GPAT 15 P'cology

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A GLIMPSE ON MCQ OF stu
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PHARMACOLOGY
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TEST ON PHARMACOLOGY
Q1. Histamine is mainly involv ed in which type of allergic reactions?
a. Type 1 b. Type 2 c. Type 3 d. Type 4
m
Q2. Which of the following is antihistaminic, anticholinergic and 5HT a ntagonist?
a. Cinnarizine
o
b. Cyprohetadine
c. Mepyramine
f.c
d. Both a & b
Q3. N-acetylcysteine is used in the poisoning of which NASID?
stu
a. Aspirin
b. Indomethcin
c. Paracetamol
d. Sulindac m
Q4. Paracetamol is detoxified by
a. Glucuronide conjugation
ar
b. Glutathione conjugation
c. Glycine conjugation
d. Sulphate conjugation
ph
Q5. Which of the following is prodrug & converted to sulfide active metabolite?
a. Phenacetin
.b
b. Sulindac
c. Indomethacin
d. Nabumetone
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2. Indomethacin b. Ocular inflammation
3. Flurbiprofen c. Post-operative pain

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Q6. Match the following
1. Ketorolac a. Angina
4. Aspirin d. Ductus arteriosus
Q7. Lefluomide an anti rheumatoid drug inhibits
a. Thymidylate synthtase
b. Aldehyde dehydrogenase
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c. Nuclear receptor activation

d. Dihydro-orotate dehydrogenase
Q8. Which of the following is uricosuric agent?
a. Allopurinol
m
b. Probenecid
c. Colchicine
d. Diclofenac
o
Q9. Identify the false statement about Allopurinol
f.c
a. Allopurinol is an analogue of hypoxanthine
b. Allopurinol is converted to alloxanthine by xanthine oxidase
c. Allopurinol increases uric acid excretion
stu
d. Used as prophylactic as the drug of choice in the long-term treatment of gout, but it is ineffective
in the
treatment of an acute attack and may even exacerbate the inflammation.
Q10. Identify the drug choice for acute gout attack?

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a. Allopurinol
b. Probenecid
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c. Colchicine
d. Diclofenac & Colchicine
ph
1. Allopurinol a. Increases uric acid excretion

.b
2. Sulfinpyrazone b. Inhibits uric acid synthesis

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3. Colchicine c. Prevents migration of neutrophils in to the joint,

by binding to tubulin, resultin g in the
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depolymerisation of the microtubules and reduced

cell motility.
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Q12. All of the following are the roles of histamine except?
a. It increases appetite
b. It produces sensation of itch
c. Causes bronchoconstriction
d. Increases gastric acid secretion
Q13. Antihistaminic used to increase appetite in underweight children is
a. Cetrizine
b. Loratidine
c. Loxatidine
d. Buclizine
Q14. The active metabolite of Terfenadine is
m
a. Loratidine
b. Fexofenadine
o
c. Triprolidine
d. Alfaprolidine
f.c
Q15. Cetrizine is a active metabolite of
a. Hydroxyzine
stu
b. Promethazine
c. Cimetidine
d. Cinnarizine
Q16. Eicosanoids includes

m
a. Prostaglandins
b. Leukotrienes
ar
c. Thromboxane
d. All
ph
Q17. In LTB 4 the subscript ‘4’ indicates
a. No. of double bonds

.b
b. No. of conjugated doub les bonds

c. No. of alkyl substitutions
d. No. of halogens
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Q18. Platelets primarily synthesize

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a. TXA
2
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b. PGI
2
c. LTB
4
d. Histamine
Q19. Endothelium mainly generates

a. PGG
2
b. PGI
2
c. PAF
d. PGF
m
2a
Q20. All NASIDS are reversible inhibitors of cyclo oxygenase except
o
a. Aspirin
f.c
b. Indomethacin
c. Celecoxib
d. Paracetamol
stu
Q21. N-acetyl-P-benzoquinoneimine is highly reactive heapatotoxic metabolite is of
a. Aspirin
b. Indomethacin
c. Paracetamol
d. Ibuprofen
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Q22. All of the following have arrhythmic potential by prolonging QTC interval except
ar
a. Loratadine
b. Astemizole
ph
c. Terfenadine
d. Ebastine
Q23. Misoprostol is used to prevent

.b
a. Peptic ulcer
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b. Post partum haemorrhage

c. Glaucoma
d. Threatened abortion
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Q24. NASID used for ocular inflammation

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a. Ibuprofen
b. Piroxicam
c. Nimesulide
d. Flurbiprofen

Q25. NASIDS can inhibit the production of all except
a. PGI
2
b. Cyclic Endoperoxides
c. TX
2
d. Leukotrienes
Q26. Histamine is biosynthesized from decarboxylation of
m
a. Tryptophan
b. Tyrosine
o
c. Histidine
d. Phenylalanine
f.c
Q27. Serotonin is biosynthesized from
a. Tryptophan
stu
b. Tyrosine
c. Histidine
d. Phenylalanine

m
1. PGI a. Chemostatic agent for Neutrophils & macrophages
2
ar
2. TXA b. Platelet aggregation
2
ph
3.PGG2&PGH2(Endoperoxides)c.Vasodilation 4.PGE
d. Inhibition of gastric acid secretion
2
5. LTB e. Proaggregatory
.b
4
6. PGF f. Uterus contraction
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Q29. Which of the following is not a vasodilator?

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a. PGE
2
b. PGI
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2
c. PGD
2
d. PGF
2a
o m
f.c
stu
m
ar
1. Misoprostol a. Induce labour
2. Latanoprost b. Ulcer protective

ph
3. Dinoprostone c. Glaucoma
4. Carboprost d. Control postpartum hemorrhage
.b
5. Epoprostenol e. Inhibit platelet aggregation
Q31. Match the following H1 antagonist for their clinical uses

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1. Cyprohetadine a. Motion sickness

2. Hydroxyzine b. Mild hypnotic
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3. Diphenhydramine c. Treat anxiety

4. Promethazine d. Used in migraine
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5. Buclizine e. Appetite stimulating
Q32. Which of the following drug have local anesthetic effect also?
a. Promethazine
b. Mepyramine
c. Diphenhydramine
d. Loratidine
Q33. Which of the following anti gout drug also inhibits platelet aggregation?
a. Colchicine
b. Sulfinpyrazone
c. Diclofenac
d. Allopurinol
m
o
1. Sumatriptan a. 5HT agonist (used in migraine)
1
f.c
2. Ketanserin b. 5HT antagonist (anticancer induced vomiting)
3
3. Ondansteron c. 5HT agon ist (prokinetic drug)
4
stu
4. Cisapride d. 5HT antagonist (prevent platelet aggregation)
2
Q35. An antidiabetic drug Piogliazone used in Type 2 diabetes acts by

a. Decrease of glucose uptake in muscles
b. Increasing insulin sensitivity
m
c. Inhibiting intestinal a-glucosidase
d. Stimulating insulin secretion
ar
ph
.b
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Q36. An angiotensin-II receptor blocker useful in treating hypertension is
m
a. Enalaprilat
b. Valsartan
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c. Atenolol
d. Amiodipine
f.c
Q37. Co-administration of NSAIDs with Warfarin may often lead to
a. Antag on istic interaction
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b. Interaction to change in drug transpo rt
c. Interaction due to disturbances in electrolyte b alance
d. Additive o r synergistic interaction
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Q38. A novel diterpenoid isolated from the bark of Taxus brevifolia is
a. Demecolcine
b. Paclitaxel
ar
c. Vinblastin
d. Brevifolicin
ph
Q39. A patient with rheumato id arthritis has been taking acetyl salicylic acid regularly.
However, recently
she has been experiencing stiffness, swelling and pain due to salicylate resistance. She ha s
.b
occult blood in her

faeces. Suggest an appropriate drug suitable for her from those mentioned below:
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a. Paracetamol
b. Celecoxib
c. Piroxicam
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d. Naproxen
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Q40. The break down of fibrin is catalyzed by

a. Plasmin
b. Renin
c. Urokinase
d. Ptylin
Q41. Azithromycin is clinically administered once daily as compared to erythromycin which is

administered
every 6 hours because, azithromycin
a. Penetrates into most tissues and is released very slowly.
m
b. Has methylated nitrogen in its lactone ring which renders it much more potent than erythromycin.
c. Is a very potent antibiotic but not tolerated well in the gastro intestinal tract.
d. Is usually presented in a sustained release dosage form.
o
f.c
Q42. Effects of fibrates on blood lipids are mediated by
a. Inhibiting both synthesis and esterification of fatty acids
b. Their interaction with peroxisome proliferators-activated receptors (PPARs)
c. Reducing the conversion of HMG-CoA to mevalonate
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d. Sequestering bile acids
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ar
ph
.b
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Q43. A patient showing muscle rigidity, bradykinesia, tremors and postural instability was
administered levo-
dopa. Which of the properties of levo-dopa is not true?
m
a. Levo-dopa is preferred over do pamine because it can cross the blood brain barrier.
b. Levo-dopa is the levorotatory stereoisomer of 3, 4-dihydroxy p henylalanine.
c. Levo-dopa gets decarboxylated in the brain to dopamine.
o
d. Levo-dopa is administered because of its strong antagonistic action on dopamine receptors.
f.c
Q44. A Cardioselective beta blocker with vasodilating properties is
a. Pindolol
b. Atenolol
c. Bisoprolol
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d. Nebivolol
Q45. A Chinese tree Camptotheca acuminate is useful in cancer chemotherapy. The

camptothecin present in
the plant and useful in treating ovarian cancer is
a. Etoposide
m
b. Vincristine
c. Paclitaxel
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d. Topotecan
Q46. The drug selected above acts by
a. Inhibiting topoisomerase I
ph
a. Inhibiting topoiso merase II

b. Inhibiting thymidylate synthase
c. Forming hydrogen peroxide which generates free radicals
Q47. Acute migraine is treated with
.b
a. Prazosin
b. Formeterol
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c. Sumatriptan
d. Dopamine
Q48. The drug chosen above is an agonist of
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a. a adrenoceptor
1
b. a adrenoceptor
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2
c. M receptor
3
d. 5 HT receptor

Q50. Increased risk of atherosclerosis is associated with decreased serum levels of
a. LDL
b. HDL
c. Triglycerides
d. VLDL
m
Q51. An inorganic ion which is used prophylactically in bipolar depression is
a. Valproate
b. Lithium
o
c. Chromiu m
d. Valium
f.c
Q52. Autoimmunity refers to
a. an automatic trigger of the immune system directed against a specific pathogen.
b. failure to distinguish between self and non-self
c. an automatic segregation of T and B cells.
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d. failure of B-cells to interact with T-cells.
Q53. Antihypoprothrombinemic effect of one stereochemical form is two to five times more than
others
a. (S)-(+)- Warfarin
b. R-(+)- Warfarin
c. (S)-(-)- Warfarin
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d. (RS)- Warfarin
Q54. Intermediates in the biosynthesis of cholesterol are
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a. Mevalonic acid and isopentenyl pyrophosphate
b. Mevalonic acid and aldosterone
c. Isoprenaline and aldosterone
ph
d. Isoprenaline and isopentenyl phosphate

Q55. A drug which has antipyretic, anti-inflammatroy and antiplatelet activity is
a. Sulfinpyrazone
b. Aspirin
.b
c. Ticlopidine
d. Acetaminophen
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Q56. Metoclopramide is generally used for

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a. Prophylaxis of vomiting
b. Preventing motion sickness
c. Treating irritable bowel syndrome
d. Treatment of pancreatic insufficiency
Q57. Sulphonamides do not have adverse drug interaction with
a. Oral anticoagulants
b. Sulfonylurea hypoglycemic agents
c. Hydantoin anticonvulsants
d. Dihydrofolate reductase inhibitors
Q58. Simvastatin belongs to

a. HMG CoA reductase inhibitor type of an tilipidemic agents
b. HMG CoA reductase inhibitor type of anticoagulant agents
m
c. Fibrate type of anticoagulant agents
d. Fibrate type of antilipidemic agents
Q59. HIV infection can be clinically controlled with
o
a. Cytarabine
b. Acyclovir
f.c
c. Zidovudine
d. Amantadine
Q60. The drug which increases the plasma concentration of digoxin by a pharmacokinetic
mechanism is
stu
a. Lidocaine
b. Captopril
c. Quinidine
d. Hydrochlorthiazide
Q61. An NMDA antagonist introduced for treatment of Alzheimer’s disease is
a. Dopamine
m
b. Nor-epinephrine
c. Serotonin
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d. Memantine
Q62. Interleukins are
a. Polypeptide cytokines important in the inflammatory cascade
ph
b. Prostaglandins that account for gastrointestinal disorders

c. Enkephalins which are specific for asthma
d. Dipeptides which have antimicrobial properties
.b
Q63. Drug Mechanism of action is by inhibition of

P. Levofloxacin 1. DNA dependent RNA polymerase
w
Q. Caspofungin 2. Topoisomerase II (DNA gyrase) the enzyme

R. Aztreonam 3. The synthesis of b(1-2) glycan
S. Rifabutin 4. Cell wall synthesis preferentially binding to a
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specific penicillin binding protein

A) P-2,Q-3,R-4,S-1 (B) P-3,Q-4,R-1,S-2 (C) P-4,Q-1,R-2,S-3 (D) P-1,Q-2,R-3,S-4
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Q64. Drug Receptor agonist/antagonist

P. Granisetron 1. ß adrenergic receptor antagonist
1
Q. Pirenzepine 2. GABA agonist

R. Acebutalol 3. 5HT antagonist
3
S. Baclofen 4. M antagonist
1
(A) P-1,Q-2,R-3,S-4 (B) P-3,Q-4,R-1,S-2 (C) P-2,Q-3,R-4,S-1 (D) P-4,Q-1,R-2,S-3
Q65. Mechanism of action

(P) Digitoxin 1. Produces negative inotropic effect by blocking calcium channels
(Q) Dobutamine 2. Depresses adrenergically enhanced calcium influx through beta receptor
blockade
m
(R) Sotalol 3. Causes elevation of cAMP levels by stimu lation of adenylate cyclase.
(S) Nicardipine 4. Inhibits membrane bound sodium potassium ATPase pump.
o
a. P-4Q-3R-2S-1
b. P-3Q-4R-1S-2
f.c
c. P-4Q-2R-3S-1
d. P-4Q-3R-1S-2
Q66. The alkaloid which inhibits the cholinesterase undergoes hydrolysis in solution to give
methyl carbamic
stu
acid and eseroline is:
a. Scopolamine
b. Pyridostigmine
c. Neostigmine
d. Physostigmine
m
Q67. A natural product derivative developed as an antimalarial is
a. Artemether
b. Paludrine
ar
c. Pyrimethamine
d. Halofantrine
ph
Q68. An anticholinesterase which is useful in Alzheimer’s disease is

a. Arecoline
b. Donepezil
.b
c. Isoproterenol
d. Clioquinol
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Q69. A drug used as an ophthalmic solution in Herpes kera titis is

a. Zalcitabine
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b. Trifluridine
c. Ritonavir
d. Stavudine
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Q70. A macrolide antibiotic used as a powerful immunosuppressive agent is:

a. Erythromycin
b. Azithromycin
c. Tacrolimus
d. Clarithromycin
Q71. Cytosine arabinoside acts on this phase of the cell cycle

a. G1
b. G2
c. M
d. S
Q72. Trimethoprim has an advantage over Methotrexate in its therapeutic category because
a. Trimethoprim binds to bacterial DHFR about 50,000 times more strongly as compared to the host
DHFR.
m
b. Trimethoprim can be administered orally.
c. Trimethoprim exhibits no significant adv erse effects.
d. Trimethoprim has additional anti-inflammatory properties.
o
Q73. Methotrexate is thought to exert its action by
a. Interfering with purine synthetase.
f.c
b. Intracellular formation of an amine adducts.
c. Forming a conjugate with nucleic acids.
d. Inhibiting the synthesis of folic acid.
stu
Q74. A person taking organic nitrate has to avoid one of the following drugs as it can cause
severe hypotension
m
a. Aspirin
ar
b. Cholestyramine
c. Warfarin
d. Sildenafil
ph
Q75. To avoid lithium toxicity, a patient using lithium carbonate for mood disorders should not
be prescribed
a. Acetazolamide
b. Hydrochlorothiazide
.b
c. Mannitol
d. Propranolol
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Q76. A selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor used as an antidepressant is

a. Venlafaxine
b. Selegilin e
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c. Phenelzine
d. Amoxapine
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Q77. A patient receiving Digoxin for CCF is found to have elevated serum cholesterol. Which
hypolipidemic
agent should not be prescribed?
a. Clofibrate
b. Cholestyramine
c. Lovastatin
d. Niacin
Q78. Famotidine acts as
a. H — h istamine antagonist
1
b. H — h istamine antagonist
2
c. Proton pump inhibitor
d. H agon ist
1
m
Q79. Two of the following attributes are true for describing the mechanism of action of
Thiabendazole.
o
P. Neuromuscular blocking causing spastic paralysis
Q. Blocks the response of the Ascaris muscle to ACH, causing flaccid paralysis in the worms
f.c
R. Inhibits the Helminthes specific enzyme fumarate reductase
S. Arrest nematode cell divisions in metaphase by interfering with microtubule assembly
(A) P, Q (B) R, S (C) Q, S (D)Q, R
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Q80. Insulin when released from the pancreatic ß cells
P. Can sequester blood glucose by forming a complex with it.
Q. Gets fully conjugated with glucuronic acid immediately, to be released upon suitable stimuli in
normal health.
R. Acts on the transporter molecules to facilitate glucose movement across the cell membranes.
m
S. Increases storage of glucose to glycogen in the liver.
(A) P, R (B) R, S (C) P. S (D) Q, S
ar
Q81. Zafirlukast acts as
a. adrenoceptor agonist
b. Cysteinyl-leukotriene receptor antagonist
ph
c. muscarinic receptor antagonist

d. Antihistamine
Q82. Warfarin interacts with this antiasthmatic drug and increases prothrombin time
a. Budesonide
.b
b. Zafirlukast
c. Salmeterol
d. Bambuterol
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Q83. HMG-Co A reductase, a key enzyme in the pathway, catalyzes

w
a. Side chain cleavage in the conversion of cholesterol to steroid hormones

b. The reduction of the thio-ester group to an alcohol in mevalonate biosynthesis.
c. The reduction of the hydroxyl group of mevalonate to Vitamin D.
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d. Steroid condensation reaction in the biosynthesis of bile acids.

Q84. T he inhibition of HMG-C0A Reductase is a strategy used in the treatment of
a. Familia hypercholesterolemia
b. Vitamin K deficiency
c. Inflammation in the join ts
d. Hepatic parenchymal disease
LINKED QUESTIONS
Q85. The attributes of cycloserine are

(P) No tautomerism shown.
(Q) Exists in equilibrium with its tautomeric enolic form.
(R) Stable in alkaline solution, destroyed rapidly at neutral or acidic pH.
(S) Stable in neutral solution, destroyed in alkaline pH.
m
(A) R, S (B) P, Q (C) Q, R (D) P, R
Q86. Compared to benzyl penicillin, amoxicillin has the following advantages in biological
o
properties.
(P) The amino group renders the antibiotic resistant to acid catalysed degradation.
f.c
(Q) The spectrum of acidity is broadened.
(R) The amino group of renders penicillinase resistance to the compound.
(S) The phenolic group renders penicillinase resistance to the compound.
(A) P, Q (B) P, R (C) P. S (D) Q, R
stu
Q87. The drug disulfiram is
P. k nown to inhibit dopamine ß-hydroxylase and cause noradrenaline depletion
Q. a substance that produces aversive reaction to alcohol
R. known to stimulate dopamine ß-hydroxylase
S. used in barbiturate poisoning
m
(A) P, S (B) Q, R (C) R, S (D) P, Q
ar
Q88. Two important attributes associated with L- asparaginase
P: an enzyme obtained from E.Coli and is administered paranterally
Q: an enzyme obtained from Streptococcus caespitosus and is administered orally
ph
R: used in acute lymphocytic leukemia

S: used as fibrinolytic
(A) P, S (B) P, R (C) Q, R (D) Q, S
.b
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Q89. Amikacin is
P a semisynthetic aminoglycoside and a derivative of kanamycin
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Q a semisynthetic aminoglycoside and a derivative of tobramycin

R it is administered parenterally and does not cause nephrotoxicity and ototoxicity
S it is administered parenterally and is both nephrotoxic and ototoxicity
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(A) P, Q (B) P, R (C) P, S (D) Q, S
Q90. Tenoposide is a natural product used for the management of certain diseases. It is derived
form
a. Flavonolignans form Silybum marianum
b. Lignans from Podophyllum peltatum
c. Lignans from Schizandra chinensis
d. Neolignans from Piper futokadsura
Q91. Tenoposide is used in the management of
a. Candidiasis
b. Trypanosomiasis
c. Cardiac arrhythmia
d. Acute leukemia in children
Q92. The selective COX-2 inhibitor is
a. Ketorolac
m
b. Rofecoxib
c. Indomethacin
d. Naproxen
o
Q93.The drug selected is not to be given, if the patient is already taking
a. Antiallergic drugs
f.c
b. Anxiolytic drugs
c. Antihypertensiv e drugs
d. Oral antidiabetic agents
Q94. Opioids have all actions excluded
stu
a. Analgesic
b. Antitussive
c. Antidiarrhoeal
d. Anti-inflammatory
m
Q95. The metabolite of spironolactone is
a. Aldosterone
ar
b. Canrenone
ph
c. Corticosterone
d. Pregnenolone
.b
Q96. The drug which cause pink to brownish skin pigmentation within a few weeks of the
intiation of therapy
w
is
a. Itraconazole
b. Clofazimine
w
c. Lomefloxacin
d. Neomycin
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Q97. The risk of digitalis toxicity is significantly increased by concomitant administration of
a. Triamterene
b. Lidocaine
c. Captopril
d. Hydrochlorothiazide
Q98. A agent used in Prinzmetal angina has spasmolytic action which increases coronary blood
flow
a. Nitroglycerine
b. Nifedipine
c. Timolol
d. Isosorbide mononitrate
m
Q99. Isoniazid is primary antitubercular agent that
o
a. Requires pyridoxine supplementation
b. Causes ocular complications
f.c
c. Is ototoxic and nephrotoxic
d. Should never be used due to heapatotoxic potential
stu
Q100. Decreased risk of atherosclerosis is associated with increase in
a. VLDL
m
b. LDL
c. HDL
ar
d. IDL
Q101. Mechanism of paclitexel is

ph
a. Inhibits microtubule formation

b. Prolongs microtubule formation
c. Inhibits DNA topoisomerase II
.b
d. Produce superoxide radicals which results in scission of DNA

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Q102. Which of the following drug is having weak disulfiram like action?
a. Dacarbazine
b. Procarbazine
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c. Methotrexate
d. Hydroxy urea
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Q103. Which of the following is pyrimidine antagonist?

a. 6-mercapto purine
b. Methotrexate
c. 5-Flurouracil
d. 6-Thioguanine
Q104. Which of the drug is having immunomodulatory action?
a. Thiabendazole
b. Levimisole
c. Pyrantel
d. Ivermectin
Q105. Which drug act on GABA-mediated receptors and cause hyper polarization?
a. Praziqu antel
b. Mebendazole
m
c. Ivermectin
d. Albendazole
o
Q106. Carbidopa is used because
f.c
a. It crosses BBB
b. It inhibits MAO-A
c. It inhibits MAO-B
d. It inhibits aromatic L-amino acid decarboxylase
stu
Q107. The unwanted effect of L-DOPA is
a. Dementia
b. Hypertension
c. Dyskinesia
m
ar
d. Heapatotoxic
ph
Q108. The thrombolytic agent used is
a. Heparin
.b
b. Warfarin
c. Anistreplase
w
d. Vitamin K
Q109. Mechanism f action of aspirin is

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a. Inhibits vitamin K metabolism

b. Antithrombin activity
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c. Inhibits heparin metabolism

d. Inhibits platelet aggregation
Q110. Mechanism of anti thrombotic agent is
a. Conversion of plasminogen to plasmin

b. Inhibits plate function
c. Activation of clotting factors
d. Vitamin K agonist
Q111. Match each drug with the statement that best describes its mode of action:
m
1. Niacin a. Binds bile acid s in the intestine, thus preventing their return to the liver via
the enterohepatic circulation.
o
2. Clofibrate b. Causes a decrease in plasma triacylglycerol levels by increasing the activity of
f.c
lipoprotein lipase via PPAR-a stimulation
3. Cholestyramine c. Causes a decrease in liver triacylglycerol synthesis by limiting available free

fatty acids
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needed as building blocks for this pathway.
4. Probucol d. Inhibits 3-hydroxy-3-methylglutaryl CoA reductase, the rate-limiting step in

m
cholesterol synthesis.
5. Lovastatin e. Antioxidant and prevent the formation of foam cell due to engulf of oxidised
ar
lipids by macrophages
ph
Q112. All of the following produce a significant decrease in peripheral resistance except:
a. hydralazine
b. ß-blockers
.b
c. ACE inhibitors
d. Clonidine
w
Q113. Which one of the following drugs acts at central presynaptic a receptors?
2
w
a. Minoxidil
b. Verapamil
w
c. Clonidine
d. Enalapril
Q114. Which one of the following antihypertensives is most likely to cause reflex
tachycardia?
a. Propranolol
b. Prazosin
c. Hydralazine
d. Captopril
Q115. From the list of antihypertensive drugs below select the one most likely to lower blood
sugar.
a. Prazosin
m
b. Propranolol
c. Captopril
d. Hydrochlorthiazide
o
Q116. Which one of the following drugs should not be given to a pregnant, hypertensive
f.c
woman?
a. Hydrochlorothiazide
b. Propranolol
stu
c. a-Methyldopa
d. Lisinopril
Q117. Which one of the following adverse effects is associated with nitroglycerin?
m
a. Throbbing headache
b. Bradycardia
c. Sexual dysfunction
ar
d. Anemia
Q118. All of the following mechanisms of action correctly match a drug EXCEPT:
ph
a. Quinidine: Blocks Na+ channels

b. Bretylium: Blocks K+ channels
c. Verapamih Blocks Ca ++ channels
.b
d. Procainamide: Blocks K + channels
Q119. Which one of the following statements is INCORRECT?

w
a. Lidocaine must be given parenterally.

w
b. Lidocaine is used mainly for atrial arrhythmias.

c. Procainamide is associated with a reversible lupus phenomenon.
d. Quinidine is active orally.
w
Q120. Which of the following most directly describes the mechanism of action of digitalis?
a. Inhibits sodium-potassium ATPase

b. Decreases intraceliular sodium concentration
c. Stimulates production of cAMP
d. Decreases release of calcium from the sarcoplasmic reticulum
Q121. Which one of the following drugs would be the most appropriate single drug therapy for
mild
congestive heaet failure?
a. A cardiac glycoside such as digoxin

b. A a-adrenergic agonist such as norepinephrine
m
c. A diuretic such as hydrochlorothiazide
d. An ACE inhibitor, such as captopril
o
Q122. Which one of the following statements concerning congestive head failure is correct?
f.c
a. Digitoxin is more widely used than digoxin because it has a shorter half-life
b. Serum levels of digoxin can be decreased by quinidine
c. Loop diuretics are used in patients with renal insufficiency
d. Digoxin is eliminated primarily in the bile
stu
Q123. Which one of the following aggravates a digitalis-induced arrhythmia?
a. Decreased serum calcium

b. Decreasing head rate with propranolol
m
c. Decreased serum sodium
d. Decreased serum potassium
ar
e. Decreased serum angiotensin I1
Q124. Which of the following is selective MAO A inhibitor?

ph
e. Tranylcypromine
f. Meclobemide
g. Selegilin e
.b
h. Entacapone
w
Q125. Which of the statement is false about phenytoin?
f. Can cause gingival hyperplasia may cause the gums to grow over teeth, particularly in children.
w
g. Can cause Megaloblastic anemia occur because the drug interferes with vitamin B
metabolism
12
w
h. It can cause osteomalaceia and hirsuitism

i. Can cause hyperglycemia and glycosuria caused by inhibition of insulin secretion
j. Can cause severe memory impairments
Q126.Matchthefollowing
i. Carbamazepine a. Inhibits GABA transaminase
j. Lamotrigine b. Weakly inhibit carbonic anhydrase
k. Topiramate c. Antidiuretic effect

l. Gabapentin d. Inhibits excitatory NMDA receptors
m. Vigabatrin e. Inhibits GABA reuptake
n. Tiagabne f. Can cause severe skin rashes
o. Felbamate g. Binds to amino acid transporter in brain
p. Trimethdone h. Inhibits T - type Ca channels
q. Tramadol i. GABA receptor agonist
m
Q127. The drug choice for opioid withdrawal
o
e. Meperidine
f.c
f. Methadone
g. Naltrexone
h. Naloxone
stu
Q128. Match the drug combinations used to prevent some adverse effects of anticancer drugs
and the MOA
6. Cisplatin a. Folinic acid

7. Methotrexate b. Ondansetron
m
8. 6-Mercaptopurine c. Dexamethasone
ar
9. Cyclophosphamide d. Mensa
10. Paclitaxel e. Allopurinol

ph
11. Tetracyclines f. Peptidyl transferase inhibitor

12. Macrolides g. Inhibits translocation
.b
13. Amino glycosides h. Aminoacyl t-RNA analogue

w
14. Chlo ramphenicol i. Transpeptidase inhibitor
15. Vancomycin j. Dihydroptreoate synthtase inhibitor

w
16. Cycloserine k. Misreading in mRNA
17. Penicillins l. D-Ala Recemase and synthase

w
18. Sulfonamides m. inhibits formation of Formylmethionine

19. Linezolid n. Prevents release of terminal D-Ala-D-Ala from
building block of peptidogycan
129. Match the following adverse effects of antibiotics

7. Chloramphenicol a. Platelet dysfunction
8. Tetracyclin e b. Hemolytic anemia
9.Aminoglycosides c. Bone marrow depression

10. Sulfonamides d. Discoloration of bones and teeth
11. Methicillin e.Ototoxic and Nephrotoxic

12. Carbenicillin f. Nephritis
o m
Q130. Match the following immunosuppressant drug mechanism of action
f.c
7. Tacrolimus a. Inosine-5'-monophosphate dehydrogenase (IMPDH)
8. Methotrexate b. Purine synthesis inhibitor
9. Cyclophosphamide c. Inhibits MHC expression & IL-2 production
stu
10. Azathioprine D. Calcineurin inhibitor
11. Mycophenolate e. Dihydrofolate reductase inhibitor
12. Glucocorticoids f. Alkylation of guanine in DNA molecule

m
Q131. An anti-neoplastic agent acting by folate antagonism and having pteridine ring
ar
a. Trimethoprim
b. Mercaptopurine
c. Methotrexate
ph
d. Folic acid
Q132. One of the following drugs has 1,4-dihydropyridine structure, act as calcium channel
antagonist
.b
a. Captopril
b. Verapamil
w
c. Diltiazam
d. Nifedipine
w
Q133. Opioids does not exerts the following action
a. Anti-inflammatory
w
b. Analgesic
c. Antitussive
d. Anti-diarrheal

Q134. Macrolide exerts their action by
a. Inhibiting tran scription

b. Altering the genetic code
c. Terminating protein synthesis prematurely
d. Post-translational modification
Q135. One of the following is selective ß stimulant

2
m
a. Caffeine
b. Salbutamol
c. Propranolol
o
d. Atenolol
f.c
Q136. Metoprolol is sometimes preferred to propranolol because
a. It has both a and ß adrenergic blockade

b. It has bo th vasodilatory properties
stu
c. It is selective ß antagonist
2
d. It has selective ß selective antagonist and does not enter in brain
1 m
Q137. Ultra-short acting barbiturates have brief duration of action due to
a. High degree of binding to plasma proteins

ar
b. Low lipid solubility resulting in minimal concentration in the brain
c. Metabolism is slow in liver
d. Rapid rate of redistribution from brain due to its high liposolubility
ph
Q138. One of the following actions of opioids is mediated via kappa receptors
a. Euphoria
.b
b. Physical dependence
c. Spinal analgesia
d. Cerebral vascular dilation
w
Q139. One of the following drugs against herpes simplex virus type 1 and is used topically
w
systemic
administration of same results in bone marrow depression, hepatic dysfunction and
nephrotoxicity
w
a. Acyclovir
b. Amantidine
c. Vidarabine
d. Idoxuridine
Q140. A woman has treated for upper respiratory tract infection. Six years back she was found
hypersensitive to penicillin V. the cultures strain of streptococcus pneumonia that is sensitive
to all of the
following drugs. Which one would be best choice for patient?
a. Amoxicillin
b. Erythromycin
c. Cefaclor
m
d. Cyclacillin
Q141. One of the following co-administered with Terfenadine may lead to life threatening cardiac
o
dysrhythmia.
f.c
a. Lomefloxacin
b. Clofazimine
c. Itraconazole
d. Neomycin
stu
Q142. Adverse effects of one of the drug of that drug include amenorrhea, bone marrow
depression,
gastrointestinal distress and haemorrhagic m
a. Cyclizine
b. Piroxicam
c. Cyclophosphamide
ar
d. Cimetidine
ph
.b
w
w
w

Q143. Sulfasalazine is a prodrug that is activated in the intestine by bacterial enzymes. The
enzyme
responsible is
a. Azoreductase
b. Choline esterase
c. Glucuronyl transferase
d. Amylase
m
Q144. Which of the following is po lyene antibiotic with seven conjugated double bonds an
internal ester, free
o
carboxy grp and a glycoside side chain with primary amino grp
f.c
a. Streptomycin
b. Ketoconazole
c. Griseofulvin
d. Amphotericin B
stu
Q145 . Chose the correct class IV anti-arrhythmic that is primarily indicated for the treatment of
supraventricular tachyarrhythmias
a. Mexiletine
b. Diltiazam
m
c. Nifedipine
d. Propranolol
ar
Q146. One of the following antiviral agents exhibits the greatest selective toxicity for the
invading virus.
ph
a. Amantidine
b. Zidovudine
c. Idoxuridine
.b
d. Acyclovir
Q147. Choose the drug that often causes tachycardia when given in regular doses
w
a. Verapamil
w
b. Guanethidine
c. Propranolol
d. Isosorbide dinitrate
w
Q148. Choose the appropriate therapeutic use of imipramine
a. Insomnia
b. Epilepsy
c. Bed wetting in children
d. Mania
Q149. Purpose of combined drug regimen in tuberculosis is to
a. Delay the emergence of drug resistance

b. Reduce the duration of active therapy
c. Schedule the onset therapy
d. Promote a placebo effect on patient
m
Q150. One of the following statements for adenyl cyclase is wrong
o
a. Is a membrane bound enzyme
b. Inactivated by phosphodiesterase
f.c
c. Catalyzes the formatio n of AMP
d. Active only when associated with G protein
Q151 Budesonide is
stu
a. NASID
b. Inhaled corticosteroid for asthma m

c. Diuretic
d. Anticholinergic
ar
Q152 The choline ester drug resistant to both true and pseudocholinesterase
ph
a. Methacholin e
b. Bethanechol
.b
c. Butyrylcholine
w
d. Benzoylcholine
Q153 Cardiac muscles have receptors are

w
a. M and ß
1 1
w
b. M and ß
2 2
c. M and ß
3 1
d. M and ß
2 1
Q154 Barbiturates have all action except
a. Anticonvulsant
b. Respiratory depressant
m
c. Antianxiety
o
d. Analgesics
f.c
Q155 Actions of pilocarpine includes all except
a. Sweating
stu
b. Salivation
c. Miosis
d. Cycloplegia
m
Q156 The drug that is specific inhibitor of the enzyme alcohol dehydrogenase and useful in
treatment of
ar
methanol poisoning
a. Disulfiram
ph
b. Leucovorin
c. Flumazenil
.b
d. Fomepizole
w
Q157 Edrophonium is more suitable as diagnostic agent because

w
a. direct action on muscle end plate
b. longer duration of action

w
c. selective inhibition of true cholinesterase

d. shorter duration of action
Q158 Drug choice for Alzheimer’s diseases
a. Pyridostigmine
b. Corticosteroids
c. Bethanechol
d. Donepezil
Q159 a adrenergic agonist used to lower the intraocular tension
m
2
a. Brinzolamide
o
b. Latanoprost
f.c
c. Bambuterol
d. Bromonidine
stu
Q160 Ethanol is used to treat methanol because
a. Antagonizes the actions of methanol m

b. Stimulates the metabolism of methanol
c. Replenishes the folate stores depleted by methanol

ar
d. Inhibits the metabolism of methanol and toxic metabolite
ph
Q161 Drug that antagonize diazepam action is
a. Fomepizole
.b
b. Bicuculline
w
c. Saclofen
d. Flumazenil
w
Q162 drug used in treatment of organophosphate poisoning

w
a. Atropine
b. Diazepam
c. Neostigmine
d. Pralidoxime
Q163 Atropine produce all except
a. Tachycardia
b. Mydriasis
c. Dryness of mouth
m
d. Urinary incontinence
o
Q164 which of the following Mydriatic has fastest and briefest action
f.c
a. Atropine
b. Homatropine
stu
c. Tropicamide
d. Cyclopentolate
Q165 The most effective antidote for belladonna poisoning

m
a. Neostigmine
ar
b. Physostigmine
c. Pilocarpine
ph
d. Methacholine
Q166 Atropine is contraindicated in

.b
a. Bronchospasm
w
b. Digitalis toxicity
w
c. Raised in traocu lar tension
d. Urinary incontinence
w
Q167 which of the following is noncatecholamines sympathomimetic

a. Isoprenaline
b. Dopamine
c. Ephedrine
d. Adrenaline
Q168 which of the following is selective a antagonist

2
a. Clonidine
m
b. Prazocin
c. Phenetolamine
o
d. Yohimbine
f.c
Q169 A sympathomimetic amine that act almost exclusively by releasing NA from nerve endings
a. Ephedrine
stu
b. Dopamine
c. Tyramine m
d. Isoprenaline
Q170 The metabolic actions of adrenaline includes all except

ar
a. Glycogenolysis in liver and mu scle
ph
b. Lipolysis in adipose tissu es
c. Inhibition of gluconeo genesis in liver

.b
d. Inhibition of Glycolysis
w
Q171 Dobutamine differs from dopamine as
a. It does not activate peripheral dopaminergic receptors

w
b. It causes tachycardia
w
c. It has tendency to cross blood-brain barrier
d. It does not activate adnergic ß receptors on heart
Q172 Adrenaline injected with local anaesthetic because

a. Reduces local toxicity of local anesthetic
b. Reduces systemic toxicity of local anesthetic
c. Shortens the duration of local anesthetic
d. Makes the injection more painful
m
Q173 Ultra short acting ß blocker is
o
a. Timolol
f.c
b. Sotalol
c. Esmolol
stu
d. Bisoprolol
Q174 ß blocker that have additional a1 blocking, vasodilator and antioxidant activity
a. Carvedilol
m
b. Celiprolol
ar
c. Acebutolol
d. Sotalol
ph
Q175 Drug used for prophylaxis of migraine
a. Ergotamine
.b
b. Sumatriptan
w
c. Propranolol
w
d. Methysergide
Q176 The analgesic lacks anti-inflammatory action

w
a. Paracetamol
b. Ibuprofen
c. Piroxicam
d. Diclofenac
Q177 Distinctive feature of Nimesulide is
a. It does not inhibit prostaglandin synthesis
b. It does not cause g astric irritation
m
c. It is tolerated well by aspirin intolerant asthma patients
Q178 Bromohexine acts by
o
a. Suppress cough center
f.c
b. Depolymerizing mucopolysaccharides present in sputum
c. Rising the threshold of cough center
stu
d. Desensitizing stretch receptors in the lungs
m
ar
ph
.b
w
w
w

w
w
w
.b
ph
ar
m
stu
f.c
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f.c
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m
ar
ph
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GPAT 15 P&#39;cology

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SEND ANY PHARMA MATERIAL & GPAT MATERIAL TO :admin@bpharmstuf.

To receive free Pharma GPAT,NIPER, Preparation Sms/Guidance & ADMISSION NOTIFICATIONS on

Q1. Histamine is mainly involv ed in which type of allergic reactions?

a. Type 1 b. Type 2 c. Type 3 d. Type 4

Q3. N-acetylcysteine is used in the poisoning of which NASID?

2. Indomethacin b. Ocular inflammation

3. Flurbiprofen c. Post-operative pain

Q6. Match the following

c. Nuclear receptor activation

Q8. Which of the following is uricosuric agent?

Q10. Identify the drug choice for acute gout attack?

Q11. Match the following

1. Allopurinol a. Increases uric acid excretion

2. Sulfinpyrazone b. Inhibits uric acid synthesis

3. Colchicine c. Prevents migration of neutrophils in to the joint,

depolymerisation of the microtubules and reduced

Q12. All of the following are the roles of histamine except?

Q13. Antihistaminic used to increase appetite in underweight children is

Q14. The active metabolite of Terfenadine is

Q16. Eicosanoids includes

Q17. In LTB 4 the subscript ‘4’ indicates

a. No. of double bonds

b. No. of conjugated doub les bonds

Q18. Platelets primarily synthesize

Q19. Endothelium mainly generates

Q20. All NASIDS are reversible inhibitors of cyclo oxygenase except

Q23. Misoprostol is used to prevent

b. Post partum haemorrhage

Q24. NASID used for ocular inflammation

To receive free Pharma GPAT,NIPER, Preparation Sms/Guidance & ADMISSION NOTIFICATIONS on

Q26. Histamine is biosynthesized from decarboxylation of

Q28. Match the following

Q29. Which of the following is not a vasodilator?

2. Latanoprost b. Ulcer protective

5. Epoprostenol e. Inhibit platelet aggregation

Q31. Match the following H1 antagonist for their clinical uses

1. Cyprohetadine a. Motion sickness

3. Diphenhydramine c. Treat anxiety

5. Buclizine e. Appetite stimulating

Q35. An antidiabetic drug Piogliazone used in Type 2 diabetes acts by

Q36. An angiotensin-II receptor blocker useful in treating hypertension is

occult blood in her

Q40. The break down of fibrin is catalyzed by

Q41. Azithromycin is clinically administered once daily as compared to erythromycin which is

Q45. A Chinese tree Camptotheca acuminate is useful in cancer chemotherapy. The

a. Inhibiting topoiso merase II

To receive free Pharma GPAT,NIPER, Preparation Sms/Guidance & ADMISSION NOTIFICATIONS on

d. Isoprenaline and isopentenyl phosphate

Q56. Metoclopramide is generally used for

Q58. Simvastatin belongs to

b. Prostaglandins that account for gastrointestinal disorders

Q63. Drug Mechanism of action is by inhibition of

Q. Caspofungin 2. Topoisomerase II (DNA gyrase) the enzyme

specific penicillin binding protein

Q64. Drug Receptor agonist/antagonist

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Q65. Mechanism of action

Q68. An anticholinesterase which is useful in Alzheimer’s disease is

Q69. A drug used as an ophthalmic solution in Herpes kera titis is

Q70. A macrolide antibiotic used as a powerful immunosuppressive agent is:

Q71. Cytosine arabinoside acts on this phase of the cell cycle

Q76. A selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor used as an antidepressant is

c. muscarinic receptor antagonist

Q83. HMG-Co A reductase, a key enzyme in the pathway, catalyzes

GPAT 15 P'cology

GPAT 15 P'cology