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PART I

Q1. Who gave the Decimal system? Q2. When did the recent earthquake followed by Tsunami hit Japan? Ans. March 2011 Q3. Who discovered vaccination for smallpox? Ans. Edward Jenner Q4. On which principle does the Nuclear power plants works? Ans. Nuclear Fission Q5. The ratio of ages of A and B is 3:1,the ratio would be 2:1 after 15 years. What are their present ages? Ans. 3x + 15/x+15 = 2/1 On solving we get ages as 15 yrs and 45yrs. Q6. When were the Indian states reshuffled on linguistic basis? Ans. States Reorganization Act, 1956 came into being as on 1st November 1956. Q7. What will be the value o (x)(x)(x)(x3) ? Ans. X6 Q8. The ratio of the angles of the triangle is 3:4:5, what is the measurement of the largest angle? Ans. 75o Q9. Who was the first man to reach South Pole? Ans. first humans to reach the Geographic South Pole were Norwegian Roald Amundsen and his party on December 14, 1911. Q10. Who was the pioneer of green revolution in India Ans. Dr. M. S. Swaminathan Q11. Who gives Oath to The President of India? Ans. Chief Justice of India Q12. The largest circle drawn around the earth would pass along? Ans. Equator Q13. The president of India uses the legislative powers according to the advice of? Ans. Council of Ministers headed by the Prime Minister. Q14. Who allocates the portfolios to the ministers? Ans. The President allocates portfolios among the Ministers on the recommendations of the Prime Minister.

Q15. When can speaker of the Lok Sabha cast his/her vote in the house? Ans. When there is a tie(votes are equal) Q16. Who is the author of PANCHTANTRA ? Ans. Vishnu Sharma Q17. Who is the Banker of all banks? Ans. Reserve Bank of India(RBI) Q18. Which of bank was earlier called Imperial Bank Ans. State bank of India (SBI) Q19. Who established Banaras Hindu University? Ans. Pandit Madan Mohan Malviya in 1916 Q20. Who gave the slogan Back to the Vedas? Ans. Swami Dayanand Saraswati Q21. Who said Good government is no substitute for self-government? Ans. Mahatma Gandhi Q22. Who started KHILAFAT MOVEMENT? Ans. The Ali brothers, Maulana Muhammad Ali and Shaukat Ali. Q23. Julian assagne is associated with? Ans. Wikileaks Q24. Where was the first cotton mill established in India? Ans. "The Bombay Spinning Mill", was founded in 1854 in Bombay by Cowasji Nanabhai Davar Q25. Who was the first women president of Indian National Congress? Ans. Annie Besant Q26. Approximately how many people speak Chinese in the world? Ans. 6 billion Q27. Approximately how many words are present in English language? Ans. 4.5 lakh Q28. Optical fibers are used for ? Ans. Communication Q29. Global warming is due to? Ans. CO2 Q30. Which of the following is good conductor of electricitya.) Hot Filtered water b.) Filtered water c.) Filtered water at room temperature d.) salt water

Ans. Salt water (due to presence of ions) 31.) What ids the minimum age required to be elected as president? Ans. 35 years 32.) What is 4 (10-5) Ans. 0.00004 33.) An Ice slab kept at room temperature woulda.) only radiate heat b.) radiate no heat but absorb heat from the surrounding c.) radiate more heat than the heat absorbed d.) radiate less heat than the heat absorbed Ans. Radiate no heat but absorb heat from the surrounding 34.) Approximately how many languages and dialects are spoken in the world? Ans. 35.) which language has the largest vocabulary? Ans. English 36.) Which is the oldest Indian language? Ans. Tamil 37.) A is father of C, D is son of B, E is brother of A, C and D are brother and sister. What is the relationship of B to E Ans. Sister-in-law 38.) Who was Marco Polo? Ans. 39.) Ten rupee note bears the signature of? Ans. Governor of RBI 40.) Complete the series1 2 3 7 14 10 5 9 ? 11 7

Ans. 12 (1*2)+1=3, (7*14)+7=105, (9*12)+9=117

PART II
Write an essay on one of the following topics in not more than 400 words, a.) Emergence of India as a superpower b.) Security threats to India c.) Cultural diversity in India

Examination for Assistant central intelligence officer, IB was held on 10th July 2011. The paper was held in one session. The paper was of 1 hour and 40 minutes excluding 20 minutes for filling of details. The paper had two parts, part I was of 100 marks and consisted of 100 multiple choice questions covering general knowledge and current affairs, reasoning and arithmetic whereas, part II was descriptive type, and required to write an essay in not more than 400 words and was of 50 marks. Therefore the total marks for the examination was 150 marks.

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