Exam 2a Name

MULTIPLE CHOICE. Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or

answers the question.

1) Which of the following compounds is not an enzyme?

A) Dehydrogenase B) Coenzyme A C) Cellulase D) beta-galactosidase E)

None of the above

2) Which compound is being reduced in the reaction in Figure 5.1?

A) Isocitric acid and a-ketoglutaric acid B) NADH and isocitric acid C) NAD+
D)NADH
E) a-ketoglutaric acid and NAD+

3) Which organism is not correctly matched to its energy source?

A) Photoautotroph - CO2
B) Chemoautotroph - Fe2+
C) Chemoheterotroph - glucose D) Photoheterotroph -light E) Chemoautotroph - NH3

4) How many molecules of A TP can be generated from the complete oxidation of

glucose to CO2 and H2O? A) 76 B) 34 C)4 D) 38 E) 2

5) Which of the following is not true about anaerobic respiration? A) It involves the
Krebs cycle. B) It involves glycolysis only.
C) It involves the reduction of nitrate. D) It requires cytochromes. E) It generates ATP.
6) What type of reaction is in Figure 5.2?
A) Dehydrogenation B) Reduction C) Transamination D) Decarboxylation E)
Oxidation

7) What is the fate of pyruvic acid in an organism that uses aerobic respiration?

A) It is catabolized in glycolysis. B) It is reduced in the Krebs cycle. C) It is

reduced to lactic acid.
D) It is oxidized in the electron transport chain. E) It is oxidized in the Krebs
cycle.

8) How would a noncompetitive inhibitor interfere with a reaction involving the enzyme
in Figure 5.3?

A) It would bind to A. B) It would bind to B. C) It would bind to C.

D) It would bind to D. E) Can't tell.

9) How is ATP
generated in the reaction in figure 5.4?
A) Photophosphorylation B) Oxidative phosphorylation C) Substrate-level
phosphorylation
D) Fermentation E) Glycolysis

10) Fatty acids are catabolized in A) The Krebs cycle.

B) The Entner Doudoroff pathway.
C) The pentose phosphate pathway. D) The electron transport chain. E) Glycolysis.

11) Which of the graphs in Figure 5.5 best illustrates the activity of an enzyme that is
saturated with substrate? A)A B)B C)C D)D E)AorC

12) According to the chemiosmotic mechanism, ATP is generated when A) Electrons are
transferred between carrier molecules.
B) A high-energy phosphate group is transferred from an intermediate metabolite to
ADP. C) Protons are moved across a membrane. D) Cells lyse in a hypotonic
environment. E) Chlorophyll liberates an electron.

13) Which of the following is the best definition of oxidative phosphorylation?

A) The energy released as carrier molecules are oxidized is used to generate ATP. B)
Electrons are passed through a series of carriers to 02'
C) The energy released in the reduction of carrier molecules is used to generate ATP. D)
The transfer of a high-energy phosphate group to ADP.

14) The addition of which of the following to a culture medium will neutralize acids?
A) Heat B) Sugars C) Carbon D) Buffers E) pH

15) Salts and sugars work to preserve foods by creating a A) Lower osmotic pressure. B)
Lower pH.
C) Hypotonic environment. D) Depletion of nutrients.
E) Hypertonic environment.

16) The term facultative anaerobe refers to an organism that A) Is killed by oxygen.
B) Requires less oxygen than is present in air. C) Prefers to grow without oxygen.
D) Doesn't use oxygen but tolerates it.
E) Uses oxygen or grows without oxygen.

17) Which of the following is not a disadvantage of the standard plate count? A) Cells
may form aggregates. B) Requires incubation time.
C) Chemical and physical requirements are determined by media and incubation. D)
Determines viable cells. E) None of the above.
18) Which of the following is not a disadvantage of the direct microscopic count? A) No
ll1cubation time.
B) Large number of cells is required. C) Enumerates dead cells.
D) Sample volume is unknown. E) Some organisms are motile.

19) Which of the following is not used to determine metabolic activity? A) CO2
produced from the Krebs cycle. B) Acid production from fermentation.
C) NO 2 produced from the electron transport chain.

D) Decreased dissolved oxygen. E) Turbidity.

20) Thirty-six colonies grew in nutrient agar from 1.0 ml of undiluted sample in a
standard plate count. How many cells were in the original sample?
A) 9 B) 4 C) 72 D) 36 E) 18

21) In Figure 6.2, which section shows a growth phase where the number of cells dying
equals the number of cells dividing?
A)A B)C C)B D)D E)AandC

22) In Figure 6.2, which sections of the graph illustrate a logarithmic change in cell
numbers?
A) A and C B)CandD C)BandD D) A and B E)Bonly

23) Most bacteria grow best at pH

A) 7. B) 9. C) 14. D)l. E)5.

24) A culture medium on which only gram-positive organisms grow and a yellow halo
surrounds Staphylococcus aureus colonies is called a(n) A) Selective medium.
B) Differential medium. C) Enrichment culture. D)a and b. E)b and c.

25) A culture medium consisting of agar, human blood, and beef heart is a A) Complex
medium.
B) Chemically defined medium. C) Selective medium.
D) Differential medium. E) Reducing medium.

26) Which of the following pairs is mismatched?

A) Thermophile - growth at 37°C B) Mesophile - growth at 25°C
C) Psychrophile - growth at 15°C D) Psychrotroph - growth at DoC
E) None of the above
27) During which growth phase will gram-positive bacteria be most susceptible to
penicillin? A) Lag phase
B) Stationary phase C) Death phase D) Log phase
E) The culture is equally susceptible during all phases.

28) Which of the following is the best definition of generation time? A) The minimum
rate of doubling.
B) The length of time it takes for a cell to divide. C) The length of time it takes for lag
phase. D) The time it takes for nuclear division. E) The duration of log phase.

29) All of the following are direct methods to measure microbial growth except
A) Metabolic activity.
B) Direct microscopic count. C) Standard plate count. D) Filtration. E) MPN.

30) Which group of microorganisms is most likely to spoil a freshwater trout preserved
with salt? A) Thermophiles B) Halophiles
C)Psychrophiles D) Anaerobes
E) None of the above

31) Which of the following is an example of a metabolic activity that could be used to
measure microbial growth? A) MPN
B) Standard plate count
C) Direct microscopic count D) Glucose consumption E) Turbidity

32) Which of the following is best to sterilize heat-labile solutions? A) Membrane

filtration B) Dry heat
C) Pasteurization D) Autoclave
E) None of the above

33) Which of the following best describes the pattern of microbial death? A) The pattern
varies depending on the species.
B) The pattern varies depending on the antimicrobial agent. C) All the cells in a culture
die at once.
D) All of the cells in a culture are never killed.
E) The cells in a population die at a constant rate.

34) Bacterial death will result from damage to which of the following structures? A)
Nucleic acids B) Cell wall
C) Plasma membrane D) Proteins
E) All of the above

35) Which of the following substances can sterilize?

A) Soap B) Phenolics C) Alcohol D) Chlorine E) Ethylene oxide
36) Which of the following is used for surgical hand scrubs? A) Chlorine bleach B)
Glutaraldehyde C) Chlorhexidine D) Soap
E) Phenol

37) Which of the following is not a heavy metal? A) Silver nitrate

B) Mercurochrome C) Chlorine
D) Merthiolate
E) Copper sulfate

38) Place the following surfactants in order from the most effective to the least effective
antimicrobial activity: I-Soap; 2-Anionic detergent; 3-Cationic detergent.
A) 2, 1,3 B) I, 2, 3 C) 3, I, 2 D) 3,2, 1 E) I, 3, 2

39) The antimicrobial activity of chlorine is due to which of the following? A) The
formation of hypochlorous acid B) The formation of ozone C) The formation of free 0
D) The formation of hydrochloric acid
E) Disruption of the plasma membrane

40) lodophors differ from iodine (12) in that iodophors A) Are longer lasting.
B) Are combined with a nonionic detergent. C) Are less irritating. D) Don't stain.
E) All of the above.

41) Which of the following does not achieve sterilization?

A) Pasteurization B) Formaldehyde C) Autoclave D) Dry heat E) Ethylene oxide

42) Which of the following is a limitation of the autoclave? A) Ability to kill endospores
B) Use with heat-labile materials C) Ability to inactivate viruses D) Use with glassware
E) Length of time

43) Which of the following affects the elimination of bacteria from an object? A)
Presence of organic matter
B) Number of bacteria present C) pH
D) Temperature
E) All of the above

44) Which of the following is not a direct result of heat? A) Cell lysis
B) Denaturing enzymes
C) Breaking sulfhydryl bonds D) Breaking hydrogen bonds E) None of the above

45) Which of the following substances is the least effective antimicrobial agent? A)
Cationic detergents B) Iodine
C) Phenolics D) Soap
E) Alcohol

46) Which of these disinfectants acts by denaturing proteins? A) Aldehydes B) Alcohols

C) Phenolics D) Halogens
E) All of the above

47) Which of the following is not an end-product of fermentation?

A) Acetone B) Ethyl alcohol C) Pyruvic acid D) Lactic acid E) Glycerol

48) A strictly fermentative bacterium produces energy A) Only in the absence of oxygen.
B) By glycolysis only.
C) Only in the presence of oxygen. D) By aerobic respiration only.
E) By fermentation or aerobic respiration.

49) Which of the following is not true about beta oxidation? A) It involves the formation
of acetyl-CoA. B) It is a method of catabolizing fatty acids.
C) It involves the formation of 2-carbon units. D) It is a step in glycolysis. E) None of the
above.

50) Which of the following is the best definition of fermentation?

A) The production of energy by substrate-level phosphorylation. , B) The reduction of
glucose to pyruvic acid.
t, C) The production of ethyl alcohol from glucose.
D) The oxidation of glucose with organic molecules serving as electron acceptors. E) The
complete catabolism of glucose to CO2 and H2O.

SHORT ANSWER. Write the word or phrase that best completes each statement or
answers the question. 51) Name the coenzyme that serves as the carrier of acetyl groups
into the Krebs Cycle.

52) Name the molecule that carries electrons from glycolysis to the electron transport
system.

53) Name the molecule that only carries electrons from the Krebs Cycle to the electron
transport system. 54) What kind of cells are counted by the standard plate counting
method? 55) What kind of cells are counted by the turbidity estimation method?

ESSAY. Write your answer in the space provided or on a separate sheet of paper.

56) List all of the following for the process of glycolysis (10 points): a) the substrate

b) the number of carbon atoms in the substrate c) the product

d) the number of product molecules produced from one substrate molecule e) the number
of carbon atoms in each product molecule
f) whether any carbon atoms are lost or not, and if so, what happens to them g) names and
numbers of any carrier molecules required in the process

h) names and numbers of any energy currency molecules produced in the process

List all of the following for the Krebs Cycle (15 points): a) the name of the substrate

b) the number of molecules of Krebs Cycle substrate obtained from one molecule of

glucose through glycolysis c) the name(s) of the product(s)

d) the number of molecules of the products

e) the names and numbers of any carrier molecules required

f) the names and numbers of any energy currency molecules produced 10

58) Prepare a table with three columns and eight rows to compare and contrast Aerobic
Respiration, Anaerobic Respiration and Fermentation with regard to each of the
following (20 points): a) employs glycolysis, yes or no
b) employs the decarboxylation of pyruvic acid, yes or no c) employs the Krebs Cycle,
yes or no
d) employs the electron transport system, yes or no e) employs chemiosmosis, yes or no
f) name the carrier molecules required for each
g) name the molecule or class of molecules that serves as the final electron acceptor

Answer Key
Testname: BIOL 2420 EXAM 2. TST
1) Answer: B 2) Answer: C 3) Answer: A 4) Answer: D 5) Answer: B 6) Answer: C
7) Answer: E 8) Answer: B 9) Answer: C 10) Answer: A 11) Answer: C
12) Answer: C 13) Answer: A 14) Answer: D 15) Answer: E
16) Answer: E
17) Answer: D18) Answer: D 19) Answer: E 20) Answer: D 21)
Answer: B 22) Answer: C 23) Answer: A
24) Answer: D 25) Answer: A 26) Answer: A 27) Answer: D
28) Answer: B 29) Answer: A 30) Answer: B
31) Answer: D 32) Answer: A 33) Answer: E 34) Answer: E
35) Answer: E 36) Answer: C 37) Answer: C
38) Answer: D 39) Answer: A 40) Answer: E 41) Answer: A
 42) Answer: B 43) Answer: E 44) Answer: A
45) Answer: D 46) Answer: E 47) Answer: C 48) Answer: B
49) Answer: D 50) Answer: D