Sie sind auf Seite 1von 34

QUESTION BANK FOR COMPOSITE-QA

1) What part of the Ultrasonic machine generates short duration & large amplitude pulses of controlled energy?

a) Scanner b) Amplifier c) Transducer d) None of the above

2) Which type of Transducer will have better resolution?

a) A slightly damped transducer b) A small size and low frequency transducer


c) A highly damped transducer d) All of the above

3) Within a given material, the speed of sound

a) Is constant b) Decreases with distance from the transducer?


c) Increases with distance from the transducer d) None of the above

4) Which of the following wave is able to follow to a surface around a curve?

a) A longitudinal wave b) A shear wave


c) A Rayleigh wave d) A Lamb wave

5) The first critical angle describes the condition where the

a) The angle of the refracted longitudinal wave is less than 90 deg.


b) The angle of the refracted longitudinal wave is exactly 90 deg.
c) The angle of the refracted longitudinal wave is greater than 90 deg.
d) The angle of the refracted shear wave is exactly 90 deg.

6) The ability to locate a small discontinuity is called


a) Resolution b) Sensitivity c) Wavelength d) Frequency

7) Which type of screen presentation displays a profile / cross sectional view of test specimen
a) A-scan b) B-scan c) C-scan d) All of the above

8) What is used to support the active element and dampen the transducer characteristics?
a) Resin b) Oil
c) Backing material with a similar impedance of the transducer
d) Any of the above will work

9) The sound that emanates from a piezo electric transducer originates


a) From a point on the active surface
b) From most of the active surface
c) From a small area in the centre of the active surface
d) From the edges of the active surface

10) The active element of most acoustic transducers used today is


a) Lithium b) Piezo electric ceramic c) Sulphide d) Quartz

11) When performing a contact inspection on a curved surface, what piece of equipment can be used to improve
coupling
a) A spherically focussed transducer
b) A cylindrically focussed transducer
c) A shaped shoe transducer
d) A large diameter transducer

12) Surface or Rayleigh waves travelling along the surface of relative thick solid material, penetrate to a depth
of approximately
a) One wavelength b) Two wavelengths
c) Three wavelengths d) Infinite wavelengths

13) Which type of transducer can be used to scan wide areas when high sensitivity is not required?

a) Mosaic transducer b) Single crystal transducer of small diameter


c) Composite transducer d) Paint brush transducer

14) The measure of how a signal from a defect compared to other background reflections is called

a) Acoustic impedance b) Signal to noise ratio


c) Reflection d) Refraction

15) Which type of screen presentation displays the amount of received ultrasonic energy as a function of time?
a) A-Scan b) B-Scan c) C-scan d) All of the above

16) The act of evaluating and adjusting the precision and accuracy of the measurement equipment is called

a) Standardisation b) Calibration c) Accuracy d) Tuning

17) Contact transducers often incorporate a

a) Composite frequency adjustment b) Vibration Suppressor


c) Wear plate d) Phase adjustment sensor

18) The ability to locate discontinuities that are close together within the material is called
a) Resolution b) Sensitivity c) Effectiveness d) Phase delay

19) Why real defects are not commonly used in calibration and reference standards
a) They are more difficult to detect with NDT methods
b) They are always the same size and length
c) It is cost prohibitive to produce them

20) Less damped transducers will exhibit


a) A wide frequency range b) A wide resolution range
c) Pulse echo d) Narrow frequency range

21) What Greek letter is used to represent wavelength?


a) λ b) µ c) α d) ǿ

22) What type of transducer contains two independently operating elements in a single housing
a) Crystal mosaic transducer b) Dual element transducer
c) Liquid crystal transducer d) Bi-polar transducer

23) Beam spread is greater when using


a) High frequency transducers b) Low frequency transducers
c) Angle beam transducers
d) Large diameter transducers

24) Which of the following would make a good couplant


a) Water b) Oil c) Glycerine d) All of the above

25) A decibel is
a) A unit of measure used only for sound measurements
b) A logarithmic unit that describes a ratio of two measurements
c) A logarithmic unit that describes the product of two measurements
d) None of the above

26) Material used to improve the transmission of ultrasonic sound energy from the transducer into the part is
a) Gel b) Coolant c) Couplant d) Contact Paste

27) In Ultrasonic inspection, which type of Scan displays a plan type view of the location and size of the test
specimen features?
a) A- Scan b) B- Scan c) C- Scan d) All of the above

28) Material used as reference Standard for Ultrasonic inspection


a) Can be from a similar material of component as long as the velocity is the same
b) Should be from the same material being inspected
c) May be from a material having same impedance values as the base material
d) None of the above

29) In Ultrasonic inspection, the standard used to help interpret and quantify the information in the received
signal is called
a) Reference standard b) Industry standard
c) Accuracy standard d) Modelling standard

30) Material used as liquid shim in Composite Structural Assembly is


a) Ciba 914-resin b) Ciba 913 resin
c) Hysol EA 934 resin d) None of the above

31) Liquid Shim is used when the gap is


a) 1 mm to 2 mm b) 0.8 mm and below
c) 2 mm and above d) None of the above

32) Solid shim is used when the gap is


a) 0.8 mm and above b) 0.8 mm and below
c) 2 mm to 5 mm d) None of the above

33) The purpose of the Liquid / solid shim is to


a) Reduce the assembly stresses b) Reduce distortion
c) Reduce leak d) Both a & b

34) Routing operation is done to


a) Remove surface layers by machining accurately
b) Make cut outs in Composite components
c) Trim the component to the net size
d) Both b & c

35) Aluminium and Poly ethylene adhesive tapes are used


a) To prevent lightening effect
b) To protect fasteners from adverse environment
c) To provide aerodynamically smooth surface over fasteners
d) All of the above

36) Resin transfer moulding is


a) Suitable for making very large sized components
b) Suitable for making very large number of components
c) Suitable for Small sized components
d) Both b & c

37) Co-curing is the process in which


a) All the elements are cured together
b) Some elements are pre- cured and some cured during the process
c) All the elements are pre- cured and are bonded together
d) Both a & b

38) Bonding is the process in which


a) All the elements are cured together
b) Some elements pre-cured and some cured during the process
c) All the elements are pre-cured and bonded together
d) Both a & b

39) Type of drill bit used for drilling Kevlar parts


a) Tool steel with standard grind b) Diamond dust coated
c) Carbide w-point d) Both a & b

40) Common clock frequency of precision ultrasonic thickness gauges is


a) 1 MHz b) 10 MHz c) 200 MHz d) 200 MHz

41) For ultrasonic thickness measurement, the most accurate method is


a) Direct contact with double crystal probe
b) Direct contact with delay line probe
c) Immersion
d) None of the above

42) The most dominant matrix for metal-matrix composites for structural / Electrical application is
a) Steel b) Copper c) Aluminium d) Tungsten

43) Core filler is used in the Honeycomb sandwich components is to avoid


a) Wrinkles b) Delamination c) Core crushing d) All the above

44) Curing operation is


a) Endothermic reaction b) Exothermic reaction
c) Physical change d) None of the above

45) Edge sealing in composites is done


a) To get smooth edges b) To avoid moisture ingress
c) To avoid Delamination d) All the above

46) In the specification of core HRH 10-F50-3.5, “F” stands for


a) Fibre b) Flex c) Foil d) None of the above

47) Novapan board is used


a) To obtain very flat & smooth surface of flanges of bonding tool
b) As Core cutting template c) Both a & b d) none of the above

48) Resin flashes can be minimised by using


a) Edge dam b) Flash breaker tapes c) Both a & b d) Neither a nor b

49) In the specification of glass Prepreg V913/37/7781, “7781” refers to


a) Resin content b) Weave style c) Fibre content d) None of the above

50) PTFE stands for


a) Poly tetra flouro ethane b) Poly tetra flouro ethylene
c) Poly tetra flouro enzyme d) None of the above

51) The curing temperature equivalent to 177 deg. C is


a) 250 deg. F b) 450 deg. F c) 350 deg. F d) 277 deg. F

52) Selection of mechanical fasteners for composites is based on


a) Imposed service loads b) Installation loads
c) Both a& b d) None of the above

53) Process of laying fibres or tapes onto a rotating mandrel is called


a) Pultrusion b) Resin transfer moulding
c) Filament winding d) None of the above

54) A process of pulling uniaxial tapes through a die to form the shape is called
a) Filament winding b) Pultrusion
c) Resin transfer moulding d) none of the above

55) MEK stands for


a) Methyl ethyl ketone b) Methyl ether ketone
c) Methyl ethane ketone d) None of the above
56) EMI stands for

a) Electro Magnetic interference b) Electro Magnetic induction


c) Electro Magnetic indexing d) None of the above

57) Weathering refers to combined effects of

a) Sunlight and moisture b) Heat and cold


c) Wind and contaminants d) All of the above

58) Thermosetting resins undergo


a) Reversible changes b) Irreversible changes
c) Both a & b d) neither ‘a’ nor ‘b’

59) Fibres in Composites are stronger than the bulk material because they have

a) Near perfect crystal structure


b) Grains are aligned along the axis of the fibre
c) Fewer defects
d) All the above

60) The main function of the fibre is

a) Give strength and modulus to the material


b) Carry the loads
c) Both a & b d) None of the above

61) The cure cycle of Aerospace prepregs depend on

a) The type of fibre b) The type of resin


c) Both a and b d) Neither a nor b

62) Which of the following is affected by moisture and ultraviolet radiation

a) Carbon fibre b) Glass fibre


c) Boron fibre d) Kevlar fibre

63) The sizing is applied to the fibres to

a) Improve the wetability


b) Improve the bonding between the fibre and matrix
c) To protect the fibre against wear during weaving
d) All the above
64) To get rigid component, the most suitable material is

a) Carbon / Epoxy b) Kevlar / Epoxy


c) E-Glass / Epoxy d) S-Glass / Epoxy

65) For better impact resistance the most suitable material is

a) Carbon / Epoxy b) Kevlar / Epoxy


c) E-Glass / Epoxy d) Boron / Epoxy

66) Which of the following is matrix-dominated property

a) Inter Laminar shear strength (ILSS)


b) Flexural strength c) Tensile modulus d) All the above

67) Fibre reinforced composites are Weak in

a) Tension b) Compression
c) Fatigue d) None of the above

68) The new type of Material ARALL is a

a) Fibre reinforced composite


b) Particulate reinforced composite
c) Combination of metal and FRP
d) None of the above

69) Fibre metal laminate (New type of composite) used in A 380 is

a) GLARE b) ARALL
c) Both a & b d) None of the above

70) Fibre reinforced composite materials make swept forward wings practical because

a) They can be tailored to resist the twisting moment


b) They resist fatigue better than metals
c) They have better static strength than metals
d) They have better specific strength and modulus than metals

71) The configuration yielding most efficient adhesive joint is

a) Single lap shear joint b) Double lap shear joint


c) Stepped joint d) Scarf joint
72) For adhesive joint, the best combination is

a) CFC- Aluminium alloy b) CFC- Steel


c) CFC- Titanium alloy d) CFC- Magnesium alloy

73) The composite component, which yields, better cost and weight advantage is

a) Bolted assembly b) Secondary Bonded


c) Co- Bonded d) Co- Cured

74) Considering 00 as the major load direction, most preferred layer adjacent to the adhesive layer in an
adhesive joint is

a) 45 deg. Layer b) 90 deg. Layer


c) 0 deg. Layer d) any ply direction

75) For large complex CFC parts, the best tooling material is

a) Steel b) Aluminium alloy c) Invar d) Composite

76) Advantage of Invar as a Lay-up tool is

a) Light weight b) Low co-efficient of thermal expansion


c) High specific heat capacity d) Low cost

77) ILSS is used as a Quality control tool because

a) It is an important design requirement


b) It is a test that reveals the status of the cured matrix
c) It is easy to perform this test
d) All the above

78) The property which depend on Lay-up sequence is

a) Tensile strength and modulus


b) Compression strength and modulus
c) Flexural strength and modulus
d) All the above

79) Warpage of composite laminate caused by

a) Un-symmetry of the lay-up


b) Thermal expansion mismatch between the tool and the component
c) Non-uniform distribution of resin across the thickness
d) All of the above

80) Composite bolted joints need

a) Higher e/d & s/d ratios compared to metal joints


b) Lower e/d & s/d ratios compared to metal joints
c) Same e/d & s/d ratios compared to metal joints

81) Better tailorability is possible with

a) Isotropic materials b) Anisotropic materials


c) Tough materials d) Brittle materials

82) Depending on the lay-up, the Poisson ratio of composite laminates can vary from

a) 0.33 to 0.3 b) 0.8 to 0.02 c) Does not vary with lay up d) none of the above

83) The best method of surface preparation of CFC components for adhesive bonding is by

a) Light emery and solvent wipe b) Use of peel ply


c) Both a & b d) None of the above

84) The best practice of applying light emery to prepare the surface for adhesive bonding is by

a) Emery along the fibre direction of the surface layer


b) Emery perpendicular to the fibre direction of the surface layer
c) Any direction

85) The reason for spring back in composite components is

a) CTE mismatch between the composite and the tool


b) Large difference between the through the thickness CTE and in-plane CTE of composite
c) Both a & b
d) Neither a nor b
Note: CTE – Co-efficient of thermal expansion

86) Which of the following lowers ILSS of a laminate

a) Incomplete cure b) Expired resin or Prepreg


c) Contamination d) All of the above

87) Which of the following reduces the flexural strength of a laminate?


a) Poor fiber quality b) Fiber misalignment
c) Notches on the cut edges d) All the above

98) If the thickness of a component is higher than the nominal thickness, the component may

a) Have excessive resin


b) Voids
c) Poor compaction due to pressure / vacuum failure
d) All the above

89) The gel time of Prepreg depends of

a) Temperature b) Pressure c) Vacuum d) All of these

90) Differential Scanning Calorimeter is used to measure


a) Heat of reaction of Prepreg
b) Volatile content of Prepreg
c) Coefficient of thermal expansion of composites
d) None of these

91) Dynamic mechanical analyzer is used to measure


a) Degree of cure
b) Glass transition temperature
c) Coefficient of thermal expansion of composites
d) None of these

92) Thermo gravimetric analyzer is used to assess


a) Volatile content
b) Weight loss
c) Degradation temperature
d) All the above

93) While fabricating the composite components


a) Shape is imparted
b) Mechanical properties are imparted to the components
c) Chemical properties are imparted to the components
d) All the above

94) Which of the following physical properties are evaluated as part of incoming inspection of Prepreg?
a) Fiber area weight b) Prepreg area weight
c) Volatile content d) All of these

95) Which of the following mechanical properties are evaluated as part of incoming inspection of
Prepreg?
a) Tensile strength and modulus
b) Flexural strength and modulus
c) Compression strength and modulus
d) All of these

96) Which of the following mechanical properties are evaluated on the traveler panels for monolithic
components?
a) Inter laminar shear b) Flexural strength and modulus
c) Both a & b d) Nether a nor b

97) The extent of core movement while curing honeycomb sandwich components depend on
a) The core taper angle b) Core thickness
c) Core density d) All the above

98) The important characteristic of sandwich panel is


a) High bending strength and rigidity
b) High tensile strength and stiffness
c) High impact resistance
d) All of these

99) The number constants required to define the stiffness characteristics of FRP composites in 2D case is
a) 2 b) 3 c) 4 d) 6

100) The most effective and simple test to assess the life of Prepreg is

a) Flow test b) Resin content test c) Tensile test

101) Which of the following is the best-suited lay-up tool material for large complex co-cured component?
a) Al alloy b) Steel c) Invar d) Nickel

102) To effectively reduce the stress concentrations add more of


a) 00 plies (direction of major load) b) 900 plies c) ± 45 0 plies

103) The Glass transition temperature of cured composite depends on


a) The extent of cure b) Cure temperature c) Cure time d) All these

104) Very fast heating rate in cure cycle may result in


a) Temperature shoots up inside the thick lay-ups
b) Non-uniform temperature distribution in the component
c) Warpage in the component d) All of the above

105) Very fast cooling rate in a cure cycle may result in


a) High residual stress in the component
b) Very uniform quality
c) Better surface finish
d) All of these

106) The intermediate dwell in a cure cycle is provided


a) To establish thermal equilibrium before curing
b) To enable the resin to flow and fill the gaps and voids
c) To enable the entrapped air and volatiles to escape under the action of vacuum
d) All of above

107) Why post curing is done?


a) To complete the residual reaction
b) To increase the glass transition temperature
c) To improve high temperature performance
d) All of above
108) Pressure is applied during autoclave curing to
a) Control the void growth
b) Assist the resin to flow and fill the gaps and voids
c) Get better consolidation of layers to achieve the nominal thickness
d) All of above

109) Vacuum is applied during autoclave curing to


a) Suck out all the entrapped air
b) Take out all the volatile products produced during reaction
c) Both a and b d) None of these

110) The permissible volatile content of prepregs is

a) Less than 1% by weight b) Less than 1% by volume


c) Up to 2.5% by weight d) Up to 2.5% by volume

111) The resin system in the prepregs used in LCA structure is


a) 914 b) 913 c) 924 d) 803

112) The glass prepregs are used on the surface of carbon / epoxy components to:
a) To protect the surface
b) To prevent fiber pull-out while drilling
c) To physically separate the metallic component and CFC in the assembly
d) Both b and c

113) The acceptable failure mode in Inter Laminar Shear (ILSS) Test is
a) Single shear b) Multiple shear c) Both a & b

114) The acceptable failure mode in lap shear test for adhesive joint is
a) Adherent failure
b) Cohesive failure
c) Adhesive failure

115) The acceptable failure mode for a flat-wise tensile specimen is


a) Core failure b) Adhesive failure
c) Failure of bonding between the test block and specimen
d) Both b and c

116) The acceptable failure mode for a flexural specimen is


a) Shear failure b) Compression failure
c) Tensile failure d) Both b and c

117) The preferred adhesive for bonding loaded structural components is


a) Liquid adhesive b) Paste adhesive
c) Supported film adhesive d) Foaming adhesive

118) The adhesive used for splicing the core is


a) Paste adhesive b) Supported film adhesive
c) Foaming adhesive d) All the above

119) In a bolted assembly of composite and metallic components


a) Every fastener is a bonded one
b) Every fifth fastener is a bonded one
c) Every tenth fastener is a bonded one
d) The first and the last one are bonded ones

120) The interlaying sealant is used in assembly to


a) Prevent the seepage of moisture into the structure
b) Prevent direct contact between metallic and composite parts
c) Prevent galvanic and crevice corrosions
d) All the above

121) Lightning protection is a major concern in


a) Military aircrafts b) Transport aircrafts
c) Metallic aircrafts d) Composite aircrafts

122) The material suitable for radome is


a) Carbon and glass fiber composite
b) Glass and Kevlar fiber composite
c) Kevlar and Carbon fiber composite
d) Both b and c

123) Post forming operation is possible in


a) Thermoplastic matrix composites
b) Thermoset matrix composites
c) Both a and b
d) Neither a nor b

124) Thermoplastic prepregs has


a) Limited shelf life
b) Unlimited shelf life
c) As much life as Thermoset prepregs

125) Which of the following weave style has better compression strength?
a) Plain weave b) Crow foot
c) 5 harness satin weave d) 8 harness satin weave

126) Which of the following weave style has the least drapeability?
a) Plain weave b) Crow foot
c) Basket weave d) 8 harness satin weave

127) Which of the following weave style has better symmetry about the mid plane?

a) Plain weave b) Crow foot


c) 5 harness satin weave d) 8 harness satin weave
128) Which of the following weave style has better stability?

a) Plain weave b) Crow foot


c) 5 harness satin weave d) 8 harness satin weave

129) Stitching of fiber performs results in


a) Improvement in Delamination resistance
b) Increase in in-plane tensile strength
c) Reduction in out of plane tensile strength
d) All of the above

130) Unit of specific strength is

a) Mpa b) N-m c) Kgf/cm2


d) Meter

131) Specific modulus of a material is


a) Modulus / density b) Modulus / thickness
c) Modulus / volume d) Stress / strain

132) Which of the following is used as primer in finishing the composite components
a) Polyester resin b) Polyurethane
c) Silicon resin d) Epoxy resin

133) Density of Kevlar fiber in gm/cc is


a) 1.78 b) 2.24 c) 1.3 d) 1.4

134) Density of cured epoxy resin is


a) 1.2 gm/cm3
b) 1.8 gm/cm3
c) 1.4 gm/cm3
a) d) 2.5 gm/cm3

135) Which of the following lay-up is symmetric one


a) [90/+45/0/-45/90]
b) [90/±45/0/90/ ±45]
c) [90/+45/-45/0/-45/+45/90]
d) [90/0/+45/-45/0/90]

136) Which of the following lay-up is balanced one


a) [90/+45/0/+45/90]
b) [90/±45/+45/90/ ±45]
c) [90/+45/-45/0/-45/+45/90]
d) [90/0/+45/-45/0/90/-45]

137) Which of the following is quasi-isotropic


a) [90/+45/0/-45/90]
b) [90/±45/0] s
c) [90/+45/-45/0/-45/+45/90]
d) [90/0/+45/-45/0/90/-45]

138) Number of +450 plies in [90/(90/±45/0)2 /+452/0]3s are


a) 12 b) 24 c) 8 d) 48

139) Weight tolerance on monolithic composite components is


a) ±5% b) +8% c) ± 10 % d) ± 9%

140) Tolerance on thickness of composite parts is


a) +8 % / -4% b) ±5% c) ± 3 % d) ± 14 %

141) Which of the following core is preferable to make sandwich panels having CFC skins
a) Nomex b) Aluminum c) Steel d) Aluminum
flex core

142) Post curing is not advised for the following components


a) Honeycomb sandwich components
b) Monolithic CFC components
c) Self stiffened panels
d) Co-cured components

143) The consolidation pressure applied in autoclave while curing honeycomb sandwich components is
a) 2 – 3 bars b) 5 – 7 bars c) 4 – 6 bars d) 8-10 bars

144) Prepreg materials are stored at


a) 00 C b) -100 C c) -180 C d) 50 C

145) The epoxy resin during curing


a) Evolves heat b) Absorbs heat c) Neither evolves nor absorbs

146) The exotherm of curing reaction is


a) Specific heat of resin b) Latent heat of resin
c) Heat of reaction of resin d) None of these

147) DSC is used to measure _____________ of the Prepreg:


a) Coefficient of thermal expansion b) Exotherm of curing reaction
c) Viscosity of resin d) Fiber volume fraction

148) Dynamic Mechanical Analyzer (DMA) is used to measure


a) Storage modulus b) Thermal expansion coefficient
c) Heat of reaction d) Weight loss due to temperature

149) Which of the following is used as conductive sealant


a) PR 1422 A2 b) PR 1422 B2 c) PR 1764 d) PR 1431

150) The commonly used material for metallic lay-up tools for composites
a) Nickel b) Invar c) Aluminium d) All the above

151) Invar is used for lay-up tools because


a) It is anti-corrosive b) It has low co-efficient of thermal expansion
c) It has high strength d) It provides excellent surface finish
154) LTM stands for
a) Liquid transfer moulding b) Low temperature moulding
c) Low resin moulding d) None of the above

153) Which following metal is deposited on lay up tools to improve surface properties
a) Chromium b) Aluminum c) Zinc d) Nickel

154) The spring forward allowance on flanges of composite lay-up tools is


a) 15 deg b) 1 deg 15 min c) 2 deg 30 min d) 10 deg

155) Which material is used to repair fillets on composite tools


a) M-seal b) Gel coat c) Avaplast d) None of the above

156) Post curing of composite tools is carried out


a) To relieve internal thermal stress
b) To improve tool stiffness
c) To provide dimensional stability at high temperature
d) All of the above

157) Acceptable vacuum leak on lay-up tools is


a) 0.05 bar / 5 mins b) 10 bars / min c) 1 bar / 10 min d) 0 leak

158) Cure temperature for LTM tools is


a) 135 deg b) 175 deg c) 70 deg d) 90 deg

159) Preferred metal for lay-up tools for carbon parts


a) Aluminum b) Copper c) Zinc d) None of the above

160) Preferred metal for lay-up tools for KEVLAR / GLASS parts
a) Aluminum b) Copper c) Zinc d) MS

161) Surface finish on metallic lay-up tools is


a) 10 Ra b) 0.6 Ra c) 1 Ra d) 2 Ra

162) Most commonly used material for master models


a) Wood b) Ureol c) Aluminium d) Thermocole

163) Gelcoat is used on composite lay-up tools


a) To obtain high strength b) For easy de-moulding
c) To obtain better surface finish d) To reduce warpage

164) Tool commonly used for de-moulding of composite parts from lay-up tools
a) Screw driver b) Chisel c) Teflon / wooden wedge d) Compressed air

165) Common material used for inflatable mandrel


a) Plastic b) Silicon rubber c) Natural rubber d) Polyester film

166) Commonly used arrangement on composite lay-up tools to correct spring back is
a) Jacks b) Turn buckle c) C-clamps d) Bolts
167) Co-efficient of thermal expansion (CTE) of the lay-up tool as compared to CTE of composite part
material should be
a) More b) Less c) Equal d) Not related

168) Expected tool life of LTM tools is


a) 50 cures b) 100 cures c) 150 + cures d) 200 + cures

169) Life of wet lay-up tools is


a) 30 – 50 cures b) 50 – 100 cures c) 100 cures d) 150 cures

170) Function of caul plate is


a) Impart excess pressure b) Eliminate internal stress
c) Improve compaction & surface finish d) None of the above

171) The function of perforated release film is to facilitate


a) Local compaction b) Flow of air & resin
c) De-moulding d) Both b & c

172) Function of stacked silicon edge dam is


a) Preventing Delamination
b) Force excess resin to flow vertically up & increasing fluid pressure
c) Apply additional pressure
d) Not used on lay-up tools

173) Conventional metal cutting tools can be used for machining


a) Carbon parts b) Glass parts
c) Kevlar parts d) None of the above

174) Which of the following is used while drilling composite parts


a) Backup plates b) Caul plates c) Edge dams d) Simulators

175) The drill tip angle for drilling carbon parts is


a) 90 deg b) 118 deg c) 125 deg d) not applicable

176) The drill tip angle for drilling Kevlar parts


a) 90 deg b) 118 deg c) 125 deg d) 70 deg

177) The drill tip angle for drilling glass parts


a) 90 deg b) 118 deg c) 125 deg d) 70 deg

178) Coolant used for machining of composite parts


a) Cutting oil b) Mist c) Air d) Wax

179) The hole in composite part after drilling


a) Shrinks b) Expands c) No change d) Distorts

180) Machining of Kevlar is difficult due to


a) Inherent toughness b) Low bending modulus c) brittleness d) both a & b

181) Net edge moulding is better than trimmed composite parts


a) True b) False
182) MS layup tools are often provided with
a) Nickel plating b) Hard chrome plating
c) Passivation d) Anodisation

183) Application of release all to steel tools reduces corrosion


a) True b) False

184) CTE problem on large aluminum lay-up tool is overcome by using


a) Additional clamps b) Slipper skin
c) Vacuum bag d) Release film

185) For composite lay-up tools, Tg of the tool as compared to Tg of component material should be
a) Equal b) Less c) More d) Not related

186) Life of LTM lay-up tools as compared to wet lay-uptools is


a) More b) Less c) Equal d) Not related

187) Joggles are created on master models by the use of


a) Wax simulation b) By machining c) By metal inserts d) Both a & b

188) Function of cutouts in lay-up tools sub-structure is


a) To provide air flow b) To provide uniform mould heating
c) To strengthen the tool d) Both a & b

189) Silicon based release agents are not recommended because


a) Composite parts are likely to absorb silicone, which may lead to Delamination
b) It is corrosive c) It is inflammable d) None of the above

190) LTM tools are Post cured at


a) 70 deg b) 100 deg c) 150 deg d) 200 deg

191) Master paste is used for


a) Filling, repair & rework of master models
b) For repair of lay-up tools
c) For composite part repair
d) For simulators

192) Epoxy spray is


a) Surface coat used as pore filler to obtain smooth surface on master models
b) Surface coat used as pore filler to obtain smooth surface on lay-up tools
c) To repair bonding tools
d) None of the above

193) Female master model refers to


a) Concave surface of the component
b) Convex surface of the component
c) Flat surface of the component

194) Male master model refers to


a) Concave surface of the component
b) Convex surface of the component
c) Flat surface of the component

195) The choice of tooling is based upon


a) Number of parts to be produced
b) Tolerances of the part
c) Complexity and appearance
d) All of the above

196) A Structural sandwich consists of


a) One element
b) Three elements
c) Four elements

197) Polyester resin gives higher interlaminar shear strength than epoxy resins
a) True b) False

198) Accelerator
a) Speeds up the chemical reaction between catalyst and resin
b) Deteriorates the chemical reaction between catalyst and resin
c) Does not do anything

199) Anisotropic means


a) Properties are same in different directions
b) Properties varies in different directions
c) Properties are same in different locations
d) Properties vary with respect to location

200) Catalyst
a) Does not change the rate of chemical reaction
b) Changes the rate of chemical reaction
c) Takes part in chemical reaction

201) Catastrophic failures are the mechanical failures


a) Predictable in nature
b) Unpredictable in nature
c) None of the above

202) Stiffened construction are those


a) In which skin and stiffeners are cured together
b) In which skin and stiffeners are cured separately
c) Both a & b are correct.

203) Co-curing means

a) Simultaneous curing of skin and stiffeners together


b) Curing of skin and stiffeners separately
c) Both cured separately and bond together.

204) In composite tools


a) Co-efficient of thermal expansion is high
b) Co-efficient of thermal expansion is low
c) There is no co-efficient of thermal expansion

205) In composites, a tape is referred to

a) Number of perpendicular filaments with a binder


b) Number of parallel filaments with a binder
c) Number of filaments without a binder

206) In Autoclave, the following parameters are maintained

a) Pressure, vacuum b) Pressure, temperature


c) Pressure, vacuum, temperature

207) In a clean room environment, following parameters are controlled

a) Dust, temperature
b) Dust, humidity, temperature
c) Humidity, temperature

208) Hot platen press curing is preferred for


a) Vacuum bag molding b) Matched die molding

209) In composites, the term laminae is referred to


a) Fibers in a matrix b) Particles in a matrix
c) Many layers bonded together

210) Epoxy resins are


a) Thermoplastics b) Thermoset c) Inorganic chemicals

211) In the wet lay-up process fiber to resin ratio is


a) 60: 40 b) 50: 50 c) 70: 30

212) In composites No –bleed system means curing


a) With a bleeder b) Without a bleeder

213) Honeycombs are made from


a) Uncoated and resin impregnated aramid paper
b) Aluminum alloys c) Both a & b

214) Binder in composites is


a) Fiber b) Resin c) None of the above

215) Post curing is done


a) To improve elevated temperature mechanical properties
b) To relieve the thermal stresses induced during curing
c) Both a & b
216) Stiffness is
a) Relation between load & density
b) Relation between load & deformation
c) Relation between load & volume

217) Warp direction in woven fabric


a) Runs lengthwise b) Runs widthwise c) Runs diagonal wise

218) In composites MMC is termed as

a) Many matrix composites


b) Metal matrix composites
c) Modified metal composites

219) Density of carbon fibre is

a) 1.0 gm/cc b) 1.8 gm/cc c) 2.3 gm/cc

220) Density of Kevlar fiber is

a) 1.45 gm/cc b) 2.1 gm/cc c) 2.5 gm/cc

221) Aramid fiber is also called as


a) Carbon fiber b) Glass fiber c) Kevlar fiber

222) Prepregs is in
a) A-stage b) B-stage c) C-stage

223) Gel coat resins are used for the lay-up tools
a) To provide strength
b) To get good surface finish
c) To get bonding strength

224) ILSS is
a) Inter laminar shear stress
b) Inter laminar shear strength
c) Inter laminar shear strain
d) Both a and b

225) The Ribbon direction of the continuous sheets in honeycomb core is


a) W- direction b) L-direction c) T-direction

226) Composite parts can be trimmed using


a) Disc sanders b) Water jet
c) Pneumatic circular saw d) Both b & c

227) PAN stands for


a) Polyacrylonitrite b) Polyacrylonitrile c) Polyacrylicnitride

228) Ultrasonic tests are used


a) To check strength quality
b) To check surface quality
c) To check bond quality

229) The outstanding property of aramid fiber (Kevlar) is


a) High specific tensile strength
b) High compressive strength
c) High shear strength

230) Thermoset prepregs have


a) Unlimited shelf life b) Limited shelf life

231) Whiskers are


a) Short fiber b) Small particles of resin c) A form of core

232) In woven fabric the Weft direction is


a) Along the axis of the roll
b) Along the length of the loom
c) None of these

233) At glass transition temperature


a) Mechanical properties drop rapidly
b) Thermal expansion coefficient increases
c) The specific heat capacity changes
d) All of the above

234) Polyamide is a
a) Type of fiber b) Highly heat resistant resin c) None of the above

235) In isotropic material, the strength


a) Varies with direction
b) Is equal in all directions
c) Is equal in all location
d) Varies with location

236) Charge in cold stores refers to


a) Physical property of a fibre
b) Weight of the material
c) Chemical property of an resin

237) The tool surface of a mould has to be mirror finished because:


a) The lay-up can be done easily.
b) The component can be cured without any volatiles.
c) The components after cure would release easily.
d) The component after cure will not show any distortion.

238) The problem of bridging is


a) Resin & fibres move into radii & corners.
b) Dimensional control problem and voids
c) Consumables fill radii & corner
d) None of the above
239) Buckling is a mode of failure caused on composites by
a) Shear & Tension b) Shear & Compression
c) Inter laminar shear d) Flexure

240) While manufacture of test specimens the following parameters are important.
a) Bonding of Tabs
b) Proper control in perpendicularity and parallelism of edges
c) Perfect fiber orientation
d) All of the above

241) Mylar films are used in composite shop for the following purposes:
a) To photograph the lay up sequence
b) To neatly pack the prepregs
c) To cut / transfer the prepreg layers to moulding tool
d) To identify the layers before lay up

242) Prepreg is
a) Fibers pre-impregnated with resin and cured
b) Fibers mixed with resin and solvents
c) Fibers and resin supplied separately to facilitate impregnation on the job.
d) Roving impregnated with resin and partially cured to B stage

243) Aramid fiber is produced from


a) Rayon
b) PAN
c) PTFE
d) Polyamide (poly-para phenylene terephthalamide)

244) Temperature to be maintained in cold store for storing of prepregs, adhesive films etc.
a) -18 Deg F b) 0 Deg F c) 20 Deg F d) -30 Deg C

245) Carbon fiber composites are used in Aircraft because


a) Composites are advanced materials.
b) Composites can be tailored to suit the Aero-elastic and other Design requirements.
c) Composites are manufactured and machined easily without much details fabrication.
d) Composites are good conductors of lightening.

246) Wet lay-up method is a process in which:


a) Prepregs are stacked on the molding tools and resin is applied by brush.
b) Resin is applied by brush on tool and fiber reinforcements are spread on the tool.
c) Fiber reinforcement is placed on the tool and resin applied by brush or roller to uniformly
spread the resin and the process is repeated.
d) Fiber reinforcements are dipped in resin kept in a tank and the wet fabric is moulded.

247) In a balanced symmetric laminate


a) Layers angles occur only in pairs.
b) Layers angles do not occur in pairs.
c) Layers angles occur in pairs and symmetric about centreline
d) Layers angles occur in pairs and non symmetric about centreline

248) Catalyst in resin system


a) Takes part in the reaction
b) Does not takes part in the reaction
c) Takes part in the reaction and enhances reaction rate
d) Does not take part in the reaction and enhances reaction rate.

249) Raw materials used for Inter spar box


a) Carbon BD Prepreg.
b) Carbon UD Prepreg.
c) Glass fabric Prepreg.
d) All of the above.

250) While drilling a composite component backup plate is used to


a) To avoid enlargement of hole.
b) To maintain accuracy of the hole
c) To avoid exit Delamination of the hole
d) None of the above.

251) Cohesive failure occurs in


a) Laminate b) Honeycomb c) Adhesive layer d) Core filler

252) Special fasteners like lock bolt and blind bolts etc., are used in composites because
a) The fasteners are cheap
b) The fasteners are made of Ti & CRES Alloys
c) The fasteners are engineered to avoid damage and compression around hole
d) Both b & c

253) Faying surface sealant is used for bolted joints in which CFC and metallic components are joined
a) To avoid rubbing and friction between dissimilar material
b) To avoid formation of galvanic cell
c) To avoid ingress of dust in to the joint
d) To provide aerodynamic smooth surface

254) The property denoting the ability of material to resist Delamination is called
a) Bond strength b) Adhesion c) ILSS d) Inter laminar fracture toughness

255) B-stage resin


a) Can be melted b) Cannot be melted
c) Is brittle at room temperature d) Cannot be bonded

256) Braiding is a process in which fibres woven into a shape of


a) Flat fabric b) Cylinders and Tubes
c) Spheres d) Concave & convex shapes

257) Filler material is added to basic resins to


a) Reduce shrinkage b) Improve the mechanical properties
c) Reduce cost d) All of the above

258) Internal stress produced during autoclave processing of composites is called


a) Cure Stress b) Post Cure Stress
c) Lay-up Stress d) None of the above

259) Bleeding is done during curing of composites to remove


a) Excess resin b) Volatiles c) both a & b d) None of the above
260) Delamination is separation of
a) Skin and the stiffener b) Core & skin
c) Layer from laminate d) Both a & c

261) Differential scanning calorimeter gives


a) Loss of solvents and volatiles b) Life of resin
c) Energy absorbed during cure d) None of the above

262) Which of the following weave style has least porosity


a) Plain weave b) Crowfoot weave
c) Basket weave d) Satin weave

263) Liquid shim is


a) Shim prepared out of liquid epoxies.
b) Shim prepared out of sealant and Epoxy adhesives.
c) Shim prepared out of adhesives with fillers, which are able to flow when applied and becomes
solid after cure.
d) None of the above

264) Finishing is applied to fibre to improve


a) Bonding of fibre to resin.
b) Protection against damage during handling and weaving
c) Both a & b
d) None of the above

265) While Assembling Composite Components, following should not be done


a) Dressing and tapping
b) Machining of surface to suit to other metallic part
c) Machining of edges to ensure required suiting
d) Both a & b

266) Gel time is amount of time elapsed before resin sample advance to
a) The gelation at predefined rate of heating.
b) The gelation at predefined rate of cooling
c) The gelation at constant temperature.
d) Both a and c

267) Resin viscosity at gel point of resin is at


a) Low b) Medium c) High d) None of the above

268) Glass transition temperature (Tg) is measured using


a) DSC b) DMA c) TMA d) Either a, b or c

269) Resin starvation can be characterised by


a) Surface porosity b) Loose fibres
c) Disbonds d) Both a & b

270) Tack is adhesive property of Prepreg at Room temperature


a) True
b) False
271) Addition of accelerator in resin mixture increases pot life
a) True b) False

272) After Post cure of a CFC component,


a) Toughness increases b) Toughness decreases c) Toughness remains same

273) HPLC is not used to assess the advancement of reaction in Prepreg.


a) True
b) False

274) Peel ply is used to get matt surface finish on the component.
a) True
b) False

275) C-Scan pulse echo method can detect Delamination in sandwich panels
a) True
b) False

276) Composites made from short fibres are anisotropic


a) True
b) False

277) E-glass fibre has more Tensile strength than S-glass fibre
a) True
b) False

278) Stiffness of Carbon fibre is more than the boron fibre


a) True
b) False

279) Composite materials are Homogeneous materials


a) True
b) False

280) Cure cycle for a specific component depends on,


a) Part thickness b) Resin system
c) Mould material d) All of the above

281) Post curing is an additional curing of the resin


a) Increase the glass transition temperature
b) Increase the moisture resistance
c) Improve hot-wet properties
d) All of the above

282) Properties of Honeycomb materials does not depend on the size of the cells / thickness & strength of the
web material
a) True
b) False

283) Epoxy based Laminates show better Fatigue resistance compared to Polyester / Vinyl ester
a) True
b) False

284) Open mould process will have better surface finish compared to closed mould process
a) True
b) False

285) Wet lay up tool gives more cycle life than LTM tool
a) True
b) False

286) Non-perforated release films are used for Vacuum bagging during wet lay-up
a) True
b) False

287) Natural colour of Rohacell Foam is


a) White b) Yellow c) Silver d) Grey

288) Types of Carbon Fibres are


a) HT b) HM
c) Both HT & HM d) None of the above

289) In Vacuum bag method


a) External pressure is applied b) External pressure not applied
c) Only vacuum applied d) All of the above

290) What is pot life?


a) Time the resin hardener mix becomes hard after mixing
b) Time required to mix the resin with hardener
c) Time that resin can be stored
d) Time that hardener can be stored

291) The density of glass fibres is


a) More than that of carbon fibres
b) Less than that of carbon fibres
c) Equal to that of carbon fibres
d) None of the above

292) Debunking during the Prepreg lay-up


a) Aligns the fibres
b) Removes entrapped air between the layers
c) Reduces the thickness of laminate
d) Spreads the resin

293) Caul plate is


a) To hold the lay-up b) To remove air
c) To get proper surface and corner radius
d) None of the above

294) Breather layer is located


a) Very next to lay-up
b) In-between vacuum bag and peel-ply
c) In-between vacuum bag non-porous and release film
d) In-between vacuum bag and porous release film

295) Is there a shelf life for vacuum bag?


a) Yes b) No c) Not relevant

296) Vacuum bag leak is checked


a) By reading the pressure gauge
b) By disconnecting the vacuum source and reading the pressure gauge immediately
c) By disconnecting the vacuum gauge and reading the pressure gauge after a specified time
d) None of the above methods are correct.

297) Contamination in the form of release liquids during lay-up leads to


a) Poor consolidation of the component
b) Causes the fibres to slip during lay-up
c) Results in Delamination
d) Resin will not cure properly

298) Delamination grows easily in composites under


a) Tensile stress b) Compressive stress
c) Shear stress d) All of the above

299) The preferred failure in bolted joint is


a) Shear out b) Bearing failure c) Net tension failure d) peel failure

300) Failure strain of UD carbon composite is


a) Less than that of standard Aluminium alloys
b) More than that of standard Aluminium alloys
c) Equal to that of standard Aluminium alloys

301) Prepregs are preferred for Aerospace components


a) To reduce production cost
b) To improve rate of production
c) To maintain consistent properties
d) All of the above.

302) Fatigue properties of CFC made of carbon UD tapes


a) Inferior to Aluminium alloys
b) Better than Aluminium alloys
c) Cannot be compared

303) For Radome applications the following material system is preferred


a) Carbon – Epoxy b) Carbon - Polyester
c) Glass – Polyester d) Boron - polyester

304) Epoxy resin system is preferred for structural composites, due to it’s
a) Low shrinkage b) Low cost
c) Easy availability d) Easy pressesability

305) Polyester resins are preferred


a) Structural parts b) For better impact resistance
c) For better chemical resistance to acids d) To reduce cost

306) Galvanic corrosion occurs, if


a) Glass layer is placed in contact with carbon layer
b) Aluminium is placed in contact with carbon composites
c) Titanium is placed in contact with carbon composites
d) Aluminium is placed in contact with glass composites

307) Titanium fasteners are preferred for carbon composites


a) To increase the strength
b) To have better dimensional stability
c) To prevent galvanic corrosion and to reduce weight
d) To prevent Delamination

308) Ultrasound is the propagation of sound waves having frequency


a) Beyond 20 KHz b) Less than 20 KHz

309) Sound travels at different velocities in different medium


a) True b) False

310) X-ray inspection is carried out on composites to detect delaminations


a) True b) False

311) Ultrasonic A- scan inspection gives the size and depth of the defect
a) True b) False

312) Ultrasonic C-scan inspection gives


a) The sectional view of the defect b) The planar view of the defect
c) Loss of attenuation d) Both b & c

313) Ultrasonic B-scan inspection gives the planar view of the part with defect
a) True b) False

314) Wavelength of sound is


a) A constant b) Directly proportional to the frequency
c) Inversely proportional to the frequency d) None of these

321) Velocity of longitudinal wave in CFRP is


a) 3 mm / µs b) 6 mm / µs c) 9 mm / µs d) None of the above

316) Ultrasonic couplant is used to eliminate __________ in between the transducer and the part under
inspection
a) Air b) Corrosion product c) Dust d) All of the above

317) Higher the ultrasonic frequency


a) Lower the ultrasonic attenuation
b) Higher the attenuation
c) Attenuation does not change
d) None of the above

318) Ultrasonic attenuation increases with


a) Decrease in thickness b) Increase in thickness c) None of the above
319) Ultrasonic transducers works on piezoelectric principles
a) True b) False

320) Composites are Homogenous materials


a) True b) False

321) In anisotropic materials characteristics are independent of direction


a) True b) False

322) Material in fibre form are stronger than their bulk form
a) True b) False

323) The constituent that carries structural loads in a composite material is known as matrix
a) True b) False

324) Fibrous reinforcement forms are necessarily one-dimensional


a) True b) False

325) Polymers are the only matrix materials used in engineering applications
a) True b) False

326) Both thermoplastic and thermoset resins are used as matrix materials
a) True b) False

327) In general advanced composite materials have more specific strength and specific stiffness as compared to
other conventional materials
a) True b) False

328) Polymer matrix materials are less ductile compared to metallic materials

a) True b) False

329) Polymer matrix composites do have very good vibration damping characteristics

a) True b) False

330) Composite structural parts for aerospace applications are predominantly made from wet-layup method

a) True b) False

331) The strength and stiffness is directly proportional to amount of reinforcement present in the composite
material

a) True b) False
332) Glass fibres have better resistance to moisture than carbon fibres

a) True b) False

333) The surface finish obtained in the parts made from hot platen press molding is superior to that of
vacuum bagging molding

a) True b) False

334) Composites made from thermoset polymers are re-cyclable

a) True b) False

335) Liquid shim is

a) Shim prepared of liquid epoxies


b) Shim prepared out of sealant & epoxy adhesives
c) Shim prepared out of adhesives with fillers, which are liquid when applied and becomes solid
after cure
d) None of the above

336) Fasteners used for joining components has

a) Smaller contact area


b) Larger contact area
c) As much contact area as for metals
d) Contact area is not a concern

337) For anisotropic material ____________ independent elastic constants are required for analysis

a) 9 b) 36
c) 19 d) 21

338) For monoclinic material _____________ independent elastic constants are required for analysis

a) 19 b) 36
c) 13 d) 21

339) For orthotropic material _____________ independent elastic constants are required for analysis

a) 21 b) 31 c) 13 d) 09

340) For transversely isotropic material _____________ independent elastic constants are required for
analysis
a) 21 b) 05 c) 13 d) 09

341) The best lay-up sequence to reduce Delamination due to interlaminar normal stresses

a) [± 30 / 90]S b) [90 / ± 30]S

342) Interlaminar stresses are caused by mismatch of

a) Modulus between the layers b) Poisons ratio


c) Both a & b d) None of the above

343) Free edge effect is significant in

a) Unidirectional laminate b) Multiangular laminate


c) Thick unidirectional laminate d) None of the above

344) Which of the following ate the design requirement for composite component

a) Service loads b) Temperature & humidity


c) Barely visible impact damage d) All the above

345) ± 45 layers are positioned at the extreme to provide

a) Better damage tolerance b) To increase the buckling strength


c) Both a & b d) None of the above

346) Adding additional layers to the laminate always increase its strength

a) True b) False

347) Structural foam used in aircraft structure

a) PVC foam b) P U foam c) PMI foam d) All of the above

348) Identify the weave style of the fabric

a) Basket weave
b) Plain weave
c) Satin weave
d) None of these
349) Identify the weave style of the fabric
a) Basket weave
b) Crow foot weave
c) Satin weave
d) None of these

350) Identify the fiber preform


a) Basket weave
b) Crow foot weave
c) Satin weave
d) 3-D braid

351) Identify the fiber preform


a) 2-D Braid
b) Multi axial warp Knit
c) 2-D tri axial braid
d) 3-D braid

352) Identify the fiber perform


a) 2-D Braid
b) Multi axial warp Knit
c) 2-D tri axial braid
d) 3-D braid

353) Identify the lay up type


a) Symmetric
b) Un-symmetric
c) Balanced
d) Anti-symmetric

354) Identify the type of defect


a) Delamination
b) Micro crack
c) Fracture
d) None of the above

355) Identify the type of defect


a) Delamination
b) Matrix micro crack
c) Fracture
d) None of the above

356) Identify the weave style of the fabric


a) Basket weave
b) Crow foot weave
c) Satin weave
d) Bi-axial braid

357) The term Denier implies


a) Weight in grams of 1 m2 of fabric b) Thickness of yarn in microns
c) Weight in grams of 9000 meter d) None of the above

358) Rovings are


a) Continuous strands of fibers b) Twisted strands of fibers
c) Both a and b d) None of the above

359) Yarns are


a) Continuous strands of fibers
b) Twisted strands of fibers
c) Both a and b
d) None of the above

360) 50 / 20 Yarn implies


a) 20 denier yarn made from 50 fibers
b) 50 denier yarn made from 20 fibers
c) 50 denier yarns having 20 twists per meter
d) None of the above

361) The two laminates shown have


a) Equal tensile modulus
b) Equal compression modulus
c) Unequal flexural modulus
d) All of the above

362) Identify the type of defect found in Prepreg


a) Blister
b) Birds eye
c) Marcel defects
d) None of the above

*************************************