MN MNG V MY TNH CHNG 2: 1/ The end-to-end delivery of the entire message is the responsibility of the __ layer.

(Transport) 2/ The_______ layer is the layer closest to the transmission medium. (Physical) 3/ Mail services are available to network users through the _______ layer. (Application) 4/ As the data packet moves from the upper to the lower layers, headers are______. (Added) 5/ Layer 2 lies between the physical layer and the _______ layer. (Network) 6/ When data are transmitted from device A to device B, the header from A's layer 4 is read by B's _______ layer. (Transport) 7/ The _______ layer changes bits into electromagnetic signals. (Physical) 8/ Which of the following is an application layer service? (Remote log-in, Mail service, File transfer and access) 9/ In the OSI model, encryption and decryption are functions of the _____ layer. (Session) 10/ When a host on network A sends a message to a host on network B, which address does the router look at? (Logical) 11/ To deliver a message to the correct application program running on a host, the_______ address must be consulted. (Port) 12/ The ______ layer is responsible for moving frames from one hop to the next. (Data link) 13/ The ______ layer adds a header to the packet coming from the upper layer that includes the logical addresses of the sender and receiver. (Data link) 14/ The ______ layer establishes, maintains, and synchronizes the interactions between communicating devices. (Physical) 15/ The _________ layer enables the users to access the network. (Application) 16/ Match the following to one or more layers of the OSI model: a. Reliable end-to-end (process-to-process) message delivery b. Route selection c. Defines frames d. Provides user services such as e-mail and file transfer e. Transmission of bit stream across physical medium 17/ Match the following to one or more layers of the OSl model: a. Communicates directly with user's application program b. Error correction and retransmission c. Mechanical, electrical, and functional interface d. Responsibility for carrying frames between adjacent nodes CHNG 3: 1/ Which three layers of the OSI model make up the application model of the TCP/IP model? (choose three) A) Network C) Data link E) Presentation B) Transport D) Session F) Application

2/ What protocol is used to transfer web pages from server to client? (HTTP) 3/ A network administrator is troubleshooting failed access to www.cisco.com. Typing the IP address of the web page into the browser successfully brings up the web page. What application layer protocol is responsible for the failure? (DNS) 4/ Which protocols use authentication and encryption to secure data traveling between client and server? (choose two) (HTTPS v SSH) 5/ What is the top-level domain of the URL: http://www.cisco.com/web/learning/netacad/index.html (.com) 6/ To have a hierarchical name space, a _______ was designed. (Domain name) 7/ Which of the following is an application layer service? (File transfer and access) 8/ In the DNS, the names are defined in _______structure. (An inverted-tree) 9/ To distinguish data from control characters, each sequence of control characters is preceded by a special control character called _______. A) ICA C) AIC B) IAC D) None of the above 10/ FTP uses the services of _____. (TCP) 11/ In FTP, the well-known port ____ is used for the control connection and the wellknown port ________ for the data connection. (21; 20) 12/ In FTP, when we _______, it is copied from the client to the server. A) retrieve a file C) retrieve a list B) store a file D) none of the above 13/ In the Internet, the email address consists of two parts: a _____ and a_____.(Local part; domain name hoc global part; domain name) 14/ SMTP is a __________protocol.(Pull hoc push) 15/ Match the functions to the appropriate email component: MTA, MDA, and MUA a. Resolves final delivery issues b. Forwards mail between servers using SMTP c. Retrieves mail using POP d. Performs actual delivery to users mailbox e. Receives mail from client f. Client used to access and read mail 16/ Which three statements about DHCP are true? (choose three) a. DHCP uses UDP. b. DHCPOFFER message is sent by the DHCP server after receiving a DHCPDISCOVER message from a client. c. DHCP uses ports 67 and 68. d. DHCPREQUEST message is sent by a DHCP client to locate a DHCP server. e. DHCPACK message is sent by a DHCP server to provide a DHCP client with the DHCP server MAC address for further communication. f. All DHCP communications are broadcast. Chng 4: 1/ One of the responsibilities of the transport layer protocol is to create a _____ communication. (end-to-end) 2/ The local host and the remote host are defined using IP addresses. To define the processes, we need second identifiers called _____. (port addresses)

3/ TCP allows the sending process to deliver data as a _____of bytes and allows the receiving process to obtain data as a ______of bytes. (stream; stream) 4/ Because the sending and the receiving processes may not write or read data at the same speed, TCP _____. (uses buffers) 5/ TCP groups a number of bytes together into a packet called a _____. (Segment) 6/ TCP is a ________protocol. (choose two) (connection-oriented v reliable) 7/ The bytes of data being transferred in each connection are numbered by TCP. The numbering starts with a _______. randomly generated number) ( 8/ The TCP sequence number for each segment is the number of _____. (the first byte carried in that segment) 9/ The acknowledgment number is _____. (cumulative) 10/ The value of the window size is determined by ____. (the receiver) 11/ A SYN + ACK segment cannot carry data; it consumes _____ sequence number(s). (none of the above) 12/ An ACK segment, if carrying no data, consumes ______ sequence number(s).no) ( 13/ The connection establishment procedure in TCP is susceptible to a serious security problem called the ______ attack. (SYN flooding) 14/ A FIN segment consumes ____ sequence numbers if it does not carry data.none ( of the above) 15/ If the ACK value is 200, then byte _______ has been received successfully.199) ( 16/ Multiply the header length field by ______ to find the total number of bytes in the TCP header. (4) 17/ TCP delivers ____ out-of-order segments to the process. (no) 18/ To accomplish flow control, TCP uses a _________ window protocol. (sliding) 19/ In TCP, one end can stop sending data while still receiving data. This is called a ______. (half-close) 20/ UDP is called a ________,________transport protocol.connectionless, unreliable) ( 21/ In the sending computer, UDP receives a data unit from the _______ layer. (application) 22/ Which of the following does UDP guarantee? (none of the above) 23/ The source port address on the UDP user datagram header defines ______.the ( process on the sending computer hoc the receiving computer) 24/ The combination of an IP address and a port number is called a ________.socket ( address) 25/ UDP packets have a fixed-size header of _______ bytes. (8)2 26/ UDP packets are encapsulated in ___________. (an IP datagram (packet)) 27/ During data transfer, which are main responsibilities of the receiving host? (choose two) (acknowledgement v reassembly) 28/ What determines how much data a sending host running TCP/IP can transmit before it must receive an acknowledgement? (window size) 29/ What is the purpose of the sequence number in the TCP header? (reassemble the segments into data) 30/ At the transport layer, which of the following controls is used to avoid a transmitting host overflowing the buffers of a receiving host? (flow control)

31/ Compare the TCP header and the UDP header. List the fields in the TCP header that are missing from UDP header. Give the reason for their absence. 32/ What can you say about the TCP segment in which the value of the control field is one of the following? a. 000000 b. 000001 c. 010001 33/ What is the maximum size of the TCP header? (4x15=60) What is the minimum size of the TCP header? (20) CHNG 5 1/ Which protocol provides connectionless network layer services? (IP) 2/ Which protocol is connectionless? (UDP) 3/ A best-effort delivery service such as IPv4 includes ____. (none of the above) 4/ IP is _______ datagram protocol. (an unreliable v a connectionless) 5/ In IPv4 header, an HLEN value of decimal 10 means _______. (there are 40 bytes in the header) 6/ In IPv4, what is the value of the total length field in bytes if the header is 28 bytes and the data field is 400 bytes? (428) 7/ In IPv4, what is the length of the data field given an HLEN value of 12 and total length value of 40,000? (39952) 8/ In IPv4, what is needed to determine the number of the last byte of a fragment? (Offset number v Total length) 9/ An IPv4 datagram is fragmented into three smaller datagrams. Which of the following is true? (The identification field is the same for all three datagrams.) 10/ The IPv4 header size _______.(is 20 to 60 bytes long) 11/ In IPv4, if the fragment offset has a value of 100, it means that _______.the first ( byte of the datagram is byte 800) 12/ In IPv4, when a datagram is encapsulated in a frame, the total size of thedatagram must be less than the _______. (MTU) 13/ What are the key factors to consider when grouping hosts into a common network? (choose three) (purpose, geographic location v ownership) 14/ What are three pieces of information about a route are contained in a routing table? (choose three) (next hop, metric v destination network address) 15/ Which network layer device can separate a network into different broadcast domains? (router) 16/ Which part of a network layer address does router use during path determination? ( the network address) 17/ ICMP is a _______layer protocol. (network) 18/ An ICMP message has _____ header and a variable-size data section. (an 8-byte) 19/ Which of the following is true about ICMP messages? (none is true) 20/ Which routing principle is correct? Every router makes its routing decisions alone, ( based on the information it h in its own routing table) as 21/ What two tasks do dynamic routing protocols perform? (choose two) (update and maintain routing tables v network discovery)

22/ What are two advantages of static routing over dynamic routing? (choose two) More secure because routers do not advertise routes v No computing overhead) CHNG 6 1/ How many usable hosts are available given a Class C IP address with thedefault subnet mask? (254) 2/ Which subnet mask would be assigned to the network address of 192.168.32.0to provide 254 useable host addresses per subnetwork?(255.255.255.0) 3/ What is the network broadcast address for a Class C address of 192.168.32.0with the default subnet mask? (192.168.32.255) 4/ The network 128.128.32.0 has 1022 useable hosts. What is the subnet maskfor this network? (255.255.252.0) 5/ Given a host with the IP address 172.32.65.13 and a default subnet mask, towhich network does the host belong?(172.32.0.0 hoc 172.32.65.32) 6/ Which criteria identifies a Class B address? (a decimal number in first octet from 128 to 191) 7/ A small company has a class C network license and needs to create 5 subnets, each subnet capable of accommodating at least20 hosts. Which of the following is the appropriate subnet mask? (255.255.255.224) 8/ How many bits are available for Class B host IP addresses using the default subnet mask? (16) 9/ Company XYZ uses a network address of 192.168.4.0. It uses the mask of 255.255.255.192 to create subnets. What is the maximum number of usable hosts in each subnet? (62) 10/ Which are the network and broadcast addresses when given an IP host address of 198.101.6.55/28? (Choose two) (198.101.6.48 v 198.101.6.63) 11/ Given the choices below, which address represents a unicast address? (172.31.128.255/18) 12/ Which two of the addresses below are available for host addresses on thesubnet 192.168.15.19/28? (Choose two) (192.168.15.17 v 192.168.15.14) 13/ You have a Class C network, and you need 10 subnets. You wish to have as many addresses available for hosts as possible. Which one of the following subnet masks should you use? (255.255.255.240) 14/ How many subnets and hosts are available per subnet if you apply a /28 mask to the 210.10.2.0 class C network? (16 subnets and 14 hosts) 15/ A network was assigned the Class C network 199.166.131.0 from the ISP. If the administrator want to subnet this network using the 255.255.255.240 subnet mask, how many hosts will they be able to support on each subnet? 14) ( 16/ What is the subnet for the host IP address 172.16.210.0/22? (172.16.252.0 hoc 172.16.208.0) 17/ What is the subnet for the host IP address 201.100.5.68/28? (201.100.5.64) 18/ What is the IP address range for the first octet in a class B address, in binary form? (10000000-1011111)

19/ Your network uses the 172.12.0.0 class B address. You need to support 459 hosts per subnet, while accommodating the maximum number of subnets. Which mask would you use? (255.255.254.0) 20/ Using a subnet mask of 255.255.255.224, which of the IP addresses below can you assign to the hosts on this subnet? (Choose three)(92.11.178.93; 134.178.18.56 v 192.168.16.87) 21/ Your ISP has assigned you the following IP address and subnet mask: IP address: 199.141.27.0 Subnet mask: 255.255.255.240 Which of the following addresses can be allocated to hosts on the resultingsubnet? (Choose three) (199.141.27.2; 199.141.27.13 v 199.141.27.11) 22/ The IP network 210.106.14.0 is subnetted using a /24 mask. How many networks and host addresses can be obtained from this?1( networks with 254 hosts) 23/ Given that you have a class B IP address network range, which of the subnet masks below will allow for 100 subnets with 500 usable host addresses per subnet? (255.255.254.0) 24/ You have a class C network, and you need to design it for 10 subnets with each subnet handling a minimum of 12 hosts each. Which of the following network masks should you use? (255.255.255.240) 25/ The 201.145.32.0 network is subnetted using a /26 mask. How many networks and IP hosts per network exist using this subnet mask? (4 networks and 62 hosts) 26/ Your ISP assigned you a full class B address space. From this, you need at least 300 sub-networks that can support at least 50 hosts each. Which of the subnet masks below are capable of satisfying your needs? (Choose two) (255.255.255.128 v 255.255.255.192) 27/ A PC has the IP address 172.16.109.10/22. What is the subnet of this address? (172.16.108.0) 28/ You've been assigned the CIDR (Classless Inter-Domain Routing) block of 115.64.4.0/22 from your ISP. Which of the IP addresses below can you use fora host? (Choose three) (115.64.6.255; 115.64.3.255 v 115.64.5.128) 29/ Which of the following IP addresses is a private IP address? (Choose two) (172.20.14.36 v 192.168.42.34) 30/ Which of the following IP hosts would be valid for PC users, assuming that a/27 network mask was used for all of the networks? (Choose three) (83.121.178.93; 134.178.18.56 v 192.168.19.37) 31/ What is the network address for a host with the IP address 201.100.5.68/28? (201.100.5.64) 32/ If an Ethernet port on router was assigned an IP address of 172.16.112.1/20,what is the maximum number of hosts allowed on this subnet? (4094) 33/ Which of the following IP addresses for the network 27.35.16.32/28 can be assigned to hosts? (Choose three) (27.35.16.33; 27.35.16.44 v 27.35.16.45) CHNG 7: 1/Which frame field is created by a source node and used by a destination node to ensure that a transmitted data signal has not been altered by interference, distortion, or signal loss? (frame check sequence)

2/ Which data link layer addressing scheme is used in point-to-point topology?layer 2 ( addressing not required for thistopology) 3/ What do network hosts use data link layer addresses for?local delivery) ( 4/ Which three basic parts are common to all frame types supported by the data link layer? (choose three) (header, data v trailer) 5/ Which of the following are sublayers of the data link layer? (MAC, LLC) 6/ What are two characteristics of the controlled media access method? (choose two) (It is known as a deterministic access method v There are no collisions when this type of method is in use) 7/ Which of the following are data link layer encapsulation details? (choose two) (A header and trailer are added vPackets are packaged into frames) 8/ What is achieved by the encapsulation process at the data link layer? (Packets are put into frames) 9/ Match the following characteristics to the associated media access control method: controlled access, contention-based access? Controlled access:deterministic, token passing, no collisions, Only one station can transmit at a time Contention-base access: Ethernet, non-deterministic, more efficient use of bandwidth, Stations can transmit at any time 10/ Match the following characteristics to the associated topology: point-to-point, multi-access, ring Point-to-poin: connects two nodes directly, logical virtual circuit Multi-access: CSMA/CD, shared media Ring: deterministic, token passing CHNG 8: 1/ What kind of connection is presented in the figure? (console connection)

2/ What is the purpose of signaling? (Represents data bits by using different voltages, light patterns or electromagnetic waves as they are placed onto the physical media.) 3/ What best describles the purpose of Physical layer? Defines the functional ( specifications for link between end systems and the electrical, optical, and radio signals.) 4/ Through what process does UTP cable help to avoid crosstalk? (twisting of pairs) 5/ What are the advantages of using fiber optic cable over copper cable? (choosethree) (immunity to electromagnetic interference; longer maximum cable length v greater bandwidth potential) 6/ What cable type would be used to connect a computer directly to another computer? (rollover)

7/. What is the purpose of cladding in the fiber optic cables? prevention of light loss) ( 8/ Refer to the exhibit. The network in the exhibit is wired with CAT5e cable and workstation C is unable to communicate with the network. What Physical layer problem would cause this problem? (cable length)

(Phi nh hn 100m)

CHNG 9: (khng hc) 1/ Which layer 2 sublayer provides services to the network layer of OSI model? A) FCS B) IEEE 802.3 C) LLCD) MAC 2/ What is the purpose of media access control? A) It identifies which workstation has sent a frame. B) It determines which layer 3 protocol should handle a frame. C) It identifies which Ethernet frame format to use on the network. D) It determines which workstation on a shared medium LAN is allowed to transmit data. 3/ What is primary function of CSMA/CD in an Ethernet network? A) assigns MAC addresses to hosts B) defines the area in which collisions can occur C) provides a method to determine when and how hosts access the medium D) maps an IP address to a MAC address 4/ Which of the following are fields in an 802.3 Ethernet frame? (choose three) A) source physical address B) source logical address C) media type identifier D) frame check sequence E) destination physical address F) destination logical address

5/ Which devices shown in the graphic must have a MAC address?

A) only PC B) PC and router C) PC, hub, and router D) PC, printer, and router 6/ What address type does a switch use to make selective forwarding decisions? A) source IP B) destination IP C) source MAC D) destination MAC 7/ Which term describes the time delay between a frame being sent from a source device and received on a destination device? A) bandwidth B) latency C) Time-To-Live D) Frame Checksum 8/ In the graphic, host A has reached 50% completion in sending a 1 KB Ethernet frame to host D when host B wishes to transmit its own frame to host C. What must host B do?

A) Host B can transmit immediately since it is connected on its own cable segment B) Host B must wait to receive a CSMA transmission from the hub to signal its turn C) Host B must send a request signal to host A by transmitting an interframe gap D) Host B must wait until it is certain that host A has completed sending its frame 9/ Refer to the exhibit. An Ethernet switch has developed the MAC address table shown in the exhibit. What action will the switch take when it receives the frame shown at the bottom of the exhibit?

A) discard the frame B) forward the frame out interface 1 C) forward the frame out interface 3 D) forward the frame out interface 4 E) forward the frame out all interfaces F) forward the frame out all interfaces

10/ What are two key features of an Ethernet switch with Layer 2 capabilities? (choose two)

A) full-duplex operation B) layer 3 routing functions C) filtering based on MAC address D) Network Address Translation (NAT) E) broadcast and multicast traffic management 11/. Refer to the exhibits. How many collision and broadcast domains are presented in these networks? A) B)

12/ Refer to the exhibit. In this network segment, host A needs to send data to host B. Which Layer 2 and Layer 3 destination and source addresses will be used in this session?

13/ Refer to the exhibit. The partial frame shown below displays select header information as it arrives at the destination host.

Of the following choices shown below, which one represents the correct header information in the responding frame returned to the remote host? A)

B)

C)

D) 14/ What is the purpose of an Address Resolution Protocol (ARP) request message? A) It binds the IP address of a host to the network that it is on. B) It encapsulates the Layer 3 address and then passes the packet to Layer 2. C) It builds a correlation between an IP address and a MAC address. D) It provides connectivity and path selection between hosts on a network. 15/ Which of the following is an ARP that acts on behalf of a set of hosts? A) ARP B) RARP C) proxy ARP D) none of the above 16/ Which type of communication does an ARP request normally use? A) broadcast B) unicast C) multicast D) none of the above 17/ Which type of communication does an ARP reply normally use? A) broadcast B) unicast C) multicast D) none of the above

BONUS: MN MNG V TRUYN D LIU 1/ The ___ is the physical path over which a message travels. (Medium) 2/ The information to be communicated in data communication systems is the ________. (Message) 3/ Which topology requires a central comtroller or hub? (Star) 4/ Communication between a computer and a keyboard involves _____ transmission. (Simplex) 5/ A television broadcast is an example of _____. (Simplex) 6/ The internet model consists of _____ layers. (Five) 7/ The ____ layer is the layer closest to the transmission medium. (Physical) 8/ Mail services are available to network users through the _______ layers. (Application) 9/ As the data packet moves from the lower to the upper layers headers are ______. (Subtracted) 10/ The ____ layer changes bits into electrounagmetic signals (Physical) 11/ Which of the following is an application layer service? (Remote log-in, File transfer and access, Mail service) 12/ which of the following can be determined from a spectrums of a signals? (Frequency) 13/ In a frequency domain, the vertical axis measures the ______. (Peak amplitude) 14/ Which of the following can be determined from frequency domain grasph of a signal? (Bandwith) 15/ If the bandwith of a signal is 5Khz and the lowest frequency is 52Khz, What is the highest frequency? (5+52=57Khz) 16/ What is the bandwith of a signal that langes from 40Khz to 4Mhz? (4000Khz 40Khz = 3960Khz = 3,96Mhz) 17/ As frequency increases, the period _____. (Decreases) 18/ Given two Sin wave A and B, if the frequency of A is twice that of B then period of B is _____ that of A. (Twice) 19/ A Sin wave is _______. (Periodic and Continuous) 20/ A signal is measured at two different points. The power P1 at the first point, P2 at the second point. The db is zero. This means _____. (P2 equal P1, db = 10log(P2/P1) = 0 ==> P2/P1 = 1 ==> P1=P2) 21/ Unipolar, bipolar and polar encoding are types of _____ encoding. (Line) 22/ If a symbol is composed of 3 bits, there are ____ data levels. (8) 23/ ______ encoding has a transition at the middle of each bit. (RZ, Manchester, Differrential Manchester)

24/ PCM is an example of _____ conversion. (A to D) 25/ If the frequency spectrum of a signal has a bandwith of 500Hz with the highest frequency at 600Hz, What should be the sampling rate, according to the Nyquist theorem? (fS >= 2fmax ==> 2 x 600Hz = 1200samples/s) 26/ The Nyquist theorem specifiles the milimum sampling rate to be ____. (Twice the highest frequency of a signal) 27/ Which encoding method uses altermating positive and negatieve values of 1s? (NRZ-I) 28/ In _____ transmassion, bits a trasmitted simultaneously, each a cross its own wire. (Parallel) 29/ ASK, PSK, FSK and QAM are examples of _____ modulation. (D to A) 30/ In QAM, both phase and ____ of a carrier frequency are varied. (Amplitude) 31/ If the baud rate is 400 for a QPSK signal, the bit rate is ____ bps. (800) ( 1baud = 2bit 400buad = ? bit ) 32/ If the bit rate for a QAM signal is 3000bps and a signal units is represented by a tribit, what is the buad rate? (1000bit) ( 3baud = 3000bit 1baud = ? bit ) 33/ If the baud rate for a QAM signal is 1800 and the bit rate 9000. How many bits are the per signal unit? (5bit) ( 1800baud = 9000bit 1baud = ? bit ) 34/ A modulated signal is formed by _____. (Changing the carrier wave by the modulating signal) 35/ The sharing of a medium and its link by two or more devices is called ______. (Multiplexing) 36/ Which multiplexing technique transmits analog signals? (FDM & WDM) 37/ Which multiplexing technique transmits digital signals? (TDM) 38/ In TDM, for n signal sources of the same data rate, each frame contains _____ slots. (n) 39/ Guard band increase the bandwith for _____. (FDM) 40/ Transmission medium are closest to the _____ layer. (Physical) 41/ In fiber optics, the signal source is _____ wave. (Light) 42/ Which of the following is not a guided medium? (Atmosphere) 43/ A telephone network is an example of a network. (Circuite-switched)

44/ The local loop has ____ cable that connects the subscribers telephone to the mearest end office. (Twisted-pair) 45/ A traditional telephone line has a bandwidth of ____. (4000Hz) 46/ Identify the class of IP address 229.1.2.3 (Class D) 47/ Identify the class of IP address 191.1.2.3 (Class B) 48/ A subnet mask in class B has nineteen 1s. How many subnets does it define? (8) 49/ A subnet mask in class C has twenty-five 1s. How many subnets does it define? (2) 50/ Given the IP adresss 201.14.78.65 and the subnet mask 255.255.255.244. What is the subnet address? (201.11.78.64) 51/ In a class C subnet. We know the IP add of one of the host and the mask as: IP add: 192.44.82.16 Mask: 255.255.255.19 What is the first network address? (192.44.82.16) 52/ IP add: 18.250.31.14 SM: 255.240.0.0 Subnet add? (10.240.0.0/12) 53/ Which error detection method involves polynomials? (CRC) 54/ In cyclie redundancy checking, What is CRC? (The remainder) 55/ In cyclie redundancy checking, the divisor is ___ the CRC. (2 bit more than) 56/ If the data unit is 111111, the divisor 1010 and the remainder 110, what is the dividend at the receiver? 57/ If odd parity is used for ASCII error detection, the number of 0s per 8 bit symbol is _____.(Odd) 58/ The hamming code is a method of _____. (Error detection & Error correction) 59/ In CRC there is no error if the remainder at the receiver is ____. (Zero) 60/ At the CRC generator, _____ added to the data unit before the division process. (0s are) 61/ At the CRC checker, _____ means the data unit is damaged. (A none zero remainder) 62/ ARQ stand for _____. (Automatic repeat request) 63/ For stop-and-wait ARQ, for n data packets seat ____ acknowledgements are needed. (n) 64/ HDLC is an acronym for _____. (High-level data link control) 65/ The HDLC _____ field defines the beginning & end of a frame. (Flag) 66/ If a FDMA network has eight stations, the medium bandwidth has ___ bands. (8) 67/ If a TDMA network has eight stations, the medium bandwidth has ____ bands. (1)

68/ If a CDMA network has eight station, the medium bandwidth has ____ bands. (1) 69/ Which of the following is a connecting device? (Bridge, Repeater & Hub) 70/ Repeaters function in the ____ layer? (Physical) 71/ A ____ is actually a multiport repeater. (Hub) 72/ A repeater takes a weekened or corrupted signal and ____ it. (Regenerates: ti to) 73/ VLAN technology divices a LAN into ____ groups. (Logical) 74/ In a VLAN, station are separated into groups by ____. (Software method) 75/ In ____, a mobile station always communicates with just one bas station. (A soft handoff) 76/ _____ is a fisrt-generation cellular phone system. (AMPS) 77/ _____ is a second-generation cellular system. (D-AMPS, GSM, IS-95) 78/ _____ is a cellular telephone system popular in Europe. (GMS) 79/ GMS uses ____ for multiplexing (TDMA & FDMA) 80/ A GEO satellite has ____ orbit. (An equatorial) 81/ Which orbit has the highest altitude? (GEO) 82/ ____ has 66 satellite size LEOs. (Iridium)