ANATOMY AND EMBRYOLOGY

1. The branch of facial nerve that conveys the secretomotor impulse involved in lacrimation is (2004)
A. Chorda tympani nerve
B. Deep petrosal nerve
C. Greater petrosal nerve
D. Lesser petrosal nerve

2. Circumvallate papilla are supplied by (2004),(2005)

A. Lingual nerve
B. Glossopharyngeal nerve
C. Hypoglossal nerve
D. Vagus nerve

3. DNA is same for (2004)

A. Identical twins
B. Non identical twins
C. All siblings
D. Everybody

4. The sweat glands are supplied by only (2004)

A. Parasympathetic nerves
B. Sympathetic nerves
C. Sensory nerves
D. Motor nerves

5. Messeter muscle is a powerful muscles because of (2005)

A. Bipennate arrangement of fibres
B. Multipinnate arrangement of fibres
C. It has multiple tendinous septa
D. Its attachment to bone is unique

6. Muscles of face are derived from the mesoderm of (2005)

A. 1st branchial arch
B. 2nd branchial arch
C. 3rd branchial arch
D. 2nd and 3rd branchial arch

7. Genioglossus muscle is attached in the posterior surface of symphysis menti in the (2005)
A. Mental spines
B. Superior genial tubercle
C. The inferior genial tubercle
D. Just above the lower border of mandible
8. Liver is divided into (2005)
A. 8 couinaud segments
B. 7 couinaud segments
C. 9 couinaud segments
D. 10 couinaud segments

9. Cricothyroid muscle is supplied by (2005)

A. External laryngeal nerve
B. Internal laryngeal nerve
C. Recurrent laryngeal nerve
D. A direct branch from vagus nerve

10. The anterior triangle occupies the side of the neck in front of sternomastoid muscle. Each triangle
presents boundry in front (2005)
A. Anterior median line of the neck extending from symphysis menti to suprasternal notch
B. The midline of the neck
C. Midline of the neck uptothe sternoclavicular joint
D. Posterior border of thyroid gland

11. Blood supply of coronoid process of mandible is primarily from (2006)

A. Inferior alveolar artery
B. Deep temporal artery
C. Facial artery
D. Middle meningeal artery

12. Among the muscles of TMJ, the following muscles opposes,stabilizes and antagonizes muscle force
as far as the disc is concerned (2006)
A. Medial pterygoid
B. Temporalis
C. Lateral pterygoid
D. Masseter

13. Skull at birth has (2006)

A. 22 bones
B. 34 bones
C. 45 bones
D. 54 bones

14. Pterygopalatine ganglion is functionally related to (2006)

A. Facial nerve
B. Mandibular nerve
C. Glossopharyngeal nerve
D. Maxillary nerve
15. Derivative of 2nd pharyngeal arch is (2006)
A. Sphenomandibular ligament
B. Stylomandibular ligament
C. Anterior ligament of malleus
D. Stylohyoid ligament

16. Parotid duct traverses (2006)

A. Masseter
B. Buccinator
C. Medial pterygoid
D. Lateral ptrygoid

17. Deep surface of hyoglossus is related to (2006)

A. Lingual nerve
B. Hypoglossal nerve
C. Submandibular ganglion
D. Glossopharyngeal nerve

18. Suprasternal space does not containwhich of the following structures (2006)
A. Jugular arch
B. Anterior jugular vein
C. Sterna head of sternocleidomastoid
D. External jugular vein

19. Deep part of submandibular salivary gland is in relation to (2006)

A. Facial nerve
B. Lingual nerve
C. Accessory nerve
D. Mandibular nerve

20. Inferior thyroid artery is a branch of (2006)

A. External carotid artery
B. Internal carotid artery
C. Common carotid artery
D. Subclavian artery

21. Muscles of tongue are formed by (2006)

A. 1st arch mesoderm
B. 2nd arch mesoderm
C. Occipital myotomes
D. Cervical somites
22. The structure that does not traverse parotid gland is (2006)
A. Superficial temporal artery
B. Posterior auricular artery
C. External carotid artery
D. Internal carotid artery

23. Sensory innervations of larynx as far as the vocal folds is by (2006)

A. External laryngeal nerve
B. Recurrent laryngeal nerve
C. Internal laryngeal nerve
D. Glossopharyngeal nerve

24. Nerve of the pterygoid canal is formed by the union of (2006)

A. Deep petrosal nerve with greater petrosal nerve
B. Deep petrosal nerve with lesser petrosal nerve
C. Greater petrosal nerve with lesser petrosal nerve
D. Greater petrosal nerve with External petrosal nerve

25. Lymphatics of upper gums drain into (2006)

A. Lingual nodes
B. Retropharyngeal nodes
C. Submandibular nodes
D. Submental nodes

26. Accessory meningeal artery enters cranial cavity through (2006)

A. Foramen lacerum
B. Foramen rotundum
C. Foramen spinosum
D. Foramen ovale

27. Protraction of the mandible is brought about by (2007)

A. Lateral pterygoid
B. Medial pterygoid
C. Temporalis
D. Masseter

28. Hyoid bone is a derivative of (2007)

A. 1st pharyngeal arch
B. 1st and 2nd pharyngeal arch
C. 2nd and 3rd pharyngeal arch
D. 4th pharyngeal arch
29. Mental spines provide attachment to (2007)
A. Genioglossus & Geniohyoid
B. Anterior & Posterior bellies of digastrics
C. Mylohyoid
D. Superior constricot of pharynx

30. ‘Dacrocystitis’ is interruption in the drainage of (2007)

A. Submandibular gland
B. Parotid gland
C. Lacrimal gland
D. Sublingual gland

31. Lingual nerve, supplying tongue, is a branch of (2007)

A. Facial nerve
B. Hypoglossal nerve
C. Mandibular nerve
D. Maxillary nerve

32. Failure of descent of thyroid analogue can be seen in the tongue (2008)
A. In anterior T1 of dorsal aspect
B. In posterior S1 of dorsal aspect
C. Near the base of tongue close to foramen caecum
D. In the anterior T1 of the inferior surface

33. Development of mandible is by (2008)

A. 1st branchial arch
B. 2nd branchial arch
C. 4th branchial arch
D. 3rd branchial arch

34. Which of the following lobes of cerebrum is related to the inferior horn of the lateral ventricle
(2008)
A. Frontal
B. Parietal
C. Temporal
D. Occipital

35. The branch of facial nerve that conveys the secretomotor impulse involved in lacrimation is (2008)
A. Chorda tympani nerve
B. Deep petrosal nerve
C. Greater petrosal nerve
D. Lesser petrosal nerve
36. Structures related to the medial surface of the hyoglossus muscle including the following EXCEPT
(2008)
A. Glossopharyngeal nerve
B. Stylohyoid ligament
C. Lingual artery
D. Hypoglossal nerve

37. Which one of the following nerves is NOT encountered during submandibular gland resection
(2008),(2011)
A. Lingual nerve
B. Hypoglossal nerve
C. Accessory nerve
D. Marginal mandibular nerve

38. Umbilical cord contains (2009)

A. Three arteries and one vein
B. One artery and three veins
C. One artery and one vein
D. Two arteries and one vein

39. The abductors of the vocal cords are (2009)

A. Transverse arytenoid
B. Oblique arytenoid
C. Lateral thyroarytenoid
D. Posterior cricoarytenoid

40. Horner’s syndrome include all except (2009)

A. Enopthalmos
B. Miosis
C. Exopthalmos
D. Ptosis

41. CSF is directly returned to venous system by (2009)

A. Choroid plexus
B. Cerebral veins
C. Arachnoid villi
D. Emissary veins

42. Unilateral paralysis of hypoglossal nerve leads to (2009)

A. Deviation of tongue to normal size
B. Deviation of the tongue to paralysed side
C. No change in the position of the tongue
D. Retraction of the tongue
43. Which papillae are completely keratinized (2009)
A. Fungiform
B. Filiform
C. Circumvallate
D. Foliate

44. The type of suture representated by sagittal suture of the cranial vault is (2010)
A. Serrate
B. Denticulate
C. Squamous
D. Plane

45. Nerve supply to the vocal cords is by (2010)

A. Internal laryngeal nerve
B. Recurrent laryngeal nerve
C. Superior laryngeal nerve
D. Internal and recurrent laryngeal nerves

46. The lingual surface of epiglottis is lined by (2010)

A. Stratified squamous epithelium
B. Simple squamous epithelium
C. Stratified columnar epithelium
D. Pseudostratified epithelium

47. Which of the following venous sinuses is more likely to be affected with thrombosis in chronic otitis
media and mastoiditis (2010)
A. Cavernous
B. Inter cavernous
C. Sigmoid
D. Superior petrosal

48. Meiotic division division of male germ cells commence (2010)

A. During intra uterine life
B. Just before birth
C. By around 6 years after birth
D. By around 16 years

49. Infection from the dangerous area of face spreads via one of the following veins (2011)
A. Maxillary vein
B. Retromolar vein
C. Superficial temporal vein
D. Ophthalmic veins
50. All of the following canals open on the posterior wall of the pterygopalatine fossa EXCEPT (2011)
A. Greater paltine canal
B. Foramen rotundum
C. Pterygoid canal
D. Palatovaginal canal

51. One of the following nerve is the motor nerve for occipital belly of occipitofrontalis (2011)
A. Great auricular
B. Lesser occipital
C. Third occipital
D. Posterior auricular

52. Hypoglossal nerve supplies all the muscles EXCEPT (2011)

A. Styloglossus
B. Hyoglossus
C. Palatoglossus
D. Genioglossus

53. The first macroscopic development occurs at approximately (2011)

A. 8 weeks in utero
B. 10 weeks in utero
C. 11 weeks in utero
D. 13 weeks in utero

54. Ultimobranchial body forms (2011)

A. ‘C’ cells of thyroid gland
B. Principal cells of parathyroid gland
C. Acidophils of pituitary gland
D. Pituicytes of pituitary gland

55. Mucous membrane on the buccal aspect of the upper alveolar process process is innervated by
buccal nerve and (2011)
A. Superior alveolar nerve
B. Mental nerve
C. Interior alveolar nerve
D. Greater palatine nerve

56. Openings of the posterior alveolar canals are seen on (2011)

A. Posterior maxillary surface
B. Lateral maxillary surface
C. Intra temporal surface
D. Pterygopalatine fossa
 PHYSIOLOGY

57. The supraoptic nucleus of the hypothalamus is believed to control the secretion of which of the
following hormones (2004)
A. ADH
B. Oxytocin
C. GH
D. ACTH

58. Steroid hormones are believed to enter target cells (2004)

A. Faciliated duffusion
B. Carrier mediated endocytosis
C. Cholesterol lined pores in the plasma membrane
D. Simple diffusion

59. The skeletal muscle action potential (2004)

A. Is not essential for contraction to occcur
B. Has a prolonged palteau phase
C. Spreads inward to all parts of the muscle via the t-tubule system
D. Begins with an inward movement of K+ ions

60. Which of the following statements about the action of somatomedins is true (2004)
A. They inhibit protein synthesis
B. They antagonize the effect of insulin
C. They promote growth of bones and cartilage
D. They mediate the local effects of somatostatin

61. What effect does hyperventilation have on oxygen binding affinity of hemoglobin (2004)
A. PO2 and O2 affinity decreases
B. PO2 and O2 affinity increases
C. PO2 decreases and O2 affinity increases
D. PO2 increases and O2 affinity decreases

62. Acomegaly is a disorder of (2004)

A. Excess growth hormone secretion
B. Excess thyroxine secretion
C. Excess ACTH secretion
D. Excess FSH secretion

63. Supporting cells of taste buds are called as (2004) (2005)

A. Sustenticular cells
B. Taste cells
C. Von Ebners cells
D. Acini
64. Partially keratinized papilla is (2004)
A. Fungiform
B. Filiform
C. Circumvallate
D. Foliate

65. Open faced nucleus in a cell signifies (2004)

A. That the cell is resting
B. That the cell is active
C. Nothing
D. That the cell is in transition phase

66. Which of the following is not an effect of insulin (2004)

A. Decreased gluconeogenesis
B. Increased gluconeogenesis
C. Increased transport of glucose into cells
D. Induction of lipoprotien lipase

67. Rennin release is inhibited by (2005)

A. PGI2
B. Atrial Natriuretic Peptide (ANP)
C. Epinephrine
D. Decreased glomerular filteration

68. Citrate is a useful anticoagulant because of its ability to (2005)

A. Buffer basic groups of coagulation factors
B. Bind factor XII
C. Bind Vit-K
D. Chelate calcium

69. Ventricular muscle receives impulses directly from the (2005)

A. Purkinje system
B. Bundle of His
C. Right and left bundle branches
D. AV node

70. After secretion of trypsinogen into the duodenum, the enzyme is converted into its active form
Trypsin by (2005)
A. Enterokinase
B. Procarboxypeptidase
C. Pancreatic lipase
D. Previously secreted trypsin
71. Sensory receptors for pain are (2005)
A. Pacinian corpuscles
B. End organs of Ruffini
C. End bulb of Krause
D. Free nerve endings

72. The haemoglobin-oxygen saturation of blood entering the right ventricle is approximately (2005)
A. 97%
B. 85%
C. 75%
D. 53%

73. Function of hepatic kupffer cells is (2005)

A. Formation of sinusoids
B. Vitamin-A storage
C. Increased blood perfusion
D. Phagocytosis

74. The normal brown red colour of feaces results from the presence of (2005)
A. Haeme
B. Stercobilin
C. Biliverdin
D. Bilirubin diglucuronide

75. The normal pH of human blood is (2006)

A. 7.0
B. 7.2
C. 7.35 – 7.40
D. 7.6

76. The following factors increase the cardiac output except (2006)
A. Preload
B. Afterload
C. Heart rate
D. Myocardial contractility

77. In clinical practise, GFR is estimated using the plasma clearance value of (2006)
A. Inulin
B. PAH
C. Glucose
D. Creatinine

78. The number of muscle fibers in a motor unit are least in (2006)
A. Laryngeal muscles
B. Pharyngeal muscles
 C. Muscles of middle ear
D. Extra ocular muscles

79. Normal Myeloid:Erythroid ratio is (2006)

A. 3:1
B. 1:3
C. 4:1
D. 6:1

80. Glucose tolerance test is usually done to assess (2007)

A. Acute pancreatitis
B. Carcinoma of head of pancreas
C. Acinar function of the pancreas
D. Endocrine dysfunction of pancreas

81. Thermoregulatory response activated by cold is (2007)

A. Cutaneous vasodilatation
B. Anorexia
C. Increased voluntary activity
D. Increased respiration

82. Which of these organelles function as the digestive system of the cell (2007)
A. Mitochondria
B. Rough ER
C. Golgi apparatus
D. Lysosomes

83. Thrombopoietin is produced by (2007)

A. Monocytes
B. Liver
C. Megakaryocytes
D. Megakaryoblasts

84. In determining blood pressure by the auscultatory method (2007)

A. The loudest sound is the diastolic blood pressure
B. Systolic pressure estimation tends to be lower than that made by the palpatory method
C. The first sound is heard is the systolic blood pressure
D. The sound that are heard are generated in the heart

85. Which of the following is a function of the golgi apparatus (2007)

A. Modification of proteins
B. mRNA synthesis
C. Protein storage
D. tRNA synthesis
86. Which of the following is called ‘Counter Current Exchanger’ (2008)
A. Loop of Henle
B. Vasa recta
C. Collecting duct
D. Proximal convulated tubule

87. Acute pyogenic infection produces (2008)

A. Leukopenia
B. Leukocytosis
C. Neutropenia
D. Lymphopenia

88. The receptor cells of olfactory epithelium are (2008)

A. Bipolar neurons
B. Unipolar neurons
C. Multipolar neurons
D. Stellate cells

89. Activity of osteoclasts can be modified and regulated by which hormone (2008)
A. Calcitonin
B. Thyroid
C. Insulin
D. Pituitary

90. Isometric relaxation ends immediately after (2008)

A. AV valve closes
B. When ventricular pressure falls below aortic pressure
C. When ventricular pressure falls below atrial pressure
D. None of the above.

91. Which one of the following is a regulatory protein of the muscle (2008)
A. Troponin
B. Myosin
C. Actin
D. Protein C

92. Intrinsic factor in the stomach is secreted by (2008)

A. Oxyntic cells
B. Chief cells
C. Mast like cells
D. D-cells of antrum

93. Kussmaul’s respiration occurs in response to (2008)

A. Decrease in pH of blood
B. Increase in pH of blood
 C. Obstructive pulmonary disease
D. Carbon monoxide poisoning

BIOCHEMISTRY

94. What is true of iron (2004)

A. It is stored as ferritin
B. It is absorbed by transferrin in the intestine
C. Spleen is the major storage organ
D. Fe++ is excreted in urine

95. A mutation is that converts an amino acid codon to a stop codon is a (2004)
A. Nonsense codon
B. Transversion
C. Silent mutation
D. Frame shift mutation

96. Which one of the following is purely ketogenic (2004)

A. Proline
B. Phenylalanine
C. Isoleucin
D. Leucin

97. Aspartate aminotransaminase is released (2004)(2005)

A. By viable cells
B. After cell necrosis
C. Either of the above two
D. None of the above

98. Scurvy is the rsult of deficiency of (2004)

A. Vit A
B. Vit C
C. Vit B
D. Vit D

99. Mature red blood cells are distinguished from most body cells by their (2004)
A. Reliance on anaerobic glycolysis
B. Spherical shape
C. Lack of plasticity
D. Relative impermeability to plasma anions

100. All cells do not devide at the same rate. Events in which phase of the cell cycle determine when a
cell is going to replicate (2005)
A. M phase
B. G1 phase
C. S phase
 D. G2 phase

101. Which one of the following human tissues contains the greatest amount of body glycogen (2005)
A. Liver
B. Kidney
C. Skeletal muscle
D. Cardiac muscle

102. The monosaccharide glucose is best described by which one of the following statements (2005)
A. It usually exists in the furanose form
B. It is a ketose
C. It possesses an anomeric C-2 carbon atom
D. It forms part of the disaccharide sucrose

103. Which one of the following is a precursor of both gonadal and adrenocortical hormones (2005)
A. Progesterone
B. Cortisol
C. Testosterone
D. Corticosterone

104. Which of the following vitamins is bound to gastric intrinsic factor (2005)
A. Vit- K
B. Folic acid
C. Vit- B12
D. Vit-D

105. Which one of the following enzymatic reactions is directly related to Vit-K (2005)
A. Activation of factor X
B. Regulation of blood calcium level
C. Conversion of fibrinogen to fibrin
D. Synthesis of prothrombin

106. Von Gierke’s disease is associated with deficiency of (2006)

A. Glucose 6 phosphate dehydrogenase
B. Glucose 6 phosphate
C. Phosphorylase in liver
D. Hexokinase

107. Deficiency of Vit – C causes the following except (2006)

A. Painful swollen gums
B. Abnormal collagen
C. Anemia
D. Diarrhoea

108. Intestinal absorption of Ca+2 is decreased by (2006)

 A. Proteins
B. Lactose
C. Phytic acid
D. Acidity

109. The class of amino acids that contains only non-essential amino acids is (2007)
A. Acidic
B. Basic
C. Aromatic
D. Branded chain

110. Serum Creatine Kinase-3 (CK-3) is elevated in (2007)(2009)

A. Muscular dystrophy
B. Myocardial infarction
C. Alcoholic cirrhosis
D. Brain tumors

111. The enzyme known to cause spontaneous thrombosis as an adverse reaction is (2007)
A. Tyrosine kinase
B. Aromatase
C. Asparaginase
D. Collagenase

112. Transport form of iron is (2007)(2008)

A. Transferrin
B. Ferritin
C. Apoferritin
D. Lactoferrin

113. The main component of hyperlipidemia a mojor risk factor for atherosclerosis is
A. High densely lipoprotein (HDL) cholesterol
B. Intermediate densely lipoprotein (IDL) cholesterol
C. Low densely lipoprotein (LDL) cholesterol
D. Very low densely lipoprotein (VLDL) cholesterol

114. The enzyme phosphofructokinase -1 is strongly activated by

A. Cyclic AMP
B. Adenosine triphosphate
C. Citrate
D. Fructose 2,6 bis phosphate

115. Transcription is the synthesis of

A. Single stranded complimentary copy of DNA
B. Double stranded complimentary copy of DNA
C. Complimentary copy of RNA
 D. Complimentary copy of rRNA

116. Non polar lipids act as

A. Electric insulators
B. Ions
C. Non electric insulators
D. Electrolytes

117. Cofactor required for lipoprotrein lipase activity

A. Apo A–II
B. Apo C–II
C. Apo C–III
D. Apo B–II

118. Thr first plasma protein to be generated after severe protein deficiency
A. Albumin
B. Globulin
C. Fibrinogen
D. Thrombin

119. Hemochromatosis presents with all EXCEPT

A. Micronodular cirrhosis
B. Diabetes mellitus
C. Skin pigmentation
D. Hepatitis

120. Burning feet syndrome occurs due to deficiency of

A. Niacin
B. Pantothenic acid
C. Riboflavin
D. Folic acid

121. The uptake of glucose by the liver increases following a carbohydrate meal because
A. There is increased phosphorylation of glucose by glukokinase
B. GLUT-2 is stimulated by insulin
C. Glukokinase has a low Km for glucose
D. Hexokinase in liver has a high affinity for glucose

122. Which of the following events do not occur in rods in response to light
A. Structural changes in rhodopsin
B. Activation of transducin
C. Decreased intracellular cGMP
D. Opening of Na+ channels

123. Which of the following enzyme provides a link between glycolysis and the citric acid cycle
 A. Lactate dehydrogenase
B. Pyruvate kinase
C. Citrate synthase
D. Pyruvate dehydrogenase

124. Under metabolic conditions associated with a high rate of fatty acid oxidation, the liver produces
A. Glutamate
B. Acetoacetate
C. Cholesterol
D. Glycine

125. Insulin increases the activity of

A. HMG –CoA reductase
B. HMG –CoA lyase
C. HMG –CoA synthase
D. Thiolase

126. Squamous metaplasia in the respiratory epithelium is induced by deficiency of (2010,2011)

A. Vitamin –D
B. Vitamin –B
C. Vitamin –A
D. Vitamin –C

127. The nitrogen content in a 50 gm of a dietary protein is mos likely to be (2011)

A. 5 gm
B. 8 gm
C. 10 gm
D. 16 gm

128. Ehrlich test is done to detect (2011)

A. Bilirubin
B. Urobilinogen
C. Bile salts
D. Protein

129. Ubiquitin is involved in (2011)

A. Intracellular proteolysis
B. Electron transport chain
C. Transport of ATP
D. Protein folding

130.
131.

DENTAL MATERIALS
132. The compressive strength of dentin is approximately (2004)
A. 468 MPa
B. 162 MPa
C. 350 MPa
D. 266 MPa

133. Crystalline materials as compared to amorphous materials have (2004)

A. No space lattice
B. Less stability
C. Well defined melting point
D. Hydrophobic property

134. Hardening solutions are used with impressions made of (2004)

A. Hydrocolloids
B. Impression compound
C. Elastomers
D. Zinc oxide eugenol

135. The phenomenon by which porcelain appears different under varying condition of color is called
(2004)
A. Mesomerism
B. Metamerism
C. Refractive index
D. Translucency

136. The type -1 gypsum product is also called (2004) (2005)

A. Impression plaster
B. Type -1 stone or Hydrocal
C. Type -2 stone or Densite
D. Model plaster

137. pH of which cement remains below 7 even one month after insertion into the cavity (2004)
A. GIC
B. Zn Phosphate
C. Resin cement
D. Silicate cement

138. Who was the first person to introduce Cast Inlay restoration into Dentistry (2004)
A. William H Taggart
B. Micheal Buonocore
C. G V Black
D. Bowen

139. The best pickling solution for gypsum bonded investment is (2004) (2005) (2011)
 A. Hydrochloric Acid
B. Nitric acid
C. Sulfuric acid
D. Phosphoric acid

140. The alloy that possess ‘super elasticity’ is (2005)

A. Nitinol
B. Stainless steel
C. Cobalt-Chromium-Nickel
D. Gold-Palladium

141. Which lasers can be used to cure composite resins (2005)

A. Argon
B. Nd:YAG
C. Er:YAG
D. CO2

142. Back pressure porosity in casting is due to (2005)

A. High casting pressure
B. Low investment permeability
C. Small size and improper direction of sprue
D. Sprue

143. Frozen slab technique is applicable to (2005)(2011)

A. Zinc phosphate cement
B. GIC
C. Zinc oxide eugenol cement
D. Resin cement

144. Casting flux is used to (2005)

A. Prevent the oxidation of material during melting
B. Increase the melting point of the flux
C. Prevent the contamination of the metal and the liner
D. All the above

145. The setting expansion of gypsum products can be reduced by (2005)

A. Increased spatulation
B. Adding potassium sulphate
C. Less water/powder ratio
D. Allowing setting under water

146. The cements which adhere to the tooth are (2005)

A. Silicate and GIC
B. ZnO Eugenol and GIC
C. GIC and Zn polycarboxylate
 D. GIC and Zn phosphate

147. Dimensional stability of hydrocolloid impressions may be achieved by (2005)

A. Using less water/powder ratio
B. Storing the impression under water
C. Prolonged manipulation
D. Using humidor

148. Gases dissolved in molten metals are liberated when cooled, giving rise to (2005)
A. Suck back porosity
B. Gas inclusion porosity
C. Localized shrinkage porosity
D. Micro porosity

149. For esthetic areas where high luster is required the restoration used usually (2005)
A. Glass Ionomer restoratives
B. Hybrid resin composites
C. Microfilled rsin composites
D. Macrofilled resin composites

150. The water /powder ratio of alginate is (2005)

A. 100 ml of water + 60 gm of powder
B. 40 ml of water + 40 gm of powder
C. 40 ml of water + 15 gm of powder
D. 15 ml of water + 40 gm of powder

151. Percentage of gold in a high noble gold alloy is (2005)

A. < 25%
B. 25%
C. >40%
D. 00%

152. The solid solution of silver and mercury is called (2005)

A. γ 1
B. γ 2
C. є 1
D. η
153. The main form of iron carbide in 18:8 stainless steel is (2005)
A. Martensite
B. Austenite
C. Ferrite
D. Pearlite

154. To make vinyl polysiloxane hydrophilic, the following is added (2005)

A. Mineral oil
 B. Surfactant
C. Water
D. Plasticizer

PHARMACOLOGY

155. Ketamine is a (2004)

A. Short general anesthesia
B. Local anesthetic agent
C. Anti depressive agent
D. Hypnotic agent

156. Which one of the following can be blocked by atropine (2004)

A. Decreased blood pressure caused by hexamethonium
B. Increased blood pressure caused by nicotine
C. Tachycardia caused by exercise
D. Tachycardia caused by infusion of acetycholine

157. An untoward effect that is common to all phenothiazines is (2004)

A. A marked increase in the blood pressure
B. Rigidity and tremor at rest particularly with prolonged use
C. Suppression of prolactin
D. Nausea

158. Which drug may be administered even when the patient is on alcoholic beverages (2004)
A. Animal charcoal
B. Glibenclamide
C. Chloral hydrate
D. Cefixime

159. Serum Sickness is caused by all of the following drugs except (2004)
A. Aspirin
B. Penicillins
C. Sulphonamides
D. Choloroquine

160. All of the following drugs are components of the MOPP cancer chemotherapy regimen except
(2005)
A. Procarbazine
B. Vincristine
C. Mechlorethamine
D. Methotrexate
161. Granulocytopenia, GI tract irritation, gingival hyperplasia, and facial hirsutism are all possible side
effects of which of the following anticonvulsant drugs (2005)
A. Phenobarbitol
B. Carbamazepine
C. Acetazolamide
D. Phenytoin sodium

162. Clavulanic acid is given in combination with amoxicillin in order to (2005)

A. Reduce the risk of allergic reactions
B. Prolong the half life of amoxicillin
C. Reduces the severity of diarrhoea
D. Extend amoxicillin’s antibacterial spectrum

PATHOLOGY

163. All cells do not devide at the same rate. Events in which phase of the cell cycle determine when a
cell is going to replicate (2004)
A. M phase
B. G1 phase
C. S phase
D. G2 phase

164. The term poikilokaryosis means (2004)

A. Division of both nucleus ana cytoplasm
B. Division of nucleus without division of cytoplasm
C. Division of cytoplasm
D. Fading of nuclei

165. Physiologic programmed cell death is known as (2004)

A. Apoptosis
B. Lysis
C. Autolysis
D. Autopsy

166. Mast cells (2005)

A. Possess receptors for complement components
B. Can synthesize TNF- α
C. Release histamine
D. Antigen recognised by IgA
167. Which of the following is not a pigment disorder (2005)
A. Vitiligo
B. Melesma
C. Freckle
D. Seborrheic keratosis

168. The most striking haematological finding in Agranulocytosis is (2005)

 A. Decreased absolute neutrophil count
B. Increased absolute neutrophil count
C. Decreased absolute basophil count
D. Increased absolute monocyte count

169. ‘Sago spleen’ is the term used to describe the gross appearance of spleen in (2005)
A. Hypersplenism
B. Amyloidosis
C. Chronic myelocytic leukemia
D. Chronic malaria

170. Mercury is toxic because it (2005)

A. Complexes with haemoglobin to form methaemoglobin
B. Inhibits haemoglobin synthesis, producing anemia
C. Inhibits anaerobic glycolysis
D. Binds to sulfhydryl groups

171. A cell that contains hemosiderin, derived from RBCs that have been extravasated into the tissues, is
(2005)
A. Siderophage
B. Melanophage
C. Plasma cell
D. Lymphocyte

172. Lepra cells seen in leprosy are (2005)

A. Lymphocytes
B. Plasma cells
C. Vacuolated histiocytes
D. Neutrophils

173. Virchow’s lepra cells are seen in (2005)

A. Tuberculoid leprosy
B. Indeterminate leprosy
C. Borderline tuberculoid leprosy
D. Lepramatous leprosy

MICROBILOGY

174. The distinguising characteristic of a positive delayed type hypersensitivity skin test is (2004)
A. Erythema
B. Necrosis
C. Induration
D. Vasculitis
175. Which of the following structures, found external to the bacterial cell wall, are involved in bacterial
attachment to cell surfaces (2004)
A. Capsule
B. Flagella
C. Pili
D. Mesosomes

176. The binding site for complement on the immunoglobin molecule is in the (2004)
A. VL domain
B. CL domain
C. CH-1 domain
D. CH-2 domain

177. The single most important laboratory test for determining the virulence of staphylococci is (2004)
A. Mannitol fermentation
B. Hemolysis of sheep erythrocytes
C. Detection of coagulase
D. The catalase test

178. Human immunoglobins are divided based on (2004)

A. Functional differences
B. Antigenic affinity
C. Complement fixation
D. Structural differences

179. In HIV infection, diffuse lymphadenopathy in aperson who is clinically well is usually a sign of which
of the following (2004)
A. Lymphoma
B. Kaposi’s sarcoma
C. Tuberculosis
D. PGL(Persistent Generalized Lymphadenopathy)

180. Tuberculin test screeens for (2004)

A. Humoral immunity
B. Cell mediated immunity
C. Complement function
D. Phagocyte dysfunction

181. Following active immunisation with tetanus toxoid injection, how often should a booster dose be
given (2004)
A. Every year
B. Every 2 years
C. Every 5 years
D. Twice a year
182. Sulphur granules are a diagnostic feature of (2004)
A. Histoplasmosis
B. Sulfide poisoning
C. Actinomycosis
D. Toxoplasmosis

183. Cold sterilization refers to the process of sterilization by use of (2005)

A. Ultraviolet rays
B. Ultrasonic vibrations
C. Infrared rays
D. Gamma rays

184. Erythroblastosis foetalis can be prevented if the mother is injected, at parturition, with an antibody
called (2005)
A. Blocking antibody
B. Rh (D) Immunoglobin
C. Antilymphocyte globulin
D. Antilymphocyte serum

185. A test that can be used fro typing of class -1 histocompatibility antigen is (2005)
A. Cell mediated lympholysis (CML)
B. Donor- recipient mixed lymphocyte response
C. Primed lymphocyte typing
D. Antibody and complement mediated cytotoxicity

186. Hepatitis-C belongs to which one of the following virus groups (2005)
A. Picona virus
B. Herpes virus
C. Hepadna virus
D. Flavi virus

ORAL ANATOMY & HISTOLOGY

187. How many pulpal horns are there in the mandibular second primary molar (2004)
A. 3
B. 6
C. 4
D. 5

188. First permanent molars begin to calcify at (2004)

A. 6 months of intrauterine life
B. Birth
C. Before decidous incisors
D. About 1 year after birth

189. The eruption age of maxillary permanent lateral incisor is (2004)

 A. 08-09 years
B. 06-07 years
C. 10-11 years
D. 08-09 months

190. Which of the following serum enzymes is the most sensitive index of neo osteogenesis (2004)
A. Acid phosphatase
B. Alkaline phosphatase
C. LDH
D. Lipase

191. The stain used for exfolliative cytology (2004)

A. Weigert stain
B. Van Gieson stain
C. Periodic Acid Schiffs stain
D. Papaniculaou stain

192. Which of the following is non keratinocyte (2004)(2005)

A. Langhan’s cell
B. RBC
C. Langerhan’s cell
D. Grey cell

193. Keratohyaline granules are more evident in (2004)

A. Keratinized
B. Non-keratinized
C. Parakeratinized
D. Orthokeratinized

194. The following is a special stain for collagen (2004)

A. Haematoxylin & eosin
B. Leishman’s
C. PAS
D. Mallory’s

195. Cementicles are found in the (2004)

A. Gingiva
B. PDL
C. Alveolar bone
D. Cementum

196. Where do we see ‘Actin and Myosin’ (2005)

A. Serous cells
B. Mucous cells
C. Myoepithelial cells
 D. Demilunes

197. The ‘Plexus of Rashkov’ is present in which of the following zones in pulp (2005)
A. Cell free zone
B. Cell rich zone
C. Odontoblastic zone
D. Pulp core

198. In which of the following the mucosa is keratinized (2005)

A. Hard palate
B. Buccal mucosa
C. Labial mucosa
D. Soft palate

199. Morphological stages of tooth development are explained based on (2005)

A. Shape of enamel organ
B. Shape of the tooth germ
C. Functions of the enamel organ
D. Shape of the dental papilla

200. What line is formed when primary curvatures of dentinal tubules meet (2005)
A. Schreger line
B. Contour line of Owen
C. Von Ebner’s line
D. Imbrications lines of Pickerel

201. Glands of Blandin and Nuhn are the (2005)

A. Palatine glands in the posterolateral region of the hard palate
B. Anterior lingual glands located near the apex of the tongue
C. Labial and buccal mucosa
D. Glossopalatine glands

202. Perikymata are believed to be the external manifestations of (2005)

A. Striae of retzius

GENERAL MEDICINE

203. Megaloblastic anemia occurs due to (2004)

A. Iron deficiency
B. Folate deficiency
C. Vit –C deficiency
D. Protein deficiency

204. A patient with a history of ankle edema, shortness of breath and orthopnea is probably suffering
from (2004)
 A. Asthama
B. Emphysema
C. Cardiac decompensation
D. Constrictive pericarditis

205. Features of hypothyroidism do not include (2004)

A. Obesity
B. Hypertension
C. High TSH level
D. Increased risk of infections

206. Nephrotic syndrome is characterised by following manifestation except (2004)

A. Proteinuria
B. Hyperlipidemia
C. Edema
D. Hypertension

207. The commonest cuase of massive upper GIT bleeding is (2004)

A. Gastri ulcer
B. Erosive gastritis
C. Gastritis carcinoma
D. Duodenal ulcer

208. Which of the following results in a prolonged bleeding time (2004)

A. Hemophilia C
B. Hemophilia B
C. thrombocytopenia
D. Hemophilia A

209. Which one of the following is a sex linked disorder (2004)

A. Thalassemia
B. Kleinfelter’s syndrome
C. Hemophilia
D. Neurofibromatosis

210. Acromegaly is a disorder of (2005)

A. Excess growth hormone secretion
B. Excess thyroxine secretion
C. Excess ACTH secretion
D. Excess FSH secretion

211. Occupational disease of lung caused by inhalation of sugar cane dust is called as (2005)
A. Byssinosis
B. Bagassosis
C. Anthracosis
 D. Silicosis

212. The drug of choice for prompt relief of an ongoing attack of angina precipitated by exercise or
emotional stress is (2005)
A. Propranolol
B. Atenolol
C. Sublingual nitroglycerin
D. Sublingual nifedipine

213. Which of the following is associated with cyanotic congenital heart disease (2005)
A. Cor triatriatum
B. Tetralogy of fallot
C. Mitral stenosis
D. Primary pulmonary hypertension

214. Clubbing of the fingers (2005)

A. Always indicates heart disease
B. Is common in cirrhosis of the liver
C. Warrants a search for sickle cell anemia
D. Is seen in pulmonary A-V fistula

215. Platelet count is raised in (2005)

A. Osteopetrosis
B. Disseminated Intravascular Coagulation
C. Haemolytic anaemia
D. Thiazide therapy

GENERAL SURGERY

216. The most common site of metastasis from the mandibular sarcoma is (2004)
A. Lung
B. Liver
C. Spleen
D. Heart

217. Horner’s syndrome does not include (2004)

A. Ptosis
B. Anhydrosis
C. Flushing
D. Mydriasis

218. A cold nodule in thyroiditis scan mean (2004)

A. Nodule which is cold
B. Hyperactive nodule
C. Nodule which is non functioning and malignant
D. Nodule which has no signs of inflammation
219. The 5-year survival rate for patients with esophageal carcinoma who have been treated surgically is
(2004)
A. 60%
B. 45%
C. 30%
D. 10%

220. The most important aspect in treating Disseminated Intravascular Coagulation (DIC) is to (2004)
A. Administer heparin
B. Administer platelets
C. Treat the underlying disease process
D. Achieve normal levels of fibrinogen

221. All of the following components or qualities of stored blood tend to decrease over time except
(2004)
A. Red blood cell activity
B. Potassium concentration
C. pH
D. Platelet activity

222. Level-III neck nodes are (2005)

A. In the submental triangle
B. In the posterior triangle
C. In the midline from hyoid to suprasternal notch
D. Around the middle 1/3rd of internal jugular vein

223. Important components of collagen synthesis, wound strength and contraction include all of the
following except (2005)
A. Fibroblasts
B. Myofibroblasts
C. Vitamin-C
D. Vitamin-D

224. Keloid scars (2005)

A. Usually occur in the Caucasian race
B. Often occur in wounds which have healed perfectaly without complications
C. Surgical treatment as a single modality has the least recurrence
D. Radiation should not be administered as it is a non-malignant condition.

225. Hypothyroidism should be treated with daily administration of which of the following thyroid
hormone preparations (2005)
A. Thyroid extract
B. Thyroglobulin
 C. Thyroxine(T4)
D. Triiodothyronine(T3)

ORAL PATHOLOGY

226. If the tooth is present at the time of birth it is known as (2004)

A. Neonatal tooth
B. Perinatal tooth
C. Natal tooth
D. Postnatal tooth

227. Tetracycline drug ingestion in children is not recommended till the age of (2004)
A. 6 Years
B. 8 Years
C. 4 Years
D. 12 Years

228. Upon stretching the buccal mucosa, white lesion that disappears is (2004)
A. OSMF
B. Leukoedema
C. White sponge nevus
D. Lichen planus

229. Reed-Sternberg cells are a feature seen in (2004)

A. Non –Hodgkin’s lymphoma
B. Hodgkin’s lymphoma
C. Burkitt’s lymphoma
D. Ewing’s sarcoma

230. Which histopathological type of OKC is commoner, more invasive and has a greater tendency for
recurrence (2004)(2005)
A. Ortho keratinized
B. Para keratinized
C. Non keratinized
D. Kis keratinized

231. In early carious lesion the first structure to show evidence of destruction is the (2004)
A. Enamel prism
B. Interprismatic substance
C. Enamel tufts
D. Enamel lamellae

232. Features of Grinspan’s Syndrome include (2004)

A. Leukoplakia and hypertension
B. Candidiasis and diabetes mellitus
 C. Leukoplakia and hypotension
D. Lichen planus and diabetes mellitus

233. Which of the following is a pseudocyst (2004)

A. Mucous retention cyst
B. Radicular cyst
C. Aneurysmal bone cyst
D. Dentigerous cyst

234. Glossodynia is (2004)

A. Pain in the tongue
B. Burning of the tongue
C. Swelling of the tongue
D. White patch on the tongue

235. Nikolsky’s sign is positive in (2004)

A. Pemphigus
B. Lichen planus
C. Leukoplakia
D. Leukoedema

236. The most common salivary gland tumor is (2004)

A. Basal cell adenoma
B. Mixed cell carcinoma
C. Pleomorphic carcinoma
D. Pleomorphic adenoma

237. Target lesions are characteristically seen in (2004)

A. Neurofibromatosis
B. Erythema multiforme
C. Erythema nodosum
D. Pemphigus

238. Talon’s cusp is characteristic of which syndrome (2004)

A. Edward’s syndrome
B. Kleinfelter’s syndrome
C. Rubinstein taybi syndrome
D. Down’s syndrome

239. Head shape in down syndrome is typically (2004)

A. Mesocephalic
B. Dolicocephalic
C. Brachycephalic
D. Acephalic
240. One of the following is an autosomal recessive disorder (2005)
241. Among pre-malignant oral lesion (2005)
242. Bohn’s nodules are (2005)
243. The tissue of which lesion has been described as resembling a ’blood soaked sponge with large
pores’ (2005)
244. The peripheral lesion that would most likely contain bacteria within the lesion is
245. Dentinal union of two embryologically developing teeth is referred to as
246. Which of the following is not true about primary HSV infections
247. Psorolane Ultra Violet A (PUVA) therapy is advised in
248. Dentigerous cyst is associated with the following
249. Treacher collin’s syndrome is
250. Port wine stain is a characteristic feature of
251. Common cariogenic bacteria is
252. Multinucleated giant cell and perivascular cuffing are features seen in
253. Early invading bacteria in carious lesions are called
254. Herpangina is caused by
255. ‘Xerostomia’ is seen in all of the following except
256. Loss of tooth surface because of chemo mechanical action is known as
257. Chocolate colored fluid is seen in the cystic space of
258. Of the following conditions, the one which is not considered to be premalignant is
259. Rushton bodies are seen commonly in
260. Break up time test is done in
261. The commonest intraosseous salivary gland neoplasm is
262. ‘Lock Jaw’ indicates
263. Blood borne seeding of bacteria into an area of previously damaged or irritated pulp with resultant
inflammation is known as
264. Albers – Schonberg disease is
265. The cells which give the starry sky appearance in Burkitt’s Lymphoma are
266. Sequestrum means

ORTHODONTICS

267. Leeway space of nance is utilized in (2004)

A. Early mesial shift of first permanent molars
B. Incisal liability
C. Late mesial shift of first permanent molars
D. Secondary spacing of first permanent molars

268. Functional matrix theory was hypothesized by (2004)

A. Scott
B. Sicher
C. Petrovic
D. Moss
269. Following is a feature of Angle’s class II Division 2 (2004)
A. Open bite
B. Retrusion of maxillary centrals
C. Protrusion of maxillary centrals
D. Mesio-occlusion of upper 1st molar

270. Which of the following landmarks are not located in the mandible (2004)
A. Pogonion
B. Gnathion
C. Menton
D. Porion

271. Maxillary protraction head gear is used for (2004)

A. Maxillary skeletal retrusion
B. Mandibular skeletal protrusion
C. Bimaxillary protrusion
D. Skeletal open bite

272. Abnormally thick maxillary labial frenum results in (2004)

A. Maxillary midline diastema
B. Imbrication of incisors
C. Labial inclination of incisors
D. Anterior deep bite

273. Which of the following permanent tooth is least extracted for orthodontic treatment (2004)
A. Canines
B. Permanent maxillary 1st molar
C. 1st premolars
D. 2nd premolars

274. Hyalinization of the periodontal ligament, due to excessive orthodontic forces results in (2004)
A. Frontal resorption
B. Undermining resorption
C. Cementum remaining intact
D. Dentine remaining intact

275. Dominant movement of root with relatively less movement of the crown is called (2004)
A. Couple
B. Torque
C. Intrusion
D. Extrusion

276. SNB angle describes the relationship of the (2004)

A. Maxilla to the cranial base
B. Mandible to the cranial base
 C. Maxilla to the mandible
D. All of the above

277. A major criterion to differentiate between a true Angle’s Class III and a pseudo Angle’s Class III is
(2004)
A. Degree of anterior cross bite
B. Presence of bilateral cross bite
C. Existence of a forward shift of the mandible during closure
D. Occlusal relationship between maxilla and mandible

278. The most accepted theory of tooth eruption is (2004)

A. Hydrodynamic theory
B. Clone theory
C. Periodontal ligament traction theory
D. Vascular theory

PEDODONTICS

279. Treatment for Ellis class III fracture of anterior tooth in a 12 year old patient, reported after 72
hours is (2004)
A. Pulpotomy
B. RCT
C. Indirect pulp capping
D. Direct pulp capping

280. Hand Over Mouth Exercise (HOME) is an effective behavioural modification technique in the age
group (2004)
A. 3-6 years
B. Under 3 years
C. 6-9 years
D. Above 9 years

PERIODONTICS

281. Bulk of lamina propria of the gingiva is made up of collagen type (2004)
A. I
B. II
C. III
D. IV

282. Which of the following suture technique can be used to suspend the periodontal flap at the desired
level (2004)
A. Figure of eight suture
B. Suspensory ligation
C. Continuous ligation
D. Interdental ligation
283. Angulation of a periodontal instrument refers to the (2004)
A. Angle between the face of the blade and the shank
B. Angle between shank or he shaft
C. Angle between the face of the blade and the tooth surface
D. Angle between the shank and the tooth surface

284. Ramping can be done for a (2004)

A. One wall angular defect
B. Two wall angular defect
C. Three wall angular defect
D. Four wall angular defect

285. Langerhan’s cells are absent in (2004)

A. Junctional epithelium
B. Sulcular epithelium
C. Oral epithelium
D. All the above

RADIOLOGY

286. Which of the following is most radio resistant (2004)

A. Early precursor cells of erythroblastic series
B. Muscle cells
C. Fibroblasts
D. Vascular endothelial cells

287. What is the function of the lead foil in the film packet (2004)
A. Moisture protection
B. To give rigidity
C. Absorb the backscatter radiation
D. Protection against florescence

288. Which of the structures appear radiopaque (2004)

A. Maxillary sinus
B. Nasal fossa
C. Nasal septum
D. Mental foramen

289. In the bisecting technique, the film is placed (2004)

A. Parallel to the tooth
B. As close to the tooth as possible
C. Parellel to the bisector
D. Perpendicular to the bisector
 PROSTHODONTICS
290. Bennett movement is (2004)
A. Direct lateral side shift of the mandible that occurs simultaneously with lateral mandibular
excursion.
B. Direct lateral sideshift of the mandible that occurs simultaneously with medial mandibular
excursion.
C. Direct medial sideshift with medial mandibular excursion
D. Direct lateral side shift with medial mandibular excursion

291. Centric relation refers to the position of the condyles in (2004)

A. Posterior most position
B. Posterior and superior position
C. Anterior and superior position
D. Anterior most position

292. Cross section form of lingual bar major connector is (2004)

A. Full pear shape
B. Half pear shape
C. Round shape
D. Flat shape
293. Combination clasp consists of (2004)
A. Wrought wire reciprocal arm and cast retentive arm
B. Wrought wire retentive arm and cast rediprocal arm
C. Wrought wire reciprocal arm and wrought retentive arm
D. Cast reciprocal arm and cast retentive arm

294. The finish line for a PFM anterior restoration is (2004)

A. Facially shoulder with bevel lingually chamfer
B. Facially shoulder with bevel and linguallly shoulder
C. Facially chamfer and lingually knife edge
D. Facially chamfer and lingually shoulder

295. The pontic design of choice in the appearance zone of maxillary and mandibular ridge is (2004)
A. Hygienic
B. Modified ridge lap
C. Saddle
D. Conical

296. Instructing the patient to say ‘ah’ with short vigorous bursts will help in visualizing (2004)
A. Soft palate
B. Posterior vibrating line
C. Anterior vibrating line
D. Junction of hard and soft palate

297. Central incisor tooth arrangement in a tapering arch (2004)

 A. Rotation of incisors on their long axis inward at the distal aspect
B. Rotation of incisors on their long axis outward at the distal aspect
C. Rotation of incisors on their long axis inward at the mesial aspect
D. Central incisors almost in a straight line

298. Atmospheric pressure as a factor of retention is effective only (2004)

A. If saliva is present
B. If adequate peripheral seal is present
C. If principle of mucostatics is applied
D. If good neuromuscular co-ordination is present

299. Bucco-lingual widths of poeterior teeth should be (2004)

A. Equal to the width of the natural teeth they replace
B. Greater tha nthe width of the natural teeth they replace
C. Lesser than the width of the natural teeth they replace
D. Width of artificial posterior teeth is a matter of the operator’s prefrence

CONSERVATIVE DENTISTRY

300. Short bevel extends (2004)

A. In almost 1/3 of the enamel
B. All of the enamel and ½ of the dentin
C. All of the enamel only
D. 1/3 of the enamel only

301. Dentin bonding agents usually contain (2004)

A. Only hydrophobic component
B. Only hydrophilic component
C. Hydrophobic and hydrophilic components
D. Lycophilic and lycophobic components

302. Cavity varnish can be used under (2004)

A. Zn phosphate cement
B. Zn polycarboxylate cemeny
C. GIC
D. Composite veneer restoration

303. What is the recommended force for condensation of dental amalgam (2004)
A. 35 lbs
B. 03 lbs
C. 15 lbs
D. 25 lbs

304. The highest incidence of pulp necrosis associated with (2004)

A. Class V preparations on root surface
 B. Inlay preparations
C. Partial veneer preparations
D. Full crown preparations

ENDODONTICS

305. The bleaching material used for ‘Night Guard’ vital tooth bleaching is (2004)
A. Superoxol
B. Anesthetic ether and hydrochloric acid
C. Sodium bicarbonate
D. Carbamide peroxide

306. Currently, one of the popular root end filling materials in great vogue is (2004)
A. Calcium hydroxide
B. GIC
C. Microfilled composite resin
D. Mineral Trioxide Aggregate(MTA)

307. The prognosis for teeth with root fracture is best when the fracture occurs in the (2004)
A. Coronal 1/3rd of root
B. Middle 1/3rd of root
C. Apical 1/3rd of root
D. Coronal ½ of root

308. The periapical lesion that would most likely contain bacteria within the lesion is (2004)
A. Periapical abscess
B. Periapical cyst
C. Periapical granuloma
D. Condensing osteitis

309. Apexification is the treatment of choice for a permanent tooth with wide open apex when (2004)
A. The pulp is necrotic
B. The pulp is vital
C. The pulp and root canals are calcified
D. There is a traumatic pulp exposure during cavity preparation

310. Calcium hydroxide is advocated as an inter-appointment intracanal medication because of (2004)

A. Its ability to dissolve necrotic tissue
B. Its antimicrobial property
C. Its ability to stimulate hard tissue formation
D. Its powerful bleaching effect

311. In class III Ellis fracture (2004)

A. Only enamel is involved
B. Enamel and dentin are involved
C. Enamel, dentin and pulp are involved
 D. Non vital pulp

312. Instrument used primarily to extirpate the pulp is (2004)

A. K –file
B. H- file
C. Barbed broach
D. Reamer

313. Blood born seeding of bacteria into an area of previously damaged or irritated pulp with a resultant
inflammation is known as (2004)
A. Bacterial endocarditis
B. Anachoretic pulpitis
C. Chronic hyperplastic pulpitis
D. Ulcerative pulpitis

ORAL SURGERY

314. The first sensation to be lost following administration of local anesthetic is (2004)
A. Proprioception
B. Pain
C. Touch
D. Temperature

315. Treatment of choice of a linear non displaced fracture of the body of mandible with full
complement of teeth is (2004)
A. Kirschner wire
B. Circumferential wiring
C. External pin fixation
D. Inter dental fixation

316. With overdose of LA agent, one would observe (2004)

A. Hypertension
B. Hypotension
C. No change in BP
D. Cardiac arrhythmias

317. Sagittal split ostectomy is procedure done for (2004)

A. Maxillary deformities
B. Mandibular deformities
C. Condylar deformities
D. Deformities in which occlusion is not involved

318. The most common dislocation of TMJ is (2004)

A. Anterior
B. Posterior
 C. Medial
D. Lateral

319. The following microorganism is considered to be responsible for dry socket (2004)
A. Pseudomonas
B. Treponema denticola
C. Spirochetes
D. Streptococcus viridians

320. ‘Rubber Band’ extraction is a method of extraction in a patient having (2004)

A. Bleeding disorders
B. Myocardial infarction and angina pectoris
C. Supernumerary teeth
D. Impacted teeth

321. Which muscles make up the pterygomandibular raphae (2004)

A. Masseter anteriorly and palatopharyngeus posteriorly
B. Masseter anteriorly and medial pterygoid posteriorly
C. Buccinators anteriorly and superior constrictor posteriorly
D. Buccinator anteriorly and medial constrictor posteriorly

322. Commonly used suture material for closure of intraoral wounds is (2004)
A. Nylon
B. Silk
C. Catgut
D. Chromic catgut

323. The most significant adverse consequence of accidental i.v. administration of local anesthetic is
(2004)
A. Bronchoconstriction
B. Hepatic damage
C. Nerve damage
D. Seizures

COMMUNTY DENTISTRY

324. The health promotional phase in public health was between the years (2004)
A. 1880 – 1920
B. 1920 – 1960
C. 1960 – 1980
D. 1981 – 2000

325. The Physical Quality of Life Index(PQLI) ranges between (2004)

A. 01 – 10
B. 00 – 50
 C. 00 – 100
D. 50 – 100

326. Sensitivity of a test is its ability to identify (2004)

A. True negative
B. False positive
C. False negative
D. True positive

327. The point at which the chlorine demand of water is (2004)

A. Break point
B. Back wash
C. Loss of head
D. Chlorine demand

328. The number of people in a group receiving a lecture should not be more than (2004)
A. 60
B. 50
C. 40
D. 30

329. The ‘Bhore Committee’ on health survey and development submitted its report in (2004)
A. 1943
B. 1946
C. 1962
D. 1963

330. The first country to adopt salt fluoridation was (2004)

A. France
B. Germany
C. Jamaica
D. None

331. In Snyder’s test, saliva is said to be highly cariogenic if the color change is observed at hrs (2004)
A. 24
B. 48
C. 72
D. 96

332. Clinical wastes in hospitals are to be disposed in which color bags (2004)
A. Yellow
B. Black
C. Green
D. Red
333. The permissible level of E.Coli (number/ml)in potable water is (2004)
A. 20
B. 15
C. 10
D. 0

334. The index used to record the plaque score is (2004)

A. PMA index
B. Silness and Loe index
C. Green And Vermillion index
D. Russell’s index

335. Proxa brushes are recommended to be used in which of the following type of embrasure (2004)
A. Type I embrasure
B. Type II embrasure
C. Type III embrasure
D. All the above

336.