Premier Institute in India for Medical Entrance Exams.

DATE : 22/05/2011
Code - BHA
Test Booklet Series 12

Premier Institute in India for Medical Entrance Exams.

Regd. Office : Aakash Tower, Plot No.-4, Sec-11, MLU, Dwarka, New Delhi-110075
Ph.: 011-47623456 Fax : 011-47623472

Time : 3 hrs.
Answers Max. Marks: 800

for
DUMET-2011
1. Which of the following principles is being used in 4. Which of the following is correct relation between
Sonar Technology?
an arbitrary vector A and null vector O ?
(1) Reflection of ultrasonic waves
(1) A  O  A  O  A (2) A  O  A O  A
(2) Newton’s laws of motion
(3) A  O  A  O  O (4) None of these
(3) Reflection of electromagnetic waves
(4) Laws of thermodynamics Ans. (1)

Ans. (1) 5. An object is being thrown at a speed of 20 m/s in

a direction 45° above the horizontal. The time
2. What is the dimension of surface tension? taken by the object to return to the same level is
(1) [ML1T0] (1) 20/g (2) 20g
(2) [ML1T–1]
(3) 20 2/g (4) 20 2g
(3) [ML0T–2]
Ans. (3)
(4) [M1L0T–2]
6. An object is moving on a plane surface uniform
Ans. (3, 4) velocity 10 ms–1 in presence of a force 10 N. The
3. The speed-time graph of a particle moving along a frictional force between the object and the surface
solid curve is shown below. The distance traversed is
by the particle from t = 0 to t = 3 is (1) 1 N (2) –10 N
2 (3) 10 N (4) 100 N
Ans. (2)
Speed (ms )

1.5
–1

7. A body of mass M starts sliding down on the

inclined plane where the critical angle is
ACB = 30° as shown in figure. The coefficient of
1 kinetic friction will be

1 2 3 (1) Mg / 3
30°
Time (second)
(2) 3Mg
10 10
(1) second (2) second
2 4
(3) 3
10 10
(3) second (4) second
3 5 (4) None of these
Ans. (2) Ans. (3) A B

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8. In non-inertial frame, the second law of motion is 15. Which of the following graphs shows the variation
written as of acceleration due to gravity g with depth h from
the surface of the earth?
(1) F = ma (2) F = ma + Fp
(a) (b)
(3) F = ma – Fp (4) F = 2ma
where F p is a pseudo-force while a is the
acceleration of the body relative to non-inertial
frame. g g

Ans. (3)
9. The work done by an applied variable force h h
F = x + x3 from x = 0 m to x = 2 m, where x is (c) (d)
displacement, is
(1) 6 J (2) 8 J
(3) 10 J (4) 12 J g g
Ans. (1)
10. The coefficient of restitute, e, for a perfectly elastic h h
collision is
(1) (a) (2) (b)
(1) 0 (2) –1 (3) (c) (4) (d)
(3) 1 (4)  Ans. (3)
Ans. (3) 16. At what altitude (h) above the earth’s surface
11. A particle of mass m1 moves with velocity v1 and would the acceleration due to gravity be one fourth
collides with another particle at rest of equal mass. of its value at the earth’s surface?
The velocity of the second particle after the elastic (1) h = R (2) h = 4R
collision is (3) h = 2R (4) h = 16R
(1) 2v1 (2) v1 Ans. (1)
(3) –v1 (4) 0 17. According to C.E. van der Waal, the interatomic
Ans. (2) potential varies with the average interatomic
distance (R) as
12. The centre of mass of a solid cone along the line
(1) R–1 (2) R–2
from the center of the base to the vertex is at
(3) R–4 (4) R–6
(1) One-fourth of the height
Ans. (4)
(2) One-third of the height
18. A sphere of radius 3 cm is subjected to a pressure
(3) One-fifth of the height of 100 atm. Its volume decreases by 0.3 cc. What
(4) None of these will be its bulk modulus?

Ans. (1) (1) 4 × 105 atm (2) 4 × 1034 atm

(3) 4 × 106 atm (4) 4 × 108 atm
13. A solid cylinder is rolling without slipping on a
plane having inclination  and the coefficient of Ans. No correct choice given. Answer should be
static friction μs. The relation between  and μs is 4 × 3 × 103 atm
(1) tan  > 3 s (2) tan   3 s 19. A vertical tank with depth H is full with water. A
hole is made on one side of the walls at a depth h
(3) tan  < 3 s2 (4) None of these below the water surface. At what distance from
Ans. (2) the foot of the wall does the emerging stream of
water strike the foot?
14. The reduced mass of two particles having masses
m and 2m is (1) h ( H – h) (2) h/( H – h )
(1) 2m (2) 3m
(3) 2  H – h h /( H – h ) (4) 2h /( H – h )
(3) 2m/3 (4) m/2
Ans. (3) Ans. (3)

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20. The mean free path of collision of gas molecules 26. Domestic electrical wiring has three wires
varies with its diameter (d) of the molecules as
(1) Positive, negative and neutral
(1) d–1 (2) d–2 (2) Positive, negative and earth
(3) d–3 (4) d–4 (3) Live, neutral and earth
Ans. (2) (4) Positive, negative and live
21. Consider two insulated chambers (A, B) of same Ans. (3)
volume connected by a closed knob, S. 1 mole of 27. Which of the following is not true?
perfect gas is confined in chamber A. What is the
change in entropy of gas when knob S is opened? (1) For a point charge, the electrostatic potential
R = 8.31 J mol–1K–1. varies as 1/r
(2) For a dipole, the potential depends on the
position vector and dipole moment vector
S
(3) The electric dipole potential varies as 1/r at
large distance
A B
(4) For a point charge, the electrostatic field varies
as 1/r2
Ans. (3)
28. The mobility of charge carriers increases with
(1) 1.46 J/K (2) 3.46 J/K
(1) Increase in the average collision time
(3) 5.46 J/K (4) 7.46 J/K
(2) Increase in the electric field
Ans. (3)
(3) Increase in the mass of the charge carriers
22. A Carnot engine has efficiency 25%. It operates
(4) Decrease in the charge of the mobile carriers
between reservoirs of constant temperatures with
temperature difference of 80°C. What is the Ans. (1)
temperature of the low-temperature reservoir?
29. When an AC voltage is applied to a LCR circuit,
(1) –25°C (2) 25°C which of the following is true?

(3) –33°C (4) 33°C (1) I and V are out of phase with each other in R
(2) I and V are in phase in L while in C, they are
Ans. (3)
out of phase
23. During the phenomenon of resonance
(3) I and V are out of phase in both, C and L
(1) The amplitude of oscillation becomes large (4) I and V are out of phase in L and in phase in
(2) The frequency of oscillation becomes large C
Ans. (3)
(3) The time period of oscillation becomes large
30. For a medium with permittivity and permeability
(4) All of these
, the velocity of light is given by
Ans. (1)
(1)  / (2) 
24. The longitudinal wave can be observed in
(3) 1/  (4)  /
(1) Elastic media (2) Inelastic media
Ans. (3)
(3) Both (1) & (2) (4) None of these
31. In optical fibres, the refractive index of the core is
Ans. (1)
(1) Greater than that of the cladding
25. The two waves of the same frequency moving in
the same direction give rise to (2) Equal to that of the cladding
(1) Beats (2) Interference (3) Smaller than that of the cladding
(3) Stationary waves (4) None of these (4) Independent of that of the cladding

Ans. (2) Ans. (1)

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32. For a wavelength of light ‘’ and scattering object 38. When helium nuclei bombard beryllium nuclei,
of size ‘a’, all wavelengths are scattered nearly then
equally, if (1) Electrons are emitted
(1) a =  (2) a >>  (2) Protons are emitted
(3) a <<  (4) a  (3) Neutrons are emitted
Ans. (2) (4) Protons and neutrons are emitted
33. For a telescope having fo as the focal length of the Ans. (3)
objective and fe as the focal length of the eyepiece,
the length of the telescope tube is 39. When two nuclei (with A = 8) join to form a
heavier nucleus, the binding energy (B.E.) per
(1) fe (2) fo – fe nucleon of the heavier nuclei is
(3) fo (4) fo + fe (1) More than the B.E. per nucleon of the lighter
Ans. (4) nuclei
34. If two sources have a randomly varying phase (2) Same as the B.E. per nucleon of the lighter
difference (t), the resultant intensity will be given nuclei
by (3) Less than the B.E. per nucleon of the lighter
(1) 1/2I0 (2) I0/2 nuclei
(4) Double the B.E. per nucleon of the lighter
(3) 2I0 (4) I 0 / 2
nuclei
Ans. (3) Ans. (1)
35. For an aperture of size ‘a’ illuminated by a parallel 40. In a reverse-biased p-n junction, when the applied
beam of light having wavelength , the Fresnel bias voltage is equal to the breakdown voltage,
distance is then
(1)  a / (2)  a2 / (1) Current remains constant while voltage
increase sharply
(3)  a2 (4)  a /2 (2) Voltage remains constant while current
increases sharply
Ans. (2)
(3) Current and voltage increase
36. The maximum kinetic energy of the photoelectrons
varies (4) Current and voltage decrease

(1) Inversely with the intensity and is independent Ans. (2)

of the frequency of the incident radiation 41. A charged cloud system produces an electric field
(2) Inversely with the frequency and is in the air near the earth’s surface. A particle of
independent of the intensity of the incident charge –2 × 10–9 C is acted on by a downward
radiation electrostatic force of 3 × 10–6 N when placed in
this field. The gravitational and electrostatic force,
(3) Linearly with the frequency and the intensity respectively, exerted on a proton placed in this field
of the incident radiation are
(4) Linearly with the frequency and is (1) 1.64 × 10–26 N, 2.4 × 10–16 N
independent of the intensity of the incident
(2) 1.64 × 10–26 N, 1.5 × 103 N
radiation
(3) 1.56 × 10–18 N, 2.4 × 10–16 N
Ans. (4)
(4) 1.5 × 103 N, 2.4 × 10–16 N
37. The work function for Al, K and Pt is 4.28 eV,
2.30 eV and 5.65 eV respectively. Their respective Ans. (1)
threshold frequencies would be 42. The frequency of oscillation of an electric dipole
moment having dipole moment p and rotational
(1) Pt > Al > K
inertia I, oscillating in a uniform electric field E is
(2) Al > Pt > K given
(3) K > Al > Pt (1) (1/2) I /pE (2) (1/2) pE /I
(4) Al > K > Pt (3) (2) pE /I (4) (2) I /pE
Ans. (1) Ans. (2)
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43. What is the net charge on a conducting sphere of 50. In Young’s double-slit experiment, if the distance
radius 10 cm? Given that the electric field 15 cm between the slits is halved and the distance
from the center of the sphere is equal to between the slits and the screen is doubled, the
3 × 103 N/C and is directed inward fringe width becomes
(1) –7.5 × 10–5 C (2) –7.5 × 10–9 C (1) Half (2) Double
(3) 7.5 × 10–5 C (4) 7.5 × 10–9 C (3) Four times (4) Eight times
Ans. (2) Ans. (3)
51. In the given structure of a compound, the correct
44. How many 1 F capacitors must be connected in
various bond moments direction involving atoms
parallel to store a charge of 1 C with a potential
are shown as
of 110 V across the capacitors?
(1) Br N CH2 SiH 2 CH2 O CH3
(1) 990 (2) 900
(2) Br N CH2 SiH 2 CH2 O CH3
(3) 9090 (4) 909
(3) Br N CH2 SiH 2 CH2 O CH3
Ans. (3)
(4) Br N CH2 SiH 2 CH2 O CH3
45. A 1250 W heater operates at 115 V. What is the
resistance of the heating coil? Ans. (3)
(1) 1.6  (2) 13.5  52. For the given alkane

(3) 1250  (4) 10.6 

Ans. (4)
46. A proton travelling at 23° w.r.t. the direction of a The IUPAC name is
magnetic field of a strength 2.6 mT experiences, a
magnetic force of 6.5 × 10–17 N. What is the speed (1) 1, 1 dimethyl-5-ethyl octane
of the proton? (2) 6-ethyl-2-methyl nonane
(1) 2 × 105 m/second (2) 4 × 105 m/second (3) 4-ethyl-8-methyl nonane
(3) 6 × 105 m/second (4) 8 × 105 m/second (4) 2-methyl, -6-propyl octane
Ans. (2)
Ans. (2)
53. Which will undergo fastest S N2 substitution
47. What uniform magnetic field applied perpendicular
reaction when treated with NaOH?
to a beam of electrons moving at 1.3 × 106 m/s, is
required to make the electrons travel in a circular CH3
arc of radius 0.35 m?
(1) 2.1 × 10–5 G (2) 6 × 10–5 T (1) H5C2 C Br
(3) 2.1 × 10–5 T (4) 6 × 10–5 G
H
Ans. (3) CH3
48. A transformer has 500 primary turns and 10
secondary turns. If the secondary has resistive load (2) CH3 C Br
of 15 , the currents in the primary and
secondary respectively, are CH3
(1) 0.16 A, 3.2 × 10–3 A
CH3
(2) 3.2 × 10–3 A, 0.16 A
(3) 0.16 A, 0.16 A (3) H C Br
(4) 3.2 × 10–3 A, 3.2 × 10–3 A
C2H5
Ans. (2)
H
49. For a radio signal to travel 150 km from the
transmitter to a receiving antenna, it takes (4) H C CH2 – CH2 – CH3
(1) 5 × 10–4 second (2) 4.5 × 10–3 second
Br
(3) 5 × 10–8 second (4) 4.5 × 10–6 second
Ans. (4)
Ans. (1)
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Premier Institute in India for Medical Entrance Exams.

54. Given reaction 58. Which is not the correct statement about RNA and
DNA?
ether HCl
Br X Y(main product) (1) DNA is active in virus where RNA never
Mg H2O
appears in virus

Y in the reaction is (2) DNA exists as dimer while RNA is usually

(1) Hexane single stranded

(2) Cyclohexane (3) DNA contains deoxyribose as its sugar and

(3) Cyclohexylcyclohexane RNA contains ribose

(4) Cyclohexylether (4) RNA contains uracil in place of thymine (found

Ans. (2) in DNA) as a base

55. Most stable carbocation is Ans. (1)

CH3 +CH2
59. What is the nature of glucose-glucose linkage in
+ starch that makes its so susceptible to acid
(1) (2)
hydrolysis?
(1) Starch is hemiacetal
CH3 CH3
+ (2) Starch is acetal
(3) (4) (3) Starch is polymer
+
(4) Starch contains only few molecules of glucose
Ans. (3)
Ans. (2)
56. Which one of the following alkylbromides
undergoes most rapid solvolysis in methanol 60. In the conversion
solution to give corresponding methyl ether?
COOH NH2
CH2
(1) =C (2) Br
Br

The sequence of the regents used are

(3) (4) (1) (i) SOCl2 (ii) N3–
Br
(iii) H2O, heat
Br
(2) (i) SOCl2 (ii) NH3
Ans. (1) (3) (i) SOCl2 (ii) NH3
57. In the conversion of (iii) Heat
O (4) (i) SOCl2 (ii) KCN
CH = CH – CH2 – C – CH3 X
(iii) LiAlH
Ans. (1)
OH 61. In the reaction
CH = CH – CH2 – CH 2H2O2  2H2O + O2
CH3 (1) Oxygen is oxidised only
(2) Oxygen is reduced only
X is
(3) Oxygen is neither oxidised nor reduced
(1) H2/Pt (2) Zn-Hg/HCl
(4) Oxygen is both oxidised and reduced
(3) Li/NH3 (4) NaBH4
Ans. (4)
Ans. (4)

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62. Which one of the following is not acid-base 68. Given the following reactions involving A, B, C
conjugate pair? and D
(1) HONO, NO2– (i) C + B+  C+ + B
(2) CH3NH3+, CH3NH2 (ii) A+ + D  No reaction
(3) C6H5 – COOH, C6H5COO–
(iii) C+ + A  No reaction
(4) H3O+, OH–
(iv) D + B+  D+ + B
Ans. (4)
The correct arrangement of A, B, C, D in order of
63. Which one of the following has the strongest
their decreasing ability as reducing agent
O – O bond?
(1) D > B > C > A (2) A > C > D > B
(1) O2+ (2) O20
(3) O2– (4) O22– (3) C > A > B > D (4) C > A > D > B

Ans. (1) Ans. (4)

64. For the reactions 69. Which ion has the largest radius?

I2(aq)  (1) Se2– (2) F–

 I2(oil) Equilibrium constant is K1


(3) O2– (4) Rb+
I2(oil) 
 I2(ether) Equilibrium constant is K2


Ans. (1)
for the reaction
70. Which is correct statement about Cr2 O72 
I2(aq) 
 I2(ether) Equilibrium constant is K3

 structure?
The relation between K1, K2, K3 is (1) It has neither Cr – Cr bonds nor O – O bonds
(1) K3 = K1 + K2 (2) K3 = K1K2 (2) It has one Cr – Cr bond and six O – O bonds
(3) K3 = K1/K2 (4) K3 = K2/K1
(3) It has no Cr – Cr bond and has six O – O
Ans. (2) bonds
65. The geometry of electron pairs around I in IF5 is (4) It has one Cr – Cr bond and seven Cr – O
(1) Octahedral (2) Trigonal bipyramidal bonds

(3) Square pyramidal (4) Pentagonal planar Ans. (1)

Ans. (1) 71. Which reaction, with the following values of H,
S, at 400 K is spontaneous and endothermic?
66. Which statement is not correct?
(1) Rate of an exothermic reaction increases with (1) H = –48 kJ; S = + 135 J/K
temperature (2) H = –48 kJ; S = – 135 J/K
(2) Solubility of NaOH increases with temperature
(3) H = +48 kJ; S = + 135 J/K
(3) K P for N 2 (g) + 3H 2 (g) 
 2 NH 3 (g)
 (4) H = +48 kJ; S = – 135 J/K
increases with increase in pressure Ans. (3)
(4) For gaseous reaction 2B  AKP is smaller
72. The correct decreasing order of dipole moment in
than KC
CH3Cl, CH3Br and CH3F is
Ans. (3)
(1) CH3F > CH3Cl > CH3Br
67. Which change requires an oxidising agent?
(2) CH3F > CH3Br > CH3Cl
(1) 2S2 O32  
 S4 O6 (2) Zn 

 2 2


 Zn (3) CH3Cl > CH3F > CH3Br

(3) ClO 



 Cl

(4) SO3 

 2
 SO4 (4) CH3Cl > CH3Br > CH3F

Ans. (1) Ans. (3)

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73. Given exothermic reaction 79. Which is not the correct statement?


CoCl 24  (aq)  6H2 O(l)  2
 [Co(H2 O)6 ]  4Cl
 (1) The S8 ring is not planar

Which one of the following will decrease the (2) Oxygen is more electronegative than sulphur

equilibrium concentration of CoCl 24 ? (3) SF4 exists, but OF4 does not exist
(4) SO 3 and SO2– both have trigonal planar
(1) Addition of HCl 3
geometry
(2) Addition of Co(NO3)2
Ans. (4)
(3) The solution is diluted with water
80. Which can exist both as diastereoisomer and
(4) The temperature is increased
enantiomer?
Ans. (3)
(1) [Pt(en)3]4+ (2) [Pt(en)2ClBr]2+
74. Hydrogen is prepared from H2O by adding
(3) [Ru(NH3)4Cl2]0 (4) [PtCl2Br2]0
(1) Ca, which acts as reducing agent
Ans. (2)
(2) Al, which acts as oxidising agent
81. Number of isomeric forms (constitutional and
(3) Ag, which acts as reducing agent sterioisomers) for [Rh(en)2(NO2)(SCN)]+ are
(4) Au, which acts as oxidising agent
(1) Three (2) Six
Ans. (1)
(3) Nine (4) Twelve
75. For preparing a buffer solution of pH = 7.0, which
Ans. (4)
buffer system you will choose?
82. For transition metal octahedral complexes, the
(1) H3 PO4 , H2 PO4– (2) H2 PO4– , HPO42–
choice between high spin and low spin electronic
(3) HPO2– 3–
(4) H3 PO4 , PO43– configurations arises only for
4 , PO4

Ans. (2) (1) d1 to d3 complexes

76. Which element undergoes disproportionation in (2) d4 to d7 complexes
water? (3) d7 to d9 complexes
(1) Cl2 (2) F2 (4) d1, d2 and d8 complexes
(3) K (4) Cs Ans. (2)
Ans. (1) 83. For a chemical reaction of the type
77. Which one of the following species acts only as a A B, K = 2.0 and B C, K = 0.01
base?
Equilibrium constant for the reaction 2C 2A
(1) H2S (2) HS– is
(3) S2– (4) H2O (1) 25 (2) 50
Ans. (3) (3) 2500 (4) 4 × 10–4
78. For the following reaction Ans. (3)
C6H12O6(aq) + H2(g) C6H14O6(aq) 84. A chemical reaction proceeds into the following
steps
Which one of the following is not affected by the
Step I, 2A X fast
addition of catalyst?
Step II, X+B Y slow
(1) Rate of forward reaction
Step III, Y+B Product fast
(2) Rate of backward reaction
The rate law for the overall reaction is
(3) Time required to reach the equilibrium
(1) Rate = k[A]2 (2) Rate = k[B]2
(4) Spontaneity
(3) Rate = k[A][B] (4) Rate = k[A]2[B]
Ans. (4)
Ans. (4)
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85. A solution is 0.1 M with respect to Ag+, Ca2+, Mg2+ 90. Monobromination of 2-methylbutane gives how
and Al 3+ which will precipitate at lowest many distinct isomers?
concentration of [PO3–
4 ]
when solution of Na3PO4 (1) One (2) Two
is added?
(3) Three (4) Four
(1) Ag3PO4(Ksp = 1 × 10–6)
Ans. (4)
(2) Ca3(PO4)2(Ksp = 1 × 10–33)
91. -(D) glucose (D) glucose, equilibrium
(3) Mg3(PO4)2(Ksp = 1 × 10–24)
constant for this is 1.8. The percentage of -(D)
(4) AlPO4(Ksp = 1 × 10–20) glucose at equilibrium is
Ans. (4)
(1) 35.7 (2) 55.6
86. In Tollen’s test, aldehydes
(3) 44.4 (4) 64.3
(1) Are oxidised to acids
Ans. (1)
(2) Are reduced to alcohol
(3) Neither reduced nor oxidised 92. Equal weights of CH4 and H2 are mixed in a
container at 25°C. Fraction of total pressure
(4) Precipitate Ag+ as AgCl
exerted by methane is
Ans. (1)
1 1
87. The half life time of 2g sample of radioactive (1) (2)
2 3
nuclide ‘X’ is 15 min. The half life time of 1g
sample of X is 1 8
(3) (4)
(1) 7.5 min (2) 15 min 9 9
(3) 22.5 min (4) 30 min Ans. (3)
Ans. (2) 93. In which one of the given formulae of xenon
88. Given a gas phase reaction compounds there are five -bonds and three -bonds
in it?
2A(g) + B(g) C(g) + D(g)
(1) XeFO (2) XeF2O2
Which one of the following changes will affect the
value of KC? (3) XeF3O2 (4) XeF2O3
(1) Addition of inert gas Ans. (4)
(2) Addition of catalyst 94. More acidic than ethanol is
(3) Addition of reactants
(1) CH3CH2CH2CH2CH2CH2CH2CH3
(4) Increasing in temperature
(2) CH3CO2CH2CH3
Ans. (4)
(3) CH3COCH2COCH3
89. Lowest pKa is associated with
COOH (4) CH3COCH3

(1) Ans. (3)

95. Of the following compounds, the oxime of which
shows geometrical isomerism, is
COOH
(1) Acetone (2) Diethylketone
(2)
(3) Formaldehyde (4) Benzaldehyde
CH3
Ans. (4)
COOH
96. Decreasing order of reactivity of hydrogen halide
(3) acids in the conversion of ROH  RX is
Br
(1) HCl > HBr > HI > HF
COOH
(2) HI > HBr > HCl > HF
(4) (3) HF > HCl > HBr > HI
OCH3 (4) HF > HBr > HI > HCl
Ans. (3) Ans. (2)

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97. Which is correct statement? 103. When there are two haploid nuclei per cell in some
fungi before the formation of diploid, this stage is
(1) o-Nitrobenzoic acid is stronger than 3, 5
called
dinitrobenzoic acid in H2O
(2) Branched carboxylic acids are more acidic than (1) Diplotene (2) Diplophase
unbranched acids (3) Dikaryophase (4) Dikaryote
OMe Ans. (3)

(3) is stronger acid than 104. In blood group typing in human, if an allele
COOH contributed by one parent is IA and an allele
contributed by the other parent is i, the resulting
OH blood group of the offspring will be
(1) A (2) B
COOH
(4) Butanoic acid is stronger acid than succinic (3) AB (4) O
acid Ans. (1)
Ans. (1) 105. A population growing in a habitat with limited
98. Maximum efficiency of a commercial refrigerator resources shows four phases of growth in the
which operates between –10° (inside temperature) following sequence
and 25°C (outside temperature) is
(1) Acceleration – deceleration – lag phase –
(1) 13.3% (2) 11.45% asymptote
(3) 24.75% (4) 20% (2) Asymptote – acceleration – deceleration – lag
Ans. (2) phase
99. 1 × 10–3 m solution of Pt(NH3)4Cl4 in H2O shows (3) Lag phase – acceleration – deceleration –
depression in freezing point by 0.0054°C. The asymptote
structure of the compound will be (Given Kf p(H2O) (4) Acceleration – lag phase – deceleration –
= 1.860 km–1) asymptote
(1) [Pt(NH3)4]Cl4 (2) [Pt(NH3)3Cl]Cl3 Ans. (3)
(3) [Pt(NH3)2Cl2]Cl2 (4) Pt(NH3)Cl3]Cl 106. Necrosis in crops is due to the deficiency of
Ans. (3) (1) Ca, K, S and Mo (2) N, K, S and Mo
100. The typical range of molar enthalpies for the (3) N, S, Fe and Zn (4) Mg, S, Mn and Ca
strongest intermolecular (Hydrogen) bonds is
Ans. (1)
(1) 200 – 300 kJ (2) 300 – 500 kJ
(3) 4 – 25 kJ (4) 4 – 25 J 107. Presence of bundle sheath is a characteristic of

Ans. (3) (1) Xerophytic plants

101. The most important factor which determined the (2) Members of the grass family
increase in human population in India during the
(3) C4 plants
20th century
(1) Natality (2) Mortality (4) C3 plants

(3) Immigration (4) Emigration Ans. (3)

Ans. (1) 108. Which one of the following would not lead to
102. Vascular bundles in monocotyledons are considered formation of clones?
closed because (1) Double fertilization
(1) Xylem is surrounded all around by phloem (2) Apomixis
(2) There are no vessels with perforations
(3) Vegetative reproduction
(3) A bundle sheath surrounds each bundle
(4) Tissue culture
(4) There is no secondary growth
Ans. (4) Ans. (1)

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109. A plant species which has been exploited for the 116. A germplasm collection is a
production of Hirudin is
(1) Collection of specimens of all the species of an
(1) Brassica napus (2) Zea mays area in a herbarium or botanical garden
(3) Solanun nigrum (4) Oryza sativa (2) Collection of modern varieties of a crop
Ans. (1) (3) Collection of plants or seeds having diverse
110. The variation/difference in the offsprings of a alleles of all genes in a crop
species from their parents constitutes an important
(4) Collection of seeds or pollen of rare and
component of
threatened species of a group or area
(1) Genetics (2) Speciation
Ans. (3)
(3) Species fixation (4) Heredity
117. Walter Sutton is famous for his contribution to
Ans. (1)
(1) Genetic engineering
111. If two pea plants having red (dominant) coloured
flowers with unknown genotypes are crossed, 75% (2) Totipotency
of the flowers are red and 25% are white. The
(3) Quantitative genetics
genotypic constitution of the parents having red
coloured flowers will be (4) Chromosomal theory of inheritance
(1) Both homozygous Ans. (4)
(2) One homozygous and other heterozygous
118. The reaction, Amino acid + ATP  Aminoacyl-
(3) Both heterozygous AMP + P–P depicts
(4) Both hemizygous (1) Amino acid assimilation
Ans. (3) (2) Amino acid transformation
112. If the total amount of adenine and thymine in a (3) Amino acid activation
double-stranded DNA is 60%, the amount of
guanine in this DNA will be (4) Amino acid translocation
(1) 15% (2) 20% Ans. (3)
(3) 30% (4) 40% 119. The problem of blindness in poor countries can be
Ans. (2) taken care of by using the following

113. The protein products of the following Bt toxin (1) Golden rice (2) Transgenic tomato
genes cryIAc and cryIIAb are responsible for (3) Transgenic maize (4) Bt brinjal
controlling
Ans. (1)
(1) Bollworm (2) Roundworm
(3) Moth (4) Fruit fly 120. The transcription of any gene is the indication of
its
Ans. (1)
(1) Induction (2) Activity
114. In a flowering plant, the pollen tube first arrives
in (3) Stimulation (4) Hypersensitivity

(1) Egg (2) An antipodal cell Ans. (2)

(3) A synergid (4) Central cell 121. In C4 plants, the bundle sheath cells
Ans. (3) (1) Have thin walls to facilitate gaseous exchange
115. A peculiar odor that prevails in marshy areas and (2) Have large intercellular spaces
cow-sheds is on account of a gas produced by
(3) Are rich in PEP carboxylase
(1) Mycoplasma (2) Archaebacteria
(4) Have a high density of chloroplasts
(3) Slime moulds (4) Cyanobacteria
Ans. (2) Ans. (4)

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122. In root nodules of legumes, leg-haemoglobin is 128. A polygenic trait is controlled by 3 genes A, B and
important because it C. In a cross AaBbCc × AaBbCc, the phenotypic
ratio of the offsprings was observed as
(1) Transports oxygen to the root nodule
1 : 6 : x : 20 : x : 6 : 1
(2) Acts as an oxygen scavenger
What is the possible value of x?
(3) Provides energy to the nitrogen fixing
bacterium (1) 3 (2) 9
(4) Acts as a catalyst in transamination (3) 15 (4) 25
Ans. (2) Ans. (3)
123. Darwin judged the fitness of an individual by 129. A transgenic rice (Golden rice) has been developed
(1) Ability to defend itself for increased content of
(2) Strategy to obtain food (1) Vitamin A (2) Vitamin B1
(3) Number of offspring (3) Vitamin C (4) Vitamin D
(4) Dominance over other individuals Ans. (1)
Ans. (3) 130. When the conditions are dry, a grass leaf curls
124. Which of the following statements is wrong? inward to minimize water loss due to presence of

(1) Pollen grains remain viable for several months (1) Thick cuticle (2) Large xylem cavities
because their outer covering is made of
(3) Parallel venation (4) Bulliform cells
sporopollenin
(2) No enzyme can degrade sporopollenin Ans. (4)

(3) Pollen grains are well represented in fossil 131. Long, ribbon-like pollen grains are seen in some
strata due to sporopollenin (1) Aquatic plants
(4) Pollen wall has cavities containing proteins (2) Wind-pollinated grasses
Ans. (1)
(3) Gymnosperms
125. In plant biotechnology, PEG is used in
(4) Bird-pollinated flowers
(1) Protoplast isolation
Ans. (1)
(2) Cell culture preparation
132. At present the concentration of CO 2 in the
(3) Protoplast fusion
atmosphere is about
(4) Hardening
(1) 100 ppm (2) 240 ppm
Ans. (3)
(3) 380 ppm (4) 520 ppm
126. A regulatory body working under MoEF for the
release of transgenic crops is Ans. (3)
(1) NBPGR (2) GEAC 133. Littoral zone is located along the
(3) NSC (4) NIPGR (1) High mountains (2) Sea
Ans. (2)
(3) Rivers (4) Desert
127. Analogous structures are
Ans. (2)
(1) Anatomically different but performing similar
functions 134. Which of the following is used as a bioweapon?
(2) Anatomically similar but performing different (1) Bacillus subtilis
functions
(2) Bacillus licheniformis
(3) Anatomically similar and functioning similarly
(3) Bacillus thuringiensis
(4) Anatomically different and functioning
differently (4) Bacillus anthracis
Ans. (1) Ans. (4)

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135. The chromosome constitution 2n – 2 of an 141. Which of the following get accumulated in the
organism represents vacuoles of guard cells during stomatal opening?
(1) Monosomic (2) Nullisomic (1) Water, calcium and magnesium
(3) Haploid (4) Trisomic (2) Starch, potassium and chloride ions
Ans. (2) (3) Malate, sodium and potassium ions
136. Meristem culture is practised in horticulture to get (4) Malate, potassium and chloride ions
(1) Somaclonal variation Ans. (4)
(2) Haploids 142. Which of the following is the most accepted theory
(3) Virus-free plants for movement of water through plants?

(4) Slow-growing callus (1) Cohesion theory (2) Capilarity

Ans. (3) (3) Passive transport (4) Root pressure

137. Tendrils in plants are an example of Ans. (3)
(1) Convergent evolution 143. Scutellum in a caryopsis represents
(2) Adaptive radiation (1) Outermost layer of endosperm
(3) Divergent evolution (2) A sheath that protects the radicle
(4) Co-evolution (3) The place where the seed is attached to raphe
Ans. (1) (4) A cotyledon
138. Leghemoglobin is Ans. (4)
(1) An oxygen carrier in human blood 144. In an annual ring, the light coloured part is
(2) A protein used as food supplement known as

(3) An oxygen scavenger in root nodules (1) Early wood (2) Late wood

(4) A plant protein with high lysine content (3) Heartwood (4) Sapwood

Ans. (3) Ans. (1)

139. Stomatal opening is affected by 145. Natural cytokinins are synthesized in tissues that
are
(1) Nitrogen concentration, carbon dioxide
concentration and light (1) Senescent
(2) Carbon dioxide concentration, temperature and (2) Dividing rapidly
light
(3) Storing food material
(3) Nitrogen concentration, light and temperature
(4) Differentiating
(4) Carbon dioxide concentration, nitrogen
concentration and temperature Ans. (2)

Ans. (2) 146. Resemblance of one organism to another for

protection and hiding is
140. Taxonomic hierarchy refers to
(1) Mimicry (2) Predation
(1) Step-wise arrangement of all categories for
classification of plants and animals (3) Adaptation (4) Camouflage

(2) A group of senior taxonomists who decide the Ans. (1)

nomenclature of plants and animals 147. Spirochetes are
(3) A list of botanists or zoologists who have
(1) A class of insects (2) A class of viruses
worked on taxonomy of a species or group
(3) Bacteria (4) Fungi
(4) Classification of a species based on fossil record
Ans. (3)
Ans. (1)

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148. The metachromatic granules are 155. Somatostatin

(1) Present in plant cells at metaphase stage (1) Stimulates glucagon release while inhibits
insulin release
(2) Inclusion bodies in bacteria
(2) Stimulates release of insulin and glucagon
(3) Produced in insects during metamorphosis
(4) Chromatophores in animal skin (3) Inhibits release of insulin and glucagon

Ans. (2) (4) Inhibits glucagon release while stimulates

insulin release
149. The rough endoplasmic reticulum (RER) in the
cells are because of the presence of Ans. (3)

(1) Mitochondria associated with ER 156. Hiccups can be best described as:

(2) Ribosomes on the surface of ER (1) Forceful sudden expiration

(3) Volutin granules on the surface of ER (2) Jerky incomplete inspiration

(4) Sulphur granules on the surface of ER (3) Vibration of the soft palate during breathing
Ans. (2) (4) Sign of indigestion
150. Elaioplasts store Ans. (2)
(1) Starch (2) Proteins 157. ELISA assay
(3) Fats (4) Essential amino acids (1) Uses complement mediated cell lysis
Ans. (3) (2) Uses a radiolabelled second antibody
151. Aggregates of lymphoid tissue present in the distal (3) Involves addition of substrate which is
portion of the small intestine are know as converted into coloured end product
(1) Villi (2) Peyer's patches (4) Requires red blood cells
(3) Rugae (4) Choroid plexus Ans. (3)
Ans. (2) 158. "Complete competitors cannot coexist" is true for
152. Mendel's principle of segregation means that the (1) Character displacement
germ cells always receive
(2) Competitive exclusion
(1) One pair of alleles
(3) Primary succession
(2) One quarter of the genes
(4) Secondary succession
(3) One of the paired alleles
Ans. (2)
(4) Any pair of alleles
159. mRNA directs the building of proteins through a
Ans. (3) sequence of
153. Rotenone is a (1) Introns (2) Codons
(1) Bioherbicide (3) Exons (4) Anticodons
(2) Commonly used biofertilizer
Ans. (2)
(3) Bioinsecticide
160. Foramen ovale
(4) Juvenile hormone
(1) Connects the two atria in the fetal heart
Ans. (3)
(2) Is a condition in which the heart valves do not
154. Which of the following vitamins has some completely close
physiological effects similar to those of
(3) Is a shallow depression in the interventricular
parathormone?
septum
(1) Vitamin A (2) Vitamin D
(4) Is a connection between the pulmonary trunk
(3) Vitamin C (4) Vitamin B and the aorta in the fetus
Ans. (2) Ans. (1)

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 Premier Institute in India for Medical Entrance Exams.

161. Which of the following is a gram-negative 167. The most abundant molecule in cell is
bacterium?
(1) Water (2) Carbohydrate
(1) Escherichia coli (3) Lipid (4) Protein
(2) Bacillus subtilis Ans. (1)
(3) Streptomyces coelicolor 168. How many chromosomes will the cell have at G1,
after S and after M phase respectively, if it has 14
(4) Ampycolatopsis orientalis
chromosomes at interphase?
Ans. (1) (1) 14, 14, 7 (2) 14, 14, 14
162. What is meant by the term Darwin fitness? (3) 7, 7, 7 (4) 7, 14, 14
(1) The ability to survive and reproduce Ans. (2)
(2) High aggressiveness 169. The Golgi apparatus
(3) Healthy appearance (1) Is found only in animals
(4) Physical strength (2) Is found in prokaryotes

Ans. (1) (3) Is a site of rapid ATP production

(4) Modifies and packages proteins
163. Absence of one sex chromosome causes
Ans. (4)
(1) Turner's syndrome
170. Glycolysis
(2) Klinefelter's syndrome
(1) Takes place in the mitochondria
(3) Down's syndrome
(2) Produces no ATP
(4) Tay-Sach's syndrome (3) Has no connection with electron transport
chain
Ans. (1)
(4) Reduces two molecules of NAD+ for every
164. Comparing small and large cells, which statement
glucose molecule processed
is correct?
Ans. (4)
(1) Small cells have a small surface area per
volume ratio 171. Total number of all species of organisms in a given
region is known as the region's
(2) Exchange rate of nutrients is fast with large
(1) Biota (2) Flora
cells
(3) Fauna (4) Diversity
(3) Small cells have a large surface area per
volume ratio Ans. (4)
172. The arthropod exoskeleton is composed of
(4) Exchange rate of nutrients is slow with small
cells (1) Several kinds of polysaccharides
Ans. (3) (2) Layers of proteins and a polysaccharide called
chitin
165. Which one of the following animals shows
discontinuous distribution? (3) Several kinds of proteins
(4) Single complex protein called arthropodin
(1) Green muscles (2) Bats
Ans. (2)
(3) Lung fishes (4) Pacific salmons
173. Which of the following groups is absolutely
Ans. (3) essential functional component of the ecosystem?
166. The number of autosomes in human primary (1) Producers
spermatocyte is
(2) Producers and herbivores
(1) 46 (2) 44
(3) Producers and detritivores
(3) 23 (4) 22 (4) Detritivores
Ans. (2) Ans. (3)

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174. Phagocytosis and pinocytosis are collectively 181. Chimera is produced due to
termed as
(1) Somatic mutations (2) Reverse Mutations
(1) Endocytosis (2) Suspension feeding
(3) Lethal mutations (4) Pleiotropic mutations
(3) Omnivores (4) Mucous trap
Ans. (1)
Ans. (1)
182. Maltose gives rise to 2 molecules of
175. PCR proceeds in three distinct steps governed by
temperature, they are in order of (1) Fructose (2) Lactose

(1) Denaturation, Annealing, Synthesis (3) Glucose (4) Sucrose

(2) Synthesis, Annealing, Denaturation Ans. (3)

(3) Annealing, Synthesis, Denaturation 183. In a lake, phytoplankton grow in abundance in

(4) Denaturation, Synthesis, Annealing (1) Littoral zone (2) Limnetic zone

Ans. (1) (3) Profundal zone (4) Benthic region

176. Corpus luteum releases Ans. (2)

(1) Estrogen 184. Sigmoid growth curve is represented by

(2) Progesterone (1) dN/dt = rN
(3) Estrogen and progesterone (2) dN/dt = rN (1 – N/K)
(4) Androgen (3) Nt = No + B + I – D – E
Ans. (3) (4) dN/dt = 1 – N/K
177. Which of the following organs is devoid of glands? Ans. (2)
(1) Uterus (2) Vagina 185. Beadle and Tatum showed that each kind of
mutant bread mould they studied lacked a specific
(3) Vulva (4) Oviduct
enzyme. Their experiments demonstrated that
Ans. (2)
(1) Cells need specific enzymes in order to function
178. Primary spermatocyte differs from
(2) Genes are made of DNA
spermatogonium in
(1) Number of chromosomes (3) Genes carry information for making proteins

(2) Size and volume (4) Enzymes are required to repair damaged DNA
information
(3) DNA content
Ans. (3)
(4) Size of chromosomes
186. DNA has equal number of adenine and thymine
Ans. (2) residues (A = T) and equal number of guanine and
179. In human, cleavage divisions are cytosine (G = C). These relationships are known as

(1) Slow and synchronous (1) Chargaff's rule

(2) Fast and synchronous (2) Coulomb's law

(3) Slow and asynchronous (3) Le Chatelier's principle

(4) Fast and asynchronous (4) Van't Hoff plot

Ans. (3) Ans. (1)

180. The basic unit of study in Ecology is 187. 'Balancing selection' promotes

(1) Population (2) Organism (1) Homozygotes (2) Heterozygotes

(3) Community (4) Species (3) Polyploids (4) Recessive traits

Ans. (2) Ans. (2)

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188. Vomitting centre is located in the 195. Graveyard in RBCs is

(1) Medulla oblongata (1) Liver (2) Spleen
(2) Stomach and sometimes in duodenum
(3) Kidney (4) Lymph glands
(3) GI tract
Ans. (2)
(4) Hypothalamus
Ans. (1) 196. Blood cells involved in inflammatory reactions are
189. How many bio-geographical regions are present in (1) Basophils (2) Neutrophils
India?
(3) Eosinophils (4) Monocytes
(1) 3 (2) 4
(3) 7 (4) 10 Ans. (1)
Ans. (4) 197. To obtain a standard ECG, a patient is connected
190. Vital stains are employed to study to the machine with three electrodes
(1) Living cells (2) Frozen tissues (1) One to each wrist and to the left ankle
(3) Fresh tissues (4) Preserved tissues (2) One to each ankle and to the left wrist
Ans. (1)
(3) One to each wrist and to the left chest region
191. Which of the following organs in earthworm
neutralizes humic acid present in humus? (4) One to each ankle and to the left chest region
(1) Typhosole (2) Calciferous glands Ans. (1)
(3) Intestinal caecum (4) Gizzard
198. The clavicle articulates with ____ of scapula
Ans. (2)
(1) Acromion process (2) Glenoid cavity
192. Fertilized eggs of P. americana are encased in
(1) Ootheca (2) Cocoon (3) Acetabulum cavity (4) Ball and socket joint
(3) Genital chamber (4) Phallomere Ans. (1)
Ans. (1) 199. The age of pyramid with broad base indicates
193. Insufficient quantities of antidiuretic hormone in
blood lead to (1) High percentage of young individuals

(1) Diabetes mellitus (2) Glycosuria (2) Low percentage of young individuals
(3) Diabetes insipidus (4) Uremia (3) High percentage of old individuals
Ans. (3)
(4) Low percentage of old individuals
194. Sphincter of Oddi guards
Ans. (1)
(1) Hepato-pancreatic duct
(2) Common bile duct 200. Thymosin hormone is secreted by
(3) Pancreatic duct (1) Thyroid gland (2) Parathyroid gland
(4) Cystic duct (3) Thymus gland (4) Hypothalamus
Ans. (1)
Ans. (3)



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