FINAL A

1 Which address provides an example of an IPv6 link-local address?

• FE80::1324:ABCD
• 2001:2345:AB12:1935::FEFF
• 2001:1234:0000:9CA::0876/64
• 1234:ABCD:5678:EF00:9234:AA22:5527:FC35

2 While configuring a router using RIPng and dual-stack technology with IPv4 and IPv6, the administrator receives an
error message when inputting IPv4 routes. What could cause the error message?
• IPv4 is not compatible with RIPng
• RIPng is incompatible with dual-stack technology.
• The router interfaces have been configured with incorrect addresses.
• When IPv4 and IPv6 are configured on the same interface, all IPv4 addresses are shut down in favor of the newer
technology.

3 Which statement is true about an interface that is configured with the IPv6 address command?
• IPv6 traffic-forwarding is enabled on the interface.
• A link-local IPv6 address is automatically configured on the interface.
• A global unicast IPv6 address is dynamically configured the interface.
• Any IPv4 addresses that are assigned to the interface are replaced with an IPv6 address.

4 What will be the result of adding the command ip dhcp excluded-address 172.16.4.1 172.16.4.5 to the configuration of a
local router that has been configured as a DHCP server?
• Traffic that is destined for 172.16.4.1 and 172.16.4.5 will be dropped by the router.
• Traffic will not be routed from clients with addresses between 172.16.4.1 and 172.16.4.5.
• The DHCP server function of the router will not issue the addresses between 172.16.4.1 and 172.16.4.5.
• The router will ignore all traffic that comes from the DHCP servers with addresses 172.16.4.1 and 172.16.4.5.

5 Refer to the exhibit. A host that is connected to Fa0/0 is unable to acquire an IP address dynamically from the DHCP
server. The output of the debug ip dhcp server command shows "DHCPD: there is no address pool for 172.16.1.1". What is
the problem?
• The default router for the 172Network pool is incorrect.
• The 172.16.1.1 address is already configured on Fa0/0.
• The pool of addresses for the 172Network pool is incorrect.
• The ip helper-address command should be implemented on the Fa0/0 interface.

6 Refer to the exhibit. Which statement is true about the WAN switch device?
• It uses a multiport internetworking device to switch traffic such as Frame Relay, ATM or X.25 over the WAN.
• It provides internetworking and WAN access interface ports that are used to connect to the service provider network.
• It provides termination for the digital signal and ensures connection integrity through error correction and line
monitoring.
• It converts the digital signals produced by a computer into voice frequencies that can be transmitted over the analog
lines of the public telephone network.

7 A system administrator must provide Internet connectivity for ten hosts in a small remote office. The ISP has assigned
two public IP addresses to this remote office. How can the system administrator configure the router to provide Internet
access to all ten users at the same time?
• Configure static NAT.
• Configure dynamic NAT.
• Configure static NAT with overload.
• Configure dynamic NAT with overload.
8 What three statements describe the roles of devices in a WAN? (Choose three.)
• A CSU/DSU terminates a digital local loop.
• A modem terminates a digital local loop.
• A CSU/DSU terminates an analog local loop.
• A modem terminates an analog local loop.
• A router is commonly considered a DTE device.
• A router is commonly considered a DCE device.
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9 What does an access control list determine when used with NAT on a Cisco router?
• addresses that are to be translated
• addresses that are assigned to a NAT pool
• addresses that are allowed out of the router
• addresses that are accessible from the inside network

10 At what physical location does the responsibility for a WAN connection change from the service provider to the user?
• DMZ
• local loop
• CSU/DSU
• demarcation point

11 Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator is using two routers to test a WAN connection . What can be concluded
based on the output of the show running-config commands?
• The WAN link is using PPP encapsulation.
• The WAN link speed is faster than a T1 line.
• The router R2 serves as the DCE for the WAN link.
• The WAN link is configured with the Cisco default encapsulation protocol.
12 Which important piece of troubleshooting information can be discovered about a serial interface using the show
controllers command?
• queuing strategy
• serial cable type
• interface IP address
• encapsulation method

13 Which combination of Layer 2 protocol and authentication should be used to establish a link between a Cisco and a
non-Cisco router without sending authentication information in plain text?
• HDLC with PAP
• HDLC with CHAP
• PPP with PAP
• PPP with CHAP
14 Which three items are LCP options that can be configured for PPP? (Choose three.)
• CHAP
• Stacker
• IPCP
• CDPCP
• Multilink

15 Refer to the exhibit. Why are the routers unable to establish a PPP session?
• The usernames are misconfigured.
• The IP addresses are on different subnets.
• The clock rate is configured on the wrong end of the link.
• The CHAP passwords must be different on the two routers.
• Interface serial 0/0/0 on Router1 must connect to interface serial 0/0/1 on Router2.

16 Refer to the exhibit. What would be the result of entering the exhibited configuration on a Frame Relay router?
• The local interface DLCI will be set to 102.
• All traffic that is destined to 172.16.16.8 will be sent as broadcast.
• Only broadcast traffic will be recieved on the Frame Relay interface.
• Routing protocol multicast updates can be forwarded across the Frame Relay PVC.
17 Refer to the exhibit. What is placed in the address field in the header of a frame that will travel from the DC office of
ABC Company to the Orlando office?
• MAC address of the Orlando router
• MAC address of the DC router
• 192.168.1.25

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• 192.168.1.26
• DLCI 100
• DLCI 200
18 At what point in the PPP connection process does the authentication phase occur?
• after NCP establishes Layer 3 parameters
• before LCP begins the link establishment process
• after the initial Configure-Request message from the link initiator
• after the link initiator receives a Configure-Ack message from the responder
19 A company uses a PVC with a committed information rate (CIR) of 128 kb/s and a committed burst information rate
(CBIR) of 64 kb/s. The link is used to periodically send updates at a rate of 144 kb/s. What will happen to the update
traffic?
• The traffic will be sent, but the company will be charged a penalty.
• The traffic will be sent using the additional CBIR and will be guaranteed delivery.
• The traffic will be dropped at the CO for exceeding the committed information rate.
• The traffic will be sent, but the burst traffic will be marked for discard if congestion is encountered.
20 Which two functions are provided by the Local Management Interface (LMI) that is used in Frame Relay networks?
(Choose two.)
• flow control
• error notification
• congestion notification
• the mapping of DLCIs to network addresses
• the sending of keepalive packets to verify operation of the PVC

21 Refer to the exhibit. You are a network administrator who has been tasked with completing the Frame Relay topology
that interconnects two remote sites. How should the point-to-point subinterfaces be configured on HQ to complete the
topology?
• HQ(config-subif)#frame-relay interface-dlci 103 on Serial 0/0/0.1
• HQ(config-subif)#frame-relay interface-dlci 203 on Serial 0/0/0.2
• HQ(config-subif)#frame-relay interface-dlci 301 on Serial 0/0/0.1
• HQ(config-subif)# frame-relay interface-dlci 302 on Serial 0/0/0.2
• HQ(config-subif)#frame-relay map ip 172.16.1.1 103 broadcast on Serial 0/0/0.1
• HQ(config-subif)#frame-relay map ip 172.16.2.2 203 broadcast on Serial 0/0/0.2
• HQ(config-subif)#frame-relay map ip 172.16.1.1 301 broadcast on Serial 0/0/0.1
• HQ(config-subif)#frame-relay map ip 172.16.2.2 302 broadcast on Serial 0/0/0.2

22 Refer to the exhibit. Branch A has a Cisco router. Branch B has a non-Cisco router set for IETF encapsulation. After the
commands shown are entered, R2 and R3 fail to establish the PVC. The R2 LMI is Cisco, and the R3 LMI is ANSI. The
LMI is successfully established at both locations. Why is the PVC failing?
• The PVC to R3 must be point-to-point.
• LMI types must match on each end of a PVC.
• The ietf parameter is missing from the frame-relay map ip 10.10.10.3 203 command.
• The PVCs at R2 use different encapsulation types. A single port can only support one encapsulation type.

23 Refer to the exhibit. A technician is teaching a trainee to interpret the results of various Frame Relay troubleshooting
commands. What conclusion can be drawn from the output that is shown?
• Neighboring routers should use DLCI 177 to reach the Branch router.
• DLCI 177 will be used to identify all broadcasts that are sent out the Branch router.
• The Branch router has the address 192.168.3.1 configured for the S0/0/0 interface.
• To reach 192.168.3.1, the Branch router will use the virtual circuit that is identified by DLCI 177.
24 Refer to the exhibit. Which statement is true about the status of the Frame Relay connection?
• The Frame Relay connection is in the process of negotiation.
• Only packets with control bit DE set are sent over the PVC. No data traffic traverses the link.
• Packets marked as FECN and BECN indicate that a congestion control mechanism is enabled on the Frame Relay PVC.
• The “DLCI USAGE = LOCAL” status indicates that the PVC link is not established between the interface S0/0/0.1 and
the Frame Relay switch.

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25 Which wireless solution can provide mobile users with non line-of-sight broadband Internet access at speeds
comparable to DSL or cable?
• Wi-Fi
• WiMAX
• satellite
• Metro Ethernet

26 What are two characteristics of DSL technology? (Choose two.)

• Uploads typically offer larger transfer rates than downloads.
• Service providers deploy DSL in the local loop of the telephone network.
• DSL download rates are reduced by large volumes of POTS voice traffic.
• Filters and splitters allow POTS and DSL traffic to share the same medium.
• DSL is a shared medium that allows many users to share bandwidth available from the DSLAM.

27 Refer to the exhibit. A packet is being sent from Host A to Host B through the VPN tunnel between R1 and R3. When
the packet first arrives at R3, what are the source and destination IP addresses of the packet?
• Source 192.168.1.2 - Destination 192.168.4.2
• Source 192.168.3.1 - Destination 192.168.3.2
• Source 192.168.2.1 - Destination 192.168.3.2
• Source 192.168.3.1 - Destination 192.168.4.2

28 What is a major characteristic of a worm?

• malicious software that copies itself into other executable programs
• tricks users into running the infected software
• a set of computer instructions that lies dormant until triggered by a specific event
• exploits vulnerabilities with the intent of propagating itself across a network
29 What is the function of an IDS?
• to report the attack after it happens
• to stop the attack prior to its completion
• to quarantine the virus or worm so as not to infect any other host
• to reconfigure the security policy of a firewall to prevent another attack

30 When configuring remote access to a router, what is the significance of the no password command on a VTY line?
• Logins are prevented on that line.
• No password is required to log in to that line.
• The remote user is not allowed to change the password for that line.
• The remote user is prompted to change the line password after connecting to the router.

31 What will be the result of the enable secret command when added at the global configuration mode on the router?
• It will use MD5 encryption to protect the privileged EXEC level access.
• It will use type 7 encryption and will encrypt only the privileged EXEC level passwords.
• It will use type 7 encryption to prevent all passwords that are displayed on the screen from being readable.
• It will use MD5 encryption to protect the passwords that are only used in the PAP and CHAP authentication process.

32 Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator is trying to backup the IOS software on R1 to the TFTP server. He
receives the error message that is shown in the exhibit, and cannot ping the TFTP server from R1. What action can help to
isolate this problem?
• Check that R1 has a route to the 10.10.10.0 network.
• Verify that the TFTP server software supports binary file transfers.
• Make sure that the TFTP server has 192.168.1.1 as its default gateway.
• Ensure that the laptop has an IP address in the 192.168.1.0/24 network.

33 A network technician accidentally deleted the IOS image from flash and rebooted the router. Which two options can be
used to restore the IOS image? (Choose two.)
• Perform a system restore through SDM.
• Download the image from a TFTP server through a network connection.
• Download the image from a TFTP server through a console connection.
• Establish an FTP session through an SSH connection for the image download.

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• Use the Xmodem protocol to download the image through a console connection.

34 Refer to the exhibit. The network administrator creates a standard access control list to prohibit traffic from the
192.168.1.0/24 network from reaching the 192.168.2.0/24 network while still permitting Internet access for all networks.
On which router interface and in which direction should it be applied?
• interface fa0/0/0, inbound
• interface fa0/0/0, outbound
• interface fa0/0/1, inbound
• interface fa0/0/1, outbound
35 What effect would the Router1(config-ext-nacl)# permit tcp 172.16.4.0 0.0.0.255 any eq www command have when
implemented inbound on the f0/0 interface?
• All TCP traffic is permitted, and all other traffic is denied.
• The command is rejected by the router because it is incomplete.
• All traffic from 172.16.4.0/24 is permitted anywhere on any port.
• Traffic originating from 172.16.4.0/24 is permitted to all TCP port 80 destinations.
36 Refer to the exhibit. Which two statements correctly describe how Router1 processes an FTP request that enters
interface S0/0/0 and is destined for an FTP server at IP address 192.168.1.5? (Choose two.)
• The packet does not match an access list condition.
• The router matches the incoming packet to the statement that is created from the access-list 201 permit ip any any
command.
• The router matches the incoming packet to the statement that is created from the access-list 101 permit ip any
192.168.1.0 0.0.0.255 command.
• The router matches the incoming packet to the statement that is created from the access-list 201 deny icmp 192.168.1.0
0.0.0.255 any command.
• The packet is allowed into Router1.

37 Refer to the exhibit. An ACL numbered 101 already exists on this router. What happens if the network administrator
issues the commands that are shown in the exhibit?
• The new ACL overwrites the existing ACL.
• The network administrator will receive an error message.
• The existing ACL is modified to include the new commands.
• A second ACL that is numbered 101 is created and contains only the new commands.

38 Refer to the exhibit. What is the effect of the extended ACL when applied inbound on the S0/0/0 interface on R2?
• All IP traffic will be permitted during the specified days and time range.
• Both IP and Telnet traffic will be permitted during the specified days and time range.
• Only Telnet traffic destined for 172.16.10.0/24 will be permitted during the specified days and time range.
• Telnet traffic will be permitted only during the specified days and time range. All other network traffic will be
permitted any time.

39 Which wildcard mask would specify all IP addresses from 192.168.8.0 through 192.168.15.255?
• 0.0.0.7
• 0.0.7.255
• 0.0.8.255
• 0.0.15.255
• 0.0.255.255

40 Refer to the exhibit. The SSH connections between the remote user and the server are failing. The correct configuration
of NAT has been verified. What is the most likely cause of the problem?
• SSH is unable to pass through NAT.
• There are incorrect access control list entries.
• The access list has the incorrect port number for SSH.
• The ip helper command is required on S0/0/0 to allow inbound connections.

41 Refer to the exhibit. In the partial router configuration that is shown, what is the purpose of access list BLOCK_XYZ?
• to prevent source IP address spoofing by hosts on the Fa0/0 LAN
• to block access by Fa0/0 LAN hosts to all network services beyond the router
• to prevent users on the Fa0/0 LAN from opening Telnet sessions on the router
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• to secure Fa0/0 hosts by allowing only locally sourced traffic into the Fa0/0 LAN

42 A network administrator added two switches and a new VLAN over the past weekend. How can the administrator
determine if the additions and changes improved performance and availability on the company intranet?
• Perform a baseline test and compare the current values to values that were obtained in previous weeks.
• Interview departmental secretaries and determine if they think load time for web pages is improved.
• Compare the hit counts on the company web server for the current week to the values that were recorded from previous
weeks.
• Performance on the intranet can be determined by monitoring load times of company web pages from remote sites.

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43 A company has its headquarters office in Dallas and five branch offices located in New York, Chicago, Los Angeles,
Seattle, and Atlanta. WAN links are used for communications among offices in six sites. In planning the WAN links, the
network designer is given two requirements: (1) minimize cost and (2) provide a certain level of WAN link reliability with
redundant links. Which topology should the network designer recommend?
• star
• full mesh
• hierarchical
• partial mesh
44 Refer to the exhibit. Router1 and Router2 each support separate areas of a data center, and are connected via a crossover
cable. Resources attached to Router1 are unable to connect to resources attached to Router2. What is the likely cause?
• The crossover cable is faulty.
• The IP addressing is incorrect.
• There is a Layer 2 problem with the router connection.
• The upper layers are experiencing an unspecified problem.
• One or both of the Ethernet interfaces are not working correctly.

45 An administrator is unable to receive e-mail. While troubleshooting the problem, the administrator is able to ping the
local mail server IP address successfully from a remote network and can successfully resolve the mail server name to an IP
address via the use of the nslookup command. At what layer of the OSI model is the problem most likely to be found?
• application
• transport
• network
• data link

46 Refer to the exhibit. A network technician has been called in to resolve a problem with this network segment. The
symptoms include a loss of connectivity throughout the network segment, high link utilization, and syslog messages that
indicate constant MAC address relearning. What is the likely cause of these symptoms?
• cable fault
• faulty NIC card
• IP addressing error
• spanning tree problem
• NAT configuration error

47 Refer to the exhibit. The corporate network that is shown has been assigned network 172.16.128.0/19 for use at branch
office LANs. VLSM is not being used. Which subnet mask will allow the most efficient utilization of IP addresses?
• /21
• /22
• /23
• /24
• /25
• /26

48 Refer to the exhibit. Which VLAN will carry untagged traffic on FastEthernet 0/1?
• VLAN 1
• VLAN 2
• VLAN 11
• VLAN 12
• VLAN 30
• VLAN 999

49 Refer to the exhibit. Routers R1 and R2 are both configured for single area OSPF. Users who are connected to switch
S1 are unable to access database applications that run on servers that are connected to S2. The network engineer is working
remotely and only has the information that is shown in the exhibit to direct initial troubleshooting efforts. Based on the
exhibit, which OSI layer is the most appropriate to start with for a divide-and-conquer approach?
• network layer
• application layer
• data-link layer
• physical layer
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50 Refer to the exhibit. An administrator has added the exhibited commands to routers A and B, but no routing updates are
exchanged between the two routers. Based on the information that is given, what is the likely cause of the problem?
• Router A is advertising the wrong network.
• The authentication key strings do not match.
• The serial interfaces of routers A and B are not on the same network.
• The authentication key numbers do not match the EIGRP process number for both routers.

FINAL B

1 Company policy requires disabling the command history buffer on network devices. An administrator enters terminal no
history size at the command prompt on a Cisco Catalyst switch and receives no error messages back, but the command
history buffer is still available. What is the problem?
• The command contained a syntax error.
• The Cisco IOS version does not support disabling the command history buffer.
• The command history can only be disabled on a router, not a switch.
• The size parameter reset the default buffer size but did not disable access to the buffer.
2 Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator configures HyperTerminal with the parameters shown but is unable to
connect to a switch via the console port. The administrator is using a tested rollover cable attached to the only COM port
on the computer, and the connections have been verified. What is the likely problem?
• The cable is connected to the wrong port.
• The wrong connection speed is selected.
• The cable is the wrong type.
• The flow control setting is not correct.
• The stop bits should be set to zero.

3 Refer to the exhibit. What would happen if the network administrator moved the network cable of Host A from interface
Fa0/1 to Fa0/3 on switch SW1?
• Host A remains a member of VLAN 10, because the router is routing traffic between VLANs.
• Host A is no longer a member of VLAN 10, because port Fa0/3 has been manually assigned to VLAN 30.
• Host A remains a member of VLAN 10, because the switch provides dynamic VLAN assignment for the port.
• Host A maintains connectivity to all members of VLAN 10, because it is connected to the same physical network.
• Host A is no longer a member of VLAN 10, but because port Fa0/3 was unused, it is now a member of VLAN 1.

4 What is the purpose of issuing the command switchport mode access on a switch interface?
• disable port security
• make the port operational
• override the default port behavior
• force the port to be a part of a single vlan
5 Refer to the exhibit. Which Spanning Tree Protocol version is in effect?
• Per VLAN Spanning Tree (PVST)
• Per VLAN Spanning Tree + (PVST+)
• Common Spanning Tree (CST)
• Rapid Spanning Tree Protocol (RSTP)
• Multiple Spanning Tree Protocol (MSTP)

6 Refer to the exhibit. The devices in the network are operational and configured as indicated in the exhibit. However,
hosts B and D cannot ping each other. What is the most likely cause of this problem?
• The link between the switches is up but not trunked.
• The Fa0/11 interface of Switch1 is not configured as a trunk.
• Hosts B and D are configured with IP addresses from different subnets.
• VLAN 20 and VLAN 30 are not allowed on the trunk between the switches.

7 Refer to the exhibit. Switch SW2 was tested in a lab environment and then inserted into a production network without
reloading its configuration. After the trunk link between SW1 and SW2 was brought up, all users lost connectivity to the
network. What could be the source of the problem?
• All the VLANs were pruned from the trunk port between SW1 and SW2.

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• SW1 and SW2 cannot be both set as VTP servers in the same VTP domain.
• VTP configuration revision number of SW2 was higher than the configuration revision number of SW1.
• The additional VLANs from SW2 created more VLANs than the VLAN database of SW1 could contain.
8 In which mode is a VTP switch operating if it has been configured to only forward VTP advertisements?
• client
• root
• server
• transparent
9 Which method establishes an administrative connection for configuring the Linksys WRT300N wireless access point?
• Associate with the access point and then open a HyperTerminal session with the access point.
• Physically connect to the access point and then reboot the computer to launch the configuration software.
• From a computer in the same IP subnet as the access point, enter the default IP address of the access point in a web
browser.
• Modify the TCP/IP properties of the computer connected to the access point so that it exists on the same network, and
then reboot your computer to establish a connection.

10 Refer to the exhibit. Each switch is shown with its MAC address. Which switch will be elected as the spanning-tree root
bridge if the switches are configured with their default priority values?
• switch A
• switch B
• switch C
• switch D
• switch E
• switch F
11 What are two benefits of the IEEE 802.11n standard over the IEEE 802.11G? (Choose two.)
• requires less equipment
• provides improved range
• permits increased data rates
• has a single-input and a single-output
• needs no hardware upgrade for compatibility

12 Refer to the exhibit. What will be the result of the commands that are shown in the exhibit?
• Only clients on VLAN 2 will be able to use DHCP for addressing.
• DHCP server responses will only be permitted on interface Fa0/2.
• Only 100 clients are permitted to request DHCP addresses on VLAN 2.
• Client requests for DHCP addresses will be filtered out if the requests are not received on interface Fa0/2.

13 What is an efficient and cost effective way to minimize the frequency and effects of broadcast storms on an Ethernet
LAN?
• Connect each PC directly to a router port.
• Use access control lists to filter broadcasts from the network.
• Divide the computers into separate VLANs on the existing switches.
• Divide the computers into separate workgroups using different physical switches.

14 Refer to the exhibit. After entering the commands in the exhibit, the administrator receives a "password required, but
none set" message when attempting to connect to S1. What is the problem?
• The enable secret password was not set.
• S1 does not have login configured on the vty lines.
• S1 does not have a password configured for the vty lines.
• The crypto key is not properly configured to generate passwords.
• The VLAN1 interface has not be enabled with the no shutdown command.

15 Refer to the exhibit. Computer D sends a broadcast message. Which devices will process the broadcast message?
• computer E
• computer D and computer E
• computer D, computer E, and Router1
• computer B and computer E

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• computer B, computer E, and Router1
• computer C, computer D, and computer E
• computer C, computer D, computer E, and Router1
• computer A, computer B, computer C, computer D, computer E, and Router1

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16 Refer to the exhibit. Hosts that are connected to switch SW1 are not able to communicate with hosts in the same VLAN
that are connected to switch SW2. What should be done to fix the problem?
• Introduce a Layer 3 device in the topology.
• Configure both switches in VTP transparent mode to allow them to share VLAN information.
• Reconfigure the fa0/1 interface on switch SW1 with a static trunk configuration.
• Apply IP addresses that are in the same subnet to FastEthernet 0/1 on SW1 and FastEthernet 0/2 on SW2.

17 Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator needs to add IP phones to the network. To which devices should the IP
phones connect?
• AS1 and AS2
• DS1 and DS2
• DS1, DS2, and CS1
• AS1, AS2, DS1, and DS2

18 What are two benefits of a hierarchical network model over a flat network design? (Choose two.)
• reduced cost of equipment
• increased network availability
• elimination of equipment downtime
• reduced size of the physical network layout
• simplification of management and troubleshooting
• elimination of the need for Layer 3 functionality

19 Refer to the exhibit. What is true of the configuration of switch S1?

• Only VLAN 99 will be allowed to use the trunk links.
• Switch ports Fa0/1 and Fa0/3 are configured with a standard trunking protocol.
• Switch ports Fa0/1 and Fa0/3 should be configured as access ports to allow data from multiple VLANs to access switch
S1.
• The switch negotiated trunk links for interfaces Fa0/1 and Fa0/3 because all connected interfaces have been configured
with the switchport mode dynamic auto command.

20 Refer to the exhibit. What does the term DYNAMIC indicate in the output that is shown?
• This entry can only be removed from the MAC address table by a network administrator.
• When forwarding a frame to the device with address 0060.5c5b.cd23, the switch does not have to perform a lookup to
determine the final destination port.
• Only the device with MAC address 0060.5c5b.cd23 will be allowed to connect to port Fa0/18.
• The switch learned this MAC address from the source address in a frame received on Fa0/18.
21 Refer to the exhibit. SW-T has been configured with a single trunking interface. Which VLANs will be allowed across
the trunk?
• Only VLAN 1 will be allowed across the trunk.
• All configured VLANs will be allowed across the trunk.
• Only the native VLAN will be allowed across the trunk.
• Only the the management and native VLANs will be allowed across the trunk.
• Only VLANs that are configured on the VTP server in the domain will be allowed across the trunk.

22 Refer to the exhibit. Router RA receives a packet with a source address of 192.168.1.65 and a destination address of
192.168.1.161. What will the router do with this packet?
• The router will drop the packet.
• The router will forward the packet out interface FastEthernet 0/1.1.
• The router will forward the packet out interface FastEthernet 0/1.2.
• The router will forward the packet out interface FastEthernet 0/1.3.
• The router will forward the packet out interface FastEthernet 0/1.2 and interface FastEthernet 0/1.3.

23 Refer to the exhibit. A new host needs to be connected to VLAN 3. Which IP address should be assigned to this new
host?
• 192.168.1.22 /28
• 192.168.1.31 /28
• 192.168.1.32 /28
• 192.168.1.52 /28

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• 192.168.1.63 /28

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14 Which parameter is used to uniquely identify one wireless network from another?
• SSID
• OFDM
• WEP
• DSSS

25 Refer to the exhibit. VTP pruning is enabled in the VTP domain that is shown. How will switch ST-1 handle Layer 2
broadcast traffic originating from host A on switch ST-C?
• It will be dropped.
• It will be forwarded out port Fa0/5 only.
• It will be forwarded out ports Fa0/5 and Fa0/10.
• It will be forwarded out ports Fa0/5, Fa0/10, and Fa0/15.

26 What is the purpose of the Spanning Tree algorithm?

• It propagates VLAN configurations to other switches.
• It restricts broadcast packets to a single VLAN.
• It segments a network into multiple broadcast domains.
• It prevents loops in a switched network with redundant paths.
27 Refer to the exhibit. Switches S2 and S3 are properly connected using an ethernet cable. A network administrator has
configured both switches with VTP, but S3 is unable to propagate VLANs to S2. What could be the reason for this?
• The VTP configuration revision is different on both switches.
• The VTP domains are different on both switches.
• VTP pruning is disabled.
• VTP v2 is disabled.

28 When configuring a router to act as an SSH server, what should be configured before issuing the crypto key generate rsa
command?
• the security domain name
• the VTP domain name
• the IP domain name
• the host name

29 Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator has segmented the network into two VLANs. The connected hosts can
only access resources in their own VLAN. What is the most scalable and cost effective solution to allow inter-VLAN
communication in this network?
• Replace S1 with a router that has one FastEthernet interface for each PC.
• Add a second switch and divide the PCs so that each VLAN is connected to its own switch.
• Configure a router with two subinterfaces on one of its FastEthernet ports and connect it to S1 using a trunk link.
• Connect a router to a port on S1 and assign the IP address of VLAN1 to the connecting router interface.

30 Which three statements are correct concerning the default configuration of a new switch? (Choose three.)
• It is configured in VTP server mode.
• STP is automatically enabled.
• The first VTY line is automatically configured to allow remote connections.
• VLAN1 is configured with a management IP address.
• All switch ports are assigned to VLAN1.
• The enable password is configured as cisco.

31 What is the purpose of VLAN trunking?

• It improves network performance by reducing broadcast traffic.
• It selects the best path to transmit data in a switched network.
• It carries the traffic of multiple VLANs through a single link.
• It avoids spanning tree loops in a switched network.

32 Refer to the exhibit. Switch SW2 has been newly purchased and added to the network. What configuration should be
applied to SW2 so that it participates in the same VTP domain as switch SW1, receives VLAN information from SW1, and
synchronizes VLAN information?
• Disable VTP pruning on SW2.

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• Configure SW2 in VTP transparent mode.
• Configure SW2 with the VTP domain password.
• Configure SW2 as a VTP server with a higher revision number.

33 Refer to the exhibit. Users A and B are reporting intermittent connectivity problems. Pre-installation surveys showed
strong signal strength from the AP locations to the client locations. Outside electrical interference has been eliminated.
What will fix the problem?
• Relocate the APs closer to each other.
• Increase the distance between the clients.
• Change the channel on AP-B to 6 or 11.
• Place AP-A and AP-B on the same wireless channel.

34 Refer to the exhibit. What is the maximum number of VLANs that can be deleted from the Switch as it is configured?
• zero
• four
• five
• eight
• nine

35 Why is MAC address filtering considered a poor choice in securing a WLAN?

• Available bandwidth is reduced.
• MAC addresses are easily spoofed.
• APs are more susceptible to DoS attacks.
• The payload encryption is easily broken.

36 What can an administrator do to ensure that a specific switch will win a root election if all switches are set to their
default configurations?
• Set the bridge priority to 16384.
• Change the VTP mode to server.
• Assign a port priority of 128 for all ports on the switch.
• Configure a loopback interface with the highest IP address.

37 RSTP is enabled in a switched network that is active and converged. Which switch port type assumes a discarding state
on non-root switches?
• root port
• edge port
• alternate port
• designated port

38 What is a result of improperly implementing a network with redundancy at Layer 2?

• an increase of unicast and multicast errors at Layer 3
• a decrease in the amount of broadcast traffic
• end device malfunction because of broadcast storms
• an increase in throughput at all points in the network

39 What information in an Ethernet frame is used by a Layer 2 switch to build its address table?
• source IP address
• source MAC address
• destination IP address
• destination MAC address

40 Which switch forwarding method should be used on a network that employs frame classification based on an assigned
Quality of Service (QoS) value?
• cut-through
• fast-forward
• fragment-free
• store-and-forward
41 Which two conditions would require a VTP client to send a request advertisement to a VTP server? (Choose two.)

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• The switch has been reset.
• A VLAN has been created or deleted.
• A five minute time period has elapsed.
• The name of a VLAN has been changed.
• The VTP domain name has been changed.

42 Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator is configuring RT1 for inter-VLAN routing. The switch is configured
correctly and is functional. Host1, Host2, and Host3 cannot communicate with each other. Based on the router
configuration, what is causing the problem?
• Interface Fa0/0 is missing IP address configuration information.
• IP addresses on the subinterfaces are incorrectly matched to the VLANs.
• Each subinterface of Fa0/0 needs separate no shutdown commands.
• Routers do not support 892.1Q encapsulation on subinterfaces.

43 Refer to the exhibit. PC1 and PC2 are plugged into port Fa0/10 and Fa0/11 respectively. How will this affect the port
states of these switch ports?
• The ports will transition from blocking to learning immediately.
• The ports will transition from blocking to listening and learning states.
• The ports will transition from blocking to forwarding state immediately.
• The ports will transition from blocking to listening, learning, and forwarding states.

44 Refer to the exhibit. To ensure optimum network performance, it is desirable that every user PC should be able to reach
the file server by passing through no more than 2 switches. Which command in which context satisfies this performance
requirement?
• spanning-tree vlan 10 root primary on SW1
• spanning-tree vlan 10 root primary on SW3
• spanning-tree vlan 10 priority 32768 on SW1
• spanning-tree vlan 10 root secondary on SW2

45 Which IEEE trunking protocol is used to encapsulate data traffic over a trunk link on a Cisco switch?
• STP
• DTP
• VTP
• 802.1Q
46 Refer to the exhibit. The network administrator needs to remove the east-hosts VLAN and use the switch port from that
VLAN in one of the existing VLANs. Which two sets of commands should be used when completely removing VLAN 2
from S1-Central while leaving the switch and all its interfaces operational? (Choose two.)
• S1-Central# reload
• S1-Central# erase flash:
• S1-Central# delete flash:vlan.dat
• S1-Central# configure terminal
S1-Central(config)# no vlan 2
• S1-Central# configure terminal
S1-Central(config)# interface fastethernet 0/1
S1-Central(config-if)# switchport access vlan 3

47 Refer to the exhibit. What is the effect of setting the security mode to WEP on the Linksys integrated router?

• WEP identifies the wireless LAN.

• WEP allows the access point to inform clients of its presence.
• WEP translates IP addresses into easy-to-remember domain names.
• WEP encrypts data between the wireless client and the access point.
• WEP translates an internal address or group of addresses into an outside, public address.

48 Refer to the exhibit. Host A and host B are not able to send traffic to each other. On the basis of the output that is
provided, what is the cause of the problem?
• mismatched speed settings
• mismatched duplex settings
• media type incompatibility

16
• incorrect port encapsulation

49 What advantage does cut-through switching provide?

• It enables QoS
• It forwards frames quickly.
• It provides an analysis of frames.
• It allows reduction of traffic by using error checking to drop corrupt frames.

17
50 Which three actions are performed during the boot sequence of a Cisco switch? (Choose three.)
• The boot loader uses the self-contained switch operating system to boot the switch.
• The boot loader retrieves diagnostics routines via TFTP.
• The boot loader performs POST.
• The boot loader is loaded from RAM.
• The boot loader initializes the flash file system that is used to boot the system.
• The boot loader loads the default operating system if the flash-based operating system is corrupt or missing.

FINAL C

1 Refer to the exhibit. What would happen if the network administrator moved the network cable of Host A from interface
Fa0/1 to Fa0/3 on switch SW1?
• Host A remains a member of VLAN 10, because the router is routing traffic between VLANs.
• Host A is no longer a member of VLAN 10, because port Fa0/3 has been manually assigned to VLAN 30.
• Host A remains a member of VLAN 10, because the switch provides dynamic VLAN assignment for the port.
• Host A maintains connectivity to all members of VLAN 10, because it is connected to the same physical network.
• Host A is no longer a member of VLAN 10, but because port Fa0/3 was unused, it is now a member of VLAN 1.

2 A network administrator is implementing VTP in a large campus LAN that contains one hundred switches. What are
valid considerations for reliability and administration?
• Using server mode on a single master switch and client mode on all other switches will provide the most fault tolerance
for retaining VLAN information in all switches if power is lost on the network.
• Using transparent mode on all switches will allow for efficient administration and prevent VLAN data loss from the
loss of any single switch.
• Configuring several switches in server mode will allow all VLANs to be entered from a single switch and preserve
VLAN data if any of the switches or connections are lost.
• Configuring one primary and one backup switch in server mode and all other switches in transparent mode will provide
fault tolerance for the VLAN data and allow for efficient distribution of the VLAN configurations to all switches.

3 Refer to the exhibit. The network administrator has just added VLAN 50 to Switch1 and Switch2. Hosts A, B, C, and D
are correctly configured with IP addresses in the subnet range for VLAN 50. Host A can communicate with host B, but
cannot communicate with host C or host D. What is the cause of this problem?
• There is a native VLAN mismatch.
• The Fa0/11 interface of Switch1 is not configured as a trunk.
• The link between Switch1 and Switch2 is up but not trunked.
• VLAN 50 is not allowed on the trunk link between Switch1 and Switch2.
4 Refer to the exhibit. Both switches are interconnected via a trunk link. Host A and host B are on the default VLAN but
are not able to exchange traffic. What should be done to fix the problem?
• Allow all VLANs on the trunk link.
• Remove the native VLAN from the trunk.
• Include a router or switch with Layer 3 capabilities.
• Configure the same native VLAN on both ends of the trunk.
5 Which three statements are true regarding router-on-a-stick inter-VLAN routing? (Choose three.)
• requires the use of subinterfaces on the router
• requires an access link between the router and Layer 2 switch
• more cost-efficient and scalable than using multiple physical interfaces
• requires each subinterface to be configured with the no shutdown command
• can impact performance if many VLANs compete for bandwidth on a single router interface
• makes troubleshooting the inter-VLAN routing configuration much less complex than when using multiple physical
interfaces

6 Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator has segmented the network into two VLANs and configured Router1 for
inter-VLAN routing. A test of the network, however, shows that hosts on each VLAN can only access local resources and
not resources on the other VLAN. What is the most likely cause of this problem?
• Switch port Fa0/1 is not trunking.
• Router interface Fa0/0 is possibly down.
• No routing protocol is configured on Router1.

18
• One of the router subinterfaces is possibly down.

19
7 Refer to the exhibit. Which Spanning Tree Protocol version is in effect?
• Per VLAN Spanning Tree (PVST)
• Per VLAN Spanning Tree + (PVST+)
• Common Spanning Tree (CST)
• Rapid Spanning Tree Protocol (RSTP)
• Multiple Spanning Tree Protocol (MSTP)

8 Refer to the exhibit. R1 is configured for traditional inter-VLAN routing. R1 can ping computer 3 but cannot ping
computer 1. What is a possible cause for this failure?
• S1 port Fa0/11 is in the wrong VLAN.
• R1 does not have an active routing protocol.
• The IP address of computer 1 is in the wrong logical network.
• Router interface Fa0/0 has the wrong trunk encapsulation type configured.

9 Refer to the exhibit. Hosts A and B, connected to hub HB1, attempt to transmit a frame at the same time but a collision
occurs. Which hosts will receive the collision jamming signal?
• only hosts A and B
• only hosts A, B, and C
• only hosts A, B, C, and D
• only hosts A, B, C, and E

10 Refer to the exhibit. What will allow a host on VLAN 40 on switch X to communicate with a host in VLAN 40 on
switch Y?
• QoS
• routing
• trunking
• VPN

11 Refer to the exhibit. Switch SW2 was tested in a lab environment and then inserted into a production network without
reloading its configuration. After the trunk link between SW1 and SW2 was brought up, all users lost connectivity to the
network. What could be the source of the problem?
• All the VLANs were pruned from the trunk port between SW1 and SW2.
• SW1 and SW2 cannot be both set as VTP servers in the same VTP domain.
• VTP configuration revision number of SW2 was higher than the configuration revision number of SW1.
• The additional VLANs from SW2 created more VLANs than the VLAN database of SW1 could contain.

12 In which mode is a VTP switch operating if it has been configured to only forward VTP advertisements?
• client
• root
• server
• transparent
13 Refer to the exhibit. Which switch will be elected as the root bridge of the spanning tree topology?
• Cat-A
• Cat-B
• Cat-C
• Cat-D

14 Refer to the exhibit. All hosts are in listen mode. Host 1 and Host 4 both transmit data at the same time. How do the
hosts respond on the network? (Choose two.)
• After the end of the jam signal, a backoff algorithm is invoked.
• Hosts 1 and 4 are operating full duplex so no collision will exist.
• The hub will block the port connected to Host 4 to prevent a collision.
• Hosts 1 and 4 are assigned shorter backoff values to provide them priority to access the media.
• If a host has data to transmit after the backoff period of that host, the host checks to determine if the line is idle before
transmitting.

15 Which parameter is used to uniquely identify one wireless network from another?
• SSID

20
• OFDM
• WEP
• DSSS
16 What are two benefits of the IEEE 802.11n standard over the IEEE 802.11G? (Choose two.)
• requires less equipment
• provides improved range
• permits increased data rates
• has a single-input and a single-output
• needs no hardware upgrade for compatibility

17 Refer to the exhibit. The Layer 2 switching design that is shown has been implemented in a campus environment that is
using Spanning Tree Protocol. All inter-switch links that are shown are trunks. Whenever an inter-switch link fails, the
network takes nearly a minute to completely converge. How can the convergence time be reduced?
• Increase the capacity of the distribution and core trunk links to 10 Gb/s.
• Add a trunk link that directly connects D1 and D2.
• Use Layer 3 switching on the core switch.
• Implement Rapid Spanning Tree Protocol.
18 What happens when the crypto key zeroize rsa command is entered on a switch configured with the transport input ssh
command on the vty lines?
• A new RSA key pair is created.
• The switch defaults to allowing Telnet connections only.
• The switch is no longer able to make SSH connections as an SSH client.
• The switch allows remote connections only after a new RSA key pair is generated.
19 Refer to the exhibit. After entering the commands in the exhibit, the administrator receives a "password required, but
none set" message when attempting to connect to S1. What is the problem?
• The enable secret password was not set.
• S1 does not have login configured on the vty lines.
• S1 does not have a password configured for the vty lines.
• The crypto key is not properly configured to generate passwords.
• The VLAN1 interface has not be enabled with the no shutdown command.

20 Refer to the exhibit. What happens when a frame from a source MAC address different from 00a8.d2e4.ba27 reaches
switch port 0/5?
• The frame is dropped.
• The port is shut down.
• An error message is displayed.
• FastEthernet port 0/5 will show an err-disabled message.

21 What VLANs are allowed across a trunk when the range of allowed VLANs is set to the default value?
• only the management VLAN
• all VLANs except the extended range VLANs
• all VLANs except 1 and 1002-1005
• all VLANs
22 Refer to the exhibit. What does STATIC indicate in the output that is shown?
• Switch port Fa0/24 can only work in VLAN 99.
• VLAN 99 was manually added to the VLAN database.
• MAC address 0001.637b.b267 was learned from the source address of a frame that was received on switch port Fa0/24.
• MAC address 0001.637b.b267 was manually associated with the switch port Fa0/24.
23 What provides an authentication mechanism for 802.11-based wireless networks?
• DSSS
• OFDM
• SSID
• WPA

21
24 Refer to the exhibit. VTP pruning is enabled in the VTP domain that is shown. How will switch ST-1 handle Layer 2
broadcast traffic originating from host A on switch ST-C?
• It will be dropped.
• It will be forwarded out port Fa0/5 only.
• It will be forwarded out ports Fa0/5 and Fa0/10.
• It will be forwarded out ports Fa0/5, Fa0/10, and Fa0/15.

25 What are three benefits of employing a hierarchical network design? (Choose three.)
• Hierarchically designed networks can more easily be expanded to suit future needs.
• Hierarchical design models enhance existing bandwidth through the use of link aggregation.
• The hierarchical model allows for specialized functionality at each layer, simplifying device management.
• Use of a hierarchical design allows replacement of redundant devices with high-capacity network equipment.
• A hierarchical design uses firewalls instead of complicated port-based and distribution layer security policies.
• The hierarchical model allows the use of high-performance switches at all design layers, thus allowing for a fully-
meshed topology.

26 What is the purpose of the Spanning Tree algorithm?

• It propagates VLAN configurations to other switches.
• It restricts broadcast packets to a single VLAN.
• It segments a network into multiple broadcast domains.
• It prevents loops in a switched network with redundant paths.
27 Refer to the exhibit. A new host needs to be connected to VLAN 1. Which IP address should be assigned to this new
host?
• 192.168.1.11 /28
• 192.168.1.22 /28
• 192.168.1.33 /28
• 192.168.1.44 /28
• 192.168.1.55 /28

28 Refer to the exhibit. How will switch S2 manage traffic coming from host PC1?
• S2 will drop the traffic, unless it is management traffic.
• S2 will tag the frame with VLAN ID 99 when it forwards it over the trunk link.
• S2 will leave the traffic untagged when it forwards it over a trunk link.
• S2 will tag the traffic with the highest VLAN ID value when it forwards it over the trunk link.

29 Refer to the exhibit. Router RA receives a packet with a source address of 192.168.1.35 and a destination address of
192.168.1.85. What will the router do with this packet?
• The router will drop the packet.
• The router will forward the packet out interface FastEthernet 0/1.1.
• The router will forward the packet out interface FastEthernet 0/1.2.
• The router will forward the packet out interface FastEthernet 0/1.3.
• The router will forward the packet out interface FastEthernet 0/1.2 and interface FastEthernet 0/1.3.

30 Refer to the exhibit. Users A and B are reporting intermittent connectivity problems. Pre-installation surveys showed
strong signal strength from the AP locations to the client locations. Outside electrical interference has been eliminated.
What will fix the problem?
• Relocate the APs closer to each other.
• Increase the distance between the clients.
• Change the channel on AP-B to 6 or 11.
• Place AP-A and AP-B on the same wireless channel.

31 Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator needs to download a previously saved configuration file from the TFTP
server to Switch1. Which command will accomplish this task?
• Switch1# copy tftp://192.168.0.253/backup-confg nvram:startup-config
• Switch1# copy tftp://192.168.0.254/backup-confg nvram:startup-config
• Switch1# copy nvram:startup-config tftp://192.168.0.253/backup-config
• Switch1# copy nvram:startup-config tftp://192.168.0.254/backup-config

22
32 Which two devices can cause interference with the operation of a WLAN because they operate on similar frequencies?
(Choose two.)
• copier
• AM radio
• television
• MP3 player
• cordless phone
• microwave oven

23
33 Refer to the exhibit. Each switch is configured to participate in STP for VLANs 1, 10, 20, and 30. Which switch will
become the root for VLAN 20?
• A
• B
• C
• D
34 Refer to the exhibit. The commands are entered into switch SW1 as shown, and an 802.1q trunk is successfully
established. How does switch SW1 handle the untagged traffic that is destined for the trunk?
• SW1 will drop all untagged traffic.
• SW1 will send all untagged traffic to VLAN 1.
• SW1 will send all untagged traffic to VLAN 25.
• SW1 will send untagged traffic to all VLANs that are configured on the trunk.

35 Refer to the exhibit. If switch SW1 is configured with the four VLANs as shown in the exhibit, how many physical
interfaces are needed on router R1 to configure inter-VLAN routing using subinterfaces?
• zero
• one
• two
• four

36 Which STP port type can only appear once on a segment, and must be present in order for traffic to flow on that
segment?
• non-root port
• disabled port
• designated port
• non-designated port

37 What is a possible impact of setting too short an aging time in the MAC address table of a switch?
• overly large address table
• unnecessary flooding of packets
• excessive timeouts of static addresses
• impaired ability to dynamically learn new addresses

38 What is a result of improperly implementing a network with redundancy at Layer 2?

• an increase of unicast and multicast errors at Layer 3
• a decrease in the amount of broadcast traffic
• end device malfunction because of broadcast storms
• an increase in throughput at all points in the network

39 In a three-layer hierarchical network design, which distribution layer function delineates broadcast domains?
• routing between VLANs
• aggregating traffic flows
• providing redundant links
• reducing the network diameter

40 Which statement describes the use of voice VLANs in Cisco IP telephony?

• The voice VLAN carries both tagged and untagged traffic.
• The voice VLAN carries untagged traffic having special QoS markings.
• The voice VLAN must be configured on the switch port to which the IP phone attaches.
• Data and voice frames are tagged with same VLAN ID between the IP phone and the switch when a voice VLAN is
configured.

41 Refer to the exhibit. The broadcast traffic from PC1 is consuming bandwidth on the interswitch trunks. What should be
done to prevent this from happening?
• Move PC1 to a port on SW3.
• Move PC2 to a port on SW3.
• Move PC1 to a port on SW2.
• Enable pruning for VLAN10 on the VTP server.

24
• Associate PC1 as a member of a new VLAN.

42 Which switching method provides error-free data transmission?

• fragment-free
• fast-forward
• integrity-checking
• store-and-forward

43 Which type of traffic can still be received on a switch interface that is in STP blocking mode?
• BPDU frames
• multicast frames
• broadcast frames
• Layer 3 packets

44 Which switch forwarding method should be used on a network that employs frame classification based on an assigned
Quality of Service (QoS) value?
• cut-through
• fast-forward
• fragment-free
• store-and-forward
45 Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator issues the command shown on Switch1. What are two possible reasons
that ports Fa0/1 through Fa0/4, and ports Fa0/11 and Fa0/12 do not show in the command output? (Choose two.)
• The ports have been configured as trunks.
• The ports have been assigned to the native VLAN.
• The VLAN that they are assigned to has been deleted.
• The ports currently do not have any devices plugged into them.
• The no shutdown command was not issued on these ports.

46 Refer to the exhibit. A junior network administrator was tasked to configure all VTY lines on the switch for remote
access. However, when the senior network administrator attempted to access the switch remotely, a "% Error in
authentication" console message was received. What could be the cause of the problem?
• The VTY line password is entered incorrectly.
• The console password is missing from the switch configuration.
• The service password-encryption command is missing from the switch configuration.
• The enable password or enable secret password is missing from the switch configuration.
47 A network administrator issued the erase nvram: command on a switch. What will be the outcome of the command?
• It will clear the contents of the MAC table.
• It will clear the contents of the VLAN database.
• It will clear the contents of the startup configuration file.
• It will clear the contents of the running configuration file.

48 Which statement accurately describes a switch with all access ports assigned to the same VLAN?
• All users are in the same broadcast domain.
• A router is required for communication between the users.
• Bandwidth is utilized more efficiently, resulting in a reduction in costs.
• Performance is increased by keeping all users in the same Layer 2 network.

49 A network administrator enters the enable command at the Switch> prompt of a new switch. What mode will the switch
enter?
• setup mode
• configuration mode
• privileged EXEC mode
• user EXEC mode
• ROMMON mode
• interface mode

50 Which statement is true about open authentication when it is enabled on an access point?

25
• requires no authentication
• uses a 64-bit encryption algorithm
• requires the use of an authentication server
• requires a mutually agreed upon password

26