of contraction is mild that last for 30 seconds. ___________________.
59. Infants usually engages in ___________ play, non interactive in nature.
60. The infant’s 1st means of communication is _____________.
61. There are _____ deciduous teeth which are completed at 1 ½ years old.
62. Signs of readiness of a toddler for toilet training are
a. Stays dry for _________ hours
b. Can sit, walk, and squat
c. Can _______the desire to void or defecate
d. Exhibits willingness to please parents

63. Three signs of placental expulsion during the 3rd stage of labor and delivery are:
a. Cord lengthens
b. Fundus becomes _______________
c. And gush of ______________
64. The normal breathing pattern of newborns is irregular, and has periods of apnea for 10 seconds.
True or false? ______________.
65. To interview toddler it is best the nurse allows the parent to stay close to child, and give the
toddler his favorite toy? True or false? __________.
66. Which group you allow the child to manipulate or touch medical equipment before doing a
certain procedure? _____________.
67. Confidentiality is very important among this age group: __________________.
68. A client with threatened abortion is not allowed to have coitus within ________ weeks after the
last sign of bleeding.
69. After fetal deliveries from multiple gestation pregnancy, the possible maternal complication is
__________________.
70. A breastfeeding mother can not use estrogen pills as contraception because these
___________________ milk production.
71. If the LMP of a mother is January 10, 2010, her EDC using the Nagele’s rule is on
________________________________.
72. With the use of __________________ FHT can be heard at 12th week AOG.
73. A mother will have chorionic villi sampling. The mother is instructed to empty the bladder before
the procedure. True or false? ______________.
74. Third stage of labor is completed within __________ minutes.
75. To reduce breast engorgement during lactation, the mother should _____________ the breast.
76. Cold compress is applied to the breasts if the mother wishes not to breastfeed her baby. True or
false?______________.
77. Uterine cramping is reduced during breastfeeding. True or false? ___________.
78. Crede’s prophylaxis uses _____________ or ______________ to prevent infant gonorrhea and
chlamydial infection.
79. Optic antibiotic is delayed 1-2 hours to promote__________________________.
80. Palpation of bulging fontanel to assess ICP or hydrocephalus is only applied to children less than
_________ years old.
81. Babinski reflex is considered normal until ________ year old.
82. According to ________________, if oral needs of an infant are not met, this may lead to mistrust.
83. According to Erikson, the psychosocial task of a toddler is to develop a sense of _____________.
84. A simple jigsaw puzzle is an ideal toy for 10 month old? True or false? ____________.
85. Solid foods are not introduced to infants before _______ months.
86. Full head control or absence of head lag occurs at _________ months.
87. At __________ months, a child can walk without support.
88. The infant coos at age _______month, laughs and babbles at _________ months.
89. Infants can crawl at ________ months.
90. A large, soft cuddly toy is ideal for infants. True or false? ____________.
91. ________________ of contraction is defined as the interval between the start of one contraction to
the start of another new contraction.
92. _____________ of contraction is the beginning and end of a single contraction.
93. Uterine contractions should never be more than _______ seconds to prevent fetal distress and
uterine rupture.
94. After maintaining a patent airway to a newly born baby, the nurse should then ____________baby.
95. Hypoglycemia among infants produces _____________ cry.
96. The best source of nutrition of an infant is: __________________.
97. An umbilical cord stump dries and falls of within ___________ days
98. A bicycle can be a good toy for toddler. True or false? _____________.
99. The best way to decrease a “No” answer from a toddler, is the parent should limit
____________________________________.
100. Deciduous teeth begin to fall out at _______ years old.
101. In this phase, the post partum mother is active, and is assuming the responsibility of taking
care of the mother. ______________________.
102. Babinski reflex is __________ big toe and fanning of the small toes. Considered normal within 12
months.
103. Best position on a mother with prolapsed cord is: ______________position.
104. The pregnant mother with PROM should have fetal delivery within _____ hours to prevent
_______________ (infection of the amniotic sac).
105. Tachycardia, palpitation, and tremors are common adverse reaction of what tocolytic drug?
_______________.
106. A postpartum mother with AIDS can not breastfeed her infant. True or false? ________.
107. Honey should not be offered to infants to prevent infant ________________.
108. A healthy newborn receiving enough milk void ___ to ___ times per day.
109. Scoliosis is common among which group? ____________________.
110. Meconium-stained amniotic fluid may be considered normal if the presenting part of the fetus
is cephalic. True or false? ____________________.
111. What 2 vaccines can be given days after fetal delivery? ______________.
112. Oxytocin is given to promote uterine _____________________.
113. When prolapsed cord is confirmed, the 1st thing to assess is assess: ________________.
114. Variable deceleration (decreased FHR) is due to _____________________.
115. Solid foods are introduced to the baby one at a time to determine the presence of
________________________.
116. Normal FHR is _________ to _________ beats per minute.
117. During the transition phase of the 1st stage of labor, the breathing should be
___________________________.
118. During phototherapy for hyperbilirubinemia, the infant’s _____________ and ______________ is
covered to prevent damage.
119. A child with menigocoele is placed on ____________ position to prevent damage to the sac.
120. Physiologic weight loss of ___ to ___ lbs among infants is normal 7-10 after delivery.
121. When administering ointment to an infant, it should start from ________ to ________.
122. A child is offered with ________ or _________ before feeding the baby with milk formula.
123. Infants receive IM vitamin K after birth because they lack _____________ which is necessary in
the synthesis of Vitamin K.
124. If the urethral meatus of an infant is in the ventral aspect of the penile shaft, this is termed as
___________________.
125. Small cysts that are seen on the palate of a new born are called ___________ pearls.
126. Mongolian spots are blue spots on the buttocks common among dark skin children. True or
false? _________________.
127. In the community total number of prenatal visits is ____________.
128. An ideal number of prenatal visits in a hospital is_____________.
129. Lochia rubra is color __________ in moderate amount present from 1-3 days.
130. If the uterus is soft and boggy, the nurse should _______________ the uterus.
131. When the duration of uterine contraction is more 100 seconds, the nurse should____________
the oxytocin infusion.
132. Quickening is ________________ sign of pregnancy.
133. Home remedy for leg cramps on a pregnant mother is _____________ the knees and
_________________ foot.
134. To prevent morning nausea, the pregnant mother should eat ________________.
135. Treatment of postpartum thrombophlebitis is ___________ the affected leg to reduce edema,
apply _________ compress to relieve discomfort, and administer ____________________ to prevent
further formation of clots.
136. Breast milk is superior to milk formula because it contains immune globulin ___ that prevents
infection.
137. Measles is administered on the __________ area, _____ ml, _____ (route)
138. _________________ is the overlapping/overriding of skull bones to facilitate the delivery of the
head. Usually normal and resolves in days.
139. In severe PIH, the BP of the patient is at least or more than ______ mm Hg, and the proteinuria
is more than ___ grams in 24 hour urine collection.
140. ________________ is the antidote for Mg SO4 toxicity.
141. The initial sign of MG SO4 toxicity is ___________________.
142. The environment of a client with PIH should be ________________________.
143. Epigastric pain in PIH is ominous because it can be a sign of impending __________________.
144. Eliciting the __________________ on a child diagnosed with epiglotitis is contraindicated because
it could lead to laryngeal spasm.
145. Hirschsprung disease causes ________________ stool.
146. Inability to pass 1st stool after birth within 24 hours is called __________________ and is common
to 1. Hirschsprung disease 2. ___________________, 3. _____________________.
147. 1st dental check up on a child is when he is_________ years old.
148. Permanent tooth begins to erupt at ________ years old.
149. The priority in clients with croup is ________________.
150. The stool in intussusception is ____________________.
151. It is imbalance of CSF absorption or production that leads to head enlargement and
increased in the ICP. _______________________
152. _______________ is the prominence of the eyebrow associated with hydrocephalus.
153. Late signs of increased in ICP is the ___________ triad. These are systolic hypertension, 2.
____________________, 3. _____________________
154. Immediately after placement of the ventriculoperitoneal shunt (drains the CSF from the
brain to peritoneum), the child is placed on the ____________ side, and on flat position to prevent
sudden drop of ICP.
155. To prevent otitis externa (infection of the middle ear also called swimmer’s ear, the client
should use __________ during swimming.
156. After tonsillectomy, the child should avoid 1. milk, 2.___________, 3. ______________.
157. ________________ is a sign of bleeding after tonsillectomy.
158. The confirmatory of PTB among children is _______________.
159. Deficiency in ______________ is associated with the formation of neural tube defects like
meningocele.
160. In congenital hip dysplasia (hip dislocation) the child has unequal __________ when knees
are flexed. This is called Galleazi’s sign. There are also more glutal folds on the affected hip. The
hip is also shortened.
161. To prevent hip dislocation, the client should maintain hips in _______________.
162. Common fracture among children is _________________.
163. A child with fracture, the priority is assessment of _______________ status.
164. When caring for a child with meningitis, the nurse should wear ____________ when
providing care.
165. Regular measurement of ___________ helps identify hydrocephalus.
166. During attacks of croup, the mother is instructed to bring the child to 1.
__________________, 2. ________________, 3. or garage of the house to inhale cool air and reduce the
airway swelling.
167. Sudden infant death syndrome is associated with what infant position? ___________.
168. In celiac disease, the child is unable to metabolize phenylalanine which is a protein. True
or false? _________.
169. The urine in acute glomerulonephritis is contains ______________ and __________.
170. The nurse usually asks the parent of a child with AGN about recent _________ infection.
171. The diet restriction of a child with AGN is low in 1. ___________, 2. ____________, 3.
_______________.
172. The laboratory result of a patient with AGN is 1. __________, 2. ___________, 3. ____________
173. The best way to monitor fluid status of a client is assess ___________.
174. A child with heart failure receives ___________ to increase the strength of cardiac muscle
contractility. The nurse monitors ____________ for one full minute before giving the drug.
175. Signs are cough, crackles, and dyspnea. What type of heart failure is this?
________________.
176. A child with severe heart failure is placed on _______________ position.
177. CSF analysis of a child with meningitis has _________ glucose, _________ protein and
________ appearance.
178. _______________ sign is pain during extension of a flexed leg. This is a sign of meningeal
irritation.
179. When a spina difida cystica contains spinal cord, meninges, nerve roots, and CSF, this is
_________________.
180. Sleeping with adult, soft bedding, overheating, lying on the abdomen, and use of pillows
are associated with syndrome? __________________.
181. A child with croup should avoid use of ______________ to prevent total airway obstruction.
182. LTB produces __________ cough, while epiglottitis produces muffled or silent cough.
183. The common cause of bronchiolitis is _____________________.
184. The DOC for bronchiolitis is _______________. ____________ woman are not allowed to visit
during treatments. Nurse must wear goggles if he has contact lenses.
185. Before screening the baby for PKU, the nurse should make sure that the baby has
received ______________.
186. A child with PKU can not receive milk and milk products therefore receive ____________ as
a substitute.
187. A mother with threatened abortion is placed on _____________ to prevent further bleeding.
188. The bleeding in abruption placentae is _________________.
189. A mother post H mole is receiving methotrexate. The nurse should monitor for signs of
__________ (adverse reaction) and give ________________ (antidote) for toxicity.
190. McDonald procedure is a surgical suturing (cerclage) of an incompetent cervix. It is a
temporary suturing of the cervix and the sutures are removed during the onset of labor. True or
false? _______.
191. __________________ is the aspiration of blood in the pelvis to determine for the presence if
ruptured ectopic pregnancy.
192. Stretchy cervical mucus, 14 days after menstruation, a decrease then sudden rise in the
basal body temperature, and mittelschmerz are signs of ovulation. True or false?
_________________.
193. If a woman misses to take her pill for one day, she should take _________________.
194. Avoid ___________________ if the patient has placenta previa to prevent further bleeding.
195. Report FHR of less than ________ in a 10-12 hour period.
196. Early deceleration is due to ______________ and is considered normal.
197. (+) ASO titer, increased ESR, and increased BUN are consistent to a patient with
___________________.
198. What sign is placed on the bedside on a patient with Wilm’s tumor? ____________________.
199. A child had appendectomy for ruptured appendix. The child is placed on Fowler position
to prevent _______________ (complication).
200. _____________ test measures the amount of phenylalanine in the blood after 2 days of
breastfeeding.
201. Corn, rice, fruits, meats are allowed to a child with celiac disease. True or false? _________.
202. Celiac disease usually causes what GI symptom? _______________.
203. Ribavirin (Virazole) is administered through __________________.
204. To reduce ICP, the child receives ___________ (diuretic), and prochlorperazine (Compazine)
to prevent ______________.
205. A child with CHD with hip spica cast experiences severe abdominal pain, vomiting, and
absence of bowel sounds. These are indication of what complication? ___________________.
206. Before seizures, the priority is ___________________.
207. A child with vomiting is placed on ______________ position.
208. The priority after seizure is __________________.
209. Headache, paralysis, drowsiness, and incontinence are normal after seizure. True or
false? ________________.
210. Hemophilia A is also called classic hemophilia and is deficiency in clotting factor _____.
211. Hemophilia has abnormal coagulation studies, prolonged prothrombin time, prolonged
bleeding time, and prolonged partial thromboplastin time. True or false? __________.
212. Hemophilia in infants is suspected if there is bleeding in the ______ or bleeding after
___________ (procedure)
213. Hemorrhage in the joints is called _______________.
214. In Sickle cell disease, there is an abnormality in the shape of the ________ because
hemoglobin A is replaced by hemoglobin S.
215. Idiopathic thrombocytopenic purpura (ITP) is an autoimmune disorder characterized by
deficiency in ____________.
216. In patent ductus arteriosus, ductus arteriosus fails to lose and blood form _________ enters
the pulmonary artery and lungs causing pulmonary congestion.
217. The most common form of congenital heart defect is _________________.
218. In atrial septal defect the blood form _________ atrium enters the _________ and causes
increased in right ventricle enlargement and increased pressure in the pulmonary artery.
219. Congenital clubbing of fingers is common to patients with _____________ and ____________
diseases.
220. In Tetralogy of Fallot, the four major anomalies are:
a. __________________
b. __________________
c. __________________
d. __________________
221. ____________ is a characteristic posture of children with Tetralogy of Fallot during tet
spells.
222. The common cause of Rheumatic heart disease is infection with __________________.
223. Also known as mucocutaneous lymph node syndrome characterized by acute systemic
vasculitis that causes typical strawberry red tongue. ____________.
224. The common complication of mucocutaneous lymph node syndrome is ________________.
225. Type of cerebral palsy characterized by wormlike movement. ____________.
226. Common side effect of long term use of phenytoin (Dilantin) is ____________.
227. Anticonvulsant is gradually tapered to prevent ________________.
228. A type seizure characterized by rigidity, extension of extremities, and pupil dilation,
followed by rhythmic jerking of extremities and incontinence. _________.
229. In this type of mental retardation the IQ is between 35-55. ______________.
230. Congenital type of hypothyroidism is called _________________.
231. Treatment of hypothyroidism is lifetime intake of antithyroid medications. True or false?
_______________.
232. ________________ narrowing of pyloric stenosis with chracteristric ___________ vomiting and
on palpation a ___________-shaped mass is present.
233. When using metered dose inhaler for asthma, the patient needs to hold the device 1-2
inches away from the mouth, hold the breath for ___-___ seconds and wait for ___-___ minutes
before taking another puff.
234. A pet fish is ideal for a child with asthma to prevent asthma attack. True or false?
__________.
235. Cyclophosphamide (Cytoxan) is an immunosuppressant that may cause ____________ in
the bladder.
236. After inhaling triamcinolone (Azmacort) for asthma the patient should ___________ to
reduce the unpleasant taste in the mouth.
237. Normal color of colostomy after surgery for Hirschsprung disease is swollen and is
_________ or _________ in color.
238. The diet for colostomy includes avoiding ____________ and ___________ and increasing the
intake of ____________ to reduce the odor of the feces.
239. To increase the gastric emptying after eating on a patient pyloric stenosis the child is placed
on ____________ position.
240. Antibiotic like neomycin is given before colon surgery to reduce ____________ and prevent
infection.
241. Hydrocele is accumulation of abdominal fluid in the scrotal sac, usually confirmed by
____________ the sac.
242. Before tonsillectomy procedure, the nurse should review the _________ (lab result) to
identify possible risk during surgery.
243. Celiac disease is associated with what type of cancer? ______________.
244. _____________ is a substitute for milk and milk products on a child with PKU.
245. After tonsillectomy, the nurse should use ____________ when offering the child liquids, and
avoid using a straw to prevent injury on the site.
246. Aspirin is avoided during a known viral illness to avoid __________syndrome.
247. Aspirin is used to treat the fever in idiopathic thrombocytopenic purpura. True or false?
_________.
248. When a administering blood products like PRBC’s, the nurse should run the blood not
more than ___________ hours.
249. Platelet concentrate should be administered within 4 hours to avoid hemolysis.
250. The priority intervention on a client with active overt bleeding is apply ____________ to the site.
251. In epistaxis apply __________ on the nose to reduce the swelling, apply_____________ on the nose
for 5-10 minutes, and avoid __________ to prevent re bleeding of the nose.
252. The drug of choice for pneumocystiis carinii pneumonia is _____________.
253. A pregnant woman exposed to rubella should receive __________ to prevent teratogenenic
effect within _______ hours after exposure.
254. A child is taught to how to use peak flow meter to determine normal lung function. In the peak
flow meter, the child ____________ through the mouth piece of the device and measure the
volume of air.
255. Common adverse reaction of theophylline is increase in ____________. The nurse should avoid
coffee and smoking.
256. Inhaled bronchodilator is administered 1st, then wait for 5 minutes followed by a
glucocorticoids. True or false? ___________.
257. After postural drainage, the nurse should perform _____________ on the child to reduce
unpleasant taste from the mouth.
258. ___________ position is classic to patients with epiglottitis characterized by forward sitting,
mouth open, and protruding tongue.
259. The vaccine that prevents influenza among infants is ______________ vaccine.
260. Varicella vaccine is contraindicated to patients with ___________ allergy.
261. The drugs of choice for H1N1 infection are _____________ or ___________.
262. The confirmatory diagnosis of AIDS among infants and 18 months below is ________________.
263. The common cause of death of cancer and AIDS is _____________.
264. The 3 C’s of tracheoesophageal (TEF) fistula are:
a. ____________
b. ____________
c. ____________
265. Common sign of diabetes among children is ______________.
266. A child with congestive heart failure should monitor his _______ at home to assess for fluid
balance.
267. When on digoxin, the nurse should emphasized to the parents of a child to include foods in the
diet with ______________.
268. To reduce joint stiffness among children with juvenile RA, the child should have
________________ in the morning.
269. Aspirin is given on _____________ stomach.
270. Congenital rubella casues:
a. _________________
b. _________________
c. _________________
d. _________________
271. ___________________ (medication) helps in the closure of a patent ductus.
272. A child with congenital heart defect is prone to develop ___________ infection.
273. After treating a child with meningitis for ________ hours, he is no longer considered
communicable.
274. Kwell shampoo stays in the hair for ___ minutes, then rinse the hair and nits are removed by a
fine toothed comb rinse with _________ solution.
275. Permethrine 5% is applied all over the skin not only on the lesion. Usually all members are
treated. True or false? ___________.
276. Epiglottitis is confirmed by _______________.
277. Also known as St. Vitus Dance characterized by aimless, sudden, irregular movements of the
extremities. _______________. This is one of the manifestations of Rheumatic heart disease.
278. Major characteristics of RHD are:
a. ____________
b. ____________
c. ____________
d. ____________
279. The life threatening complication of RHD is __________________.
280. Nodes that are painless in RA are called ________________.
281. Confirmatory diagnosis of cancer is ________________.
282. The most common renal cancer among children is _____________.
283. Common and initial sign of this cancer is painless, enlarged cervical lymph node.
__________________.
284. The most common sign of Wilm’s tumor is the presence ____________ in the abdomen.
285. After cheiloplasty, the child is placed on _________ position.
286. Management used in congenital hip dysplasia to treat the dislocation are:
a. _______________
b. _______________
c. _______________
287. A client with leukemia should be protected against ___________ and __________.
288. Hirschsprung’s disease is absence of ____________ in the colon.
289. An undescended testis is called ________________.
290. An early sign of respiratory distress is ______________, or ____________.
291. An early sign of increased ICP is change in ____________.
292. The characteristic heart sound in PDA is a loud ____________murmur.
293. Absence of lung sounds during an acute asthma is considered dangerous. True or false?
_______________.
294. Normal ICP is less than _________ mm Hg.
295. Contact sports are not allowed on child with ITP, hemophilia and aplastic anemia. True or false?
_____________.
296. Signs of VP shunt malfunction include increasing ____________ circumference, and a decreased
appetite.
297. Reye’s syndrome causes damage to _________ and __________.
298. The antidotes for lead poisoning are ____________ or ___________.
299. Ask for allergy to ________ eggs before administering Dimercaprol.
300. Accurate renal function is best indicated by a normal serum ____________.