CRHP

ADVANCED HEALTH PHYSICS REVIEW COURSE
ABHP American Board of Health Physics Examination Preparation Guide

Volume 1 Physics of Radiation and Nuclei
Volume 2 Radiation Interactions, Characteristics, and Biological Effects
Volume 3 Kinetics
Volume 4 Radiation Detection and Measurements
Volume 5 Statistics
Volume 6 External Radiation Dosimetry and Shielding
Volume 7 Internal Radiation Dosimetry and Bioassay
Volume 8 Excerpts From the 1970 Radiological Health Handbook
Volume 9 Practical Certification Exams 1-5
Volume 10 Practical Certification Exams Part II - Solutions to Exams 1-5
Volume 11 PEP Session Handouts at HPS Meeting and Miscellaneous Part II Practice Questions
Volume 12 ABHP Part II Certification Exams 1987 - 1991
Volume 13 ABHP Part II Certification Exams 1992 - 1995
VOLUME 14
ABHP Part II Certification Exams
1997 - 2001
K.A.L., Inc., 2001
All Rights Reserved

ABHP Part II Certification Exam
1997
K.A.L., Inc., 2000
All Rights Reserved
Question 1, p 1 of 1
QUESTION 1
You are the health physicist responsible for setting up an air-sampling system in the exhaust vent
of a nuclear facility which emits both particulates and radioiodine.
POINTS
10 A. Define isokinetic sampling and discuss its significance in setting up the air-
sampling system. What is the effect on the representative nature of the air sample
if the system is anisokinetic?
10 B. Assuming anisokinetic sampling conditions, list two principle factors which
contribute to the error relative to collection of a representative sample. Number
your responses. Only the first 2 will be graded.
10 C. Sampling line losses can range widely (from zero to 100 percent). List five
factors that lead to sample line losses. Number your responses. Only the first
5 will be graded.
10 D. If copper tubing is used for the sampling line in the air-sampling system you are
setting up for particulates and radioiodines, what would be the effect on the air
sample? Why?
10 E. Briefly describe the function of using a cascade impactor air sampler in the initial
design of a sampling system that minimizes sampling line losses.
QUESTION 2
An inhalation incident involving airborne
60
Co and
131
I occurred at a radiochemistry laboratory.
The worker immediately took a shower and changed clothes, then received a whole body count.
Assume that the
60
Co was a class Y compound and the
131
I was class D. Apply ICRP 30
methodology to answer the following questions.
GIVEN:

60
Co data:
T
1/2
= 5.2 years
For inhalation class Y:
ALI
stoch
= 30 : Ci
Committed dose equivalent (CDE) in lungs: 3.4x10
-7
Sv/Bq (f
N-P
, f
T-B
, f
P
) = (0, 0, 100)
where: f
N-P
, f
T-B
, f
P
are the fractional contributions of the CDE to the reference
tissue from initial depositions in the nasal passages, tracheo-bronchial, and
pulmonary regions, respectively.
Fraction of initial intake remaining in whole body as a function of inhaled
particle size (in microns) and elapsed time:
Elapsed Time Inhaled Particle Size
(days) 1 : : m 5 : : m 10 : : m
0 0.63 0.91 1.00
1 0.57 0.80 0.87
5 0.18 0.10 0.09
10 0.14 0.06 0.04
15 0.13 0.05 0.04
20 0.12 0.05 0.03
ICRP 26 recommended weighting factors
Organ or tissue W
T
Gonads 0.25
Breast 0.15
Red bone arrow 0.12
Lung 0.12
Thyroid 0.03
Bone surfaces 0.03
Remainder 0.30
Fraction of intake deposited in the lung compartments
AMAD DEPOSITION
(microns) D
N-P
D
T-B
D
P
SUM
1 0.30 0.08 0.25 0.63
5 0.74 0.08 0.09 0.91
10 0.87 0.08 0.05 1.00
Correction for particle size:
POINTS:
10 A. The
60
Co component of the whole body count result was 21 : Ci. Assuming that
the activity median aerodynamic diameter (AMAD) of the aerosol was 1 : m,
estimate the intake, expressed in %ALI, based on the whole body count result.
Show all work.
10 B. Calculate the committed effective dose equivalent (CEDE) for an inhalation
intake of 25 : Ci of 1 : m AMAD class Y
60
Co. Show all work.
10 C. For this part only, assume that the CEDE due to
60
Co was 50 mrem. The worker
had an
131
I intake that resulted in 600 mrem committed dose equivalent (CDE) to
the thyroid. Assume that the thyroid is the only significantly irradiated organ or
tissue. During the same monitoring period, the worker also received 250 mrem
due to external radiation exposure from
60
Co. What is the total effective dose
equivalent (TEDE) to the worker during the monitoring period? Show all work.
20 D. Another worker inhaled 30 : Ci of class Y
60
Co. The AMAD was determined to
be 10 : m. Calculate the committed dose equivalent (CDE) to the lungs. Show
all work.
QUESTION 3
GIVEN:
The number of induced genetic defects (I) per generation for a given population is expressed as:
I = 0.05(Sd/D
g
)
where: S = spontaneous occurrence of defects in the population,
d = dose equivalent to an average exposed individual in the population,
D
g
= genetic doubling dose equivalent (assume 250 mSv).
This assumes that both mother and father are exposed. I must be corrected by a factor of
1/2 if only one of the parents is exposed.
Relative risk (R) of genetic defects in a population is defined as: R= (S+I)/S
Dose and Dose Rate Effectiveness Factor for cancer induction (DDREF) = 2.0
POINTS
A. The linear-no-threshold model is most commonly used to describe dose response
for induction of cancer by radiation.
10 1. Name two other models and describe (or draw) the shapes of their dose
response curves. Number your responses. Only the first 2 will be
graded.
5 2. What characteristic of the linear-no-threshold model makes it useful as a
basis for radiation protection purposes? Justify your answer.
6 B. What will be the most likely effect from a 30 rem dose equivalent delivered to the
fetus 3 days, 3 weeks, and 3 months after conception?
C. The following questions relate to genetic effects of radiation:
4 1. What does the term genetic doubling dose mean? What two types of
studies were used to determine the genetic doubling dose?
10 2. What is the relative risk of genetic defects (per generation) caused by an
average dose equivalent of 4 mSv to each individual in a population of
40,000 men?
D. The concept of collective dose is sometimes used in assessing the potential harm
which low level radiation may cause in a large population.
5 1. In applying collective dose, the dose response is assumed to have what
shape?
5 2. Several additional assumptions regarding the attributable risks, exposed
population or exposure conditions must be made in order to properly
estimate risk using the collective dose concept. Name one of the
assumptions. Only the first response will be graded.
5 E. A population of 40,000 individuals was exposed, on average, to 4 mSv. Estimate
the excess number of cancer deaths that might be expected in the remaining
lifetime of this population. List any assumptions.
QUESTION 4
You are a health physicist using a commercial ionization chamber survey instrument to perform
general area surveys in a highly contaminated area containing mixed fission products.
GIVEN:
The instrument has the following characteristics:
Volume = 200 cm
3
Window = 7 mg/cm
2
aluminized mylar
Gas fill = ambient air Walls = 0.16 cm phenolic (plastic)
Sliding shield = 0.34 cm phenolic Collection bias = 50 Volts
In addition, you have the following data:
Density
(g/cm
3
)
Mass attention coefficient (( )
(cm
2
/g)
@ 0.5 MeV @ 1.0 MeV
Phenolic 1.25 0.091 0.067
Air 1.29E-3 0.087 0.063

Thicknesses of Ionization Chamber Walls Required
for Establishment of Electronic Equilibrium
(from ICRU #20)
Photon Energy
(MeV)
Thickness
(g/cm
2
)
0.02 0.0008
0.05 0.0042
0.1 0.014
0.2 0.044
0.5 0.17
1 0.43
2 0.96
5 2.5
10 4.9
1 erg = 6.2 x 10
11
eV
w = 35 eV/ion pair
10
7
ergs = 1 Joule
1 amp = 6 x 10
18
ions/sec
Beta Range-Energy Curve (from Radiological Health Handbook)
POINTS
10 A. Describe how this instrument can be used to determine the separate dose rates for
betas and gammas in a mixed field.
15 B. List three of the parameters that affect the correction factor needed to convert the
meter reading to actual beta dose rate. Number your responses. Only the first
3 will be graded.
15 C. 1. What is the maximum gamma ray energy for which full electronic
equilibrium is established in the sliding shield?
2. What is the maximum energy beta particle that would be stopped by the
sliding shield? Do not use rules of thumb.
D. Regarding electronic equilibrium:
5 1. Briefly explain the meaning of electronic equilibrium.
5 2. What is the consequence if full electronic equilibrium is not established?
QUESTION 5
You are a health physicist at a manufacturing facility which produces depleted uranium plates.
An employee of one of your customers has recently learned that the plates are radioactive and has
expressed concern about her exposure. She has been working for three years in a warehouse
where plates of depleted uranium are stacked on pallets forming an extended source. She has
never worn any dosimetry. Her job duties involve visually inspecting the pallets and
occasionally handling the plates. You have been asked to serve as a health physics consultant to
your customer.
GIVEN:
Density of Air at STP: 0.001293 g/cm
3
Density of Water: 1.000 g/cm
3
Specific Activity of depleted uranium: 3.6 x 10
-7
Ci/g
Glove mass: 200 g
Glove total surface area: 400 cm
2
Attached graph of Dose rate from an extended source of depleted uranium, applicable to
materials of low atomic number
Emissions from depleted uranium (partial list)
(MeV)

U-238 4.1, 4.2 -- --
Th-234 -- 0.1, 0.2 0.06, 0.09
Pa-234 -- 2.3 0.8, 0.1
U-234 4.7, 4.8 -- --
Source: Handbook of Safety Procedures for Processing Depleted Uranium,
Army Material Command Handbook, No. AMCHDBK-385-1.1-89,
Department of the Army, Washington, D.C.
Expansion of Figure 1 for Range of 0 to 100 mg/cm
2
Dose Rate from an Extended Source of
Depleted Uranium
1
10
0 20 40 60 80 100
Attenuation, mg/cm2
D
o
s
e

R
a
t
e
,

m
G
y
/
h
POINTS:
10 A. Calculate the shallow dose rate to the skin of the hands when handling the plates
with and without gloves. If the wearing of gloves does not effect work
performance, would you advise adopting the wearing of gloves as a standard
practice? Show all work; justify your recommendation.
10 B. Individuals walking through the warehouse maintain a distance of about one meter
from the loaded pallets. Assuming that the loaded pallets essentially form a semi-
infinite source relative to the individuals, what is the dose rate in air at a distance
of 1.0 m from the pallets? Show all work.
10 C. Assuming that eye protection is not used and that visual inspection of the pallets is
performed for 2.5 hours a day at an eye-to-source distance of 30 cm, calculate the
annual eye dose equivalent. Was the annual eye dose equivalent limit exceeded?
State this limit as part of your evidence. State all assumptions; show all work.
10 D. If you were the RSO for this warehouse facility, what radiological safety practices
would you recommend be implemented? List five recommendations and provide
a brief description for each. Number your responses. Only the first 5 will be
graded.
10 E. The plot of dose rate versus mass density thickness (Figure 1) displays three
distinct slopes within regions A, B, and C. Describe the physical and/or
radiological processes that account for this.
source/shield configuration
(not to scale)
QUESTION 6
You are tasked with the design and fabrication of a spherical shield for a point source. The
source currently has a 2.5 cm iron shield; your task is to add an outer lead shield. The
configuration is shown below.
GIVEN
Isotope:
60
Co
Source Strength: Up to 15 Ci
'
Co60
= 1.32 R-m
2
/Ci-hr
Pb linear attenuation coefficient for Co-60 = 0.679 cm
-1
Fe linear attenuation coefficient for Co-60 = 0.35 cm
-1
Buildup factors for a point source: Pb: 1 + (: x/3)
Fe: 1 + : x
where x is the thickness of the shield
POINTS
35 A. Neglecting the dose buildup effect, what is the minimum thickness of lead that
must be added to the existing iron shield to reach a desired exposure rate of 2.5
mR/hr at the surface of the shield? Show all work.
15 B. For this part only, assume a total shield (lead + iron) thickness of 22 cm.
Calculate the expected exposure rate on the outside surface of the shield if the
exposure rate without buildup is 2.5 mR/hr. Assume the energy spectrum is not
significantly degraded as it penetrates the iron shield. Show all work.
QUESTION 7
During an annual survey of a general purpose X-ray machine, the data in the table below were
collected for machine output in mR as a function of kVp and the accompanying mAs and SID
settings.
GIVEN:
Conditions and results of survey measurements:
- The X-ray beam was oriented vertically so that the central axis of the beam was normal
to the patient table.
- The ionization chamber was located 4 inches above the table.
- The image receptor (cassette containing screen and film) was located in a stationary
position 3 inches below the table.
- Source-to-Image Receptor Distance (SID): 34 inches
- mAs = 10
kVp 55 65 75 85 95 105 115 125
mR 58 81 112 145 183 223 264 305
Additional information:
Anterior-posterior (AP) abdominal exam: table top exam with SID of 40 inches
Posterior-anterior (PA) chest exam: horizontal beam with SID of 72 inches.
POINTS
15 A. For an AP abdominal exam on a standard patient, the technique settings are 75
kVp and 60 mAs. The standard patient abdominal thickness is assumed to be 10
inches. The screen-film speed is 250 and a 10:1 grid is used. What will the
patient entrance skin exposure (ESE) be?
20 B. For a PA chest exam on the standard patient, technique settings of 115 kVp and 5
mAs are used. Assume the distance from the chest board surface to the cassette
can is zero and the patient abdominal thickness is 10 inches. The screen-film
speed is 250 and a 10:1 grid is used. What will the patient entrance skin exposure
(ESE) be?
20 C. Recommend two procedural changes which could reduce the ESE for these
procedures. State the effect each change would have on image quality. Number
10 D. A technologist stands about 1 meter from the patient during an AP abdominal
exam and is not wearing a lead apron and is not behind a control room wall.
What is the approximate exposure from scatter to the technologist from one
exposure? Show how you derived this exposure value.
12 E. Provide three design features of the room containing the control panel that are
required to minimize the technologist's dose during X-ray exposures. Number
8 F. An X-ray technologist performs only mammographic procedures in a large
hospital X-ray department. In June, the technologist's monthly whole body film
dosimeter read 80 mrem. Is this dose equivalent typical of the average monthly
occupational dose one would expect of this radiation worker? Explain your
answer.
15 G. Identify three design characteristics of a general purpose X-ray system and the
associated image receptor system which are required to minimize patient dose.
Number your responses. Only the first 3 will be graded.
QUESTION 8
An incident occurred when a
137
Cs source was accidentally processed in a metal smelter.
Subsequent investigation revealed that this incident resulted in a release of
137
Cs from the
smelter stack over an 8 hour period.
GIVEN
Maximum
137
Cs deposition on soil at 135 degrees and 2 km: D
s
= 14,000 pCi/m
2
Meteorological Conditions:
Wind at 5 m/s from the NW
Pasquill Stability Class C.
Nominal deposition velocity: V
d
= 0.002 m/s
Effective stack height: H = 40 m
Breathing rate: R = 0.8 m
3
/h
Gaussian Plume dispersion equation for particles:
where: P (x,0,0) = ground level downwind concentration in air (pCi/m
3
),
Q = release rate (pCi/s),
u = wind speed (m/s)
Charts of F
y
and F
z
attached
POINTS
20 A. What is the inhalation intake to a person present at the given point of maximum
137
Cs deposition (2 km, 135 degrees) during the 8 hours that the release occurs?
Show all work.
20 B. Assume that you calculated the 8-hour average air concentration at the soil
sampling site to be 300 pCi/m
3
. On that basis, how much
137
Cs was released from
the stack? Show all work.
10 C. What additional information would you request in order to confirm the release
scenario and reduce the uncertainty in the release estimate?
10 D. An analytical instrument is set up to count environmental samples taken as a
result of this incident. List five tasks that should be routinely performed to assure
the quality of the counting system. Number your responses. Only the first 5
will be graded.
E. A 100-minute background is run on the system in part D. Five 1-minute counts
are performed on a NIST traceable standard. The sample is then counted for 50
minutes. Show all work for each part below.
Data: Background Count: 123 counts (100 minutes)
Sample Count (gross): 225 counts (50 minutes)
NIST Standard activity: 89570 + 789 dpm
NIST Standard counts (gross): 9263, 9607, 9242, 9681, 9524
(1 minute each)
20 1. What is the counter efficiency and the error associated with this
efficiency?
20 2. What is the sample activity and its associated error?
QUESTION 9
You are a health physicist at a 100 MeV particle accelerator. The
4
He
+2
beam and thick target
combination produces two primary products in the following reactions with equal cross sections:
X (
4
He,n)A X(
4
He,2n)B
GIVEN:
The radioactive reaction products A and B have the following properties:
A: t
= 1 d '
A
= 0.5 R-m
2
D
A
= 7.8 g/cm
3
Ci-h
B: t
= 5 d '
B
= 1.0 R-m
2
D
B
= 3.3 g/cm
3
Ci-h
1 : A = 6.2x10
12
electrons/sec
1 e
-
= 1.6x10
-19
C
Cell Volume = 100 m
3
Cell Ventilation Rate = 7 m
3
/sec
POINTS
A. From an initially cold target the 100 MeV
4
He
+2
beam is applied and held at a
steady state. What is the ratio of the exposure rate from the decay of A to the
exposure rate from the decay of B at the following times? (Assume no attenuation
between target and point of measurement.) Show all work.
10 1. After 1 day of operation.
10 2. After 2 months of operation
10 3. 2 days after shutdown, after operating for 2 months.
10 B. The 100 MeV
4
He
+2
beam from this accelerator is pulsed with a duty factor of
10
-3
. The peak electrical beam current intensity during the 1: s pulse is measured
to be 1 mA. How many beam particles per second are available to interact with
the target? Show all work.
30 C. Assume that the O
3
concentration in the cell achieves a steady state value of 10
ppm. Calculate the delay time after beam shutdown for the O
3
concentration to
reach a safe level of 0.1 ppm. Assume that the mean life of O
3
is 2000 sec. Show
all work.
D. What is the most likely problem each of the following instruments could
experience when operating in the vicinity of the beam interaction area with the
beam described in part B?
5 1. A Geiger-Mueller instrument.
5 2. A standard portable ion chamber instrument.
5 E. What half-life would you expect the neutron field in part A to die off with when
the beam is turned off? Explain your answer.
10 F. List 5 sources of industrial hazards associated with the operation of a facility such
as this. Number your responses. Only the first 5 will be graded.
5 G. List 5 ionizing radiations that can be produced during the operation of this
machine. Number your responses. Only the first 5 will be graded.
QUESTION 10
You have been tasked to investigate a urine bioassay sample that was collected upon termination
of a worker. There were no radionuclides detected in his last routine urine sample. The worker
had been assigned to process and prepare radioactive waste for shipment. Upon questioning, the
worker acknowledged that a drum containing dry resin contaminated with
137
Cs vented some of
its contents due to gas buildup while he was in the process of tightening the lid and he remained
in the area for 30 minutes after it vented. The event occurred approximately 20 days prior to
collection of the termination bioassay. The worker was not wearing respiratory protection during
the waste preparation.
GIVEN:
The ventilation system in the waste preparation room delivers one room air change every 2 hours.
Reference Man breathing rate = 1.2 m
3
/h
Sample collection time = 24 hr
Sample volume = 1500 mL
Analyzed portion of sample = 500 mL

137
Cs activity in analyzed portion = 0.43 : Ci
The following is an excerpt from the cesium table in NUREG/CR-4884:
CLASS D AMAD = 1 MICRON HALFLIFE = 1.10E+04 DAYS CESIUM- 137
FRACTION OF INITIAL INTAKE IN
TIME AFTER
SINGLE INTAKE ---------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
24-HOUR ACCUMULATED
DAYS URINE URINE
1.00E+00 1.35E-02 1.35E-02
2.00E+00 1.33E-02 2.68E-02
3.00E+00 1.10E-02 3.78E-02
4.00E+00 8.87E-03 4.67E-02
5.00E+00 7.16E-03 5.38E-02
6.00E+00 5.89E-03 5.97E-02
7.00E+00 4.97E-03 6.47E-02
8.00E+00 4.32E-03 6.90E-02
9.00E+00 3.85E-03 7.28E-02
1.00E+01 3.51E-03 7.63E-02
2.00E+01 2.59E-03 1.04E-01
3.00E+01 2.41E-03 1.29E-01
4.00E+01 2.26E-03 1.52E-01
POINTS
20 A. What is the estimated intake for the worker, in : Ci? Show all work.
30 B. Assume the intake for the worker was 1.5 mCi. What is the estimated initial
concentration of
137
Cs in air to which the worker was exposed? Show all work.
Your facility also processes naturally occurring uranium. Your duties require conformance to
regulatory requirements pertaining to worker safety, including protection of workers from
airborne radioactive materials and personnel contamination. Answer the following questions:
10 C. Naturally occurring uranium consists of
234
U,
235
U, and
238
U. By weight, the
distribution is:
U-234 0.013 g/mole-total U T
1/2
= 2.5E5 y
1/2
= 7.0E8 y
1/2
= 4.5E9 y
One : g of uranium typically has a total activity of 0.66 pCi. Assuming
equilibrium conditions, approximately what percentages of the total activity can
be attributed to
234
U,
235
U, and
238
U, respectively?
1. negligible, 0.7%, 99.3%
2. 65%, 10%, 25%
3. 49%, 2%, 49%
4. 33%, 33%, 33%
5. 99.3%, 0.7%, negligible
10 D. ANSI Z88.2, Practices for Respiratory Protection, gives recommendations for
the use of supplied breathing air. This manual references other standards and
specifications from other organizations such as the Compressed Gas Association.
Choose the best answer that agrees with the recommendations of ANSI Z88.2.
1. Grade D breathing air specifications should be considered as the limits for
compressed air of deteriorating quality.
2. The oxygen content of supplied breathing air shall be a minimum of 19.0
percent by volume.
3. Compressed oxygen may be used in supplied air or open-circuit self
contained breathing apparatus in which compressed air has previously
been used.
4. 1 & 2.
5. 1 & 3.
20 E. 10 CFR Part 20 provides respiratory protection factors for standard types of
approved respiratory protection devices as listed in items 1 through 4 below.
Match the maximum allowable protection factors given in (a) through (d) to the
given respiratory protection devices. Assume that the airborne hazard is
radioactive particulate material.
1. Full facepiece, negative pressure mode,
air-purifying respirator.
2. Full facepiece, pressure demand mode,
self contained breathing apparatus
(SCBA)
3. Half-mask facepiece, negative pressure
mode, air-purifying respirator.
4. Half-mask facepiece, positive pressure
mode, air-purifying respirator.
(a) 10
(b) 50
(c) 1000
(d) 10000
10 F. Describe one type of hand-held instrument routinely used for the detection of
uranium contamination on personnel as they leave contaminated areas. Your
description should include the types of radiation detected, any special constraints,
and advantages or disadvantages of the instrument.
QUESTION 11
Indoor radon is believed by many to be a serious radiological protection problem. The
questions below address various aspects of radon quantities, units, and measurements.
GIVEN:
Nuclide Principal
Radiations
Energies
(MeV)
Half-life
222
Rn " 5.5 3.82 day
218
Po " 6.0 3.10 min
214
Pb $, ( 1.0 max ($) 27 min
214
Bi $, ( 3.3 max ($) 19.9 min
214
Po " 7.7 164 : s
210
Pb $ 0.061 max 22.3 yrs
POINTS
5 A. Define the working level (WL).
20 B. If an atmosphere contains 600 Bq/m
3
of
218
Po, what is the working-level
concentration due to the
218
Po? Show all work.
20 C. A person is exposed in his home to an average concentration of 0.02 WL for 14
hours per day for 30 weeks. What is his cumulative exposure in working-level
months during this time? Show all work.
D. In various models, the dose delivered by radon/radon progeny to the lung
depends on properties of both the inhaled aerosol and the physiology of the
respiratory tract.
8 1. List 2 important Rn/Rn progeny aerosol properties.
12 2. List 3 important physiological characteristics of the respiratory tract.
5 E. The best estimate listed below for lung dose from exposure to radon progeny is:
1. 0.05 mrad/WLM
2. 0.5 mrad/WLM
3. 5 mrad/WLM
4. 50 mrad/WLM
5. 500 mrad/WLM.
F. Radon and radon progeny measurements can be categorized into three types:
instantaneous (grab); integrated; and continuous.
15 1. Define each of the 3 types listed above.
15 2. Give one example of a method or instrument that exemplifies each type
of measurement (list the type along with the corresponding method or
instrument). Do not use manufacturer and model number; rather, specify
each instrument generically.
QUESTION 12
You work for the large business conglomerate International Industrial Innovations (I
3
). As part
of their multi-disciplinary health and safety department, you are participating as a member of a
team performing hazard assessments throughout the company. The team leader has asked you to
look specifically at the non-ionizing radiation hazards present within several of the laboratories.
GIVEN:
In the biomedical research wing, a UV light box has just been installed. It is used to view and
photograph electrophoresis gels stained with ethidium bromide and operates at a peak
wavelength of 300 nm. This laboratory also uses a biological safety cabinet (BSC) containing a
bulb with a peak wavelength of 280 nm. Gel manipulation requires about 20 minutes each day.
Work in the BSC requires about 30 minutes each day; the bulb in this cabinet is left on at all
times.
h = 6.6262x10
-34
J-sec
1 J = 6.24x10
12
MeV
Ultraviolet Radiation Exposure TLV and Spectral Weighting Function
Wavelength TLV TLV Relative Spectral
(nm) (J/m
2
) (mJ/cm
2
) Effectiveness, S
8
250 70 7.0 0.430
260 46 4.6 0.650
270 30 3.0 1.000
280 34 3.4 0.880
290 47 4.7 0.610
300 100 10 0.300
310 2000 200 0.015
POINTS
A. The manufacturer reports in its operating manual that the irradiance at 2 ft from
the light box is 1 : W/cm
2
and at 6 inches from the BSC the level is 0.6 : W/cm
2
.
15 1. Assuming the entire irradiance is at the peak wavelengths given, is the
TLV exceeded?
5 2. Is the assumption of irradiance at the peak wavelength accurate? Justify
your answer.
5 3. Briefly describe a better means of assessing the exposure to an individual
working with this equipment.
10 B. What are the two biological tissues at risk from excessive UV light exposure?
How would excessive exposure be manifest for each of these tissues, i.e., what
symptom would be present in each case? Number your responses. Only the
first 2 will be graded.
10 C. List two steps you would recommend to lower the exposure to UV light in this
lab. Number your responses. Only the first 2 will be graded.
D. Another laboratory has acquired a surplus microwave transmitter that it intends to
use for microwave health effect experiments. The device operates with the
following parameters:
Frequency: 10 GHz
Peak power: 2000 W
Pulse width: 1 msec
Pulse rep rate: 200 pps
Antenna gain: 16 dB
Maximum horn antenna dimension: 0.2 m
4 1. List two precautions that could be followed to prevent harm to the
technicians. Number your responses. Only the first 2 will be graded.
10 2. The device's horn antenna transmits into the room and the closest human
access distance is 3 meters away. Assuming far-field conditions, calculate
the maximum equivalent plane-wave free space power density at this
distance in units of milliwatts per square centimeter. Show all work.
6 3. The staff are not permitted in the test room when the device is energized.
However, on this day a lab worker ignores the warning sign on the door,
enters the room, and remains inside for an estimated 2 minutes before
leaving for the day. Measurements in the room indicate the lab worker
was exposed to a free-space power density of 25 mW/cm
2
. No levels
could be detected outside the room. Was the lab worker exposed in excess
of the ACGIH or ANSI microwave recommendations? Show all work
and justify your response by stating the appropriate exposure limit
recommendations.
E. The laboratory has purchased a microwave device used to cure a particular form
of adhesive. The device operates at a frequency of 2400 MHz. Workers are
concerned about possible health effects including cancer induction.
15 1. Can the radiation emitted by this source cause ionization and subsequent
damage to DNA? Justify your answer quantitatively.
10 2. What is the primary effect of this type of radiation on tissue? Describe
why it causes this effect.
10 F. The ALARA principle is generally applied to radiation exposure controls while
most of the above hazards are limited by TLVs . What is the basis for the
difference between these two concepts?
QUESTION 13
You are a health physicist at a power reactor during a refueling outage.
GIVEN:

60
Co Information
137
Cs Information
Gamma emissions:
Gamma emissions:
1.17 MeV @ 99.9% 0.662 MeV @ 89.8%
1.33 MeV @ 100% :
en Cs-137
for H
2
O = 0.0327 cm
-1
'
Co-60
= 3.7 x 10
-4
mSv/hr-MBq @ 1 m :
Cs-137
for H
2
O = 0.0894 cm
-1
:
Co-60
for lead = 0.679 cm
-1
:
Co-60
for H
2
O = 0.0707 cm
-1
:
Co-60
for air = 7.75 x 10
-5
cm
-1
Additional Information:
1 MeV = 1.6 x 10
-6
erg
Pb blanket specs: 31 cm x 62 cm x 2.5 cm, 10.4 kg
D
Pb
= 11.4 g/cm
3

Exposure BuildUp Factors for a Point Source at 1 MeV
R (mfp)* Water Air Lead
0.5 1.47 1.47 1.20
1 2.08 2.08 1.38
2 3.62 3.60 1.68
3 5.50 5.46 1.95
4 7.68 7.60 2.19
5 10.1 10.0 2.43
6 12.8 12.7 2.66
7 15.8 15.6 2.89
8 19.0 18.8 3.10
10 26.1 25.8 3.51
15 47.7 47.0 4.45
20 74.0 72.8 5.27
* mean free paths
POINTS
20 A. The dose rate from a small bucket of activated metal bearings in the fuel pool is
3 rad/hr at one meter underwater. Assume all activity in the bucket is due to
60
Co.
Calculate the dose rate in the overhead crane cab 10 meters above the water
surface directly above the bucket when the bucket is lifted above the water surface
(i.e., the source-to-operator distance is 10 m). State any assumptions used in the
calculation. Show all work.
30 B. The dose rate in air from a small sealed source containing
137
Cs is 100 mGy/hr at
30 cm. Calculate the activity of the source in Bq for the shipping documents.
Show all work.
25 C. The dose rate from a long, thin-walled, 2.5 cm diameter pipe is 900 mrad/hr at one
meter. Calculate the activity per unit length in the pipe. Assume all activity in the
pipe is
60
Co which uniformly coats the pipe interior. State any assumptions used
in the calculation. Show all work.
25 D. The dose equivalent rate at one meter from a small valve is 150 mrem/hr, due to
60
Co. Calculate the minimum layers of lead-wool blankets (PVC covered
lead-wool used for shielding) needed to reduce the area around the valve to below
the regulatory high radiation criteria. State the criteria for a high radiation area
and any assumptions used in the calculation. Show all work.
QUESTION 14
The following questions relate to a university radiochemistry facility. A cyclotron produces
large activities of radioactive gases with short half lives (
11
C,
13
N,
15
O and
18
F). These nuclides
are transported via a carrier gas through plastic tubing into a laboratory hood. Radiochemical
processing occurs in a shielded reaction vessel in the hood. An accident occurred when a
ceiling tile dislodged and knocked loose the gas line, allowing
15
O to be released at a constant
rate into the laboratory room air.
GIVEN:
Assume instant and complete mixing of
15
O with room air.
Room ventilation occurs only through hood exhaust, and volume exhaust rate is 30 m
3
/min.
Room size is 6 m x 6 m x 3 m
15
O release rate = 2.6 x 10
9
atoms/s
15
O half life = 12.2 s
POINTS:
10 A. Will room ventilation or radioactive decay be the dominant removal mechanism?
Justify your answer.
30 B. What is the room activity concentration of
15
O (in Bq/m
3
) after 4 minutes of
release? Show all work.
20 C. Flow was terminated after 6 minutes and the technician left the room. She is
concerned because she calculated the room's
15
O concentration to be much
greater than the DAC (4000 Bq/m
3
for submersion) at the time she exited. Give
two reasons why exceeding this DAC does not necessarily mean that an
overexposure to
15
O has occurred. Number your responses. Only the first 2
will be graded.
10 D. NRC licensed materials are also used in this laboratory and airborne
radionuclide concentrations of these materials occasionally exceed the DAC
inside the hood. The hood is posted with a sign bearing the radiation symbol
and the words "CAUTION, AIRBORNE RADIOACTIVITY AREA". Is this
posting necessary? Justify your answer.
10 E. What type of radiation do
11
C,
13
N,
15
O and
18
F emit?

10 F. Identify two health physics concerns which would result from the use of plastic
transport lines for
11
C,
13
N,
15
O and
18
F. Number your responses. Only the
first 2 will be graded.
10 G. Monitoring is being considered for the laboratory hood exhaust stack.
Monitoring needs to be able to detect releases of these radionuclides (
11
C,
13
N,
15
O and
18
F) and yet be rather insensitive to common activities of most other
radioactive materials used in university research (
3
H,
14
C,
32
P, and
125
I). Which
of the following instrument and sampling combinations would be most
appropriate?
1. NaI detectors with coincidence counting of flow-through sampler.
2. G-M tube counting of buildup on particulate filter sample.
3. Solid state silicon detector counting of buildup in charcoal cartridge sample.
4. Energy compensated G-M counting of flow through sampler.
5. Wide range ionization chamber monitoring of flow through sampler.

Solutions
to the
1997 ABHP Part II Certification Exam
K.A.L., Inc., 2000
All Rights Reserved
SOLUTIONS AND ANSWERS TO 1997 ABHP EXAM
1
Methodology in Obtaining Solutions to the 1997 ABHP Exam
Equations containing either algebraic symbols or their given numerical values and
corresponding units are used to obtain numerical answers for quantities asked in a question on
the 1997 exam of the American Board of Health Physics (ABHP). Symbols representing
quantities in an equation are defined either in our list of general given information after the stated
premise to a question or within the solution to each part of a question. The algebraic symbol for a
quantity is understood to have a numerical value corresponding to certain specified units. When
symbols for quantities are contained in the ABHP question itself, these same symbols are used in
the equations giving the solution(s). Any necessary change in a given symbol or in its given
numerical value and units will be indicated in our solution. To obtain numerical solutions to the
various parts of a question, bolded numerical values and their corresponding units for given or
calculated quantities are understood to be used in place of the algebraic symbols representing
those quantities in the equations. This procedure is followed to make clear our solutions and
answers, which are identified by a * to the left of the text or equation containing a numerical
answer, which also is bolded along with its corresponding units. Except for answers read from
given figures, other numerical answers are shown to three significant digits regardless of the
number of significant digits of input quantities used to calculate an answer. Sometimes only the
numerical values and their corresponding units for given quantities are shown in an equation
giving the solution for another quantity.
To make clear our solutions and any problems associated with an ABHP question itself,
more detail and information are provided in our solutions than needed or recommended. Some
quantities stated for an ABHP question sometimes are not used in the solutions for that question.
Such extraneous or irrelevant quantities may or may not be listed in our summary of the given
information to a question, but their algebraic symbols and their numerical values will not be
bolded if listed. When given extraneous or irrelevant quantities could be used in a solution, they
will be listed, and an explanation sometimes will be given in comments on any confusion that
might arise from the use of such quantities. Comments also will be provided when a solution
cannot be obtained from the stated given information in an ABHP question. Solutions, however,
will be shown based on certain assumptions. Obviously, ABHP questions that have no solution
based on the given information are of concern to both candidates and members of the ABHP and
the Part II panel. Comments provided in our solutions are intended to provide guidance to
candidates in answering all of the questions on an ABHP exam, and sometimes the information
in a comment is needed for a solution. Comments are also provided for current and future
members of the ABHP and its Part II panel in the hope of improving future exams. Comments,
however, are mostly factual, and the ABHP and Part II panel members are encouraged to evaluate
the impact of bad questions on qualified candidates and to take appropriate measures to help
eliminate such questions on future exams. We encourage readers of our solutions to this exam to
contact us when they find an error in our solutions or comments.
2
QUESTION 1
GIVEN: You are the health physicist responsible for setting up an air sampling system in an
exhaust vent of a nuclear facility which emits both particulates and radioiodine.
SOLUTIONS AND ANSWERS(*):
* A. Isokinetic sampling in a vent, stack, or duct is used to assure that a representative sample of
contaminant aerosols is collected, and it is achieved when the velocity V
S
of air entering the
sampling probe is the same as the velocity V
E
of the exhaust gases at the sampling location in
the exhaust. Anisokinetic conditions exist when V
S
V
E
, and a representative sample
generally will not be obtained.
* B. Two factors leading to non-representative samples include (See answer to A.):
1. When V
S
> V
E
, the sample will contain a deficit of larger particles.
2. When V
S
< V
E
, the sample will contain an excess of larger particles.
* C. Five factors leading to sample line losses include:
1. diffusion deposition of particles on walls of sampling system,
2. chemical reaction of contaminant aerosols, e.g. radioiodine, with walls,
3. impaction of particles at bends,
4. condensation of contaminant on walls, and
5. electrostatic attraction of contaminant ions to charged wall surfaces.
* D. The major effect is for sampling line losses of radioiodine which will react chemically with
copper.
* E. A cascade impactor is used to obtain the particle size distribution of contaminant aerosols,
which is important in the design of the sampling system for those aerosols.
3
*
*
QUESTION 2
GIVEN: whole body count of a worker who had an inhalation intake of class Y
60
Co and
class D
131
I. Data for
60
Co are summarized (See comment below.):
T
1/2
/ physical half-life = 5.2 y;
ALI / stochastic annual limit on intake for class Y, 1 : m AMAD aerosols = 30 : : Ci;
<H
L
/I> / lung dose per unit intake = 3.4x10
-7
Sv Bq
-1
= 1.26 rem : : Ci
-1
;
(f
NP
, f
T-B
, f
P
) / fractions of lung dose due respectively to depositions in NP, T-B, and P
regions of respiratory tract for 1 : m AMAD aerosols = (0, 0, 1);
IRF / fraction shown in given table of intake present in whole body;
W
T
/ tissue weighting factor shown in table;
D
NP
, D
T-B
, D
P
/ intake deposition fractions in table; and
H
50
(AMAD)/H
50
(1 : : m) equation.
A. The
60
Co value of (I/ALI)100% is calculated given q
WB
= 21 : : Ci and IRF = 0.63 from the
given table at an elapsed time of zero days for 1 : m AMAD aerosols:
Comment: The given IRF values actually apply to a log-normal particle size distribution and
not a single particle size as stated in the given table. The log-normal particle size distribution
is characterized by its activity median aerodynamic diameter (AMAD) and geometric
standard deviation.
B. The CEDE is calculated for a
60
Co intake I of 25 : : Ci of 1 : m AMAD, class Y aerosols:
4
*
*
C. The TEDE is calculated given that the CEDE
Co-60
= 50 mrem; the CDE
I-131
= 600 mrem and
w
T
= 0.03 for the thyroid; and the external dose H
ext
= 250 mrem:
D. The CDE to the lungs is calculated for an intake I of 30 : : Ci of 10 : : m AMAD, class Y
60
Co
aerosols:
Comment: The following expression is given by the ABHP in the general information for
this question: (f
N-P
, f
T-B
, f
P
) = (0, 0, 100), which actually represent the percentages of the
committed dose equivalent to the lungs due to depositions respectively in the N-P, T-B, and P
regions of the respiratory tract and not as stated in the question: where f
N-P
, f
T-B
, and f
P
are
the fractional contributions of the CDE to the reference tissue from initial depositions in the
nasal passages, tracheo-bronchial, and pulmonary regions respectively. In the given equation
for the ratio, H
50
(AMAD)/H
50
(1 : m), the same symbols f
N-P
, f
T-B
, f
P
represent fractions, which
therefore are expressed as fractions in the list of given data summarized in our solution
above.
5
d, Dose Equivalent
Y
,

R
e
s
p
o
n
s
e
Y = A + B d

QUESTION 3
GIVEN: the number I of induced genetic defects per generation when both parents are exposed:
where I must be corrected by a factor 0.5 if only one parent is exposed, and where
S / spontaneous occurrence of genetic defects per generation;
d / dose equivalent received by exposed population, mSv;
D
g
/ genetic doubling dose, which I assume must be received by exposed population every
year to cause at equilibrium an induced rate I equal to S = 250 mSv;
R / relative risk = (S + I)/S; and
DDREF / Dose and Dose Rate Effectiveness Factor for cancer induction = 2.
A. Given linear-no-threshold (LNT) model to describe dose response for cancer induction:
* 1. Two other models and their dose response curves are:
a. Linear-threshold response Y: Y = A + B d, where A is a negative constant, B is a positive
constant, d is the dose equivalent, and d $ - A/B when hormesis is not considered
possible:
6
d, Dose Equivalent
Y
,

R
e
s
p
o
n
s
e
Y = A d + B d
2

*
b. Linear-quadratic response Y: Y = A d + B d
2
, where A and B are positive constants:
* 2. Characteristics of the LNT model that makes it useful for radiation protection: The response
or risk of cancer is a simple function of the total dose regardless of when it is received and
regardless of the dose rate. Therefore, to limit the risk in any control period, only the total
dose need be limited. The assumption of no threshold is used to justify the ALARA principle.
* B. The most likely effects of a 30 rem dose to the fetus at the following days after conception
are as follows when no effect, which would be the most likely effect in all cases, is not
considered:
1. 3 days: death,
2. 3 weeks: teratogenic effects, and
3. 3 months: cancer.
C. Regarding genetic effects:
* 1. The genetic doubling dose is that dose delivered to a population that doubles the spontaneous
rate. The mega-mouse and fruit fly experiments were used to estimate the doubling dose.
2. The relative risk R per generation caused by a dose d of 4 mSv to a population of 40,000 men
is calculated:
7
*
* D. Regarding the harm from a collective dose delivered to a given population:
1. The dose response is assumed to be linear without threshold.
2. The respective population is assumed to be homogeneous in its response, i.e., the same risk
per unit dose applies on average to each member of the population.
E. The excess number N of cancer deaths is calculated given:
P / number of persons in population = 40,000;
d / dose delivered to each member of population = 4 mSv = 0.4 rem; and
<R
P
/d> / my assumed average risk from ICRP Publication 60 for a member of the general
population = 5x10
-4
rem
-1
.
8
QUESTION 4
GIVEN: Ion chamber survey instrument used for general survey of area contaminated with
mixed fission products and other data:
V / volume of ion chamber and of contained air at ambient conditions = 200 cm
3
;
X
s
/ phenolic sliding shield thickness = 0.34 cm;
X
w
/ aluminized Mylar window thickness = 7 mg cm
-2
;
X
wall
/ phenolic wall thickness = 0.16 cm;
V
c
/ voltage = 50 volts;
D D / densities in table, g cm
-3
;
: /D / mass attenuation coefficients in table, cm
2
g
-1
;
X
e
D D / wall thickness in table to establish electronic equilibrium, g cm
-2
;
E
( ( max
/ maximum gamma energy for X
e
D Dwall thickness in table, MeV;
T / beta particle kinetic energy in figure, MeV;
R / beta particle range in figure corresponding to T in figure, g cm
-2
; and various
constants.
* A. Dose rates are determined:
1. gamma with shield in place, and
2. beta from difference of reading without shield and reading with the shield in place, multiplied
by an appropriate correction factor.
* B. Three parameters that affect the correction factor needed to correct the meter reading
(assumed to be gross reading without the shield in place) to obtain the beta dose rate include:
1. gamma dose rate response parameter without the shield in place,
2. energies of beta particles, and
3. density of air in ion chamber.
C. The maximum gamma and beta energies are obtained respectively:
* 1. E
( ( max
= 1 MeV from X
e
D Dtable value of 0.43 g cm
-2
corresponding to X
s
D Dcalculated:
9
* 2. T
$ $max
= E
( ( max
= 1 MeV as also verified from given figure for T versus R, which actually
applies to aluminum.
* D. Regarding electronic equilibrium:
1. Electronic equilibrium is a condition achieved when the number, direction, and energies of
charged particles entering a small volume element of material are equal to the respective
values for charged particles leaving that volume element.
2. If an instrument previously calibrated under electronic equilibrium conditions at one photon
energy is used to measure a higher energy photon radiation field and electronic equilibrium is
not established for the higher energy photons, the measured dose rate will be less than the
actual dose rate.
10
*
*
QUESTION 5
GIVEN: A worker who expressed concerns of exposure from handling and inspecting depleted
uranium plates over a 3 year period without any dosimetry:
D D
air
/ air density = 0.001293 g cm
-3
= 1.293 mg cm
-3
;
D D
w
/ water density = 1 g cm
-3
= 1,000 mg cm
-3
;
S / specific activity of plates = 3.6x10
-7
Ci g
-1
;
m / mass of gloves = 200 g = 200,000 mg; and
a / surface area of gloves = 400 cm
2
;
graphs of dose rate D0 0in mGy h
-1
versus thickness xD Din mg cm
-2
, which are assumed to apply to
dose rates at the surface of semi-infinite sources; and table of radiation emissions.
Comment: The emissions shown for Pa-234 are actually those for the isomer, Pa-234m.
A. Dose rates are obtained assuming a conservative epidermis thickness of 7 mg cm
-2
:
The total thickness xD Dof absorbing material is calculated when gloves are worn:
* Gloves should be worn under stated conditions to substantially reduce the dose and to prevent
contamination of the hands.
B. The dose rate D0 0to the live skin at a distance d of 1 meter or 100 cm is determined as follows
by assuming a conservative epidermis of 7 mg cm
-2
, semi-infinite sources, and no significant
change in the dose rate at 1 meter compared to the given surface dose rate, except for the
added attenuation of the one meter of air (See comment below.). The total thickness xD Dof
absorbing material is calculated:
11
*
*
Comment: This comment also applies to part C below. The dose rates shown in the figure
are assumed to represent the surface dose rates when the uranium plates are covered with a
varying thickness of attenuating material. The assumption that the dose rate does not depend
on the distance d, except for the added attenuation of the one meter of air is not obvious from
the stated given information. In fact, the dose rate would be expected to decrease less rapidly
with distance than the decrease calculated for attenuation alone; although, this is not obvious
without a careful evaluation of the effects of geometry and attenuation. To obtain a solution,
the candidate must assume that the surface dose rates corrected for attenuation alone can be
used to predict the dose rate out to a distance of 1 meter from the plates.
C. The annual eye dose equivalent H in rem is calculated given:
t / annual exposure time = (2.5 h day
-1
)(250 days) = 625 h;
d / distance from plates = 30 cm; and
x
e
D D
w
/ assumed tissue mass density thickness over lens of eyes = 300 mg cm
-2
for assumed
linear thickness x
e
of 0.3 cm and given D D
w
of 1,000 mg cm
-3
. The total thickness xD Dof
absorbing material is calculated:
which exceeds the 15 rem NRC annual eye dose limit.
* D. Five recommended safety practices include:
1. cover surface of stored plates with sufficient plastic to stop the
234m
Pa beta particle.
2. wear gloves when handling plates,
3. wear protective eye goggles,
4. have workers check gloves, clothing, and skin for contamination, and
5. have workers wear TLDs to monitor dose to the exposed skin, eyes, and fingers.
12
* E. The three distinct slopes result primarily:
1. Region A: absorption of alpha particles and low energy beta particles,
2. Region B: absorption principally of the high energy beta particles emitted by
234m
Pa, and
3. Region C: attenuation of x-ray, bremsstrahlung, and gamma photons.
13
*
QUESTION 6
GIVEN: A lead shield is to be added to a point source of
60
Co surrounded by an iron shield :
x
Fe
/ thickness of iron shield = 2.5 cm;
A / activity of point source = 15 Ci;
' ' / gamma constant = 1.32 R h
-1
Ci
-1
m
2
= 1.32 x10
4
R h
-1
Ci
-1
cm
2
;
: :
Pb
/ lead gamma attenuation coefficient = 0.679 cm
-1
;
: :
Fe
/ iron gamma attenuation coefficient = 0.35 cm
-1
;
B
Pb
/ lead buildup factor = 1 + : : x/3 where : and x apply to lead; and
B
Fe
/ iron buildup factor = 1 + : : x where : and x apply to iron.
A. Lead thickness x
Pb
required for an exposure rate X0 0of 2.5x10
-3
R h
-1
on surface of added lead
shield when buildup is neglected:
which yields x
Pb
by use of the SOLVER application on HP 42S calculator:
Comment: Because the given dose rate is stated to apply to the surface of the added lead
shield, the solution for the lead shield thickness requires a manual iterative solution or the use
of a SOLVER application like the one on the HP 42S calculator. A manual iterative solution
could require a considerable amount of time. A more reasonable question could have asked
for the shield thickness that yields the required exposure rate at a distance of 1 meter from the
source.
B. The exposure rate X0 0outside the shield is obtained given a total thickness x of 22 cm; an
exposure rate X0 0
5 5
of 2.5 mR h
-1
without buildup ( i.e., from primary photons only), and that
the energy spectrum is not significantly degraded as it [photons] penetrates the iron shield:
x
Pb
+ x
Fe
= x = 22 cm; so x
Pb
= 22 - 2.5 = 19.5 cm;
14
*
Comment: The directive, "Assume the energy spectrum is not significantly degraded as it
penetrates the iron shield.", is not realistic because almost 50% of the exposure rate outside
the iron shield is due to Compton scattered photons, which would be considerably degraded
in energy below that of the source photons and which could be assumed to be completely
absorbed by the lead shield. If this interpretation is made of the ABHP directive, then only
primary photons able to penetrate the iron shield need to be considered, and the above answer
would be obtained. However, if the stated assumption in Part B is interpreted to mean that the
buildup factor for iron still applies along with the buildup factor of lead for the primary
photons, then a non-sensible, solution of 25.4 mR h
-1
for the exposure rate outside the lead
shield could be calculated. If it is assumed that the energy spectrum does not change in either
the iron or lead, then this means that only uncollided photons contribute to the exposure rate
outside the shield. Therefore, the buildup factors would be unity, and the exposure rate
outside the lead shield would be the given exposure rate of 2.5 mR h
-1
without buildup,
which of course is contrary to the actual facts. A better question would be to direct the
candidate:
"Assume that Compton scattered photons emerging from the iron shield are completely
absorbed by the added lead shield, i.e., only account for primary photons emerging from the
iron shield in calculating the exposure rate at the surface of the lead shield. Briefly explain
why this assumption might be valid."
Another acceptable way of calculating the exposure rate outside laminated shields where the
higher Z component is on the outside is to assume a buildup factor of unity for the lower Z
shield. The buildup factor for the higher Z shield is then calculated from the total number of
relaxation lengths for both shields. In this case, the total number of relaxation lengths is
calculated as [(0.695)(19.5) + (0.35)(2.5)] or 14.1, which yields a lead buildup factor of 5.70
and an exposure rate of 14.3 mR h
-1
at the surface of the lead shield, which is somewhat
larger than the value of 13.5 mR h
-1
shown as our answer in the equation above.
15
*
QUESTION 7
GIVEN: Data for a general purpose x-ray machine:
Conditions for table top survey with x-ray beam normal to table:
d
1
/ source to image distance (SID) = 34 inches;
d
2
/ source to ion chamber distance = 34 - 7 = 27 inches;
d
3
/ source to table top distance = 34 - 3 = 31 inches;
t I / product of exposure time and current = 10 mAs; and
table of measured exposure X
m
in mR versus voltage V in kVp.
Additional information:
d
1AP
/ source to image distance (SID) for table top AP exam = 40 inches; and
d
1PA
/ source to image distance (SID) for chest PA exam = 72 inches.
A. Entrance skin exposure, ESE, from AP abdominal exam given:
(t I)
AP
/ product of exposure time and current for AP exam = 60 mAs;
V / voltage for AP exam = 75 kVp; so from table:
X
m
/ measured exposure in survey = 112 mR for t I of 10 mAs and d
2
of 27 inches;
x / patient thickness = 10 inches; so for d
1AP
of 40 inches and film 3 inches below table
top:
d
s
/ distance from source to skin = (40 - 3 - 10) = 27 inches.
B. Entrance skin exposure, ESE, from PA chest exam given:
(t I)
PA
/ product of exposure time and current for PA exam = 5 mAs;
V / voltage for PA exam = 115 kVp; so from table:
X
m
/ measured exposure in survey = 264 mR for t I of 10 mAs and d
2
of 27 inches;
x / patient thickness = 10 inches; so for d
1PA
of 72 inches and film 0 inches from the
chest:
d
s
/ distance from source to skin = (72 - 10) = 62 inches.
16
*
*
* C. Two recommendations to lower the ESE include:
1. decrease mAs, which results in poorer image quality, and
2. increase film speed and/or use image intensifier screens, which result in better image quality.
D. Exposure X of technologist is calculated for an AP abdominal exam given:
ESE / entrance skin exposure for patient calculated in part A = 672 mR;
d / distance of technologist from patient = 1 m; and
R / assumed ratio of 90 degree scattered exposure at 1 meter to ESE = 1x10
-3
m
2
.
* E. Three features to minimize exposure and dose of technologist in the control room include:
1. make distance from patient to control panel as large as practical,
2. provide shielding between control panel and x-ray source, and
3. make window for viewing patient of sufficient thickness.
* F. An exposure of 80 mrem in a month is high for this type of work because the low energy
photons are easy to shield and the beam is not likely to expose the technologist.
* G. Three design characteristics of a general purpose x-ray system to minimize patient dose
include: 1. film of sufficient speed, 2. collimation of beam, and 3. required inherent filtration
to remove low energy photons.
17
*
*
QUESTION 8
GIVEN: accidental
137
Cs release from a stack of a metal smelter:
t / release time interval = 8 h = 28,800 s;
D
s
/ maximum deposition at 135 degrees and 2 km downwind = 14,000 pCi m
-2
;
u / wind speed from NW = 5 m s
-1
;
C / Pasquill atmospheric stability class;
V
d
/ deposition velocity = 0.002 m s
-1
;
H / effective stack height = 40 m;
R / breathing rate = 0.8 m
3
h
-1
= 2.22x10
-4
m
3
s
-1
;
P P(x, 0, 0) / / given equation for ground level concentration in air, pCi m
-3
, where:
Q / release rate, pCi s
-1
;
F F
y
/ cross wind dispersion coefficient in given figure, m; and
F F
z
/ vertical dispersion coefficient in given figure, m.
A. The intake I of a person remaining during t at point of maximum ground deposition:
B. Activity Q t of
137
Cs released from stack during t of 28,800 s given also:
P P / P(2 km, 0, 0) = 300 pCi m
-3
; and
F F
y
= 200 m, and F F
z
= 130 m from given figures for Pasquill class C and 2 km distance.

1
The overstrike hat symbol, ^ , is used on F
^
b
to distinguish it from the population standard
deviation F
b
in the blank counting rate. This hat symbol is used on estimates for other population
statistics to distinguish them from the true population values. It is assumed that each observed
count comes from an associated Poisson distribution whose mean : and variance F
2
are equal
and that a single observed count or average count approximates its associated population mean.
18
* C. Additional information useful in reducing the uncertainty in the release estimate is stack
monitoring data including the analyses of stack filter samples and the stack gas exhaust flow
rate.
* D. Five routine tasks for assuring the quality of the counting system include:
1. checking all settings on the electronics prior to using counting system,
2. a chi-square test with a standard in a fixed position to evaluate the counter's operation,
3. a chi-square test with standard first removed and then placed in the standard position for each
count to evaluate extra-Poisson variance associated with the sample changer, which should
be made when the counting system is first assembled and then at least yearly,
4. background count of blank before each sample count and plot on control chart, and
5. standard source check of counter to confirm counting efficiency and plot of counting data on
control chart.
E. Counts of a sample, blank, and a standard and calculations:
C
b
/
counts observed for blank = 123 c;
T
b
/ counting interval for blank = 100 minutes; so
R
b
/ blank counting rate = C
b
/T
b
= 1.23 cpm, and
F F
^
b
/ estimated
1
standard deviation and standard error in R
b
= (R
b
/T
b
)
= 0.111 cpm;
C
s+b
/ sample gross count = 225 c;
T
s+b
/
counting interval for sample = 50 minutes; so
R
s+b
/
sample gross counting rate = C
s+b
/T
s+b
= 4.50 cpm; so
F F
^
s+b
/ estimated standard deviation and standard error in R
s+b
= (R
s+b
/T
s+b
)
= 0.300 cpm;
A
std
/ activity of standard and assumed standard error = (89,570 789) dpm ( 1 F F
^
Astd
);
C
i
/ standard gross count for measurement i (i = 1 to 5) = 9263, 9607, 9242, 9681, 9524;
T / counting interval for each measurement of standard = 1 minute; so
R) )
std
/ average gross counting rate of standard = (G C
i
)/(5 T) = 9,463 cpm; and

2
The standard error estimate in any sample mean y) about the true population mean : of a
random variable Y is calculated from F
^
y
/n
1/2
, where F
^
y
is either an experimental or theoretical
estimate of the population standard deviation F for that random variable and n is the number of
measurements. The value of F
^
y
for counting rates is calculated from the square root of the
theoretical, propagated Poisson variance in the rate, which for the standard is given by (R)
std
/T)
1/2
.
19
*
*
*
*
F F
^
std
/ estimated standard error
2
in mean rate R)
std
for standard = (R)
std
/5T)
= 43.5 cpm.
The counter efficiency and sample activity and associated standard errors are calculated from the
given data and quantities calculated as shown in the given data above:
1. Efficiency E:
2. Sample Activity A:
Comment: It is not clear whether the candidate should use an experimental estimate of the
standard error of 89.9 cpm, calculated from [G( R
i
- R)
std
)
2
/n(n-1)]
or the theoretical,
propagated, Poisson standard error, F
^
std
of 43.5 cpm, which is calculated from (R)
std
/nT)
as
shown in the listed given data above and used in the solution shown to this part of the question
for the n = 5 repetitive counts of the standard, each taken over a constant counting interval T of
1 minute. This comment includes guidance on the use of the chi-square statistic for the choice
between the experimental and the theoretical, propagated, Poisson standard error estimate in this

3
See paper, Basic Applications of the Chi-Square Statistic Using Counting Data, by Mark
Tries et al in Health Physics 77: 441-453, October, 1999. Symbols used in this paper differ
somewhat from those used in the discussion here.

4
This same conclusion that the experimental variance estimate is 4.26 times the Poisson
variance estimate for the counts also applies to the calculated counting rates (See reference by
Mark Tries above.).
20
ABHP question and in questions on other ABHP exams. The development of the equations for
the chi-square statistic and their practical applications to counting data are given in a recent
paper
3
. Their use for the 5 repetitive counts of the standard in this specific ABHP question is
discussed as follows. To further help communicate the meaning of certain statistics, a glossary of
symbols, definitions, and applicable equations is given at the end of this discussion.
The experimental estimate, F
^
exp
(often called the sample standard deviation s), of the
population standard deviation in the random counts is 201 as calculated from the expression,
[G(C
i
- C))
2
/(n-1)]
. The theoretical, Poisson estimated standard deviation, F

^
p
, in the counts is
only 97.3 as calculated from the square root, (C))
, of the average count C) of 9,463. Thus, the

estimate of the reduced chi-square statistic, , is calculated from as (201)
2
/(97.3)
2
or
4.26, which indicates that the experimental variance estimate from the 5 repetitive counts is 4.26
times the theoretical, Poisson estimated variance in the counts for the population
4
. The estimated
chi-square statistic, , is calculated from the product as (5-1)(4.26) or 17.0, where the
number of degrees of freedom < is (n - 1) or 4. Based on the null hypothesis that the 5 repetitive
counts of the standard show no more variance than the expected Poisson variance in the counts, a
critical high chi-square high value, P
2
-high of 9.48, may be calculated for a significance level "
of 5% and 4 degrees of freedom <. The probability, P(P
2
> ), of exceeding the calculated
value of 17.0 is only 0.20%. However, it is to be noted that a P
2
value greater than the calculated
value of 17.0 is expected to occur 0.20% of the time even when the actual counting data does not
include any extra-Poisson variance. Candidates, however, could easily conclude that the
repetitive counts of the standard show more variance than expected, i.e., unacceptable extra-
Poisson variance. Therefore, they could chose to use the larger experimental standard error of
89.9 cpm rather than the theoretical Poisson standard error, F
^
std
of 43.5 cpm, for the mean rate
R)
std
of 9,463 cpm calculated from the five measurements of the standard.
There are problems, however, associated with using the experimental standard error
estimate in the average rate. Except for the five repetitive counts themselves, no other
information is given to the candidate to evaluate any extra-Poisson variance in the counts of the
standard. Certainly, a candidate could reasonably expect that the counter was working at the time
21
and therefore justify the use of the theoretical Poisson standard error estimate in the average rate
despite the high calculated value of 17.0. Any significant extra-Poisson variance associated
with the sample changer should have been eliminated when the counting system was first
assembled (See answers to Part D.). All observations, including the blank count, the sample
count, and the five counts of the standard exceed 30 counts; so it is reasonable to assume that the
Poisson distributions for the counts can be approximated by normal distributions. However, if it
is concluded that the experimental standard error estimate of 89.9 cpm should be used for the
standard error in the average counting rate, R)
std
of 9,463 cpm, this standard error estimate cannot
be combined, when it is determined with only 4 degrees of freedom <, with other normal
standard error estimates for the following reasons. Because it is not likely that observations of a
normally distributed random variable Y will be more than a couple of standard deviations from
the mean and because measurements nearer the mean have a higher probability density, an
experimental standard deviation estimate F
^
y
and calculated experimental standard error F
^
y
/n
1/2
in
the sample mean y %most likely will be underestimates for small samples n. The experimental
standard error estimate, F
^
y
/n
1/2
, for the sample mean then must be multiplied by the t-statistic
rather than the Z-score statistic to describe the confidence interval associated with the sample
mean y %. The value of the t-statistic was not given in this ABHP question. Thus, the standard
error in the background rate, F
^
b
of 0.111 cpm, and the standard error estimate for the activity of
the standard, F
^
Astd
of 789 dpm , cannot be combined simply with the experimental standard error,
of 89.9 cpm, for the average counting rate of the standard to obtain the propagated standard error
in the counting efficiency.
In addition to the problem of combining the experimental standard error estimate with
other standard errors, it must be concluded that 5 repetitive counts of the standard are not
sufficient to make any precise statement regarding extra-Poisson variance. The per cent
coefficient of variation (%CV) in observations of any random variable having a mean : and
variance F
2
is defined by its percent relative standard deviation or by the value of (F/: )100%.
Thus, the %CV for a random variable gives a measure of the inherent variation of that random
variable, which relates to how precise it can be estimated in repetitive measurements. Even when
there is no extra-Poisson variance, the mean and variance of the P
2
statistic are respectively <
and 2<. Therefore, the %CV of the P
2
statistic is 100%(2/<)
or 70.7% when < equals (n - 1) or 4

for the n = 5 repetitive measurements of the standard in this ABHP question. For a Poisson
distribution of counts, the mean : and variance F
2
in the counts are equal; so the %CV in the
counts is simply 100% :
-1/2
. For a population mean count : equal to the sample mean of
9,463 counts for the 5 measurements of the standard, the %CV in the counts is only 1.03%. Thus,
the Poisson calculated precision in the counts is considerably better than the precision in the P
2
statistic for 5 measurements of the standard and only 4 degrees of freedom <. Because the
estimate for the P
2
statistic is used to decide if extra-Poisson variance might be present in
22
repetitive counts of a source, at least 30 measurements are recommended. Thirty measurements
provide a %CV in the chi-square statistic of (2/29)
1/2
100% or 26.3%, which still is quite large.
It also is informative to compare the %CV in the Poisson variance estimate, , to the
%CV in the experimental variance estimate, , for the five measurements (counts) of the
standard. Each %CV can be obtained from its propagated relative variance (See referenced paper
above by Mark Tries.). The %CVs in the two variance estimates for the counts are calculated as
follows for a population having a mean count : and variance F
2
equal to the mean count C) of
9,463 obtained for the n = 5 measurements of the standard in this ABHP question. It is assumed
that repetitive counts of the standard are described by a Poisson distribution that can be
approximated by a normal distribution. The %CVs for the two variances are calculated as follows
for this assumed Poisson distribution of counts in which the expected reduced chi-square
statistic, < >, is unity, i.e., it is assumed that there is no extra-Poisson variance in the counts.
Percent Coefficient of Variation of the Poisson Variance Estimate for the Counts:
which is also the %CV for the calculated mean count C) because is defined as C).
Percent Coefficient of Variation of the Experimental Variance Estimate for the Counts:
where the expected experimental variance, , is the population variance, F
2
, which in this case
is the Poisson variance, , which equals the mean count : of 9,463 for the assumed
population. The relative variance, 2/<, for the experimental variance estimate is the same as the
relative variance for the reduced chi-square statistic. The coefficient of variation of the
experimental variance estimate for the counts is (70.7)/(0.460) or 154 times greater than that for
the Poisson variance estimate. Thus, for any reasonable mean count : , the Poisson variance
estimate, , has much better precision than the experimental variance estimate, , especially
for a small number of measurements n. Even when the counting data actually reflect extra-
Poisson variance and the calculated reduced chi-square statistic is no longer unity, the Poisson
variance estimate still will have much better precision than the experimental variance estimate
for the population variance. For example, when the expected reduced chi-square statistic has the
value of 4.26 calculated from the 5 measurements of the standard, the %CV for the
23
experimental variance estimate in the population variance has the same value of 70.7 %, and the
%CV for the Poisson variance estimate is increased to the value of 0.949 % as calculated by the
applicable equation above. The percent coefficient of variation of the experimental variance
estimate for the counts is then (70.7)/(0.949) or 74.5 times greater than that for the Poisson
variance estimate. Thus, the precision of the Poisson variance estimate is much better than the
precision of the experimental variance estimate for the population variance even when repetitive
counts of a source reflect extra-Poisson variance. However, if it is concluded, based on at least
thirty repetitive measurements, that the measurements do in fact reflect extra-Poisson variance
designated here by , then the experimental variance estimate, , should be used as the best
estimate for the population variance, F
2
, because it is represented now by the sum, ,
of the Poisson variance and the actual extra-Poisson variance (See referenced paper above by
Mark Tries.). The estimate for any extra-Poisson variance is calculated from the difference
of and . Even though it may not have good precision for the small number of degrees of
freedom < of 4 in the five measurements of the standard, the estimate for the extra-Poisson
variance is calculated from the five measurements of the standard in this ABHP question:
which compares to the Poisson variance estimate of 9,463 and experimental variance estimate
of 40,312 calculated from the product . Thus, the total experimental variance is
presumably dominated by extra-Poisson variance, and one might conclude that the experimental
variance estimate is a better estimate of the population variance F
2
. Because of the very poor
precision in , as reflected by its large %CV of 70.4%, not much confidence can be placed on
the estimate of either or . The percent coefficient of variation of is calculated using
as population statistics the corresponding estimates obtained from the five repetitive
measurements of the standard in this ABHP question:
The actual extra-Poisson variance could just as well be zero with such a large value for its
percent coefficient of variation. Thus, the solutions shown in this question use the theoretical,
propagated, Poisson variance estimates for all observed counting data.

5
The same symbol is used to represent the experimental variance estimate in the counts
and the experimental variance estimate in the counting rates.

6
The same symbol is used to represent the Poisson variance estimate in the counts and the
propagated, Poisson variance estimate in the counting rates.
24
Glossary of Symbols, Definitions, and Applicable Equations for Comment on Question 8
Y / normally distributed random variable, e.g., a count C or counting rate
measurement R when population mean count : about 30 counts.
: / population mean of a general normally distributed random variable Y;
= ( G y
i
)/ n, for i = 1 to n where n 6 4.
F
2
/ population variance of a general normally distributed random variable Y;
= (G (y
i
- : )
2
/n, for i = 1 to n where n 6 4;
= : for a Poisson distribution of counts of the same radiation source over the same
counting interval T.
%CV of Y / % coefficient of variation of random variable Y / 100%(F/: ).
y) / sample mean and estimate of population mean = (G y
i
)/n, for i = 1 to n and where:
n / number of measurements of random variable Y.
/ experimental
5
estimate of population variance = G (y
i
- y))
2
/(n - 1), for i = 1 to n,
where (n - 1) = number of degrees of freedom < for calculated statistic;
/ G (C
i
- C))
2
/(n - 1), for i = 1 to n count measurements each over a constant
counting interval T; and
/ G (R
i
- R))
2
/(n - 1), for i = 1 to n rates R
i
each determined over a constant counting
interval T, where R
i
= C
i
/T and R) = C)/T.
/ Poisson estimate
6
of population variance in counts or counting rates:
/ C) for n repetitive counts each over a constant counting interval T.
/ R)/T for n calculated rates R
i
each over a constant counting interval T.
Z
i
/ Z-score for measurement y
i
of random variable Y = (y
i
- : )/F.
25
/ Z-score estimate for measurement i of a count C
i
or rate R
i
:
= (C
i
- C))/ = (C
i
- C))/C)
1/2
for count measurement C
i
, which equals for R
i
:
= (R
i
- R))/ = (R
i
- R))/(R)/T)
1/2
for counting rate measurement R
i
.
P
2
/ chi-square statistic / E (Z
i
)
2
= G (y
i
- : )
2
/F
2
, i = 1 to n;.
<P
2
> / mean or expected value of P
2
= <, where
< / number of degrees of freedom = n when : and F
2
are known.
V(P
2
) / variance of P
2
= 2 <.
%CV of P
2
/ % coefficient of variation of P
2
= 100%(2/<)
1/2
.
/ reduced chi-square statistic / P
2
/<.
< > / expected value of = 1.
V( ) / variance of = (2/<).
%CV of / % coefficient of variation of = 100%(2/<)
1/2
, which equals %CV of P
2
.
/ estimated chi-statistic from count or counting rate data:
= G(C
i
- C))
2
/ = E(C
i
- C))
2
/C) for i = 1 to n count measurements, which equals:
= E(R
i
- R))
2
/ = E(R
i
- R))
2
/(R)/T) for counting rate measurements.
/ estimated reduced chi-square statistic for count or counting rate data:
= /< = /(n - 1) = / , where < = (n - 1) because C) or R) are estimated from
the data.
/ extra-Poisson variance in count or counting rate data = F
2
- .
/ estimate of extra-Poisson variance in count or counting rate data = - ;
= ( - 1) .
%CV of / % coefficient of variation of / 100% (F of )/ = 100% [ /n : ]
1/2
.
%CV of / % coefficient of variation of / 100% (F of )/ ;
= 100% [(2/<) ]
1/2
, which is the %CV for the P
2
statistic itself.
%CV of / % coefficient of variation of / 100% (F of )/ ;
= 100% [ (2/<)( /( - 1))
2
+ ( /n : ) ]
1/2
.
26
*
*
QUESTION 9
GIVEN: A 100 MeV He
+2
accelerator and reactions: X(
4
He, n)A and X(
4
He, 2n)B which are
stated to have equal cross sections and data:
T
1/2
of A = 1 day = 86,400 s; so
8 8
A
/ decay constant of A = (ln2)/(T
1/2
of A) = 8.02x10
-6
s
-1
;
' '
A
/ gamma constant for A = 0.5 R h
-1
Ci
-1
m
2
;
D
A
/ density for A = 7.8 g cm
-3
;
T
1/2
of B = 5 day = 432,000 s; so
8 8
B
/ decay constant of B = (ln2)/(T
1/2
of B) = 1.60x10
-6
s
-1
;
' '
B
/ gamma constant for B = 1 R h
-1
Ci
-1
m
2
;
D
B
/ density for B = 3.3 g cm
-3
;
N0 0
e
/I = 6.2x10
12
e s
-1
: : A
-1
;
V / cell volume = 100 m
3
;
F / ventilation flow rate = 7 m
3
s
-1
; so
K
V
/ ventilation removal constant = F/V = 0.07 s
-1
.
A. Ratio of exposure rates, X0 0
A
/X0 0
B
, for various operating times t and shutdown times J J:
1. t = 1 day = 86,400 s and J J = 0:
2. t = 2 months . 4 4 and J J = 0:
27
*
*
*
3. t = 2 months . 4 4 and J J = 2 days = 172,800 s:
B. The number N0 0of He
+2
ions striking target per second is calculated from given and calculated
data partially used here and in discussion for part D below:
F / duty factor or fraction of time accelerator is pulsed = 0.001;
W / pulse width = 1 : s = 1x10
-6
s; so
t
p
/ time between midpoint of pulses = W/F = 0.001 s = 1,000 : : s;
N0 0
p
/ number of pulses per second = F/W = 1,000 s
-1
; and
I
p
/ / peak beam current = 1 mA = 1,000 : : A.
C. Delay time t after shutdown for concentration to reach a safe level C(t) given:
t ) )
c
/ assumed mean life of O
3
molecules due to chemical reaction only = 2,000 s; so
K
c
/ rate constant describing chemical removal of O
3
= 1/ t )
c
= 5x10
-4
s
-1
;
K
V
/ ventilation removal rate constant = F/V = 0.07 s
-1
; so
k / total removal rate constant = K
c
+ K
V
= 0.0705 s
-1
;
C(0) / initial O
3
concentration = 10 ppm; and
C(t) / final safe O
3
concentration = 0.1 ppm.
Comment: The candidate is directed: "Assume that the mean life of O
3
is 2000 sec". This
directive easily could be interpreted to account for all removal mechanisms including
ventilation and chemical reactions of ozone. As shown by the calculation for the ventilation
removal rate constant in our solution, the given statement only applies to removal by
28
chemical reactions. The directive should have been stated: "Assume that the mean life of O
3
is 2000 sec as a result of removal by chemical reactions only."
* D. Problems that the following instruments could experience in surveys near target with beam
on:
1. Geiger-Mueller pulse detector, which I assume has a dead time of about 50 to 100 : s: The
reading on the GM instrument will simply correspond to the pulse rate N0 0
p
of 1,000 s
-1
of the
accelerator when the pulse width W of 1 : : s is much less than the GM dead time and when
the time interval between pulses, t
p
of 1,000 : : s, is significantly greater than the GM dead
time (See the calculations with the given data in part B above.).
2. Ion chamber whose mean current is assumed to be measured to yield the exposure rate:
Recombination of ions within the ion chamber will occur if the instantaneous dose rate
within the 1 : s pulse width for the accelerator is very high, and this recombination will give
an erroneous reading below the actual average exposure rate.
* E. The neutron radiation field will die off essentially instantaneously when the machine is
turned off (Note: sufficient information is not given to calculate an actual half-life, and the
concept of half-life might not actually apply in this case.).
Comment: A specific quantity like half-life should not been asked when it is not expected for
the candidate to calculate a specific half-life. It is confusing and causes candidates to spend
valuable time trying to find information provided in the question that will help them calculate
a half-life. No such information is provided; so this question really does not have a numerical
answer. The question should have directed: "Describe qualitatively how the neutron radiation
field changes with time after the beam is turned off."
* F. Five sources of industrial hazards associated with this type of accelerator facility include:
1. electrical shock;
2. noxious gases (e.g., ozone and NO
x
),
3. cryogenic hazards (e.g., liquid nitrogen),
4. RF/microwave hazards from RF sources used to supply energy to beam particles, and
5. all radiation sources (e.g., neutron and gamma radiation from beam particle reactions in target
and beam line components and radiations emitted by radionuclides produced through beam
particle reactions and indirectly through neutron activation.
* G. Five ionizing radiations produced during operation of the accelerator include: 1. neutrons,
2. gamma photons, 3. characteristic x-rays, 4. bremsstrahlung photons, and 5. beta particles,
e.g., from neutron activation reactions.
29
*
*
QUESTION 10
GIVEN: Termination urine sample containing
137
Cs resulting from inhalation exposure event:
t / time after exposure when 24 h urine sample is completed = 20 days;
T / exposure time interval = 30 minutes = 0.5 h;
t ) )
v
/ average time for one air change in room = 2 h; so
K
V
/ ventilation removal constant = 1/ t )
v
= 0.5 h
-1
; so
k / total rate constant for removal of
137
Cs from room air = 8 + K
V
K
V
= 0.5 h
-1
;
F / breathing rate for Reference Man = 1.2 m
3
h
-1
;
V
u
/ total volume of urine in 24 h sample = 1,500 mL;
V
s
/ volume of urine analyzed = 500 mL;
A
s
/ activity in analyzed urine = 0.43 : : Ci; and
IRF / fraction of intake expected to be present in 24 h urine sample shown in given table.
A. The intake I is calculated:
where IRF = 2.59 x10
-3
as shown in table for t = 20 days.
B. The initial airborne concentration C(0) to which the worker was exposed is estimated given
in addition:
I / worker's intake = 1.5 mCi = 1,500 : : Ci.
30
* C. Answer is 3.
* D. Answer is 4.
* E. Answers are: 1. (b), 2. (d), 3. (a), and 4. (c).
* F. An instrument routinely used to detect uranium contamination on personnel as they leave
contaminated areas is a thin window ( about 2 mg cm
-2
), pancake type GM detector and rate
meter. Advantages include its low cost, durability, and sensitivity to the beta and alpha
radiation associated with the decay of uranium and progeny. Disadvantages include the
relatively high background, the fact that the window easily can be punctured, and the lack of
discrimination between alpha, beta, and gamma radiation, which limits its use for checking
for alpha emitting contamination in external radiation fields.
31
*
*
QUESTION 11
GIVEN: Information on radon and its short lived progeny, including table of principle
radiations, energies, and half-lives.
* A. A working level (WL) is that concentration of short lived radon progeny that has a potential
alpha energy emission of 1.3x10
5
MeV L
-1
.
B. The working level concentration C
Po-218
from
218
Po only is calculated given:
U
Po-218
/ activity concentration of
218
Po = 600 Bq m
-3
= 0.6 Bq L
-1
;
8 8
Po-218
/ decay constant of
218
Po = (ln 2)/(3.1)(60 s) = 3.73x10
-3
s
-1
; and
E
Po-218
/ potential alpha energy emission of
218
Po = 6 + 7.7 = 13.7 MeV.
C. The exposure E in working level months (WLM) is calculated given:
C / / WL concentration of short lived progeny = 0.02 WL;
t / exposure time = (14 h day
-1
)(30 weeks)(7 days week
-1
) = 2,940 h; and
M / assumed occupational month = 170 h.
where differences in breathing rate in a home and a mine need not be considered.
* D. The dose delivered by Rn/Rn progeny depends on properties:
1. Two Rn/Rn progeny aerosol properties include:
a. radon is a chemically inert gas which therefore is primarily exhaled when present in the
tidal air volume of the lungs, and
b. the progeny exist as solid aerosol particles comprised of ions, atoms, or atoms attached to
condensation nuclei, which influences their diffusion and deposition on surfaces within
32
various regions of the respiratory tract when inhaled.
2. Three important characteristics of the respiratory tract include:
a. thickness of the mucous sheet;
b. action of cilia on the flow of the mucous sheet in clearing particles; and
c. thickness and mass of critical target tissue, e.g., the basal cells of the bronchial
epithelium.
* E. Answer is 5.
F. Regarding radon and radon progeny measurements:
* 1. Definitions for measurement types are given:
a. Grab: a measurement of a sample taken over a relatively short time.
b. Integrated: a measurement proportional to the integrated exposure.
c. Continuous: a measurement that can be related to essentially the instantaneous
concentrations or short term average concentrations over an extended monitoring period.
* 2. Examples of the measurement types include:
a. Grab: radon concentration in air collected in a ZnS(Ag) scintillation cell and
concentrations of short lived progeny from 3 counts of a 5 minute air filter sample.
b. Integrated: radon exposure from measurement of alpha tracks in a plastic detector
exposed over an extended period of time, and radon progeny from integrated TLD
response from radiation emitted by progeny collected on a filter paper in a continuous air
sampler.
c. Continuous: radon concentration of sampled air that continuously passes through a
ZnS(Ag) scintillation cell and radon progeny from alpha counts of a filter in a constant air
particulate monitor.
33
*
QUESTION 12
GIVEN: Assessment of hazards from non-ionizing radiation sources:
8 8
1
/ peak wavelength of UV light box = 300 nm;
8 8
2
/ peak wavelength of BSC cabinet = 280 nm;
T
1
/ exposure time per day with UV light box = 20 minutes = 1,200 s;
T
2
/ exposure time per day with BSC = 30 minutes = 1,800 s;
TLV / / threshold limit values in table, J m
-2
; and
S
8 8
/ relative spectral effectiveness in table.
A. Operating manuals give irradiances I assumed to represent personnel exposure situations at
the stated distances from the two sources:
I
1
/ irradiance from UV light box at 2 feet = 1 : W cm
-2
= 0.01 J s
-1
m
-2
; and
I
2
/ irradiance from BSC at 6 inches = 0.6 : W cm
-2
= 0.006 J s
-1
m
-2
.
* 1. The exposure E in an 8 hour work day from each source is calculated relative to its respective
TLV, which also applies to an 8 hour work day and when the same tissue is exposed from
each source. These relative exposures are then summed:
where: TLV
1
= 100 J m
-2
, and TLV
2
= 34 J m
-2
. Therefore, the total exposure is within the
allowed limit.
* 2. The assumption that the irradiances are at their respective peak wavelengths is incorrect
because both sources emit a spectrum of wavelengths.
* 3. A better method of assessing exposures to an individual would be to make actual
measurements. Exposures to individuals could be well established using TLDs prepared and
calibrated for use as UV detectors, which could be affixed to various exposed areas, e.g.,
head, hands, etc. to obtain reasonably accurate integrated exposures.
* B. Tissues at risk to UV include:
1. the eye especially superficial tissue of the eye; conjunctivitis is a common response of the
34
*
eye, and
2. exposed skin; erythema from short term exposures and skin cancer from chronic exposures
are possible responses.
* C. Two steps to lower exposures to UV light in the lab include:
1. use protective clothing to cover exposed skin and UV-absorbing safety glasses to limit the
exposure of the eyes, and
2. use UV opaque shielding material where possible.
D. A microwave transmitter is to be used in a health effects study:
< < / frequency = 1x10
10
Hz = 1x10
10
s
-1
;
P
p
/ peak power = 2x10
6
mW;
W / pulse width = 1x10
-3
s;
R / pulse rep rate = 200 s
-1
;
G / antenna gain = 16 dB; and
D / maximum horn antenna dimension = 20 cm.
* 1. Two precautions to prevent harm to technician include:
a. provide interlock to shut down transmitter if persons enter the control area, and
b. use microwave absorbing materials on walls/surfaces to reduce exposure from scattered
radiation.
2. The maximum free space power density I in mW cm
-2
is calculate for the stated assumptions
and distance d of 300 cm:
* 3. A lab technician spends 2 minutes in a room with an average free space power density of
25 mW cm
-2
. The worker was not exposed above the ANSI microwave recommended limit of
35
10 mW cm
-2
because the ANSI recommendations allow averaging over a 6 minute interval,
which gives an average value of 8.33 mW cm
-2
.
E. Given concerns for hazards from a microwave device operating at 2,400 MHZ or frequency < <
of 2.4x10
9
s
-1
:
* 1. This device cannot cause ionization and damage to DNA because the photon energy E is
much less than the ionization potential for all materials as shown:
* 2. The primary effect of microwave radiation on tissue results from the heating caused by the
enhanced motion of polar molecules (e.g., H
2
O) as they attempt to orient themselves with the
oscillating electric component of the microwave radiation field.
* F. The ALARA principle is applied to ionizing radiation to limit the risks of stochastic effects
such as cancer and hereditary disease, which are assumed to have a zero threshold dose. For
microwave and other non-ionizing radiation, the deterministic effects of concern exhibit a
threshold power density or total exposure that must be exceeded for detrimental effects to
manifest themselves. Thus, TLVs can be used to prevent detrimental deterministic effects
associated with non-ionizing radiation sources. The stochastic effect of cancer associated
with ionizing radiation may, in fact, have a practical threshold dose that must be exceeded. If
such a practical threshold dose could be established and accepted by the radiation protection
community, then TLVs could be established for ionizing radiation and the ALARA principle
no longer would be justified.
36
QUESTION 13
GIVEN:
60
Co and
137
Cs data, symbols, and buildup factors as shown.
Comment: In the given table of Exposure Buildup Factors for Point Source at 1 MeV, the
column labeled as R(mfp)* is confusing. The column should have been labeled as : x and
designated by a footnote: "number of relaxation lengths" or "number of mean free paths." A
candidate could easily be confused by the symbols, R(mfp)*, which would normally be
interpreted as a variable R expressed as a function of mfp. If candidates were to search for the
meaning of an assumed variable R, they would not find any additional information in the
question that would provide any insight into the meaning of R. The footnote, * mean free
paths, does not necessarily clarify the meaning of an assumed variable R, which itself
represents, in reality, the number of mean free paths, i.e., R is not a function of mfp but rather
R represents the number of mean free paths. The correct notation for this quantity is given by
the symbol for the quantity followed by a comma and then its units, for example, R, mfp.
A. Dose rate D0 0in the overhead crane when bucket containing
60
Co is at surface of water given:
D0 0
1
/ dose rate under water from assumed point source of
60
Co in bucket = 3 rad h
-1
;
d
1
/ distance under water from
60
Co to point of measurement = 1 m;
d
2
/ distance in air from water surface or from
60
Co source to crane = 10 m; and
I assume
60
Co in bucket can be treated as a point source; no water remains in bucket when at
surface of water; and attenuation of photons in air can be neglected.
Let D0 0
1
(0) / dose rate at 1 meter in air, which can be related to D0 0
1
in water:
: : x / number of relaxation lengths in water = (0.0707 cm
-1
)(100 cm) = 7.07; so
B / / buildup factor from table = 15.8.
37
*
B. The activity A in Bq of
137
Cs is calculated for a point source in air given:
D0 0 / dose rate assumed in water target volume when source is in air = 0.1 Gy h
-1
;
d / distance from source = 30 cm;
E
( (
/ gamma photon energy = 0.662 MeV;
Y
( (
/ gamma photon yield = 0.898 (Bq s)
-1
, which is actually 0.850 (Bq s)
-1
, but given
value will be used;
: :
enCs-137
/ water photon energy absorption coefficient = 0.0327 cm
-1
; so
(: :
enCs-137
)/D D/ water mass energy absorption coefficient = 0.0327 cm
2
g
-1
.
C. The specific activity S
L
in MBq m
-1
of
60
Co in a long pipe is calculated given:
D0 0 / measured dose rate = 0.9 rad h
-1
;
d / perpendicular distance from pipe to dose point, 1 m;
' ' / / gamma constant = 3.7x10
-4
mSv h
-1
MBq
-1
m
2
= 3.7x10
-5
rad h
-1
MBq
-1
m
2
;
2 2 / angle that the pipe subtends at the dose point = B B radians; and
My assumptions: the pipe is very long and located in a scatter free air environment; there is no
attenuation of photons in the pipe or in the air between segments of the pipe and the dose point,
which is equivalent to assuming that the pipe is located in a vacuum. The dose point is opposite
the midpoint of the pipe, which subtends essentially an angle 2 2 of B B radians at the dose point
(Most of the dose is from segments of the pipe closest to the dose point; therefore, the
assumption of no attenuation nor buildup might be reasonable. See comment and calculations
38
*
below). I also assume a dose of 100 rads = 100 rem = 1 Sv.
Comment: Because data was provided in the given information, candidates might be
convinced that less restrictive assumptions than those summarized above should be made.
They also could wonder what is meant by "a long, thin-walled, 2.5 cm diameter pipe." They
might spend a lot of time trying to decide how long is "long" as well as the location of the
dose point with respect to one end of the pipe? They also might assume that the pipe is
located in a water medium rather than air; the type of medium was not stated in this part of
the question. Depending on the assumptions, candidates would be required to spend a lot
more time in calculating the specific activity of the line source than the time taken in the
solution shown above, especially if they did not have a calculator having numerical
integration capability. To demonstrate the magnitude of the error in the simple solution
shown above and the iterative procedure a candidate might have to use in obtaining a solution
with less restrictive assumptions, calculations have been made of the dose rate D0at 1 meter
from the midpoint of line sources of various lengths. The specific activity S
L
was chosen in
each case to produce a limiting dose rate of 0.9 rad h
-1
for a very long pipe stated in this part
of the question. Results are shown in Table 1 below. The angle 2 each line subtends at the
dose point also is shown in the table as a percent of B, which is the angle for an infinite line
source. Dose rates have been calculated using the numerical integration application of the HP
42S calculator when the pipe is located in a vacuum, air, or water. For air and water, account
was taken for the attenuation and buildup in these media. A power function for the buildup
factor in air or water was obtained from the given table values by using the STAT application
of the HP 42S calculator and fitting the values of (B-1) versus the number of relaxation
lengths, : r shown in the given table ( actually stated as R(mfp)*).
The dose rates D0were obtained from a numerical integration of the following integral:
39
where:
L / length of line source, m;
B / buildup factor = 1 + 1.06 (: r)
1.36
for air = 1 + 1.07 (: r)
1.37
for water; and
r / distance from differential line segment dy to dose point = (y
2
+ d
2
)
= (y
2
+ 1)
, m.
As can be seen from values in Table 1 below for either a vacuum or air, the line
source must have a length L approaching several kilometers before essentially a constant dose
rate of 0.9 rad h
-1
is obtained at a distance d of 1 meter from the midpoint of the line source.
Such a length would seem to be unrealistic for the pipe. The specific activity S
L
is calculated
as 7,787 Mq m
-1
when air is considered the medium and account is taken of the attenuation
and buildup in air. This value is only slightly larger than the value of 7,740 MBq m
-1
calculated for a vacuum in the simple solution shown above, which neglects attenuation and
buildup in air. For a water medium, the line source need only have a length of about 4 meters
or more before a constant dose rate of 0.9 rad h
-1
is obtained. For the pipe located in a water
medium, it must have a specific activity S
L
of 1.824x10
6
MBq m
-1
to produce the given dose
rate of 0.9 rad h
-1
.
D. The minimum number N of lead-wool blankets required to shield a small valve is calculated
from the information given here and in the general data for this question:
m / mass of 1 lead blanket = 10.4 kg = 10,400 g;
x
b
/ thickness of 1 lead blanket = 2.5 cm;
V
b
/ volume of 1 lead blanket = 31 cm x 62 cm x 2.5 cm = 4,805 cm
3
; so
D D
b
/ density of blanket = m/V
b
= 2.16 g cm
-3
;
A / surface area of 1 lead blanket = 31 cm x 62 cm = 1,922 cm
2
; so
x
b
D D
b
/ mass density thickness of one lead blanket = m/A = 5.41 g cm
-2
;
: : /D D / mass attenuation coefficient of lead = (0.679 cm
-1
)/(11.4 g cm
-3
) = 0.0596 cm
2
g
-1
;
: :
b
x
b
/ no. of mfp corresponding to 1 blanket = (x
b
D
b
)(: /D) = 0.322;
: :
b
/ linear attenuation coefficient of blanket = :
b
x
b
/x
b
= 0.129 cm
-1
;
H0 0(0) / unshielded dose equivalent rate at d
1
= 150 mrem h
-1
, where:
d
1
/ distance from valve = 100 cm;
H0 0(x) / dose rate defining a high radiation area = 100 mrem h
-1
at
d
2
/ distance from surface of valve and assumed center = 30 cm; and

40
L, m 2 2, % of B B
D0 0
vac
, rad h
-1
for
: : = 0 m
-1
S
L
= 7740 Mbq
1
D0 0
air
, rad h
-1
for
: : = 7.75E-3 m
-1
S
L
= 7887 Mbq
1
D0 0
water
, rad h
-1
for
: : = 7.07 m
-1
S
L
= 1.824E6 Mbq
1
1 29.5 0.266 0.269 0.722
2 50.0 0.450 0.455 0.886
3 62.6 0.563 0.569 0.899
4 70.5 0.634 0.641 0.900
5 75.8 0.682 0.689 0.900
10 87.4 0.787 0.794 0.900
20 93.7 0.843 0.849 0.900
40 96.8 0.871 0.876 0.900
80 98.4 0.885 0.889 0.900
100 98.7 0.888 0.892 0.900
1000 99.9 0.899 0.900 0.900
2000 99.9 0.899 0.900 0.900
10000 100 0.900 0.900 HP 42S gives 0.
Table 1. Dose Rates D0 0 Opposite Mid-point of
60
Co Line Sources in a Vacuum, Air, and Water.
* As defined in 10 CFR 20, "High radiation area means an area, accessible to individuals, in
which radiation levels could result in an individual receiving a dose equivalent in excess of
0.1 rem (1 mSV) in 1 hour at 30 centimeters from the radiation source or from any surface
that the radiation penetrates."
41
1. Solution for number N of lead-wool blankets based on distance d
2
of 30 cm measured from
the center of the valve:
My assumptions: I assume the valve can be considered as an unshielded point source that
produces a dose equivalent rate H0 0(0) of 150 mrem h
-1
at a distance d
1
of 100 cm from the
source without any attenuation in the air and a shielded dose equivalent rate H0 0(x) of
100 mrem h
-1
at a distance d
2
of 30 cm from the source.
Calculation of required number, : x, of mean free paths, i.e., relaxation lengths:
so the required transmission T defined by B(ux) e
-: x
is calculated:
An underestimate : x
1
of 3 and an overestimate : x
2
of 4 for the required : x value yield two
values, T
1
and T
2
respectively, for the transmission when the respective buildup factors of
1.95 and 2.19 from the given table are used in the calculations:
An exponential fit of T versus : x for these two points yields from the STAT application of
the HP 42S calculator the : x value for the required transmission T of 0.0600:
The required number N of blankets is obtained from the required : : x value of 3.54 and the
: :
b
x
b
value of 0.322 for 1 blanket:
42
*
*
This number N corresponds to a thickness N x
b
of 27.5 cm of blanket material. Therefore, the
maximum radius of the valve is (30 - 27.5) cm or 2.5 cm.
2. Alternative solution for number N of lead-wool blankets based upon the distance d
2
of 30 cm
measured from the outer surface of the blankets:
Based on the definition shown above for a high radiation area, an alternative solution
for N is obtained if the distance d
2
of 30 cm is measured from the outer surface of the shield
of wool blankets. For this alternative interpretation, the required exposure rate H0 0(x) of
100 mrem h
-1
is expressed:
where B(:
b
N x
b
) is a linear buildup factor function for the required thickness N x
b
of blanket
material. The buildup factor function was obtained from a linear fit of buildup factors B
versus the number of relaxation lengths up to the value of 5 shown in the given table by using
the STAT application on the HP 42S calculator:
The SOLVER application was used to solve for N in the expression for H0(x), which gives the
alternative solution for the minimum number N of lead-wool blankets:
43
*
QUESTION 14
GIVEN: A cyclotron produces large quantities of
11
C,
13
N,
15
O, and
18
F. The plastic transfer line
is broken and a constant release rate of
15
O occurs in a room where instant and
complete mixing of
15
O can be assumed:
F / room exhaust flow rate = 30 m
3
min
-1
= 0.500 m
3
s
-1
;
V / room volume = 6 m x 6 m x 3 m = 108 m
3
; so
K
V
/
15
O room ventilation removal rate constant = F/V = 4.63x10
-3
s
-1
;
P /
15
O atom release rate = 2.6x10
9
at s
-1
;
T
1/2
/ half-life of
15
O = 12.2 s, which is incorrect. The correct value is 122 s, which also will
be used in alternative solutions below; so
8 8 / decay constant of
15
O = 5.68x10
-2
s
-1
and 5.68x10
-3
s
-1
for respectively the given
incorrect half-life and the correct half-life; and so
k / total rate constant describing removal of
15
O from the room = K
V
+ 8 =
6.14x10
-2
s
-1
and 1.03x10
-2
s
-1
for respectively the given incorrect half-life and the
correct half-life;
* A. For either the incorrect or correct half-life of
15
O, decay is more dominant than ventilation
because in either case the decay constant 8 exceeds the ventilation constant K
V
.
B. The activity concentration U(t) of
15
O at a time t of 4 minutes or 240 s after the onset of the
release is calculated for the incorrect and correct half-life respectively:
The total removal rate, k N(t), of
15
O atoms from the room at any time t is given by
44
* C. Exceeding the DAC of
15
O for a short time like 6 minutes does not necessarily mean an
overexposure will have occurred for the following two reasons:
1. The exposure E in DAC-h is the product of the average concentration C) ) in multiples of the
DAC and the actual exposure time t in hours. This calculated exposure could be significantly
less than the exposure limit of 2,000 DAC-h when no other external or internal exposures
occur in the 2,000 hour period applicable to the given control year. For an exposure time of
only 6 minutes, the average concentration C) ) could be as high as 20,000 times the DAC.
2. The concentration will decrease rapidly due to decay and ventilation; so the average
concentration C) ) will be much less than the peak concentration.
* D. Posting of the hood is required because a technician may occasionally place his or her head
inside the hood where the concentration is stated to exceed the DAC.
* E The radionuclides listed in the given premise to this question decay by either positron
emission or electron capture; therefore, they emit neutrinos and positrons. Characteristic
x-rays and any gamma rays are associated with the decay respectively of the atomic and
nuclear excited states of the product atoms. Annihilation photons having an energy of 0.511
MeV are produced in the surrounding materials when the emitted positrons combine with
electrons and undergo positron-negatron pair annihilation.
* F. Two health physics concerns associated with the use of plastic transfer lines include:
1. Radiation damage may cause cracking of the lines and release of radionuclides into the room.
2. Radioactive species such as
18
F may react with the plastic, and the lines could present an
external radiation hazard regardless.
* G. The answer is 1.

1998
K.A.L., Inc., 2000
All Rights Reserved
QUESTION 1 Page 1
QUESTION 1
You are a health physicist at a Tritium production facility. You have received a regulatory
information bulletin concerning a tritium uptake at a similar facility. In response to this bulletin,
you initiate a special round of airborne monitoring and urine sampling for tritium.
GIVEN
Tritium Data:
ALI: 80,000 Ci
T
1/2
: 12.3 years
Biological Data for Reference Man:
Volume of free water within the whole body: 43 l
Mass of Soft Tissues within the whole body: 65 kg
Daily water loss for Reference Man: 3 l/d
Daily urine loss for Reference Man: 1.4 l/d
POINTS
20 A. Describe two airborne monitoring techniques that you would consider using to
measure airborne tritium concentrations. Give one advantage and one
disadvantage for each discussed technique. Number your responses. Only the
first two techniques will be graded.
20 B. A positive spot urine sample result of 500 dpm/ml is reported for a researcher who
entered the reactor facility only once, 60 days prior to submitting the sample.
Assuming reference man metabolism, estimate the initial tritium uptake. Show all
work.
10 C. An individual has a single intake 1600 Ci of tritium. This individual also has 100
mrem of whole body external exposure for the year. What is the individuals
total effective dose equivalent for the year? What is the target organ?
QUESTION 2 Page 1
QUESTION 2
You are a consulting health physicist and have been asked to answer the following questions
regarding ionization chambers, given the information below. Assume that the detectors are
vented to the atmosphere.
GIVEN
Ionization chamber description: Conversions:
Chamber volume = 200 cm
3
1eV = 1.6 x 10
-12
erg
Bias Voltage = 25 V 1 Ampere = 1 C/s
1 coulomb = 6.24 x 10
18
electronic charges
1 R = 2.58 x 10
-4
C/kg
AIR
= 1.29 x 10
-6
kg/cm
3
at STP
POINTS
20 A. Calculate the electron current (in Amperes) generated in the sensitive volume of
the above ionization chamber when exposed to 100 mR/h (in air) of 1 MeV
photons. Assume STP conditions and that all charge produced in the sensitive
volume is collected (no recombination losses). Show all work.
20 B. Assuming all other variables remain unchanged, state the impact on the reading of
this ionization chamber if it is:
1. calibrated in San Diego (elevation 120 feet) and used in Santa Fe (elevation
6,375 ft.) Briefly explain your answer.
2. calibrated at 25 degrees C and used at 0 degrees C. Briefly explain your
answer.
10 C. If this instrument was calibrated in rad/h for photons in air, would a correction
factor have to be applied to determine a gamma skin dose rate in rad/h? Briefly
explain your answer
QUESTION 3 Page 1
QUESTION 3
The following questions concern external dosimetry.
15 A. A worker works in a mixed radiation field which includes beta particles, gamma
photons, alpha particles and thermal and mixed energy fast neutrons. The absorbed
dose from external sources in the work environment was reported as 30 mrad beta, 70
mrad gamma, 90 mrad thermal neutron and 25 mrad mixed fast neutron. Calculate the
ICRP 60 Equivalent Dose in mrem. Show all work.
5 B. A 26 year old worker had a lifetime dose of 32 rem. Compare this workers lifetime
dose to the recommendations of NCRP 91.
5 C. A radiation worker recorded the following doses over the past 4 years:
Year Dose (rem)
1 1
2 3
3 4
4 2
According to ICRP 60, what is the maximum recommended dose for this worker in year
5?
Given the information in the following table, construct a dosimeter to measure the effective dose equivalent for
each of the following workers specified in Parts D and E. Clearly state the number of the chips to be included in
the dosimeter and limit the number of chips to a maximum of four. Provide justification for your selections.
Chip Material Thickness Cover
1
7
LiF 0.38 cm 100 mg cm
-2
copper and
200 mg cm
-2
plastic
2
7
-2
plastic
3
7
LiF 0.15 cm 7 mg cm
-2
mylar
4
6
-2
plastic
5
7
-2
plastic
6
6
-2
plastic and
Cd filter
10 D. A laboratory worker using a Pu/Be neutron source.
10 E. An X-ray Technologist
5 F. A portable meter (i.e. BF
3
) could be used to determine the neutron dose equivalent to an
individual with (Match with the most appropriate statement):
1. knowledge of the neutron spectrum so that the proper RBE can be determined.
2. knowledge of the relationship between the neutron energy spectrum and the energy
of the neutron calibration source, the ratio of gamma and neutron fluence rates,
and the individuals stay-time.
3. the magnitude of the dose equivalent due to photons to be subtracted from the total
dose equivalent (i.e., the meter is zeroed) and application of a neutron energy
correction.
QUESTION 3 Page 2
4. knowledge of how the instrument responds to the spectrum as compared to the
neutron calibration source as well as the individuals stay-time.
5. near laboratory conditions controlling temperature, humidity, neutron energy, and
fluence rate.
QUESTION 4 Page 1
QUESTION 4
You are a health physicist assigned to a research reactor. The reactor is equipped with a number
of sample irradiation locations, including a pneumatic sample delivery system ("rabbit"). The
reactor operators are performing extended activation runs with the reactor and would like to
measure thermal neutron flux levels in the rabbit sample location using gold foil activation
analysis. After inserting the sample into the reactor, the pneumatic system develops problems that
do not allow retrieval of the sample. Six hours after insertion of the sample into the reactor, the
rabbit problems are repaired and the sample is retrieved. The next morning (11 hours after being
removed from the reactor), the sample is counted in a Na (Tl) well detector with a multi-channel
analyzer.
GIVEN
Rabbit transit time from reactor to rabbit portal = 2 s
Inner diameter of rabbit tube = 4 cm
Target foil (thin) is
197
Au with a mass of 25 mg
The thermal activation cross-section for
197
Au(n,( )
198
Au is 98.8 barns
198
Au $
-
E
max
= 961 keVabundance = 98.65%
( 412 keV, abundance = 95.5%
half-life = 2.695 d
Ignore self-shielding in gold foil
Measured net photopeak counts = 827,410 in 1 minute
Na (Tl) detector efficiency at 412 keV = 27.3%
POINTS
20 A. Using the measured values for the sample, what is the
198
Au activity, in Bq, when it
was removed from the reactor? Show all work.
20 B. For this part only, assume the sample activity upon exiting the reactor is 3.5 mCi.
Estimate the gamma dose rate, in mR/h, at 10 cm. Show all work.
10 C. If the gold foil target contains 1 x 10
24

197
Au atoms and the incident thermal
neutron flux is 1 x 10
11
n/cm
2
-s, what is the saturation activity?
1. 9.88 x 10
36
Bq
2. 9.88 x 10
12
Bq
3. 10
35
Bq
4. 10
11
Bq
5. 98.8 Bq
QUESTION 5 Page 1
QUESTION 5
You are the health physicist at a research facility and the staff has asked you to provide the
following information regarding neutron detection.
POINTS
15 A. Identify the nuclear reaction which occurs in each of the following neutron
detectors.

10
BF
3
counter

6
Li counter

3
He counter.
15 B. Explain how to determine the flux and the average energy of an unknown neutron
field using the Bonner sphere method with a
6
LiI(Eu) scintillator.
10 C. Explain the basis for neutron detection by the foil activation method. State one
key advantage of this method when used for criticality dosimetry.
10 D. Fission chambers can be used for detection of either thermal or fast neutrons.
Which uranium isotope (
235
U or
238
U) provides for detection of thermal neutrons?
Briefly explain your answer.
Question 6, Page 1
QUESTION 6
A calibration source was counted yielding the data shown below. Answer the following questions concerning
radioactive counting and counting statistics:
GIVEN
Count Data
C1 60 cpm
C2 55 cpm
C3 64 cpm
C4 69 cpm
C5 70 cpm
C6 63 cpm
mean 63.5 cpm
std. dev. 5.6 cpm
Cumulative Distribution of Chi-Square,
2
Probability of a greater value
Degrees of
Freedom 0.900 0.750 0.500 0.250 0.100 0.050
1 0.02 0.10 0.45 1.32 2.71 3.84
2 0.21 0.58 1.39 2.77 4.61 5.99
3 0.58 1.21 2.37 4.11 6.25 7.81
4 1.06 1.92 3.36 5.39 7.78 9.49
5 1.61 2.67 4.35 6.63 9.24 11.07
6 2.20 3.45 5.35 7.84 10.64 12.59
7 2.83 4.25 6.35 9.04 12.02 14.07
POINTS
10 A. Define the terms Type I and Type II errors as they apply to the analysis of low-level
radioactive samples.
5 B. What are blank samples and why are they used to determine instrument background?
10 C. A radioactive sample is counted yielding 500 counts (gross) in 10 minutes. The background of
the counting system is 460 counts in 60 minutes. If the efficiency of the counting system is 15%,
calculate the activity of the sample and the associated uncertainty. State any assumptions used in
the calculation. Show all work.
15 D. Briefly describe the purpose of the
2
(Chi-square) test. Using the
2
table shown above, what is
the implication if the
2
value is 4.01 and assuming 5 degrees of freedom?
10 E. Given the table above, calculate the
2
value for he given data.
Question 7 Page 1
QUESTION 7
You are the health physicist for a new research accelerator facility that has both primary and secondary beam
areas, and your field measurements show that the average ambient fluxes, (per cm
2
per sec), in the control room
are 3000 3-MeV photons, 500 thermal neutrons, and 800 fast neutrons. The control room is used by 10 people who
on the average work 40 hours per week, 50 weeks per year in the control room. A 5-m by 20-m concrete shielding
wall between the control room and the accelerator room is 2-m-thick. The accelerator operates constantly for 40
hours per week and is designed for a 20 year operating lifetime.
GIVEN
Conversion between particle fluence and effective dose,
Neutron Energy Sv per n/cm
2
Thermal 2.3 x 10
-12
Fast 1.2 x 10
-10
Photon Energy, MeV Sv per photon/cm
2
1 3.27 x 10
-12
3 8.2 x 10
-12
5 1.2 x 10
-11
and dose attenuation coefficients.
Particle
E, cm
-1
Thermal neutrons
0.25
Fast neutrons
0.08
3-MeV Gammas
0.08
Concrete cost: $500 per cubic meter
ALARA: $2000 cost per person-rem saving
POINTS
20 A Calculate the annual collective effective dose in the control room. Show all work
30 B Calculate the concrete shielding wall thickness required to reduce the effective dose rate in the
control room from 100 mrem/hr to 1 mrem/hr. (Assume dose buildup factor = 1). Show all work.
Question 7 Page 2
20 C Assume a collective dose rate of 1000 person-rem/yr in the control room with the existing
shielding wall. Is it cost-effective to increase the shielding wall thickness to reduce this to 1
person-rem per year? Show all work.
30 D List six events/conditions that could lead to unusual exposures either in the primary or in the
secondary beam areas (provide explanation to support each event/condition). (5 points for each
anwer. Number your responses. Only the first six will be graded.
Question 8 Page 1
QUESTION 8
The water in a pond is uniformly contaminated with
106
Ru. A raccoon has just moved into the contaminated area.
GIVEN
Constant water concentration of 250 pCi/l
Radiological half-life of
106
Ru is 1.02 y
106
Ru Decay: 0.039(max)
106
Ru ingestion ALI: 200Ci
Raccoon parameters:
body (fresh) weight: 8 kg
water intake rate: 0.08 l/d per kg of raccoon body weight
effective loss rate constant for
106
Ru, k
eff
, (includes biological and radiological losses): 0.069/d
mouse consumption rate: 0.002 kg of mouse/d per kg of raccoon body weight
106
Ru in body: 30% in soft tissue
30% bone
40% free
Mouse parameters
20 g body (fresh) weight
20 pCi body burden
POINTS
35 A. The raccoon lives at the pond for a period of 1 year. Assuming the raccoons only
source of water is the pond and that he eats his daily fill of mice, calculate the
106
Ru
concentration in the raccoon at the end of the year. Show all work.
15 B. Calculate the steady state activity (pCi) of
106
Ru if the raccoon lives at the pond the rest of his
life. Show all work.
30 C. A house located adjacent to the site uses a well which draws water from the pond.
An adult consumes 2.2l/d for 1 year from the pond. Calculate the Effective Dose
to the adult. How does this number compare to natural background. Show all
work.
20 D. Calculate the biological half life of
106
Ru in raccoons.
Question 9 Page 1
QUESTION 9
A plutonium fire occurs in an inerted glove box as a result of air leakage into the glove box. The
glove box contains 750 grams of nominally pure
239
Pu in the form of a fine powder and
combustible solvents. The fire burns for 20 minutes immediately causing a breach of the integrity
of the glove box and the smoke fills the surrounding room. Normal ventilation is automatically
secured and emergency room ventilation starts due to the high airborne radioactivity in the room.
The emergency ventilation is exhausted to the atmosphere via a single-stage high efficiency
particulate air (HEPA) filter through a 10-meter high stack.
GIVEN
Room dimensions: 6 m x 6 m x 3 m
T
1/2
for
239
Pu- 24,100 y
Emergency ventilation flow: 7 m
3
/min
HEPA collection efficiency: 99.95%
DAC for
239
Pu: 2 x 10
-12
Ci/cc
Wind speed: 9 m/s for Stability Class A conditions.
Site Boundary Distance: 1,000 meters.
Graphs of
y
and
z
versus distance from Meteorology and Atomic Energy, 1968.

|
.
`
,

|
.
`
,
+
+ |
.
`
,
]
]
]
]
'
exp exp
( )
exp
( ) Q
u
y z h z h
y z y z z
2 2 2 2
2
2
2
2
2
2
Where: Q = release rate (Ci/s) u = mean wind speed (m/s) z = elevation (m) h = stack height (m)
= concentration (Ci/m
3
) y = cross-wind distance (m)
POINTS
20 A. How many curies of
239
Pu are contained in the glove box prior to the fire? Show
all work.
20 B. List five factors on which the occurrence of accidental criticality depend. Number
your responses. Only the first five will be graded.
20 C. Assuming an initial concentration of 4 x 10
-4
Ci/cc immediately after the fire
ceases, how much time must elapse before the concentration in the room falls
below 1 DAC?
40 D. Emergency ventilation is exhausted to the atmosphere via a single stage high
efficiency particulate (HEPA) air filter through a 10-meter high stack. Assume a
constant air concentration of 4 x 10
-4
Ci/cc in the room. What is the air
Question 9 Page 2
concentration at ground level at the site boundary (on the plume centerline) for
Class A stability conditions? Show all work.
Figure A.2 Meteorology and Atomic Energy : y versus distance
Question 9 Page 3
FIGURE A.3 METEOROLOGY AND ATOMIC ENERGY : Z VERSUS DISTANCE
Question 10 Page 1
QUESTION 10
An accidental airborne release of approximately 2 kg of nominally pure plutonium has
occurred. The plume is predicted to drift offsite and pass over a nearby town. Assume that the
material is released in a particulate form, is assigned to inhalation class Y, and has the isotopic
mixture shown in the table below.
GIVEN
The DCF for external exposure to plutonium is 2.8 x 10
-3
rem/h per g/m
2
The DCF for Pu inhalation (Class Y, 1 micron AMAD) = 330 rem/ Ci (alpha) inhaled
The f
1
value for Class Y plutonium is 1.0 x 10
-5
The breathing rate is 20 l/min
The resuspension factor is 10
-5
m
-1
.
Specific
Activity
Total Activity
Major radiations
Isotope Weight
%
(Ci/g
isotope)
(Ci isotope/g
Pu mix)
Alpha
(MeV)
Beta
(MeV)
Photon
Energy
(MeV)
Photon
Yield
(%)
Spontaneous
Neutrons
(n/g-s)
Pu-238 0.04 17.10 0.007 5.49
0.017
0.099
0.150
0.77
11
0.008
0.001
0.00005
2600
Pu-239 93.3 0.06 0.056 5.15
0.017
0.039
0.052
0.129
0.375
0.414
0.65
0.77
5
0.007
0.020
0.005
0.0012
0.0012
0.00008
0.00002
0.03
Pu-240 5.99 0.23 0.014 5.16
0.017
0.65
11
0.00002 1000
Pu-241 0.28 103.00 0.288 0.021 0.145 0.00016
Pu-242 0.04 0.004 0.000002 4.9 1700
Am-241 0.30 3.44 0.01 5.5
0.017
0.060
0.101
0.208
0.335
0.37
0.663
0.722
37
36
0.04
0.0006
0.0008
0.0004
0.0005
0.0003
1.10
Pu (mix) 100
0.09 (alpha Ci)
0.38 (total Ci)
4.9-5.5 0.021 0.06 62
POINTS
Question 10 Page 2
10 A. Assuming that the inital plume has passed, give two (2) actions which could most
significantly reduce the dose to the downwind population during the first week
following the accident. Number your answers. Only the first two will be
graded.
20 B. The EPA recommends relocation of the general public based on a 1st year
Protection Action Guide (PAG) of >2 rem TEDE. Assume the estimated dose
received by residents who were outdoors during the initial plume passage ranges
from 1.5 to 2 rem CEDE and the estimated additional dose these residents are
likely to receive during the first year after the accident is 1.3 rem CEDE. Specify:
1. The meaning and intent of the PAGs, and
2. Your recommendations with respect to relocation of the population.
20 C. To assess the offsite surface deposition of plutonium you equip field teams with
portable hand-held thin-crystal sodium-iodide-based single channel analyzers.
These monitors may be calibrated to detect either the 17 keV or the 60 keV
photons emitted from material involved in this release. Given that the emission
ratio of the 17 keV to 60 keV photons is approximately 2.5, answer the following:
1. State two advantages of each energy calibration?
2. State which photon energy you would recommend under the following
two conditions. Why?
a. Dry paved road surfaces.
b. Agricultural field following an extended rain.
30 D. Calculate the internal dose from plutonium ground depositions for an individual who
walks for one hour on soil contaminated at a level of 100 Ci /m
2
. Show all work,
and state any assumptions.
20 E. Applying default assumptions from the facilitys emergency plan, you estimate that a
radiological worker who responded to the accident received a total effective dose
equivalent of 4.8 rem. Is further refinement of this dose estimate necessary? If so,
what action would you take to refine the dose estimate?
Question 11 Page 1
QUESTION 11
A pharmaceutical representative has just completed a presentation on the merits of a new
radiopharmaceutical for the study of the blood perfusion of heart muscle in patients with
suspected or known coronary artery disease. The new radiopharmaceutical is labeled with
99m
Tc
(trade name Tetrolite). The radiopharmaceutical that has been the standard in heart perfusion
imaging for years is
201
Tl-Cl (trade name thallium). One of the selling points that the salesperson
uses is the favorable dosimetry of Tetrolite relative to
201
Tl-Cl. After the presentation, your
nuclear medicine manager asks you to explain why one can inject nearly 10 times more Tetrolite
than thallium into the patient without increasing the patients effective dose equivalent.
GIVEN
The protocol for the heart muscle blood perfusion studies are as follows:
201
Tl - Patient is physically stressed and 4 mCi
201
Tl-Cl is injected at peak stress. An
image is made immediately following the end of stress. About 2 hours later an image is
obtained representative of the rest condition. No additional
201
Tl-Cl is injected
99m
Tc-Tetrolite - Patient in rest condition is injected with 10 mCi of Tetrolite and one
hour later a rest image is obtained. About 3 hours later, the patient is stressed physically
and at peak stress, an additional 20 mCi is injected and an image representative of the
patients physical stress condition is obtained about 40 minutes later.
From the literature you discover that both radiopharmaceuticals distribute themselves uniformly
throughout the body and that the half lives for biological elimination from the body are 10 days.
The physical half life for
99m
Tc is 6 hours. The physical half life for
201
Tl is 73 hours.
Reference man weights 70 kg.
Assume that the distribution and kinetics of elimination of the two radiopharmaceuticals is about
the same during both the rest and stress phase of the diagnostic protocol.
Question 11 Page 2
Energies and frequencies and Absorbed Fractions and absorption coefficient in air of
major photons emitted from decay of
99m
Tc and
201
Tl; (Contributions of Auger and
internal conversion electrons to patient dose are considered insignificant.)
201
Tl
Radiation Type Energy (kev) Frequency Absorbed
Fraction**
Absorption
coefficient in air
(cm
2
/gm)
X-ray K1 68.9 0.27 0.47 0.0262
X-ray K2 70.8 0.465 0.47 0.0262
X-ray K 80.3 0.205 0.47 0.0236
99m
Tc
Radiation Type Energy (kev) Frequency Absorbed
Fraction**
Absorption
coefficient in air
(cm
2
/gm)
Gamma 140.5 0.891 0.36 0.0245
**The fraction of the energy of a photon originating in the whole body (the source organ)
which is absorbed in the whole body (target organ). From Snyder et al., 1969, MIRD
Pamphlet No. 5.
POINTS
15 A. What are the three major factors which one would use to define the committed
effective dose equivalent received by the patient who has been injected with either
of these radiopharmaceuticals? Number your responses. Only the first three
will be graded.
30 B. What are the RELATIVE contributions of each factor in determining the nearly
10-fold difference in effective dose equivalent per mCi between the thallium and
Tetrolite radiopharmaceuticals? Show all work.
10 C. If the biological half life of
99m
Tc-Tetrolite in the gall bladder is 7 days, what is the
effective half life for
99m
Tc in the gall bladder? Show all work.
20 D. The gamma camera used for production of a nuclear medicine image functions in
much the same manner as a solid scintillation survey meter. Assume that the
injection activities given for the protocols above result in 20 times more counts
being acquired with
99m
Tc-Tetrolite than with
201
TlCl. What is the relative
variability in the counts which are acquired using the two radiopharmaceuticals?
(Variability is defined by the standard deviation of the number of counts divided by
the number of counts.) Show all work.
Question 11 Page 3
25 E. What is the RELATIVE extremity dose to a nuclear medicine technician who is
performing injections of the thallium and the Tetrolite for heart perfusion studies?
The protocol is the same as that identified above. The injection process requires
about 1 minute of syringe handling time for the thallium procedure and about 2
minutes of syringe handling time for the Tetrolite procedure.
Question 12 Page 1
QUESTION 12
Radioactive gases create health physics issues at both Pressurized Water Reactors (PWR's) and
Boiling Water Reactors (BWR's).
POINTS
25 A. Given the following information, calculate the alarm setpoint to correspond to
60% of the maximum acceptable total release rate from a tank designed to store
gaseous radioactive waste. Show all work.
Radionuclide Mixture:
85
Kr,
133
Xe,
135
Xe
Acceptable total release rate: 8.35 x 10
4
Ci/sec
Detector efficiency: 1.69 x 10
-6
Ci/cm
3
per cpm
Detector background: 730 cpm
Effluent flow rate at release point: 6300 ft
3
/m
Conversion factor: 2.83 x 10
4
cm
3
/ft
3
15 B. What are three sources of radioactive gas in the reactor coolant system. Number
your responses; only the first 3 will be graded.
15 C. Specify three mechanisms by which
3
H is produced in a PWR. Number your
responses; only the first 3 will be graded.
10 D. Generally speaking, a BWR will have lower equilibrium concentrations of
radioactive gases in the reactor coolant than a PWR, even though the fuel load and
power history may be similar. Explain why this occurs.
9 E. The presence of hydrogen (H
2
) in a radioactive gaseous waste system poses an
explosive hazard. By what process is hydrogen produced in the reactor system?
10 F. Describe two methods used to prevent the hydrogen concentration from reaching
explosive concentrations? Number your responses; only the first two will be
graded.
16 G. The following questions pertain to a specific radionuclide in BWR.
1. Which radionuclide would be the source of the highest on-site external dose
rate during reactor operation.
2. Where would the highest accessible dose rate likely occur?
3. Why is this radionuclide NOT a problem during reactor shutdown?
4. What is the production mechanism for this radionuclide?
Question 13 Page 1
QUESTION 13
A technician at your university was performing a cell wash at a sink inside a walk-in cooler. Approximately 45 cm
away, a protein labeled with
125
I was being dialyzed. The technician observed the radioactive material sign on the
dialysis material, became concerned and contacted, the chairperson of the Radiation Safety Committee (RSC).
Because she was performing a procedure that did not involve radioactive material, she was not wearing dosimetry.
The chairperson has asked you to investigate.
You learn that the protein labeling procedure was conducted two weeks ago with 370 MBq of
125
I. The labeling
procedure has an efficiency of 45%. The technician was present in the work area for about 1.5 hours while the
protein was being dialyzed.
GIVEN
Half-life of
125
I = 60.1 days.
Lead density: 11.35 g/cm
3
Mass attenuation coefficient of lead: 28.9 cm
2
/g.
Gamma constant ( ) for
125
I : 7.4x10
-5
mSv/hr-MBq @ 1 meter.
125
I emits the following:
Emission Energy (keV) Intensity (%)
x-ray 27.2 39.7
x-ray 27.4 74.1
x-ray 31 25.7
gamma 35.5 6.7
POINTS
10 A. List two possible routes of exposure to the technician and how you would assess each. Number
your responses. Only the first two will be graded.
50 B. Assume attenuation from the dialysis apparatus is negligible and the apparatus is a point source.
Calculate the effective dose from external radiation to the technician. Show all work.
20 C. The technician has some lead foil that is 0.015 cm thick. Assume that the activity of the source
is 200 MBq for this part. What is the dose rate at 45 cm if the lead is used? Justify your
answer and show all work.
20 D. List two other corrective actions that could be taken to minimize dose to the technician (in
addition to shielding the dialysis apparatus). Number your responses. Only the first two will
be graded.
Question 14 Page 1
QUESTION 14
After using a diode laser pointer in lectures, a university professor received questions from students who are
concerned about the safety of such devices. The professor decides to consult with you, the Radiation Safety
Officer of the University. You have collected the relevant data and performed an analysis according to ANSI
Z136.1-1993.
GIVEN The laser pointer: Wavelength () = 660-680 nm
Output power () = 4.5 mW
Aperture diameter (a) = 0.2 cm
Beam divergence () = 0.2 milliradians
Distance from the professor to students = 3 to 50 m
Time for human blinking (aversion time) = 0.25s
Maximum Permissible Exposure, MPE
MP E
t x Jcm
t s

1 8 10
3 4 3 2
.
( )
/
(for exposure time t: 18 x 10
-6

< t < 10 s)
NOHD =
( )
1
M P E
]
]
]
'
'
4
2
1
2
a
POINTS
20 A. Calculate the emerging irradiance in mW/cm
2
. Show all work. State
the answer which is most appropriate.
a) 24 mW/cm
2
b) 36 mW/cm
2
c) 95 mW/cm
2
d) 143 mW/cm
2
e) 450 mW/cm
2
15 B. Calculate the MPE, in mW/cm
2
,

for intrabeam viewing. Show all work.
state the answer which is most appropriate.
a) 0.64 mW/cm
2
b) 1.9 mW/cm
2
c) 2.5 mW/cm
2
d) 3.6 mW/cm
2
e) 2500 mW/cm
2
10 C. Define nominal occular hazard distance (NOHD).
20 D. Assuming a MPE value of 3.0 mW/cm
2
. Calculate the NOHD for the laser
pointer. Show all work. Does it include the lecture audience and why?
10 E. To which class of laser does this laser pointer belong? Justify your answer.
Question 14 Page 2
10 F. List two of the ANSI recommended safety precautions to the professor for this class of laser.
Number your responses. Only the first two will be graded.
15 G. During your investigation you discovered that some professors are using older HeNe
laser pointers. These are Class II devices operating with a power output of 0.5 mW. What is the
basis for the difference in the hazard between the two lasers (diode and HeNe)?

Solutions
to the
K.A.L., Inc., 2000
All Rights Reserved
1
the equations giving the solution(s). Any necessary change in a given symbol or in its given
numerical value and units will be indicated in our solution. To obtain numerical solutions to the
various parts of a question, bolded numerical values and their corresponding units for given or
calculated quantities are understood to be used in place of the algebraic symbols representing
those quantities in the equations. This procedure is followed to make clear our solutions and
answers, which are identified by a C to the left of the text or equation containing a numerical
answer, which also is bolded along with its corresponding units. Except for answers read from
given figures, other numerical answers are shown to three significant digits regardless of the
number of significant digits of input quantities used to calculate an answer. Sometimes only the
numerical values and their corresponding units for given quantities are shown in an equation
giving the solution for another quantity.
2
C
C
QUESTION 1
GIVEN: Tritium production facility and given or calculated quantities:
ALI / annual limit on intake = 80,000 : : Ci;
8 8 / decay constant = (ln2)/(12.3)(365 days) = 1.54x10
-4
day
-1
;
V / volume of water in whole body = 43 L;
m / mass of soft tissue in body = 65,000 g (Actual value is 63,000 g.);
F / daily water loss from body of RM = 3 L day
-1
; so
K / biological removal rate constant = F/V = 6.98x10
-2
day
-1
; so
k / total removal rate constant = 8 + K = 6.99x10
-2
day
-1
;
F
u
/ daily volume of urine for RM = 1.4 L day
-1
.
SOLUTIONS AND ANSWERS(C C):
C A. Two airborne tritium monitoring techniques and their advantages and disadvantages include:
(1) flow through Kanne ionization chamber: advantage: provides essentially an
instantaneous measurement of the total airborne concentration of HT0 + T
2
and
disadvantage: does not distinguish between T
2
and HTO, which has a much greater dose
significance than T
2
and (2) measurement of tritium in the form of tritiated water vapor
(HTO) in a measured mass of a condensed water vapor sample with LSC to obtain its specific
activity S
A
in : Ci g
-1
and the measurement of the relative humidity and temperature at the
time of sampling to obtain an estimate of the absolute airborne concentration C
W
in g cm
-3
of
water vapor; the HTO airborne concentration C
HTO
in units of : Ci cm
-3
is then obtained from
the product of S
A
and C
W
: advantage: provides an accurate measurement of the HTO
airborne concentration, which contributes most of the dose when mixtures of T
2
and HTO are
present in the air and disadvantage: requires sampling and analysis, which does not provide
continuous monitoring of the airborne tritium.
B. The uptake U is calculated from the measured urine concentration C
u
(t) of 500 dpm mL
-1
or
500,000 dpm L
-1
observed at a time t of 60 days after the uptake:
C. The target organ is specified, and the total effective dose equivalent, TEDE, is calculated for
an intake I of 1,600 : : Ci and external dose equivalent H
ext
of 100 mrem:
3
C
QUESTION 2
GIVEN: An ion chamber vented to the atmosphere:
V = 200 cm
3
; Bias Voltage = 25 V; and conversion constants.
A. Ion current I in amperes is calculated for an exposure rate X0 0of 0.1 R h
-1
at STP conditions:
C B. The exposure rate reading of the meter for the ion chamber will be:
1. less than the actual exposure rate in Santa Fe (elevation 6,375 ft.) when calibrated in San
Diego (elevation 120 ft.) because air density will be less than when calibrated.
3. more than actual exposure rate at 0 degrees C when calibrated at 25 degrees C because air
density will be greater than when calibrated.
C C. If the ion chamber instrument is calibrated for absorbed dose rate to air in rad h
-1
for photons,
the dose rate reading on the meter would have to be multiplied by a correction factor to
obtain the gamma skin dose rate. For most photons, (E
(
50 keV) the correction factor
would be the tissue to air mass collision stopping power ratio for the electron distribution
produced by photon interactions and present at a tissue depth of 7 mg cm
-2
. For very low
energy photons, which require little penetration depth to yield an equilibrium distribution of
secondary electrons, the correction factor would be the tissue to air mass energy absorption
coefficient ratio for the photons. Both of these ratios are about 1.1; so the reading would be
multiplied by about 1.1.
4
C
QUESTION 3
GIVEN: Questions on external dosimetry and table of 6 different LiF chips.
A. The ICRP Publication 60 equivalent dose H is calculated from external tissue absorbed
doses: D
$ $
of 30 mrad, D
( (
of 70 mrad, D
t-n
of 90 mrad, and D
f-n
of 25 mrad:
where D
R
is the absorbed dose for radiation R and w
R
is the radiation weighting factor for
respectively $, ( , t-n, and f-n radiation. The value of w
f-n
is conservatively taken to be 20 for
the mixed fast neutron field.
C B. The lifetime dose of 32 rem for a 26 year old worker (age in years = n = 26) exceeds by 6 rem
the lifetime recommended limit of n rem in NCRP Report 91. Based on recommendations in
NCRP Report 91, this workers allowed annual dose should be limited to 1 rem instead of the
5 rem for workers who do not exceed their lifetime limit.
C C. The allowed dose, per recommendations in ICRP 60, in year 5 of a worker who has received
a total dose of 10 rem in the previous 4 years would be zero. The ICRP recommends a dose
limit of 5 rem per year with the further restriction that the average annual dose over any 5
year control period does not exceed 2 rem per year or a total of 10 rem, which the worker
already received in the first 4 years of the 5 year control period.
C D. For a worker using a Pu-Be fast neutron source, the dosimeter should contain two chips:
7
LiF
(number 5) and
6
LiF(number 6), but number 5 also should have a Cd filter above the chip like
that for number 6. The
6
LiF chip under the Cd cover responds to albedo neutrons plus
external gamma radiation and gamma radiation produced by thermal neutrons absorbed in the
Cd filter. The
7
LiF under the added Cd filter responds to external gamma radiation and
gamma radiation produced by thermal neutrons absorbed in the Cd filter, and its response
should be subtracted from the response of the
6
LiF chip to obtain the net neutron response of
the
6
LiF chip.
C E. For an x-ray technologist, a three element badge consisting of three
7
LiF chips (numbers 2, 3,
and 5) would be desirable for interpretation of skin dose ( number 3), eye dose (number 5),
and deep dose (number 2). For the premise of measuring effective dose equivalent, the single
dosimeter with a 1,000 mg cm
-2
cover (number 2) is adequate.
C F. Answer is 4.
5
C
C
C
QUESTION 4
GIVEN: Neutron activation of a thin gold foil and required data:
T
1
/ irradiation time = 6 h;
T
2
/ time after irradiation to beginning of count = 11 h;
m / mass of gold foil = 0.025 g;
F F
act
/ activation cross section = 98.8x10
-24
cm
2
at
-1
;
E
( (
/ gamma energy = 0.412 MeV;
Y
( (
/ gamma yield = 0.955 ( ( d
-1
;
8 8 / decay constant = (ln 2)/(2.695)(24 h) = 0.0107 h
-1
;
C / net counts in peak = 827,410 c;
T
3
/ counting interval = 1 minute = 60 s; and
, ,
( (
/ gamma peak detection efficiency = 0.273 c ( (
-1
.
A. Activity A(T
1
) in Bq when foil is removed from reactor is calculated:
B. Gamma exposure rate X0 0in mR h
-1
at distance d of 0.1 m from an activity A of 3.5 mCi is
approximated:
C. The saturation activity A in Bq in a foil with N of 1x10
24
atoms exposed to a thermal fluence
rate N N of 1x10
11
n cm
-2
s
-1
is calculated:
6
QUESTION 5
GIVEN: Neutron detection.
C A. The nuclear reactions in the following detectors are specified:
10
BF
3
counter:
10
B(n," " )
7
Li;
6
Li counter:
6
Li(n," " )
3
H; and
3
He counter:
3
He(n,p)
3
H.
C B. To determine the flux (i.e., fluence rate) and average energy using the Bonner sphere method
with a LiI(Eu) scintillator, several polyethylene spheres (commonly about 5) ranging in size
from about 2 inches to 18 inches in diameter are exposed (usually individually) in the field of
interest. The events in the scintillator (from the reaction
6
Li(n," )
3
H) centered in the sphere
are detected by a photomultiplier tube and fed to a preamp-amplifier-scaler and recorded as
counts. The calculated counting rates from the different spheres are used together with a
predetermined counting efficiency versus neutron energy matrix in a computer interactive
program to generate the shape of the energy distribution (An initial guess as to the spectral
shape is input by the operator.). From the unfolding routine, the energy distribution can be
obtained in the form of fluence rate per unit energy interval, N(E). The total fluence rate can
be obtained by integrating the distribution over the entire energy range. The average energy,
E
) )
, can be obtained by using the fluence rate per unit energy distribution, N(E), in a numerical
or graphical interpretation when it is noted for classical neutrons that N(E) / n(E) v and
v = (2 E/m)
where n(E) defines the neutron density, v the neutrons velocity, and m the
neutrons rest mass:

or by using finite energy bins of width ) E:
7
C C. Foil activation can be used to evaluate the neutron fluence rates and shape of the energy
distribution. Foils having particular threshold neutron-induced reactions above a specific
neutron energy are selected, and the radioactivities of products are determined through
measurements of their radiation emission rates. Using a computer, interactive, unfolding
routine, it is possible to determine the shape and fluence rate of the neutron energy
distribution from the induced activities in the foils. One advantage of this method is that it is
passive and lends itself as a personal criticality dosimetry, which can be measured
immediately after a criticality accident to identify persons who may have received significant
doses. Because the foils are evaluated after irradiation, no electronics or readout are necessary
during irradiation.
C D. The isotope
235
U provides for the detection of thermal neutrons by the fission process.
Thermal neutrons are not capable of inducing fission in
238
U, which has a neutron energy
fission threshold of about 1 MeV.
8
QUESTION 6
GIVEN: Six, two digit, integer counting rates R
i
of a calibration source; experimental mean
rate of 63.5 cpm; experimental estimate of the population standard deviation, F F
^
exp
,
of 5.6 cpm, which can be calculated from the given R
i
values as 5.61 cpm to three
significant digits; and table of P
2
values.
C A. A Type I error is falsely concluding activity is present in a sample above the established
physically significant activity (PSA), which is calculated from the quotient, L
c
/E, of the
established net counting rate critical level, L
c
, and counting efficiency, E, and which will
occur with a probability " , typically chosen at 5%, when in fact the activity is actually zero.
A Type II error is falsely concluding that the activity is less than the established PSA when in
fact activity is present above the PSA. When activity is present at the established minimum
detectable activity (MDA), which is calculated from the quotient, L
d
/E, where L
d
is the
established lower limit of detection for the net counting rate, then there will be a probability
$, typically chosen at 5%, of falsely concluding activity is less than the PSA, which is the
decision tool used to decide the absence or presence of activity in a sample.
C B. Blank samples are representations of the media and container in which actual radioactivity in
samples are counted, but they contain no net activity from the medium sampled, e.g., the air
in the working environment of workers sampled with a glass fiber filter. Because blank
samples, e.g., new glass fiber filters, may contain varying amounts of radioactivity, the blanks
or filters themselves will cause a variation in the observed gross background rate that should
be subtracted from the gross rate observed for samples in calculating the net counting rate for
a sample. For the filter example, the same filter and planchet used to collect and then count
an air filter sample should be counted prior to sampling the air to determine the gross
background counting rate, but this procedure often is not followed.
Comment: Unlike the implication in the underlined portion of the question: What are
blank samples and why are they used to determine instrument background?, the
contribution to the gross background rate made by radioactivity present in a blank sample
should not be considered as part of the instrument background. From a practical standpoint,
the same medium used to collect a sample may not be available to use as part of the blank,
e.g., chemical reagents, baseline bioassay samples from workers, etc. In such cases, it is more
appropriate to first determine the instrument background for establishing the instrument
critical level or net counting rate for deciding if any activity is present in a sample above that
implied by the instrument background. The actual distribution of radioactivity in different
blanks, e.g., the distribution of
232
Th in baseline fecal samples from a worker population, is
then used to establish the PSA above which the decision is made that activity is present above
9
C
C
the activity of blanks or baseline samples. The activity in blanks or baseline samples often
will be described best by a log-normal distribution whose parameter estimates should be used
to establish the PSA for a specified probability " of being exceeded when no activity above
the blanks or baseline samples is actually present.
C. The activity A and standard error estimate F F
^
A
are calculated from counts of the sample and an
assumed appropriate blank given:
R
s+b
/ gross counting rate = C
s+b
/T
s+b
= 500 c/10 min = 50 cpm;
T
s+b
/ counting interval for sample = 10 min;
R
b
/ counting rate for blank = C
b
/T
b
= 460 c/60 min = 7.67 cpm;
T
b
/ counting interval for blank = 60 min; and
E / gross counting efficiency = 0.15 c d
-1
.
C D. The purpose of the chi-square test of a counter is to determine from repetitive counts C
i
of a
constant source over the same counting interval T whether or not the observed experimental
estimate of the population variance, (commonly designated as s
2
), is significantly less or
more than the theoretical estimate of the population variance, , which is estimated from
the sample mean count on the basis of the assumption that the counts have a Poisson
distribution approximated by a normal distribution when exceeds about 30 counts. Similar
comparisons apply to the counting rates calculated from the counts observed over a constant
counting interval. A P
2
value of 4.01 for 5 degrees of freedom < is very close to the most
likely value (<-1) of 4 when it is assumed that the counter shows no less and no more
variance than expected. The P
2
value of 4.01 is considerably less than the critical high value
of 11.07 shown in the table for deciding that the counting results show too much variance at a
significance level of 5%, which is the probability of falsely concluding that the counter is not
working properly when it actually is working.
E. An estimate for the chi-square value cannot be calculated from the given data, because the
counting interval T used to determine each of the six counting rate measurements was not
given. Two alternative solutions based upon different assumptions are given as follows.
1. If it is assumed that the counting rates were calculated from counts observed over a constant
10
C
C
counting interval T of 1 minute (Note: integer values for the reported rates imply a counting
interval of 1 minute.), then can be calculated from the given experimental standard
deviation of 5.6 cpm and the propagated, theoretical Poisson estimate of 7.97 cpm
for the population standard deviation, which is calculated from for the given mean
rate of 63.5 cpm and the assumed counting interval T of 1 minute. The estimated reduced
chi-square statistic, , and estimated chi-square statistic, , are calculated then for the
value < < of (n-1) or 5:

2. If it is assumed instead that the given standard deviation of 5.6 cpm is , the Poisson
theoretical estimate of the population standard deviation, then the six counting rates can be
used to calculate the experimental estimate of the population standard deviation as
5.61 cpm. The estimated reduced chi-square statistic, , and estimated chi-square statistic,
, are calculated then for the value < < of (n-1) or 5:
Comment: This part to the question had no answer based on the given information. The
solution in 2 represents a blunder in the application of the chi-square statistic where, in
reality, the experimental standard deviation is used incorrectly for . Thus, is actually
being calculated from ( / )
2
, which yields unity or the expected value, a meaningless
result when calculated this way. It is not really appropriate to use the chi-square statistic for
only 5 degrees of freedom <. The expected value : for the chi-square statistic is < and its
variance F
2
is 2<. The coefficient of variation (CV), i.e., 100% F/: ) for P
2
, thus is calculated
from100%(2/<)
or as 63.2% for 5 degrees of freedom <. Such a poor precision in the

chi-square statistic would not provide a very reliable chi-square test of a counter. For further
information about the proper application of the chi-square test, see paper, Basic
Applications of the chi-Square Statistic Using Counting Data, by Mark Tries et al in Health
Physics 77: pages 441-453, October, 1999. Further discussion relating to the proper
application of the chi-square statistic can be found in the comment at the end of the solution
to Question 8 on the 1997 ABHP exam.
11
C
QUESTION 7
GIVEN: Accelerator facility with average fluence rates, N N
R
, in units cm
-2
s
-1
, in control room of
specified radiations R,: N N
( (
of 3,000 from 3 MeV photons, N N
t-n
of 500 from thermal
neutrons, and , N N
f-n
of 800 from fast neutrons; tables for given radiations R of
effective dose per unit fluence conversion factors, <H
E
/M M>
R
in units of Sv cm
2
:
8.2x10
-12
for 3 MeV photons, 2.3x10
-12
for thermal neutrons, and 1.2x10
-10
for fast
neutrons; table of dose attenuation coefficients, G G
R
in cm
-1
, for given radiations R,
assumed for concrete: 0.08 for 3 MeV photons, 0.25 for thermal neutrons, and 0.08
for fast neutrons; and
N / number of persons exposed in control room = 10 persons;
T
Y
/ annual exposure time in control room = 2000 h = 7.2x10
6
s;
S / control room wall surface area = 100 m
2
;
x
w
/ thickness of control room wall = 2 m;
C / volume cost of concrete = $500 m
-3
; and
C
ALARA
/
ALARA cost justification = $2,000/person-rem = $200,000/person-Sv.
A. Annual collective effective dose, H
C-E
, of persons in control room is calculated:
B. The concrete wall shield thickness x (assumed in addition to that in Part A) that is needed to
reduce the H0 0
E
in the control room from 100 mrem h
-1
to 1 mrem h
-1
is calculated for a
buildup factor B of 1:
Thermal neutrons are not likely to make a significant contribution to the shielded dose
because of the large value for G G
t-n
of 0.25 cm
-1
for thermal neutrons compared to the value of
0.08 cm
-1
for both the 3 MeV photons and fast neutrons. The calculation for x can be made
for the gamma photons and fast neutrons only as verified by the fraction F
t-n
of the
100 mrem h
-1
and effective dose that is due to thermal neutrons when it is assumed the
radiations have the same initial fractional contributions as in Part A:
12
C
Thus, the initial effective dose equivalent rate, ( H0 0
E
)
t-n
, from thermal neutrons is calculated as
(100 mrem h
-1
)(0.00944) or 0.944 mrem h
-1
. The required dose transmission T of the additional
shield x for photons and fast neutrons thus is calculated as (1)/(100 - 0.944) or 1.01x10
-2
. The
additional shield thickness x is then calculated:
C C. It is effective to reduce the annual collective effective dose from 10 person-Sv to the value of
0.01 person-Sv based on ALARA:
The required additional shield thickness x is calculated as in Part B except it is assumed that
the initial contribution of thermal neutrons is negligible; so the required dose transmission T
of the additional shield x for photons and fast neutrons thus is calculated as (0.01)/(10) or
0.001, and x is calculated:
The additional concrete cost is calculated from the product x S C as $43,200. The ALARA
justified cost is calculated from the product of the collective effective dose saving of
9.99 person Sv and C
ALARA
of $200,000/person-Sv or as $2.00 million. Thus, the ALARA
justified cost greatly exceeds the actual cost of the additional concrete.
C D. Six events/conditions that could lead to unusual exposures include:
1. An increase in the beam current would lead to proportional increases in the dose rates in all
areas.
2. An increase in the particle beam energy would produce more and higher energy neutrons and
possibly more gamma radiation, thereby causing higher dose rates in all areas.
3. A redirection of more of the beam from primary to secondary areas would increase dose rates
in secondary areas.
4. Reduction of the beam directed to secondary areas would result in higher beam current and
13
dose rates in primary areas.
5. Alteration or removal of local shielding in primary or secondary areas may result in higher
doses in either area.
6. Violation or the interruption of interlocks could result in high exposures if personnel gained
access to areas protected by interlocks.
Comment: Various parts to this question use effective dose (ICRP 60 dose term) rather than
effective dose equivalent (ICRP 26 dose term). What was really meant to be used? Current
regulations in the United States are based on ICRP 26 and ICRP 30; so effective dose
equivalent should be used unless questions specifically address ICRP 60 and other ICRP
publications that use effective dose terminology. Regardless, dose terms in a question should be
made clear; a candidate should not be forced to guess what is meant. See comment to the Part C
solution in Question 8 below.
14
C
C
QUESTION 8
GIVEN: Water in a pond uniformly contaminated with
106
Ru that causes intakes by a raccoon,
mice, and persons drinking water from a pond:
C
w
/ constant water concentration = 250 pCi L
-1
;
8 8 / decay constant = (ln2)/(1.02)(365) = 1.86x10
-3
day
-1
;
E) )
$ $
/ average beta energy = (0.039 MeV)/(3) = 0.0130 MeV;
ALI / ingestion ALI [(ICRP 30)(Note: also equals stochastic ALI)] = 200 : : Ci;
M
R
/ body mass of raccoon = 8 kg;
W
R
/ raccoon water intake rate of (0.08)(8) = 0.64 L day
-1
;
k
eff
/ effective loss rate constant for raccoon = 0.069 day
-1
;
I
R
/ raccoon mice ingestion rate = (2)(8)/(20) = 0.8 mice day
-1
; and
q
m
/ mouse body burden = 20 pCi mouse
-1
.
A. The activity concentration C
R
(t) in pCi kg
-1
after a time t of 365 days is calculated:
The raccoons total daily activity ingestion rate I 0 0is calculated from (I
R
q
m
+ W
R
C
w
) or as
176 pCi day
-1
; so
C B. Because C
R
(t) calculated in Part A is essentially the steady state concentration, the steady
state activity A in the raccoon is calculated from (319 pCi kg
-1
)(8 kg) or 2,550 pCi.
C. The committed effective dose [equivalent](CEDE), H
E
, for an adult drinking 2.2 L day
-1
of
water from the pond for 365 days in a year is calculated:
The total ingestion intake I is calculated: (2.2)(365)L(250 pCi L
-1
) = 201,000 pCi or
0.201 : : Ci; so
which compares to a total, annual average, natural background dose of about 300 mrem,
including the contribution of radon and its progeny.
15
C
Comment: The question asks for Effective Dose, which is based on ICRP 60 and 61 and a
limit of 2,000 mrem, but the given ALI of 200 : Ci is based on the ICRP 30 limit of
5,000 mrem committed effective dose equivalent (CEDE). The ICRP 61 ALI for
106
Ru is
50 : Ci. The question should have asked for the CEDE not the Effective Dose. The ALIs in
ICRP 61 are based upon a committed effective dose of 2,000 mrem. It also should be noted
that 1 mrem of effective dose in ICRP 61 is not equivalent to 1 mrem of effective dose
equivalent in ICRP 30 because of the different measures of detriment that were considered in
calculating the weighting factors.
D. The biological half-life, T
b
, of
106
Ru in raccoons is calculated:
16
C
QUESTION 9
GIVEN: A plutonium fire in a glove box, whose entire activity is released as smoke at a
constant rate over a 20 minute period into a room, which has its emergency
ventilation system automatically activated:
h / stack height = 10 m;
T / burn and release time = 20 minutes = 1,200 s;
m / mass of
239
Pu in glove box = 750 g;
V / room volume = 108 m
3
;
T
1/2
/ half-life of
239
Pu = 24,100 y = 7.60x10
11
s; so
239
Pu (ln2)/T
1/2
= 9.12x10
-13
s
-1
;
F / emergency ventilation of room = 7 m
3
min
-1
= 0.117 m
3
s
-1
; so
K / ventilation removal rate constant = F/V = 1.08x10
-3
s
-1
; and
k / total removal rate constant = K + 8 K = 1.08x10
-3
s
-1
;
P / / maximum HEPA fractional penetration = 0.0005;
DAC / derived air concentration for
239
Pu = 2x10
-12
Ci m
-3
;
u / mean wind speed = 9 m s
-1
;
x / site boundary distance = 1,000 m;
Stability class A; Graphs of F F
y
and F F
z
in units of meters; and Equation for downwind
concentration P P in units of Ci m
-3
when parameters have units shown and release rate Q' has
units of Ci s
-1
.
A. The total activity A of
239
Pu is calculated:
C B. Five factors on which accidental criticality depends include: (1) the mass of fissile material,
(2) the geometry of the material, (3) the presence of moderator, (4) the presence of reflector,
and (5) the presence of neutron absorbing material.
17
C
C
C. The time t is calculated for the concentration C(t) to equal the DAC of 2x10
-12
Ci m
-3
beginning at an initial concentration C(0) of 4x10
-4
Ci m
-3
and for the total removal rate
constant k of 1.08x10
-3
s
-1
:
D. The downwind ground concentration P P on the plume centerline is calculated from the given
equation, stability class A, and other given information shown in bolded units:
Q' = release rate = (4x10
-4
Ci m
-3
)(0.117 m
3
s
-1
)(0.0005) = 2.34x10
-8
Ci s
-1
;
F F
y
= cross wind dispersion coefficient at 1,000 m from graph = 210 m;
F F
z
= vertical dispersion coefficient at 1,000 m from graph = 550 m; and
y = z = 0; so the given equation reduces and yields answer:
18
QUESTION 10
GIVEN: Release of about 2 kg of nominally pure, class Y plutonium in a plume that passes
over town; specific radionuclide data in table; and other bolded data:
S
"
/ total " specific activity in table = 0.09 Ci g
-1
;
DCF
1
/ external dose factor = 2.8 x10
-3
rem h
-1
per g m
-2
; so
F
ext
/ (DCF
1
)/(S
"
) = 0.0311 rem h
-1
per " Ci m
-2
;
F
int
/ inhalation DCF for internal " CEDE = 330 rem : Ci
-1
= 3.3x10
8
rem Ci
-1
;
F
B
/ breathing rate of 20 L min
-1
= 1.2 m
3
h
-1
; and
F
R
/ resuspension factor, # Ci m
-3
per Ci m
-2
= 10
-5
m
-1
.
C A. Two actions which could reduce the dose significantly to the downwind population during
the first week following the accident include:
1. Instruct population to remain in closed homes as much as possible.
2. Instruct population to relocate by moving to homes of relatives or friends that are outside the
affected area.
B. Given that the relocation PAG of the EPA > 2 rem TEDE in the first year; that residents
outdoors during passage of the plume already received an intake resulting in a CEDE
between 1.5 rem to 2 rem; and that residents are likely to receive an additional projected
CEDE of 1.3 rem in the first year after the accident:
C 1. The PAG is a projected dose from a nuclear accident or contamination event above which
certain protective actions are recommended to prevent or lessen that dose. Committed doses
already received from intakes during the passage of a plume are not included as part of any
projected dose from a later phase of a contamination event.
C 2. If the PAG is followed, then even residents who were outdoors during the passage of the
plume and as a result already received 1.5 rem to 2 rem would not be advised to relocate
themselves outside the area because their additional projected TEDE is only 1.3 rem, which
is less than the PAG of 2 rem for the first year.
Comment 1: Even if the additional projected TEDE for the first year had exceeded the PAG
of 2 rem, a candidate might have difficulty making a recommendation to relocate members of
the public based upon a projected 2 rem TEDE when they realize that the corrective action
guide of the Environmental Protection Agency (EPA) for simply taking actions to fix a home
having an average radon concentration greater than 4 pCi L
-1
corresponds to an effective dose
equivalent of 1 rem per year for continuous exposure. Although most homes have average
19
concentrations less than 4 pCi L
-1
, many homes exceed the 4 pCi L
-1
guide, but these
homeowners are not advised by the EPA to relocate themselves when, for example, their
corrective actions have been able to reduce the radon to only 20 pCi L
-1
, which corresponds to
an effective dose equivalent of 5 rem per year for continuous exposure based on an ICRP
Publication 32 dose factor. It is to be noted that the effective dose equivalent from alpha
particles emitted by radon progeny and the effective dose equivalent from alpha particles
emitted by plutonium in the incident described in this part of the question are deemed to have
the same risk of cancer mortality.
Comment 2: Further information regarding the PAGs can be found in the document EPA
400-R-92-001 of the Environmental Protection Agency (EPA), Manual of Protective Action
Guides and Protective Actions for Nuclear Incidents, May, 1992. The PAGs are designated
and applied separately to three phases: (1) PAGs for the Early Phase deemed to apply to a
potential or actual atmospheric release and to last about 4 days since the onset of a nuclear
accident and where evacuation and/or sheltering and the use of the blocking agent KI for
projected or measured radioiodine releases may be appropriate actions for members of the
public: total effective dose equivalent (TEDE) of 1-5 rem (where actions should be taken at a
projected dose of 1 rem and even less if such actions have low impact and risks to members
of the public) and thyroid committed dose equivalent (CDE) of 25 rem; (2) PAGs for the
Intermediate Phase deemed to last 1 year for deposited radioactivity and where relocation
and decontamination may be appropriate actions for members of the public: (a) relocation for
TEDE $ 2 rem and for beta dose to skin 50 times higher, and (b) application of simple dose
reduction techniques for TEDE < 2 rem; (3) Radiation Protection Criteria for the Late Phase
deemed to apply between 1 and 50 years after a nuclear incident are held in reserve. In
addition to these three phases and PAGs, this EPA document includes Protective Action
Guides for the Intermediate Phase (Food and Water) provided by the Food and Drug
Administration (FDA): (a) Preventive PAG where actions having minimal impact are used to
reduce radioactive contamination of human food or animal feeds, e.g., storage of food for
decay and placing animals on stored feed rather than in contaminated pastures: (i) 1.5 rem
projected CDE to the thyroid, or (ii) 0.5 rem projected CEDE to the whole body or 0.5 rem
CDE to the bone marrow or any other organ, and (b) Emergency PAG where actions are taken
to isolate contaminated food to prevent its introduction into commerce and where responsible
officials should determine whether condemnation or another disposition is appropriate: 10
times the Preventive PAG: (i) 15 rem projected CDE to the thyroid, or (ii) 5 rem projected
CEDE to the whole body or 5 rem CDE to the bone marrow or any other organ. Derived
response levels corresponding to these PAGs are calculated from the quotient of the intake
corresponding to the PAG and the total consumption for either an adult and the infant as a
critical segment of the population.
C. With respect to the calibration of a hand-held, thin-crystal, sodium-iodide based, single
channel analyzer for 17 keV and 60 keV photons (Ratio of emission rate of 17 keV to 60 keV
photons is approximate 2.5.) to assess surface contamination from the plutonium mix in the
20
C
given table:
C 1. Two advantages of each energy calibration when measurements are made for both photons
include: (a) The 17 keV calibration provides for estimates of the total activity of plutonium
isotopes and
241
Am. Because of the much greater attenuation of the 17 keV photons compared
to the 60 keV photons, combined measurements of both photon energies will provide for
corrections for attenuation in the source material and air when account is taken for the stated
emission ratio of 2.5. (b) The 60 keV calibration provides for estimates of the total activity of
241
Am. When corrections for attenuation of both energy groups are made, the net response
from plutonium isotopes can be obtained by subtracting the predicted 17 keV response for
241
Am from the gross 17 keV response, thereby providing an estimate of the total activity of
plutonium isotopes.
Comment: Although the answers shown in 1 are theoretically possible based on the
premise, field measurements with a sodium iodide detector ( which has poor energy
resolution and a Compton continuum background in both the 17 keV and 60 keV windows
from natural background photon radiation) are not likely to achieve the activity resolutions
suggested above.
C 2. The recommended photon energy for measurements:
a. on paved road surfaces is 17 keV because of its 2.5 fold greater emission rate if equal
detection efficiencies for the 17 keV and 60 keV photons are assumed.
b. on an agricultural field following an extended rain is 60 keV because of the expected much
greater attenuation of the 17 keV photons compared to the 60 keV photons.
D. The internal CEDE for a person who walks for a time T of 1 h on soil having a surface
activity A
S
of 100 : Ci m
-2
or 10
-4
Ci m
-2
is calculated from factors and bolded units:
C E. Refinements of a TEDE estimate of 4.8 rem for a worker calculated from default assumptions
for the facilitys emergency plan are necessary by actions, for example: (1) estimate the
workers intake from data for that workers personal air sampler (PAS), which has a
minimum detectable intake (MDI) of about 0.0005 ALI for
239
Pu , (2) if justified by the PAS
data, obtain fecal samples over time to estimate the respirable and non-respirable portions of
the intake, which have a MDI of about 0.1 ALI for Pu-239, (3) analyze PAS filter samples for
activity ratios of radionuclides and the particle size distribution of radioactive aerosols
collected on the filter, (4) obtain chest count even though MDI 5,000 ALI for Pu-239
(Detection of 60 keV photons from Am-241 improves intake detection limit for Pu-239 if
activity ratio is known), and (5) obtain urine samples even though MDI 5 ALI for Pu239.
21
QUESTION 11
GIVEN: Data for radiopharmaceuticals used in heart muscle blood perfusion studies:
99m
Tc (Tetrolite and designated by subscript 1) and
201
Tl (Thallium and designated by
subscript 2), where it is stated that the injection of 1 can be 10 times that of 2 without
increasing the patients effective dose equivalent:
I
1
/ total intake of
99m
Tc = 30 mCi;
I
2
/ total intake of
201
Tl = 4 mCi;
K / biological removal rate constant of (ln2)/(10 days) = 0.0693 day
-1
;
8 8
1
/
99m
Tc decay constant = (ln2)/(6/24) days = 2.77 day
-1
; so
k
1
/
99m
Tc total removal rate constant = 8
1
+ K = 2.84 day
-1
;
8 8
2
/
201
Tl decay constant = (ln2)/(73/24) days = 0.228 day
-1
; so
k
2
/
201
Tl total removal rate constant = 8
2
+ K = 0.297 day
-1
; and
m / mass of total body of 70,000 g.
C A. The three major factors used to define, i.e., to determine, the CEDE are: (1) the activity I
injected; (2) the total effective removal rate constant k whose inverse gives the mean
residence time t ) ) in the body and which is used to calculate the ultimate number of
transformations or cumulated activity, A# #, from the quotient I/k; and (3) the specific effective
energy, SEE(WB7 7WB), which is the energy in MeV absorbed per gram of the whole body
(WB) per transformation within the WB since the quality factor and tissue weighting factor in
this case are both unity (This is the MIRD S factor divided by 2.13.).
B. The relative contribution, R (factor for
201
Tl (2) relative to factor for
99m
Tc (1), of each factor
in determining the nearly10 fold difference in effective dose equivalent per mCi are
calculated:
From the values shown in the table, the SEE factors are calculated:
Comment: Actually, the contributions of Auger and internal conversion electrons are not
insignificant as stated in the given table, and they should be included.
22
C
C
C
For factor (1), the intakes I
1
and I
2
, the relative contribution in the dose per mCi, R
(1)
, is by
definition unity:
For factor (2), the rate constants k
1
and k
2
(2)
,
is calculated:
For factor (3), the SEE
1
and SEE
2
(3)
, is
calculated:
Comment: The instruction for calculating the ratio of the factors on the basis of the dose per
mCi is confusing, especially for the ratio R
(1)
involving the intake factor. In fact, there is only
a factor of 6.77 not 10 in the dose per mCi. The ratio R of the dose from
201
Tl to the dose for
99m
Tc for the given intakes is calculated:
which agrees with the premise to this question. However, I
1
/I
2
only equals 7.5 and not 10. I
believe that the ABHP meant to ask for ratios on the basis of relative doses and not doses
per mCi.
23
C
C
C
C. The effective half-life, T
eff
, of
99m
Tc in the gall bladder where it has a biological half-life of
7 days ( K = (ln 2)/(7 days) = 0.0990 day
-1
) is calculated:
D. Given that 20 times more counts are acquired with
99m
Tc (1) than with
201
Tl (2), i.e.,
C
1
= 20 C
2
, and that variability V / / F F
^
c
/C = C
1/2
/C = 1/C
1/2
, the relative variability V
2
/V
1
is
calculated:
E. The extremity dose of
201
Tl (2) relative to that for
99m
Tc (1), D
2
/D
1
, is calculated by assuming
that the tissue energy absorption coefficients for the photons are a constant factor times those
given in the table for air and that T
1
= 2 min and T
2
= 1 min:

24
C
QUESTION 12
GIVEN: Gaseous release data for PWRs and BWRs:
Q / acceptable release rate = 8.35x10
4
: : Ci s
-1
;
C/R / concentration causing net rate of 1 cpm = 1.69x10
-6
: : Ci cm
-3
per cpm;
R
b
/ background rate = 730 cpm; and
F / flow rate at release point = 6,300 ft
3
min
-1
= 2.97x10
6
cm
3
s
-1
.
Comment: The question improperly describes C/R as the Detector efficiency.
A. The gross counting rate alarm set point, R
alarm
, for 0.6 Q is calculated:
C B. Three sources of radioactive gases in the reactor coolant are: (1) neutron activation of
dissolved gases, (2) fission gases that leak from the inside of the fuel rods, and (3) fission
gases produced by fission of tramp uranium on the outside surfaces of the fuel rods.
Comment: The fast neutron reaction,
16
O(n,p)
16
N, with oxygen in the water molecule also
might be included, but the
16
N will most likely not be present as a gaseous species. The
16
N
may be present in a volatile form such as
16
NH
3
when the coolant represents a reducing
environment such as under hydrogen injection in a BWR.
C C. Three mechanisms by which tritium is produced in a PWR include: (1) through ternary
fission, (2) through activation of deuterium (
2
H(n,( )
3
H ) present in some of the water
molecules, which is present in hydrogen at an atom abundance of about 0.015%, and
(3) through activation of the chemical shim, boric acid, through the reaction
10
B(n," )
*7
Li and
the fission of the excited product
*7
Li as follows:
*7
Li 6
4
He +
3
H.
C D. The BWR coolant has lower concentrations of radioactive gases than those in a PWR because
gases (including radioactive gases, hydrogen and oxygen) are stripped from the steam when it
is condensed back to water in the BWR coolant
C E. Hydrogen is produced by the radiolytic dissociation of the water molecule by the intense
radiation field in the reactor core: H
2
O + radiation 6 H
2
+ O.
25
C F Two methods for preventing hydrogen gas from reaching a concentration at the explosive
limit are (1) recombination of the H
2
with oxygen to form H
2
O and (2) dilution of the
hydrogen concentration with air before it reaches the lower explosive limit.
C G With respect to a particular radionuclide in a BWR:
1. The radionuclide
16
N produces the highest external dose rate during reactor operation.
2. The highest accessible dose rate likely would be at contact with the steam line leading from
the containment building to the turbine building.
3. It is not a problem after shutdown because it quickly decays with a very short half-life of
about 7 seconds.
4. The production mechanism is the fast neutron reaction,
16
O(n,p)
16
N, with oxygen in the water
molecule.

26
C
C
QUESTION 13
GIVEN: A technician concerned about exposure from
125
I in a dialysis unit:
d / distance from unit = 0.45 m;
A(0) / initial activity = 370 Mbq;
t / time to beginning of exposure = 14 days;
T / exposure interval = 1.5 h;
8 8 /
125
I decay constant = (ln 2)/(60.1 days) = 0.0115 day
-1
;
: : / attenuation coefficient for lead = (28.9 cm
2
g
-1
)(11.35 g cm
-3
) = 328 cm
-1
; and
' ' /
125
I gamma constant = 7.4x10
-5
mSv h
-1
Mbq
-1
m
2
.
C A. Two routes of exposure and their assessment include: (1) external radiation assessed by
measurement with a survey meter or dosimeter badge and (2) internal exposure assessed by
counting the technicians thyroid with a thin sodium iodide detector.
B. The technicians effective dose [equivalent] H
E
is calculated:
Comment: For the approximate 30 keV photons of
125
I, the calculated dose equivalent is near
the surface of the body. The actual effective dose equivalent to the whole body would be
considerably less and is not calculated from the given information.
C. The dose equivalent rate H0 0
E
at a distance d of 0.45 m from an activity A of 200 MBq that is
shielded with lead having a thickness x of 0.015 cm is calculated by assuming that all
photons have the same linear attenuation coefficient : : of 382 cm
-1
in lead and that buildup
need not be considered because most of the interactions in lead will be by the photoelectric
effect, which leads to complete absorption of the low energy photons:
C D. Two other actions besides shielding to lower the technicians dose include: (3) place dialysis
unit at a greater distance from the sink where cell washes are made and (4) have technician
use a different sink to perform cell washes.
27
C
C
C
QUESTION 14
GIVEN: Professor using diode laser pointer and your analysis per ANSI Z136.1-1993:
M M / output power = 4.5 mW;
a / aperture diameter = 0.2 cm;
N N / beam divergence of 0.2 milliradian = 0.0002 radian;
d / distance from students = 300 cm to 5,000 cm;
T
a
/ blink aversion time = 0.25 s;
Equations for maximum permissible exposure (MPE) and nominal ocular hazard distance
(NOHD).
A. The emerging irradiance I
e
in mW cm
-2
is calculated:
B. The MPE in mW cm
-2
is calculated from the given equation, modified for desired units and
simplified, where t(s) in the denominator on the RHS of the given equation is interpreted as
the given blink aversion time T
a
of 0.25 s:
C C. The NOHD is the intrabeam axial distance from the laser to the exposed individuals eye
beyond which the exposure would be less than the MPE.
D. The NOHD is calculated for the given MPE of 3 mW cm
-2
from the given equation from the
ANSI standard:
C In normal use the laser would not be aimed at the audience; so the eye would not be located
along the beam axis and the NOHD therefore would not apply.
28
C E. The laser would fall in class 3 a ( visible, CW output > 1 mW but < 5 mW ).
C F. Recommended precautions for the professor include:
1. Avoid directing laser beam into the audience.
2. Avoid directing laser beam at specularly reflecting surfaces, e.g., window glass.
C G. The HeNe laser is lower power (0.5 mW to 4.5 mW) than the diode laser. Beam divergence is
probably somewhat higher than the 0.2 milliradian specified for the diode laser. The NOHD
would likely be less for the Class II HeNe laser than for the diode laser.

1999
K.A.L., Inc., 2000
All Rights Reserved
COMPREHENSIVE EXAMINATION INSTRUCTIONS
READ THESE INSTRUCTIONS CAREFULLY AND FOLLOW THEM CLOSELY.
1. Part II of this examination consists of two sections:
- The first section (questions 1-6) consists of six core questions. All six will be
graded.
- The second section (questions 7-14) consists of seven specialty questions.
Answer any four. The proctor can accept only four answers from this section.
2. Questions 1-6 are each worth 50 points. Questions 7-14 are each worth 100 points. The
maximum possible score is 700 points. The relative weight of each part of a question is
given.
3. You have six hours in which to complete the examination.
4. On the cover sheet:
a. Print your name;
b. Write your identification number;
c. Sign your name;
d. When you have finished the examination, mark the questions you have answered.
5. On the answer sheets:
a. Identify yourself with each sheet by writing your number (not your name) in the
upper right corner. The graders can be objective when names do not appear.
b. Write the question number in the upper left corner.
c. When you have completed the answer to a question, go back and write beside the
question number the number of pages in your answer: Page 1 of , Page 2 of ,
etc., so that the grader knows that all answer sheets are present.
d. Write on only one side of the sheets.
e. Begin each new question on a separate sheet.
6. This is a closed-book examination, so no texts or reference materials are permitted.
Standard slide rules may be used, but not the so-called "Health Physics" slide rules.
Non-programmable electronic calculators are permissible. Only those programmable
calculators which have been previously approved by the Board are allowed. All
calculators must be checked by the proctor prior to the start of the examination.
7. If the information given in a particular question appears to be inadequate, list any
assumptions you make in developing your solution.
8. If you find you are running short of time, simply set up an outline showing clearly how
you would complete the solution without working out the actual numerical answer.
Appropriate partial credit will be given.
9. Return the completed cover sheet and your answer sheets to the proctor when you have
completed the examination. You may keep the copy of the examination.
ABHP PART II EXAMINATION COVER SHEET
June 28, 1999
Name: ___________________________________________
Identification Number: ______________________________
Signature: ________________________________________
Mark (X) the questions you have answered and are submitting for grading.
1. __X__
2. __X__
3. __X__
4. __X__
5. __X__
6. __X__
7. _____
8. _____
9. _____
10. _____
11. _____
12. _____
13. _____
14. _____
Remember to indicate on each answer sheet your identification number, the question
number, and the number of pages for each, e.g.,
ID #1859, Question 4, page 2 of 3

Have you taken a certification preparation or refresher course prior to taking this
examination?
__ Y __ N
If so, which format was involved?
intensive, one or two weeks ___ multi-week, one or two classes per week ___
Question 1, Page 1 of 2
QUESTION 1
Answer the following questions related to gamma spectroscopy.
GIVEN
Decay Schemes:
-
1
= 0.04332 MeV (100%)
-
1
= 1.212 MeV (100%)
1
= 0.7657 MeV (100%)
1
= 1.779 MeV (100%)
POINTS
28 A In the gamma spectra taken with an HPGe detector shown on the next
page, identify features 1 through 7. Briefly describe the origin of each
feature.
8 B If the HPGe detector crystal was increased in size, would the height of the
photopeak in relation to the height of the Compton edge be higher or
lower? Why?
10 C Define FWHM. Is the FWHM of an HPGe detector greater or smaller than
that of a NaI(Tl) detector? Why?
4 D Why are escape peaks generally more prominent in HPGe detectors in
comparison with NaI(Tl) detectors?
QUESTION 2
A worker in your nuclear power plant was suspected of having an inhalation intake of
Co-60 during a routine maintenance outage. A whole body count of the worker
confirmed the intake.
GIVEN
The stochastic annual limit on intake for Class W Co-60 is 200 Ci. The stochastic
annual limit on intake for Class Y Co-60 is 30 Ci. The workers whole body count
results, over a period of two-hundred days, are given below:
Time post intake, days Co-60 activity, Ci
0.1 86.0
1 76.7
2 57.3
5 27.9
10 22.1
20 19.0
50 13.3
100 7.8
200 3.2
It is not known if the intake was from Class W or Class Y Co-60. The intake retention
fractions (IRFs) for Co-60 are given below:
Time post intake, days IRF Co-60, W IRF Co-60, Y
0.1 0.635 0.635
1 0.566 0.583
2 0.423 0.424
5 0.206 0.190
10 0.163 0.157
20 0.140 0.152
50 0.098 0.144
100 0.058 0.134
200 0.024 0.117
POINTS
10 A What is the difference between an intake and an uptake?
20 B What class of Co-60 (W or Y) did the worker inhale? (5 pts). Justify your
answer (15 pts).
20 C Assume that the intake was Class W.
1) What is your estimate of the intake (10 pts). Show all work.
2) What is the workers committed effective dose equivalent (10 pts)?
Show all work.
QUESTION 3
A woman who is 10 weeks pregnant has been experiencing extreme chronic hip pain and
her physician wants to conduct an x-ray study to aid in the diagnosis. The x-ray
procedure is expected to result in a dose of approximately 2 rem to her abdominal area.
As the health physicist at a large medical center you have been asked for your
professional opinion.
POINTS
12 A The physician is trying to weigh the risks versus benefit of the procedure.
Provide two reasons that support the decision to conduct the x-ray study,
and two reasons that support the decision not to conduct the study.
Number your responses. Only the first two for each will be graded.
8 B What would you recommend to the physician? Why?
15 C The physician has asked you to counsel the patient, who wants to know
what the possible effects on the fetus are, and whether or not she should
have a therapeutic abortion if she has the x-ray procedure.
1. List 3 possible effects of in-utero exposure at this stage of
gestation, and whether these effects would be expected at this dose
level. Number your responses. Only the first three will be
graded.
2. On the basis of the potential for health effects in the developing
fetus, would you recommend a therapeutic abortion? Why or why
not?
15 D What are the dose limits for the fetus that are recommended by the NCRP?
Is the NCRP recommendation pertinent to this case?
QUESTION 4
You are the Health Physicist on the staff of a custom isotope production facility. A
customer has inquired about the production of Na-24 sources. You are required to
calculate information regarding the production, build-up, decay, and shielding of the
proposed product.
GIVEN
24
Na Data:
T
1/2
= 14.96 hours
E(
1
) = 1.4 MeV; Y(
1
) = 1.0
E(
2
) = 2.8 MeV; Y(
2
) = 1.0
Thermal neutron capture cross section,
c
, for
23
Na (n,)
24
Na = 0.534 barns
Fraction of Target, by weight, which is
23
Na = 0.20
Air mass energy absorption coefficient = 0.03 cm
2
/g
Lead mass attenuation coefficient = 4.6 x 10
-2
cm
2
/g
Density of lead = 11.3 g/cm
3
Assume there is no initial
24
Na activity at the start of any irradiation
POINTS
15 A What is the thermal neutron flux, in neutrons per cm
2
per second, required
to produce 3.7 x 10
10
Bq of
24
Na at saturation in a 5 gram target?
Show all work.
15 B What is the estimated unshielded absorbed dose rate in rad/hr on the
surface of a shipping drum of 30 cm radius containing the target (3.7 x
10
10
Bq of
24
Na) in the center of the drum? Assume a point source.
Neglect air attenuation. Show all work.
20 C Assume 35 rem/hr on contact with the surface of the unshielded shipping
container. Will the addition of 10 cm of lead shielding allow shipment of
this container with a Radioactive II transport shipping label? Show all
work.
QUESTION 5
You are the Radiation Safety Officer at a decommissioning project where Sr-90 was used
to manufacture radioisotopic thermoelectric generators (RTG) for offshore buoys.
During the project, a worker inadvertently handles and is exposed to a high-activity
component. Exposure readings are taken with an ionization chamber instrument.
GIVEN
The component is a moisture trap about the size of a baseball.
The beta reading is 800 rad per hour on contact and 200 rad per hour at 18 inches.
The instrument used had a 7 mg/cm
2
window.
Gamma readings are 3 R/hr at contact and 2 R/hr at 18 inches. The instrument used
had a 300 mg/cm
2
window.
The monitoring instrument used for contact readings was protected by a plastic bag.
The worker hand-carried the trap for 2 minutes at 18 inches from the body.
The worker was wearing 2 pairs of rubber gloves, a set of coveralls, and a respirator
with a hood.
And,
) ( 00435 . 0 x
b
e f
Where
b
f is the beta reduction factor for Sr/Y-90 energies, and x is the density
thickness of the material in mg/cm
2
Material Density thickness
(mg/cm
2
)
Coveralls 29
1 pair rubber
gloves
39
Respirator
facepiece
250
Plastic bag 15
POINTS
22 A Calculate the dose to the lens of the eye. Disregard any field reduction by
air. Show all work.
8 B What are the annual limits for the skin, lens of the eye, whole body, and
extremity?
4 C At what tissue depth is skin dose evaluated?
End cap
300 mg/cm
2
Ionization chamber
End window 7 mg/ cm
2
4 D At what tissue depth is deep dose equivalent evaluated?
12 E A whole-body TLD with filters for skin and eye dose was worn on the
chest under the coveralls during the incident. List 4 factors to consider
when comparing the TLD dose to the calculated dose. Number your
responses. Only the first four responses will be graded.
QUESTION 6
Your university conducts a wide variety of medical and clinical research and, as the
newly appointed Radiation Safety Manager, you have been asked to determine work
controls for radiological work by declared pregnant staff workers, none of whom are
minors.
GIVEN
P-32: Beta E(max) = 1.7 MeV
I-131: Beta E(max) = 0.606 MeV; gamma exposure rate = 0.21 R-m
2
/hr-Ci
POINTS
For each of the work descriptions below, state whether you would recommend to
(a) prohibit the work,
(b) allow the work to continue, but with additional specific work controls, or,
(c) allow the work to continue without any additional work controls.
Provide the technical basis for your recommendations, including any assumptions. If (b)
is selected, state which specific work controls you would implement.
10 A Work consists of cell labeling starting with a 1 ml stock solution of 10
mCi of P-32-labeled nucleotides. The stock solution is diluted by a factor
of 1,000 prior to use. Dilutions are done on a weekly basis, and require
about a half hour of hands-on work. Work with the diluted material
requires about 10 hours of hand-on work per week. Normal controls
include a fume hood, Plexiglas shield, and use of gloves, labcoat, and
tongs.
10 B Work consists of interventional radiology with a variable monthly work
load. A TLD is worn outside of a lead apron that provides 2 half-value
layers (HVL) of attenuation. A typical 9-month dosimeter history is shown
below:
TLD reading (rem):
Jan Feb Mar Apr May Jun Jul Aug Sep
0.050 0.100 0.285 0.115 0.075 0.110 0.185 0.230 0.175
10 C Work consists of performing iodinations using a stock solution of 30 mCi
of I-131 as Sodium Iodide. Iodinations are performed on a weekly basis,
and require about a half-hour of hands-on work. Work with the iodinated
protein requires about 10 hours of hands on work per week. Normal
controls include use of a a fume hood, shields, gloves, labcoat, and tongs.
Work history indicates that the average worker is exposed to one DAC -
hour per week as a result of performing iodinations.
10 D Work consists of performing maintenance on an 18 MeV electron
accelerator. The accelerator is typically operated continuously from
Tuesday through Saturday and routine maintenance is conducted on
Monday. Maintenance takes about 4 hours in areas where the dose rate
averages 4.5 mrem/hr.
10 E Work consists of conducting x-ray fluorescence analysis on a variety of
materials. Although the exposure rate outside the machine is not
detectable above background, the machine is capable of producing a
severe overexposure of the fingers, should the interlocks fail or be
bypassed.
QUESTION 7
Five accident scenarios are presented below.
Accident 1) A workers hand is severely lacerated by a grossly contaminated
saw blade while cutting a drain line containing Pu-239.
Accident 2) A diver is pulled from a spent fuel pool after a leak in the divesuit
is detected. The pool water is heavily contaminated with tritium
(H-3).
Accident 3) A worker is grossly contaminated upon the face, hair, neck, and
upper torso with Cs-137 following work in a highly contaminated
area.
Accident 4) A researcher swallows a quantity of S-35 during a pipetting
operation.
Accident 5) A workers respiratory protective equipment fails during work in a
high I-131 airborne area.
POINTS
25 A List five (5) actions which should be taken immediately in response to a
radiological accident involving personal injury. Order the actions by
priority (1=first action, highest priority). Only the first five responses
will be graded.
20 B For each of the five accident scenarios presented above, give the preferred
bioassay monitoring technique. Justify your answer. Assume your
resources are not limited.
20 C Medical intervention techniques used to minimize internal dose following
an intake/uptake of radioactive material are divided into several general
categories based upon their protective actions. List 4 of these categories
and give a brief description of the dose-savings principles of each.
Number your responses. Only the first four will be graded.
10 D A physician working with an accident response team recommends the
following intervention actions. Do you agree? Explain your answer.
1) Chelation therapy following the inhalation intake of 5 ALI of Am-
241.
2) Lung lavage following the inhalation of 10 ALI of mixed fission
products.
25 E Assume that the intakes associated with the five accident scenarios given
above are sufficiently high to warrant medical intervention. Give a
specific intervention technique that is available for each accident and
discuss any special concerns or necessary precautions.
QUESTION 8
A toxicology professor is using highly toxic di-methyl-mercury in an experiment. The
experiment and the apparatus, as designed, result in a steady-state air concentration of
0.005 mg/m
3
for organic mercury. The professor now wishes to include a tracer study in
her research using Hg-203 tagged Hg(CH
3
)
2
. The specific activity used is 5-microcurie
per milligram of the Hg(CH
3
)
2
compound.
GIVEN
DAC for organic Hg-203 is 7 x 10
-5
Ci/ml
Permissible Exposure Limit (PEL) for organic Hg compounds is 0.01 mg/m
3
Atomic weight of Hg = 200.6
Atomic weight of C = 12
Atomic weight of H = 1
The half-life of Hg-203 is 47 days
Assume the presence of the radioactive mercury has an insignificant effect on the
molecular weight of the tagged Hg(CH
3
)
2
.
POINTS
30 A Calculate the fraction of Hg atoms that are tagged? Show all work.
40 B What is the activity concentration, Ci/m
3
, corresponding to the PEL? Is
this concentration below the DAC? Show why or why not.
30 C Assume OSHA requires that the fraction of DAC and the fraction of PEL
is additive and should be less than or equal to one. i.e.:
f(DAC) + f(PEL) 1
What is the highest specific activity of the tagged compound that can be
used to assure compliance with the requirement?
QUESTION 9
Part of the reactor coolant clean-up system of a pressurized water reactor includes
demineralizers that are loaded with resin to reduce the concentration of radioactive
material in the reactor coolant system (RCS). Assume that only
60
Co is present in the
reactor coolant system and that the clean-up system has been operating continuously for
the 200 consecutive days of reactor operation.
GIVEN
Vertical Demineralizer:
Composition material: Stainless steel
Diameter: 4 ft
Top thickness: 0.1 inches (neglect attenuation and build-up in
steel top)
Operational Data:
Flow rate through demineralizer: 480 lpm
Demineralizer efficiency: 100%
Concentration of
60
Co in RCS: 8.0 x 10
-5
Ci/ml
Radiological Data for
60
Co:
Gamma constant ( ): 1.3 R-m
2
/hr-Ci
Half-life: 5.26 y
Gamma emissions: 1.173, 1.332 MeV each at 100%
Beta emissions: 1.480 MeV @ 0.12 %
0.314 MeV @ 99.0 %
Additional data:
Assume dose rate in air equals dose rate in tissue
Attenuation Coefficients for Lead:
E(MeV) 0.60 0.70 0.80 1.0 1.25 1.50 2.75
(cm
-1
)
1.36 1.12 0.97 0.78 0.65 0.58 0.47
Dose Build-up Factors for an Isotropic Point Source:
MeV 1(x) 2(x) 4(mx) 7(mx) 10(mx) 15(mx) 20(mx)
0.5 1.24 1.42 1.69 2.00 2.27 2.65 2.73
1.0 1.37 1.69 2.26 3.02 3.74 4.81 5.86
2.0 1.39 1.76 2.51 3.66 4.84 6.87 9.00
3.0 1.34 1.68 2.43 2.75 5.30 8.44 12.30
POINTS
40 A Calculate the gamma dose equivalent rate in rem/hour at a point 1 foot
above the centerline of the surface of the demineralizer bed immediately
after the 200 day run. Assume that the demineralizer contains no water
above the resin bed and that all radioactive material is distributed
uniformly over the top of the demineralizer bed. Also assume that the dose
rate in the bed can be approximated by a thin disc source. Account for
decay in your answer. Show all work.
60 B A valve located on the centerline, nine feet above the end of the
demineralizer bed requires lapping. When isolated six months ago, the
demineralizer contained 60 Ci of
60
Co. There is no water above the resin
bed.
The lapping operation requires 30 minutes and is to be performed by a
mechanic who has 300 mrem remaining on his annual administrative
exposure limit. Because of physical limitations, a mat equivalent to 2
inches of lead is all the shielding that can be used. Is the shielding
sufficient to prevent the worker from exceeding the administrative
exposure limit? This is the mechanics only source of exposure. State all
assumptions. Show all work.
QUESTION 10
You are the designated laser safety officer (LSO) of a major research facility that
operates a continuous wave (CW) neon gas laser. The laser is operated from the center of
a laboratory that is 20-meters square. The beam is directed towards the center of one wall
where it terminates on a diffusely reflecting target that is mounted to the wall. The target
reflectively factor,

,

is 0.90. The laser has the following operating parameters:
GIVEN
Power: 20 W
Beam diameter (1/e): 2 mm
Beam divergence: 1 mrad
Wavelength: 540 nm
Maximum Permissible Exposure for Direct Ocular
Exposure Intra-beam Viewing from a Laser Beam*
Wavelength (m) Exposure Time t(s) MPE
0.400 to 0.700 10
-9
to 1.8 x 10
-5
5 x 10
-7
J cm
-2
0.400 to 0.700 1.8 x 10
-5
to 10 1.8t
3/4
x 10
-3
J cm
-2
0.400 to 0.550 10 to 10
4
1 x 10
-2
J cm
-2
0.550 to 0.700 10 to T
1
1.8t
3/4
x 10
-3
J cm
-2
0.550 to 0.700 T
1
to 10
4
10C
B
x 10
-3
J cm
-2
0.400 to 0.600 10
4
to 3 x 10
4
C
B
x 10
-6
W cm
-2
* C
B
=1 for = 0.400 to 0.550 m; C
B
= 10
(15[-0.550])
for = 0.550 to 0.700
m;
T
1
= 10 x 10
[20(-0.550)]
second for = 0.550 to 0.700 m. [From ANSI
Z136.1 (1986)].
POINTS
20 A Match the following radiometric quantities to their appropriate units.
1. Radiant energy a. W cm
-2
2. Radiant power b. W sr
-1
3. Radiant intensity c. J
4. Radiance d. W sr
-1
cm
-2
5. Radiant exposure e. J cm
-2
f. W
g. J sr
-1
cm
-2
12 B Briefly define and describe each of following terms. Why is the
specification of a NHZ more appropriate for indoor laser laboratories?
1. Nominal Hazard Zone (NHZ)
2. Nominal Ocular Hazard Distance (NOHD)
30 C Estimate and describe the nominal hazard zone (NHZ) for this laser
laboratory? Assume the intrabeam MPE applies. Show all work.
20 D What is the minimum optical density (OD) of protective eyewear required
to reduce the laser irradiance below the intrabeam MPE. Assume a 0.25-
second accidental viewing time. Show all work.
10 E Assume a minimum OD of 5 is required for the protective eyewear. A
researcher has obtained specifications from three proposed laser eyewear
manufacturers. These eyewear have the following optical densities (OD)
at the indicated wavelengths and luminous transmission values:
Specifications Brand X Brand Y Brand Z
OD @ 400nm 3 5 5
OD @ 450 nm 4 7 7
OD @ 500 nm 5 7 8
OD @ 540 nm 5 7 8
OD @ 600 nm 3 4 7
OD @ 650 nm 1.5 3 6
Luminous
Transmission
35 % 6 % <1 %
Which manufacturers eyewear (Brand X, Y, or Z) would you recommend
as best to use in this laser laboratory and why? Justify your answer.
8 F Match the following FDA laser class with the appropriate characteristic
that BEST describes the class.
1. Class I a. can damage skin or eye from diffuse reflection
2. Class II b. not an ocular hazard
3. Class III c. 0.25 second exposure threshold
4. Class IV d. momentary intrabeam viewing is hazardous
QUESTION 11
A 10 ton net weight (9071 kg) cylinder of 5% enriched UF
6
is punctured during heating
inside a fuel fabrication facility. The facility building ventilation is released to the
atmosphere via a 25 meter tall stack. The building has a volume of 10
6
cubic feet and a
stack flow rate of 10
4
cfm.
GIVEN
T
1/2

234
U = 2.5 x 10
5
y
T
1/2

235
U = 7.1 x 10
8
y
T
1/2

238
U = 4.5 x 10
9
y
The mass of the
234
U is 1% of the mass of the
235
U.
Atomic mass of Fluorine = 19 amu
Graphs of
y
and
z
with respect to distance are attached.
POINTS
20 A What is the specific activity of the UF
6
? Show all work.
20 B For this part only, assume a specific activity of 10
-5
Ci/g. Calculate the
initial release rate (in activity units) for U
Total
assuming instantaneous
release of the contents of the UF
6
cylinder and instantaneous uniform
mixing of the UF
6
within the building. Show all work.
25 C Using a constant release rate of 3.32 x 10
-4
Ci/s, calculate the activity
concentration of U
Total
at 500 meters downwind at ground level at plume
centerline for class D stability conditions and 5 m/s wind speed using the
Gaussian plume model equation. Show all work.
20 D List five control measures that can be used to preclude a criticality
accident from occurring. Number your responses. Only the first five
will be graded.
15 E Preliminary analysis of the stack monitoring shows that apparent releases
were considerably lower than predicted. Give three explanations for this.
Number your responses. Only the first three will be graded.
Figure 1: Meteorology and Atomic Energy:
z
versus distance
Figure 2: Meteorology and Atomic Energy:
y
versus distance
QUESTION 12
You are the Health Physicist at an electron linear accelerator with a beam of up to 120
MeV and 50 kW used to strike a Tantalum target for the production of neutrons for
research.
POINTS
10 A In reviewing the dose records for accelerator personnel, you notice that
researchers and operators show low levels of neutron and / exposures
while maintenance workers show much higher levels of / exposure only.
How would you account for this difference?
10 B The accelerator needs to operate for approximately 96 hours per week and
normally will require a block of about 8 hrs per week for scheduled
maintenance. As the H. P., how would you recommend setting up the
schedule? Justify your answer.
15 C At about what electron energy would one need to begin worrying about
neutron production in most materials? Why this energy? What are the
implications of higher energies?
5 D Why is knowing the neutron spectrum in areas occupied by accelerator
personnel so important?
30 E Describe three distinctly different ways to measure a neutron spectrum and
a brief statement indicating the basis on which they operate. Number
your responses. Only the first three will be graded.
20 F Identify two different types of routine personnel dosimetry useful for
accelerator neutron dosimetry. Describe the principle of detection for
each. Number your responses. Only the first two will be graded.
10 G List one radioactive and one non-radioactive contaminant commonly
produced in the air around the target area, and describe how each is
produced. Number your respones. Only the first two responses will be
graded.
QUESTION 13
A patient was administered I-131 for a thyroid ablation in your medical center. The
patient is incontinent for urine and will be on a catheter with a urine collection bag.
GIVEN
Quantity of I-131 administered: 7400 MBq of I-131 (200 mCi)
For most thyroid ablation patients, approximately of the patients administered activity
will be gone within the first 24 hours due to biological elimination and radioactive decay.
I-131 physical half life: 8.04 days
For I-131, the Gamma Constant = 2.2 R-cm
2
/hr-mCi
For 364 keV photons: 1.4 x 10
7
photons/s-cm
2
yields an exposure rate of 1 R/hr
I-131 Radiations: with an average energy of 0.180 MeV 100 % emission rate.
0.08 MeV gamma; 2.6% emission rate
0.364 MeV gamma; 82% emission rate
0.723 MeV gamma; 1.6 % emission rate
I-131 biological half life in the thyroid: 138 Days
Mass of thyroid: 20 grams
Available survey instruments include a Pancake style GM survey meter and a
thin window NaI(Tl) probe.
At the 24 hour mark, the patients urine output is 1000 ml.
POINTS
10 A The dose rate from the urine collection bag at 24 hours is 47 mR/hr at 1
foot as measured with an air ion chamber. The bag has not been emptied.
What is the amount of I-131 in the urine?
20 B The patient became very combative and threw the urine collection bag
against a wall. The bag burst and a nurse proceeded to clean up the spill.
The nurse tells you about this event the next day. You decide to perform a
field screening to determine if the nurse had an iodine uptake. For the two
instruments listed in the Given section state one pro and one con of
using each instrument to check the nurses thyroid, and your
recommendation for use.
10 C Field screening shows that the nurse did intake I-131. The nurses thyroid
is counted for 10 minutes using a fixed germanium thyroid detector. The
results incidate 1800 counts in the 0.364 MeV photon peak. The
background count rate in this spectral region is 80 cpm. The detection
efficiency for this photon is 1E-03 c/d. Estimate the amount of I-131 in the
nurses thyroid at the time of the count. Show all work. Give your result
in units of nCi.
40 D For thyroid-to-thyroid irradiation, MIRD pamphlet #11 gives an absorbed
dose per unit cumulative activity factor (S
(Thyroid<Thyroid)
) of 2.2 x 10
-2
Rad/uCi-h . A 100 Ci deposition of I-131 was measured in the thyroid of
a janitor that assisted in the cleanup of the spill.
1) Calculate the committed dose equivalent to the janitors thyroid from
the 100 Ci deposition. Show all work.
2) Calculate the committed effective dose equivalent received by the
janitor from the 100 Ci depostion. Show all work.

3) Is intervention advisable? Explain your answer.
20 E The non-stochastic inhalation ALI for I-131 is 50 mCi. Will a simple ratio
of the I-131 detected within the thyroid to the ALI given above provide a
reasonably accurate estimate of the CEDE? Explain your answer?
QUESTION 14
The following questions pertain to environmental monitoring principles.
GIVEN
1 gallon = 3.785 liters
According to HPS N13.30-1996, when the background and sample count times are the
same, the equation for Minimum Detectable Amount (MDA) can be represented by the
following equation:
KT KT
s
MDA
b
3 65 . 4
+
s
b
= The standard deviation of the background count rate
T = Sample and Background Count Time
K = Calibration Constant, counts per time per disintigration
POINTS
20 A Assume that a Gaussian dispersion model applies to a gaseous release.
For the following conditions, would the centerline airborne radioactivity
concentration on the ground at the site boundary (1 km from the release
point) increase, decrease, or remain the same? Justify your answer for
each.
1. The effective release height is increased
2. The wind speed increases
3. The ground temperature, which initially exceeds the temperature at
100 meters above the ground at the beginning of the release,
decreases below the temperature at 1000 meters.
4. The gaseous effluent is heated above the ambient temperature and
ejected from a vertical stack with a velocity exceeding that of the
existing wind speed.
20 B Assume a release through a pipe to the bottom and in the middle of a wide,
shallow, straight river. For the following release conditions, will the
downstream centerline radioactivity concentrations in the river increase,
decrease or remain the same? Justify your answer for each.
1. What is the effect on liquid radioactivity concentration if the
temperature of the discharge is increased?
2. What is the effect on liquid radioactivity concentration from an
increased velocity of the discharge?
3. What is the effect on the liquid radioactivity concentration from an
increase in the river current?
4. What effect does time have on the concentration of radioactive
material in the sediment on the river bottom?
25 C A counting laboratory needs to establish the counting time of sediment
samples for a given procedure and stated MDA:
Counting efficiency = 0.2 c/d
Background count rate = 85 cpm
Desired MDA = 0.1 pCi/g
Sample size = 500 g of sediment
If the counting time for both the background and the samples is the same,
is a count time of 4 minutes sufficient to meet the desired MDA? Show
all work.
35 D Laboratory analysis shows that a holding tank with 15,000 gallons of
water contains Cs-137 at a concentration of 8.81 x 10
3
pCi/ml. It is to be
released over a 2-day period to a stream with a flow rate of 200 cfs.
Calculate the dose to a theoretical individual who consumes 250 g of fish
from the stream after this release if the bioaccumulation factor is 2000 and
the ingestion ALI, based on ICRP 30 guidance, is 100 mCi. Show all
work.

Solutions
to the
K.A.L., Inc., 2000
All Rights Reserved
1
the equations giving the solution(s). Symbols used by the ABHP in their attachment to the 1999
exam, Useful Equations and Constants, are also used in our solutions unless indicated
otherwise. Any necessary change in a given symbol or in its given numerical value and units also
will be indicated in our solution. To obtain numerical solutions to the various parts of a question,
bolded numerical values and their corresponding units for given or calculated quantities are
understood to be used in place of the algebraic symbols representing those quantities in the
equations. This procedure is followed to make clear our solutions and answers, which are
identified by a C to the left of the text or equation containing a numerical answer, which also is
bolded along with its corresponding units. Except for answers read from given figures, other
numerical answers are shown to three significant digits regardless of the number of significant
digits of input quantities used to calculate an answer. Sometimes only the numerical values and
their corresponding units for given quantities are shown in an equation giving the solution for
another quantity.
2
QUESTION 1
GIVEN: decay schemes, $
1
and (
1
energies, and gamma spectra for
95
Nb and
28
Al.
C A. Origin of features 1-3 for
95
Nb spectrum 1 and features 4-7 for
28
Al spectrum 2 are described
respectively as follows where the term photopeak in the question has been replaced by the
term total absorption peak abbreviated by the acronym TAP:
C 1. This feature is the TAP for (
1
of 0.766 keV, which is incorrectly labeled in spectrum 1 as
788 (keV). Counts within the TAP occur when the full energy of (
1
is deposited in the
detector.
C 2. This feature is the Compton edge for (
1
, which corresponds to the maximum energy of the
Compton scattered electron produced when (
1
undergoes a 180 backscatter in the detector
and the backscattered photon escapes from the detector.
C 3. This feature is the backscatter peak for (
1
, which results when (
1
undergoes a 180Compton
backscatter interaction in the surrounding shield, for example, and the backscattered photon
then deposits all of its energy in the detector.
C 4. This 1,268 keV peak is the single escape peak for (
1
of 1,779 keV, which results when (
1
undergoes a pair production interaction in the detector, the positron after losing all of its
kinetic energy in the detector undergoes annihilation with an electron, and then one 511 keV
annihilation photon escapes from the detector while the other deposits all of its 511 keV
energy in the detector along with the 757 keV total initial kinetic energy of the
positron/negatron pair.
C 5. This 757 keV peak is the double escape peak for (
1
of 1,779 keV similar to that described in
4 except both 511 keV annihilation photons escape from the detector.
C 6. This 511 keV peak is the TAP of the annihilation photon, which results when (
1
undergoes a
pair production interaction in the surrounding shield, for example, and one of the resulting
511 keV annihilation photon then deposits all of its energy in the detector.
C 7. This is the pulse height distribution from bremsstrahlung photons resulting from radiative
energy losses by $
1
in the source holder or 345 mg/cm
2
Be absorber.
C B. If the HPGe detector were to be increased in size, then the height of the TAP relative to the
height of the Compton edge would increase because in the larger detector more full energy
deposition events would occur, e.g., more Compton scattered photons produced in the larger
detector would have a higher probability of interacting by the photoelectric process instead of
escaping from the detector. The original Compton electrons kinetic energy and the Compton
photons energy then sum to the original photons energy thereby leading to a pulse and count
in the TAP.
3
C C. The FWHM is the full width of the TAP at half the maximum peak height. The FWHM in
energy units for a HPGe detector is smaller than that of a NaI(Tl) detector/PMT because of
the better resolution of the HPGe detector, which, for the same energy deposition, is a result
of the larger number of electron-hole pairs in the HPGe detector compared to the number of
electrons released from the photocathode surface of the PMT used with the NaI(Tl) detector.
C D. Escape peaks are generally more prominent in HPGe detectors than in NaI(Tl) detectors
because typical HPGe detectors have lower intrinsic photon detection efficiencies than typical
NaI(Tl) detectors for primary as well as secondary photons. For example, secondary X-ray
photons following photoelectric interactions and secondary annihilation photons following
pair production interactions of primary photons in either detector may escape from the
detector.
4
C
QUESTION 2
GIVEN: whole body counts of a worker at various times t
i
in days, body activity q(t
i
) in : : Ci,
and IRF(t
i
) values for class W and class Y inhalation intakes of 1 : m AMAD
aerosols of
60
Co:
S-ALI
W
/ class W stochastic effect-based ALI = 200 : : Ci; and
S-ALI
Y
/ class Y stochastic effect-based ALI = 30 : Ci.
C A. An intake is the total activity taken into the body. For an inhalation intake it includes the total
activity inhaled, part of which is exhaled. An uptake is the activity entering the systemic
circulation.
C B. The activity ratio, q(200 days)/q(0.1 day), of 0.0372 compares to a class W inhalation IRF
ratio, IRF
W
(200days)/IRF
W
(0.1 day), of 0.0378 and to a class Y inhalation IRF ratio,
IRF
Y
(200days)/IRF
Y
(0.1 day), of 0.184. Therefore, the whole body counting data are more
consistent with a class W inhalation intake.
C. For an assumed inhalation intake of class W, 1 : m AMAD aerosols:
1. the workers intake I is estimated based on the assumption that the variance associated with
measurement i is proportional to its predicted measurement, (I)(IRF
W
(t
i
):
Comment: An alternative equation for the intake, I = [ G q(t
i
)/IRF
W
(t
i
) ]/n, also gives 135
: Ci for I. This equation for I is based upon the average slope of the plot of q(t
i
) versus
IRF
W
(t
i
) for the n = 9 measurements; therefore, it is often called the slopes method for
obtaining the estimated intake. The slopes intake equation inherently assumes that the
variance associated with a measurement i is proportional to the predicted measurement
squared, or by the expression k [ (I)(IRF
W
(t
i
) ]
2
, where the proportionality constant k is set
equal to the value of the reduced Chi-square statistic obtained when the proportionality
constant is set equal to the expected value of unity for the reduced Chi-square statistic. The
5
C
intake estimate obtained by the slopes equation puts undue weight on the later measurements,
but when the actual measurements are close to their predicted measurements, either intake
equation gives approximately the same intake estimate.
2. the workers committed effective dose equivalent (CEDE) is estimated:
6
QUESTION 3
GIVEN: to aid in the diagnosis, a physician wants to give a ten week pregnant woman
experiencing extreme chronic hip pain an x-ray that is expected to result in a dose of
about 2 rem to her abdominal area.
A. Reasons for and against use of x-ray by physician trying to weigh risk versus benefit of x-ray
procedure include:
C 1. Two reasons that support decision to conduct the x-ray exam include: (a) radiation induced
malformations to the fetus are not likely after 10 weeks of pregnancy, and (b) risks from
cancer in later life are minimal for a dose of 2 rem in the abdominal area.
C 2. Two reasons that support decision not to conduct x-ray exam include: (a) other diagnostic
tests might provide the desired diagnostic information, and (b) the diagnostic information
will not likely aid in the medical treatment of the woman for her pregnancy.
C B. I would recommend the x-ray because the risks to the fetus are minimal and the diagnostic
information may be needed for the treatment of the woman and the ultimate safe delivery of
her child.
C. Counsel given to patient regarding effects on the fetus include:
C 1. Three possible effects on the fetus at ten weeks of pregnancy include: (a) cancer in later life,
(b) mental retardation, (c) congenital malformations. None of these effects would be expected
at this dose level.
C 2. I would not recommend a therapeutic abortion because the risks to the fetus are minimal.
C D. The NCRP recommends limiting the dose to 500 mrem to the fetus of a pregnant radiation
worker. This dose limit is not pertinent in this case. The NCRP recommends consideration of
a therapeutic abortion if the dose level is high; the doses associated with diagnostic x-rays
would rarely justify this consideration.
7
C
C
QUESTION 4
GIVEN: a health physicist required to give information regarding the production of
24
Na:
T
1/2
= 14.96 h; so,
8 = 1.29x10
-5
s
-1
;
E(( (
1
) = 1.4 MeV and Y(( (
1
) = 1.0;
E(( (
2
) = 2.8 MeV and Y(( (
2
) = 1.0;
F F
c
= 0.534 b = 5.34x10
-25
cm
2
atom
-1
;
f / grams of
23
Na per gram of Na = 0.2;
: :
en
/D D = 0.03 cm
2
g
-1
for air;
: : /D D = 0.046 cm
2
g
-1
, and D D= 11.3 g cm
-3
for lead; so
: : = 0.520 cm
-1
for lead.
A. Thermal neutron flux N N in n cm
-2
s
-1
required to produce a saturation activity A(4 4) of
3.7x10
10
Bq of
24
Na in a sodium target having a mass m of 5 grams:
B. The unshielded dose rate D0in rad h
-1
in air at the surface of a shipping container having a
radius r of 30 cm containing a point source having an activity A of 3.7x10
10
Bq is calculated:
8
C
C. Given an unshielded dose equivalent rate H0 0(0) of 35 rem h
-1
at the surface of a shipping
container, an addition of a lead shield having a thickness x of 10 cm will not be sufficient for
a Radioactive II label, which requires the shielded surface dose rate H0 0(x) not to exceed
0.05 rem h
-1
and the dose equivalent rate H0 0(x, 1 m) at 1 meter not to exceed 0.001 rem h
-1
.
The actual shielded surface dose equivalent rate H0 0(x) exceeds the 0.05 rem h
-1
limit even
when buildup is neglected:
where : : x = (0.52 cm
-1
)(10 cm) = 5.2.
Comment: The above solution assumes that the added shield is contained withing the
original shipping container.
9
C
QUESTION 5
GIVEN: a worker is exposed while transporting a Sr-90 thermoelectric generator the size of a
baseball:
D0
$
(0) / contact beta reading for 7 mg cm
-2
window = 800 rad h
-1
;
D0 0
$ $
(r) / beta reading at distance r of 18 inches for 7 mg cm
-2
window = 200 rad h
-1
;
X0(0) / contact gamma reading for 300 mg cm
-2
window = 3 R h
-1
;
X0 0(r) / gamma reading at distance r of 18 inches for 300 mg cm
-2
window = 2 R h
-1
;
t / exposure time = 2 minutes = (2/60) h;
r / exposure distance assumed for lens of eyes = 18 inches;
x
1
/ thickness of plastic bag for contact readings = 15 mg cm
-2
;
x
2
/ thickness of two gloves = 78 mg cm
-2
;
x
3
/ thickness of coveralls = 29 mg cm
-2
;
x
4
/ thickness of respirator facepiece assumed to cover eyes = 250 mg cm
-2
; and
beta reduction factor f
b
given for absorber thickness x in mg cm
-2
:
A. Disregarding attenuation by air, the total dose D to the lens of the eyes is calculated from the
sum of the beta and bremsstrahlung components:
which assumes: (1) the given gamma exposure rate reading X0 0(r) of 2 R h
-1
is from
bremsstrahlung photons only, and thus it already has been corrected for the beta response
from the
90
Sr/
90
Y beta particles; (2) a tissue absorbed dose of 0.98 rad per R of
bremsstrahlung photons; (3) a tissue depth of 300 mg cm
-2
for the lens of the eyes; (4) the
10
C
given air beta dose rate reading D0 0
$ $
(r) of 200 rad h
-1
for a window thickness of 7 mg cm
-2
has
been corrected for the contribution from bremsstrahlung photons; (5) a tissue absorbed dose
of 1.13 rad relative to an air absorbed dose of 1 rad, which accounts for the greater mass
stopping power of tissue relative to air; and (6) attenuation of bremsstrahlung photons in the
250 mg cm
-2
facepiece can be neglected.
If the second term in the bracket in the above equation, which represents the
contribution of bremsstrahlung photons, is neglected, then the dose to the lens of the eyes is
calculated for the beta component only:
Comment: The given information does not make clear whether or not the total window
thickness for the gamma reading is for a total instrument window thickness of 300 mg cm
-2
for the end cap only or for a total thickness of 307 mg cm
-2
, which corresponds to the sum of
the 300 mg cm
-2
End cap and the 7 mg cm
-2
End window; I assumed a total window
thickness of 300 mg cm
-2
as stated for the gamma readings. The actual gamma readings of
the instrument would be dominated by the beta response from
90
Sr/
90
Y beta particles, which is
calculated at 18 inches from (200 rad h
-1
)( e
-0.00453 (300 - 7)
) or as 55.9 rad h
-1
. If the given
gamma reading X0(r) of 2 R h
-1
for the instrument is interpreted to represent the response from
both beta particles and bremsstrahlung photons under a total window thickness of
300 mg cm
-2
, then it could be used to directly calculate the dose rate to the lens of the eyes,
which is at a tissue depth of 300 mg cm
-2
. The calculated total dose rate then would be the
value for the second term of 1.96 rad h
-1
in the square bracket in the first equation above
except for the fact that the beta component then would not be corrected for the attenuation in
the 250 mg cm
-2
facepiece. This total value of 1.96 rad h
-1
, however, is much less than the
value of 55.9 rad h
-1
calculated above for the beta component of the instrument response not
accounting for attenuation in the facepiece. In other words, the given gamma reading, under
this assumption that it represents the effective response from both beta and bremsstrahlung
photons, is found to be a fictitious, extraneous, and incorrect value when compared to the
beta dose rate of 55.9 rad h
-1
calculated at a tissue depth of 300 mg cm
-2
from the instrument
beta reading of 200 rad h
-1
for a window thickness of 7 mg cm
-2
. A gamma instrument with a
window thickness of only 300 mg cm
-2
, in fact, cannot be used to obtain the exposure from
bremsstrahlung photons only because the high energy beta particles emitted by
90
Sr/
90
Y
weight the response of the instrument. This question contains a very large amount of
11
extraneous information that requires a candidate to spend an undue amount of time to read
and evaluate for possible use in obtaining a solution. I believe the gamma readings were
given as extraneous (and incorrect) information that was not intended to be used in the
calculation of the eye dose from a pure beta emitting source. The second answer for D of
0.710 rad shown above is obtained when only the beta dose is considered. Such incorrect
information as the gamma readings should never be given in a question whether or not such
information is intended to test the ability of a candidate to select only that given information
necessary to obtain the school solution. This question and the given information is extremely
confusing.
C B. Annual dose limits are: (1) 50 rem for the skin, (2) 15 rem for the lens of the eyes, (3) 5 rem
for the whole body, and (4) 50 rem for an extremity.
C C. Skin dose is evaluated at a tissue depth of 0.007 cm (7 mg cm
-2
).
C D. The deep dose equivalent is evaluated at a tissue depth of 1 cm (1,000 mg cm
-2
).
C E. Four factors to consider when interpreting the response of a TLD with filters for skin and eye
dose when worn on the chest under coveralls during this incident include: (1) a correction of
the TLD skin dose response by the factor e
+0.00435 (29)
to account for attenuation of beta
particles in the coveralls assuming the TLD has been calibrated for dose to live skin, (2) a
correction of the TLD eye dose response by the factor e
+0.00435 (29 - 250)
to account for attenuation
of beta particles in the coveralls and in the facepiece assuming the TLD has been calibrated
for dose to the lens of the eyes, (3) a correction of the TLD skin dose response by the factor
(d
TLD
/d
skin
)
2
where d
TLD
is the distance from the source to the TLD and d
skin
is the smallest
distance from the source to any point on unprotected skin, and (4) a correction of the TLD
eye dose response by the factor (d
TLD
/d
eye
)
2
where d
TLD
is the distance from the source to the
TLD and d
eye
is the distance from the source to the lens of the eyes.
12
QUESTION 6
GIVEN: Radiation Safety Manager determines work controls for radiological work by
pregnant staff workers, none of whom are minors:
T
$max
= 1.7 MeV for P-32;
T
$max
= 0.606 MeV, and ' = 0.21 R-m
2
/hr-Ci for I-131;
Given work control recommendations are defined in our answers by letters:
(a) / prohibits work;
(b) / allows work to continue with stated additional specific work controls; and
(c) / allows work to continue without additional work controls.
C In the stated work descriptions for parts A through E of this question, recommendation
(a), (b) with stated specific additional controls, or (c) will be selected and the technical basis will
be given, including any assumptions in addition to those stated here. Because information
regarding the costs for radiation protection is not given in this subjective question, radiation
protection optimization and ALARA are not considered. Only the dose limits applicable to the
exposure of the pregnant female or her fetus are considered in choosing (a), (b), or (c). These
limits are given: (1) 5 rem to the whole body, 50 rem to any organ, the skin, or extremity, and 15
rem to the lens of the eyes of the pregnant worker in any control year of practice and (2) 0.5 rem
for the fetus during the entire gestation period, with the additional recommendation to limit the
monthly dose to 50 mrem. The technical basis, shown by the acronym TB, for selecting (a), (b),
or (c) are based upon concerns for assuring that the dose limits for (1) or (2) are not exceeded
from either internal or external exposure. The technical basis will be shown, for example:
TB = (1), internal for I-131. However, concerns for litigation regarding alleged health effects on
the fetus are also considered in the answers below.
C A. Recommendation = (b) with addition of extremity and other personnel dosimetry to monitor
extremity, skin, and eye dose of pregnant worker; required contamination control checks
particularly after dilution operation; and monthly urinalysis. TB = (1), dose limits from
combined external and internal exposures, which will prevent limit (2) for fetus being
exceeded if limits in (1) for pregnant worker are adequately controlled.
C B. Recommendation = (c). TB: neither limits for (1) or (2) are likely to be exceeded. The highest
monthly TLD reading of 0.230 rem in August is reduced by the lead apron to 0.0575 rem; so
the fetus would not likely receive 0.05 rem even for this highest monthly reading. However,
for concerns for potential litigation and possible concerns by the pregnant worker, it is
recommended that a TLD be placed under the lead apron to more accurately monitor the
13
entrance skin dose over the abdomen of the pregnant worker.
C C. Recommendation = (a). TB = (2), internal plus external.
C D. Recommendation = (a). TB = (2) external.
C E. Recommendation = (c). TB: doses are negligible compared to the limits in (1) for the
pregnant worker and the limit (2) for the fetus provided the worker does not violate the
interlocks and the specified operating procedures.
14
QUESTION 7
GIVEN: five accident scenarios as stated in the question and designated by numbers (1)
through (5) respectively in answers below.
A. Five actions listed by highest priority 1 through lowest priority 5 in response to a radiological
accident involving personal injury are summarized:
C 1. Provide first aid needed for survival of injured person if radiation field and other
environmental conditions permit it; otherwise, remove injured person first from any life
threatening environment.
C 2. Call for needed emergency medical, fire, and other support personnel according to emergency
plan. This should have almost as high a priority as 1, and if possible other people present in
the area might initiate these calls at the same time 1 is initiated.
C 3. Monitor victim for contamination, and with the aid of emergency medical personnel wash
wounds of any radioactive contamination and remove contaminated clothing from accident
victim; save all washings and clothing for later detailed analyses of the activity of all
radionuclides.
C 4. With the aid of emergency medical personnel, provide diuretics, blocking agents, or chelation
agents to enhance excretion of radionuclides if the condition of the accident victim allows
and if the magnitude of the estimated intake warrants such medical interventions.
C 5. Remove and evaluate dosimeters to estimate the victims dose for future medical guidance.
B. The preferred bioassay procedure for each specified accident 1 through 5 is given and
justified:
C 1. Urinalysis for Pu-239 because of direct uptake into the blood from the wound and the lack of
significant photons associated with the decay of Pu-239.
C 2. Urinalysis for H-3 because of direct uptake into the blood through the skin and the lack of
significant photons associated with the decay of H-3.
C 3. Whole body count for high yield 0.662 MeV gamma photons following external
decontamination because all inhaled Cs-137 is assumed to be in the relatively transportable
compound class D and essentially all ingested Cs-137 is taken directly up into the blood and
rapidly distributed throughout all soft tissue in the body.
C 4. Urinalysis for S-35 because of direct uptake into the blood from the small intestine and the
lack of significant photons associated with the decay of S-35.
C 5. Thyroid counting of emitted gamma photons because all inhaled I-131 is assumed to be in the
relatively transportable compound class D, and it is rapidly taken up into the blood and
15
deposited in the thyroid gland.
C. Four medical intervention techniques that are used to minimize internal dose include:
C 1. Removal of contamination to prevent internal contamination by washing of skin and wounds
and possibly excision of contaminated tissue to prevent uptake into the blood.
C 2. Enhance excretion of contaminated body fluids to reduce deposition of radionuclides in
systemic tissues. An example is the use of diuretics, e.g., increasing the intake of water to
enhance the excretion of tritiated water from the body.
C 3. Use of blocking agents in the form of stable isotopes that compete for deposition sites in
systemic tissues with the radioactive contaminant, e.g. KI to increase the deposition of stable
iodine in the thyroid thereby blocking the deposition of radioactive I-131 and enhancing its
excretion in the urine.
C 4. Use of chemical agents that form compounds with the radioactive contaminant that are
excreted from the body, including chelation agents, e.g. calcium or zinc DPTA which form a
complex with Pu-239 in the blood before the Pu-239 has a chance to deposit in the liver or
bone. The chelated Pu-239 is then rapidly eliminated from the body with the urine.
D. Regarding physicians recommendations:
C 1. I agree with the recommendation for chelation therapy following an inhalation intake of 5
ALI of Am-241 because all compound forms of americium are assumed to be in the
intermediate transportable class W compound form, which is cleared from certain lung
compartments with a half-life of 50 days or less to the blood. The committed bone dose of
250 rem thus can be lowered with very little risk from side effects of the chelation agent.
C 2. I agree with the lung lavage for 1 lung at a time following an inhalation intake of 10 ALI of
mixed fission products provided the physician can state that the risk of the procedure is
considerably less than the stochastic cancer mortality risk of about a 2.5% chance from a
committed effective dose equivalent of 50 rem and provided the procedure is estimated to
substantially reduce the radiation risk.
E. Specific medical interventions warranted by the estimated intakes of the radionuclides in
each accident scenario 1 through 5 and any associated special concern and/or precaution are
given respectively:
C 1. Washing of Pu-239 contaminated wound and excision of contaminated tissue: Concerns
include disfigurement or enhanced uptake by using a poor procedure or technique, and
precautions include monitoring of wound with a wound counter and the collection and
radioactivity analysis of all washings and excised tissue to monitor the effectiveness of the
procedure. Urine bioassay should be used to estimate the total uptake and internal radiation
16
dose for future medical guidance.
C 2. Increased fluid intake and physical activity to enhance excretion of tritiated water: Concern
includes not to have such a high fluid intake that it could cause a significant electrolyte
imbalance, and precaution includes daily sampling and analysis of urine samples to monitor
the effectiveness of the procedure and to more accurately determine the total effective dose
equivalent for future medical guidance.
C 3. Blocking agent such as Prussian blue (ferric ferrocyanide or one of its modifications) to limit
the uptake of Cs-137 from the small intestine where it would otherwise have a fractional
absorption (f
1
) of unity: Concern includes the toxic effect of the blocking agent and
precaution includes limiting the amount of the agent to limit its toxic effect. Once the upper
respiratory tract and the GI tract have been cleared of Cs-137, the agent should no longer be
used. Whole body counts should be obtained to estimate the internal radiation dose for future
medical guidance.
C 4. Induce vomiting: Concern includes the need for its early implementation to limit uptake into
the blood from the small intestine and precaution includes the collection and analysis of the
vomit and of urine samples to determine its effectiveness and to estimate the internal
radiation dose for future medical guidance.
C 5. Use of blocking agent KI (See C, 3 above.): Concern includes the early administration of the
agent for it to be effective and precaution includes limiting the amount of the agent to
amounts not likely to cause a toxic effect. Thyroid and whole body counts should be obtained
to estimate the thyroid and whole body doses for future medical guidance.
17
C
C
QUESTION 8
GIVEN: Professor using Hg(CH
3
)
2
tagged with radioactive Hg-203 in an experiment:
C / steady state Hg(CH
3
)
2
airborne concentration = 0.005 mg m
-3
;
S
A
/ specific activity of Hg(CH
3
)
2
= 5 : : Ci mg
-1
;
DAC / derived air concentration for Hg-203 = 7x10
-5
: Ci cm
-3
= 70 : : Ci m
-3
;
PEL / permissible exposure concentration limit for Hg(CH
3
)
2
= 0.01 mg m
-3
;
A
Hg
= 200.6 g per mole of Hg;
A
C
= 12 g per mole of C;
A
H
= 1 g per mole of H;
T
1/2
= 47 day; so
8 8 / decay constant for Hg-203 = (ln2)/T
1/2
= 0.0147 day
-1
= 1.71x10
-7
s
-1
.
A. The fraction F of Hg atoms that are tagged is calculated:
B. The activity concentration U of Hg-203 corresponding to the PEL is calculated and compared
to the DAC of 70 : Ci m
-3
:
which is only 0.0714% of the DAC of 70 : Ci m
-3
.
Comment: The above calculation assumes that the PEL, as given, refers to the mass of the
compound per cubic meter rather than the mass of mercury in the compound per cubic meter.
18
C
C. The highest specific activity S
A-max
of the tagged compound that can be used to assure
compliance with the OSHA requirement, f(DAC) + f(PEL) # 1, that the sum of the
concentrations relative to their respective limits be less than or equal to unity is calculated:
19
QUESTION 9
GIVEN: demineralizer in a PWR reactor coolant system (RCS) contains only
60
Co after a
continuous operating period and stated assumptions in the question:
t / operating period = 200 days = 288,000 minutes;
r / radius of demineralizer = 2 feet = 0.610 meters;
F / flow rate of RCS through demineralizer = 480 lpm = 4.8x10
5
mL min
-1
;
E / efficiency of demineralizer = 1;
U / concentration of
60
Co in RCS = 8x10
-5
: : Ci mL
-1
;
' ' = 1.3 R m
2
h
-1
Ci
-1
;
8 8 / decay constant = (ln 2)/(5.26)(365)(24)(60) = 2.51x10
-7
min
-1
;
gamma and beta energies and yields;
1 rad in air = 1 rad (or 1 rem) in tissue; and
lead attenuation coefficients and buildup factors for an Isotropic Point Source.
Comment: an exposure of 1 R equals 0.876 rad to air, which is about 0.98 rad or 1 rem to
tissue. However, the stated assumption in the question requires the candidate to assume 1 R is
equivalent to 0.876 rem to tissue. I believe it was intended for the candidate to assume that
1 R is equivalent to 1 rem, but the solutions below follow the stated assumption in the
question where 1 R is then assumed to equal 0.876 rem.
A. The gamma dose equivalent rate H0 0at a distance d of 1 foot above the centerline of the
surface immediately after the 200 day operating period is calculated based on stated
assumptions:
The total activity A(t) assumed to be spread uniformly over the top surface is calculated:
The activity per unit area, C
a
, is calculated:
20
C
The dose equivalent rate H0 0at a distance d of 1 foot above the center of a disk source having a
radius r of 2 feet and activity per unit area C
a
of 10.7 Ci m
-2
is obtained from the disk source
equation for the exposure rate X0 0(d) given in the list of Useful Equations and Constants:
B. The dose equivalent H of the worker is calculated to determine whether the lead shielding on
top of the demineralizer is sufficient to prevent a dose greater than workers remaining
annual administrative limit given the stated assumptions, other assumptions stated here, and
given information:
H
L
/ remaining allowed dose equivalent = 0.3 rem;
A(0) / initial
60
Co activity = 60 Ci;
T / elapsed time = 0.5 years; so
A(T) / A(0) exp(-(0.5)(ln 2)/(5.26)) = 56.2 Ci; and so
C
a
/ A(T)/B r
2
= 48.1 Ci m
-2
;
t
W
/ workers exposure time = 0.5 h;
x / lead shield thickness = 2 inches = 5.08 cm;
r / radius of disk source = 2 feet = 0.610 meters; and
d / distance above center of disk source = 9 feet = 2.74 meters.
C Other assumptions: At a distance d of 9 feet from a disk source having a radius r of 2 feet, much
of the scattered radiation in the shield will not reach the dose point of the worker. Because
buildup data are given, however, I will assume buildup is effective. Even though the buildup data
are for a point isotropic source, I will use the buildup data for a disk source because the distance
d is 4.5 times the radius r of the disk, which could be approximated as point source. To simplify
the calculation, I assume that all primary photons traverse a fixed shield thickness of 2 inches.
This is reasonable because the longest path for the stated geometry is 2.05 inches. Therefore, the
transmission T(: : x) through the shield can be approximated:
where by interpolation between values in the given tables for the average photon energy of
1.25 MeV: : : x = (0.65 cm
-1
)(5.08 cm) = 3.30, and the buildup factor B(: : x) = 2.11. The shielded
dose equivalent H is then calculated:
21
C
C
which exceeds the workers limit H
L
of 0.3 rem.
For the assumption that the disk source can be approximated by a point source, the dose
equivalent H is calculated:
which is only 3% larger than the value calculated from the disk source equation and which also
exceeds the workers limit H
L
of 0.3 rem.
22
QUESTION 10
GIVEN: a CW neon gas laser in the center of a 20 meter square room with the beam directed
towards a diffuse reflector at the center of one wall:
D D
8 8
/ reflectivity = 0.9;
M M / power = 20 W = 20,000 mW ;
d
1/e
/ beam diameter (where irradiance is 1/e of the central beam value) = 2 mm = 0.2 cm;
so by equation in the ABHP attached table of Useful Equations and Constants:
d
1/e
/ 2
1/2
d
1/e
= 0.283 cm, which yields a beam area corresponding to the average beam
irradiance for a Gaussian beam profile rather than the central beam value;
N N / beam divergence = 0.001 radians;
8 8 / wavelength = 540 nm;
table of MPEs in energy fluence units.
A. Answers are matched to the following radiometric quantities:
C 1. Radiant energy: c. J
C 2. Radiant power: f. W
C 3. Radiant intensity: a. W cm
-2
C 4. Radiance: d. W sr
-1
cm
-2
C 5. Radiant exposure: e. J cm
-2
B. The following terms are defined and described in terms of their appropriateness:
C 1. The nominal hazard zone (NHZ) is the area within which radiation levels from direct or
scattered radiation exceed the maximum permissible exposure (MPE).
C 2. The nominal ocular hazard distance (NOHD) is the distance measured along the beam axis
from the laser to the human eye within which the exposure is expected to exceed the MPE.
C The specification of the NHZ is more appropriate than the NOHD for indoor laboratories
because the laser is more likely to be used in a fixed area/location compared to outdoor use,
and the presence of scatterers/reflectors is more likely to be constant, thus making it easier to
define a fixed NHZ.
C. The NHZ for this laser laboratory is estimated by assuming the MPE applies to viewing of
diffuse reflection from the wall target and assuming as stated in the question that the
23
C
C
intrabeam MPE applies. The equation below for the NHZ distance is that in the ABHP
attached table, Useful Equations and Constants(See comment below.).
I shall assume an exposure time t of 0.25 seconds, which is the blink aversion time as
recommended in ANSI Z136.1. The intrabeam MPE in the table provided in this question is
given in energy fluence units while the equation for the NHZ distance in the attached table of
Useful Equations and Constants uses the MPE in energy fluence rate units. The MPE in
energy fluence rate units is obtained by dividing the given equation, 1.8 t
3/4
x10
-3
J cm
-2
for a
wavelength 8 of 540 nm, by the blink aversion time t, which gives the following expression,
1.8 t
-1/4
x 10
-3
J cm
-2
s
-1
, as the MPE in energy fluence rate units. Thus, the MPE is calculated
as 2.55x10
-3
J cm
-2
s
-1
or 2.55 mW cm
-2
. The NHZ is then calculated from this MPE using the
attached NHZ equation and other given bolded data above:
where the angle of reflection 2 2
< <
is conservatively taken as 0 degrees.
Comment: The stated assumption in this part to the question: Assume the intrabeam MPE
applies. is confusing when it was intended that the NHZ equation in the attached table for
diffuse reflection be used instead of an appropriate equation for intrabeam viewing, which
was not given in the ABHP attached table. Also confusing is the use of the same symbol
MPE for energy fluence, which corresponds more directly to the exposure limit in the table
provided in the question, and for energy fluence rate, which is used in the equation for the
NHZ in the attached table and which corresponds more directly to an exposure rate limit.
D. The minimal OD of the protective eyewear to reduce the irradiance below the intrabeam
MPE of 2.55 mW cm
-2
calculated in part C for a viewing time t of 0.25 s is obtained for the
beam diameter d
1/e
of 0.283 cm calculated in the given data above from the equation in the
table, Useful Equations and Constants, which was attached to the exam. The radiant
intensity I is calculated for the beam diameter d
1/e
of 0.283 cm, which is less than a nominal
pupil size of 0.7 cm:
24
Comment: The question should have stated the location for intrabeam viewing or the beam
diameter itself.
C E. The eyewear best to use in this laser lab for an OD of 5 is given as follows:
The laser emits at 540 nm. I would select Brand X with an OD of 5, which provides the
required level of protection around this wavelength in the green part of spectrum. The human
eye is very sensitive and dependent for vision at this wavelength. If the higher optical density
(e.g. the OD of 7 for Brand Y) were to be used, then an increased reduction by a factor of 100
would result in transmission at this wavelength, thereby resulting in a marked reduction in
visibility for the wearer. This situation would discourage its use and/or present other hazards
from poor visibility.
F. Answers are matched to the following FDA laser classes:
C 1. Class I: b. not an ocular hazard.
C 2. Class II: c. 0.25 second exposure threshold.
C 3. Class III: d. momentary intrabeam viewing is hazardous.
C 4. Class IV: a. can damage skin or eye from diffuse reflection.
25
QUESTION 11
GIVEN: a cylinder of enriched UF
6
is punctured:
m / net mass of UF
6
in cylinder = 9.071x10
6
g;
F
235
/ mass of
235
U relative to mass of U = 0.05;
h / stack height = 25 meter;
V / building air volume = 10
6
cubic feet = 28,300 m
3
;
F / stack flow rate = 10
4
cfm = 4.72 m
3
s
-1
; so
K / ventilation constant = F/V = 1.67x10
-4
s
-1
;
8 8
234
/
234
U decay constant = (ln 2)/(3.154x10
7
s y
-1
)T
1/2
234
U = 8.79x10
-14
s
-1
;
8 8
235
/
235
7
s y
-1
)T
1/2

235
U = 3.10x10
-17
s
-1
;
8 8
238
/
238
7
s y
-1
)T
1/2

238
U = 4.88x10
-18
s
-1
;
F
234
/ mass of
234
U relative to mass of U = (0.01)F
235
= 0.0005;
F
238
/ mass of
238
U relative to mass of U = 1 - F
234
- F
235
= 0.9495;
A
F
/ atomic mass of fluorine = 19 amu; and
Graphs of F F
y
and F F
z
in meters.
A. The specific activity S
A
of the UF
6
is calculated:
The average atomic mass A
U
of the U in UF
6
can be shown to essentially equal that for
238
U:
The molecular weight, MW, of UF
6
is therefore (238 + 6(19)) amu or 352 g mole
-1
and each
mole of UF
6
contains Avogadros number N
A
of 6.023x10
23
atoms of U mole
-1
. The specific
activity S
A
of the UF
6
is calculated:
26
C
C
C
B. The initial release rate Q for a UF
6
specific activity S
A
of 10
-5
Ci g
-1
and the stated
assumptions is calculated:
C. The ground level activity concentration U
Total
on the plume centerline at a downwind distance
of 500 meters for a constant release rate Q of 3.32x10
-4
Ci s
-1
, wind speed u of 5 m s
-1
, and
class D stability conditions is calculated:
where F F
y
of 38 m and F F
z
of 19 m were obtained from the given graphs at 500 meters for class
D stability.
C D. Five control measures used to preclude accidental criticality include: 1. limit the mass of
fissile material at any one location below the quantity necessary for criticality; 2. use of safe
geometry vessels for storing liquid solutions, e.g., tall narrow cylinders; 3. maintain a
sub-critical spacing and geometry, e.g. planar areas of stored fuel rods with sufficient
separation to prevent criticality; 4. add neutron absorbing material to storage facilities, e.g.
cadmium in fuel storage racks; and 5. limit the presence of neutron moderators, e.g. water,
and reflectors, e.g., the human body.
C E. Three reasons why stack effluent monitoring shows the apparent UF
6
release to be lower than
predicted include: 1. condensation of UF
6
and chemical reactions on surfaces including duct
work and the stack itself; 2. the building ventilation is likely to be filtered; and 3. chemical
reaction of UF
6
with constituents in the air and the formation of particles that settle to
surfaces especially during the relatively long mean residence time of 1/K or 1.66 hours in the
building.
27
QUESTION 12
GIVEN: electron linear accelerator used to produce neutrons from a tantalum target from a
beam of electrons having an energy E of 120 MeV and power P of 50 kW.
C A. Researchers and operators receive low levels of $/( exposures from activated components
and prompt neutron and gamma radiation leakage through shielding or direct radiation from
the target only when the machine is operating. Maintenance workers, who normally would
not be present during operation, only receive $/( exposures from activated components while
performing maintenance operations near the target and surrounding material.
C B. Based upon a requirement for 96 hours of operation, 8 hours for maintenance, and an
assumed 24 hour per day schedule with no activities on Saturday and Sunday, I would
recommend the following schedule. Operation would take place 24 hours per day Tuesday
through Friday for a total operation time of 96 hours, which would allow a reasonable
cool-down period for decay of short-lived activation products prior to maintenance work on
Monday, thereby reducing the dose to maintenance workers.
C C. The photon energy threshold for neutron production in most materials by the reaction
A
X(( , n)
A-1
X is about 8 MeV, which corresponds essentially to the binding energy of the
last neutron in the formation of the nucleus of the atom X of mass number A. The threshold
kinetic energy of the electron, which undergoes radiative energy losses producing
bremsstrahlung photons with energies up to its kinetic energy, is the same as the photon
energy threshold for the reaction. Neutron yields and energies increase significantly at higher
electron/photon energies, which puts greater demands on neutron shielding.
C D. Knowing the neutron spectrum in areas occupied by personnel is important in estimating
neutron dose. If instrumental measurements are made of the neutron spectrum, proper fluence
to dose conversion factors can be evaluated. In addition, the type and magnitude of the
responses of neutron personnel dosimeters depend strongly on the neutron energy, e.g.,
calculation of the expected neutron albedo dosimeter response per unit of total neutron
fluence requires knowledge of the neutron spectrum.
C E Three different ways for measuring the neutron spectrum include:
1. Bonner spheres-use of multiple polyethylene spheres of differing diameters with centered
6
LiF(Eu) scintillation detectors, which respond primarily to thermal neutrons: Measured
counting rates differ for the varying sized spheres because of the varying moderation of the
28
incident neutrons energy. Measured counting rates from the spheres along with a known
energy-efficiency matrix can be used to obtain the overall shape of the energy spectrum
through an iterative process with a computer.
2.
3
He neutron spectrometer: By evaluating the pulse height distribution from the proton and
triton produced in the
3
He(n,p)
3
H exothermic reaction (Q = 0.764 MeV), it is possible to
unfold the neutron energy distribution. When neutrons above about 2 MeV are present, the
confounding influence of the pulses from
3
He recoils produced though elastic scattering
reactions with neutrons may have to be dealt with through pulse shape discrimination.
3. Threshold activation foils-irradiation of various target nuclides that exhibit energy
thresholds for the production of a radioactive product, e.g.,
32
S(n,p)
32
P, which has a neutron
threshold energy of about 3 MeV: By selecting a variety of different target nuclides in foils
with different neutron energy thresholds and known effective cross sections and by
measuring the amount of radioactive products formed, one can infer, usually from a computer
program, the shape of the neutron energy distribution.
F. Two types of routine personnel dosimeters useful for accelerator produced neutrons include:
C 1. Track etch detectors such as polycarbonate plastic (CR-39): Recoil nuclei from fast neutron
interactions produce damage tracks that become visible after development of the thin plastic
film in strong caustic solution. They are used as fast neutron detectors and are most useful
above an energy of about 500 keV.
C 2. Thermoluminescent albedo dosimeters such as paired
6
LiF and
7
LiF elements shielded against
direct thermal neutrons with cadmium: The body is used to thermalize fast neutrons and
reflect them back to the dosimeters. The
6
LiF element is sensitive to thermal neutrons and
gamma rays, and the
7
LiF element is sensitive to only gamma rays. The net reading obtained
from the difference of the
6
LiF and
7
LiF responses is a measure of the neutron dose. The
devices are very energy dependent, and knowledge of the neutron spectrum is necessary in
the determination of the appropriate calibration factor.
G. One radioactive and one non-radioactive contaminant produced in the air around the target
area are described:
C 1. The 9.97 minute half-life radioactive product
13
N is produce by the reaction
14
N(( , n)
13
N.
C 2. The non-radioactive product ozone (O
3
) results from reactions of oxygen following ionization
of the air by electrons or photons.
29
C
QUESTION 13
GIVEN: patient administered I-131 for a thyroid ablation is incontinent for urine and will be
on a catheter with a urine collection bag:
A / quantity of I-131 administered = 7,400 MBq = 200 mCi = 200,000 : Ci;
F / fraction of A removed from body in first 24 hours due to biological elimination and
radioactive decay = 0.5;
8 8 / decay constant = (ln2)/(8.04 day) = 8.62x10
-2
day
-1
= 3.59x10
-3
h
-1
;
K / biological removal rate constant = (ln2)/(138 day) = 5.02x10
-3
day
-1
= 2.09x10
-4
h
-1
;
k / total removal rate constant = 8 + K = 3.80x10
-3
h
-1
;
m / mass of thyroid = 20 g;
' ' / I-131 gamma constant = 2.2 R cm
2
h
-1
mCi
-1
;
V / volume of urine at 24 hour mark = 1 liter; and
a Pancake GM and thin window NaI(Tl) probe.
Comment: Other miscellaneous information, most of which is not used in the solution, is
given including an incorrect value of 1.4x10
7
photons/s-cm
2
for the fluence rate of 364 keV
photons corresponding to an exposure rate of 1 R h
-1
. The actual value for 1 R h
-1
is about
1.5x10
6
photons/s-cm
2
.
A. The activity A
u
of I-131 in the urine from an exposure rate X0 0of 0.047 R h
-1
at a distance d of
30.48 cm is calculated:
B. The pro and con for use of either instrument in performing a field screening of the nurses
thyroid to determine if the nurse had an uptake of I-131 are summarized:
C 1. GM: con: low efficiency for gamma rays emitted from thyroid and pro: high efficiency for
detecting beta radiation emitted from contamination on the skin. Meausrements with and
without an absorber sufficiently thick to stop the beta particles can be used to distinguish
contamination on the skin from I-131 in the thyroid.
C 2. Thin window NaI(Tl): con: depending on thickness of window, it might not be able to detect
the beta radiation from skin contamination and pro: high efficiency for detecting gamma rays
30
C
C
C
emitted from the thyroid.
C 3. I would use the GM detector with and without absorber material for determining if significant
skin contamination is present, and I would use the NaI(Tl) probe to estimate the activity of
I-131 present in the thyroid.
C. The activity A in the nurses thyroid at the time of the count is calculated:
T
s+b
/ thyroid counting interval = 600 s;
C
s+b
/ gross count in 0.364 MeV peak = 1,800 counts; so
R
s+b
/ (C
s+b
)/(T
s+b
) = 3.00 s
-1
E
( (
/ photon detection efficiency = 0.001 c ( (
-1
;
Y
( (
/ yield of photon = 0.82 ( ( decay
-1
; and
R
b
/ background rate in photons ROI = 80 cpm = 1.33 s
-1
.
D. The doses following an activity deposition A
d
of 100 : : Ci in the thyroid of a janitor are
calculated for a thyroid dose per unit cumulated activity or S factor of 0.022 rad per : : Ci-h:
1. The committed dose equivalent (CDE) to the thyroid is calculated:
2. The committed effective dose equivalent (CEDE) to the whole body is calculated:
where the thyroid is the only significantly irradiated tissue whose weighting factor w
T
of 0.03
is used to convert the thyroid CDE to the CEDE for the whole body.
C 3. Intervention is not advisable because as stated in the problem the deposition of 100 : Ci in
the thyroid has already occurred, and the blocking agent KI would no longer be effective. In
31
addition, a CEDE of 17.4 rem has a cancer mortality risk of less than 1%, and thyroid cancer
is readily treated by ablation therapy.
C E. A simple ratio of the I-131 activity A(t) detected within the thyroid to the non-stochastic
inhalation ALI will not provide a reasonable accurate estimate of the CEDE for the following
reasons. To use the ALI, the activity A(t) at some time t after the intake first must be
converted to an estimated intake I calculated by dividing the activity A(t) by the applicable
thyroid intake retention fraction (IRF) estimated for class D, 1 : m AMAD aerosols for an
acute intake from (0.63)(0.3)e
-kt
, where 0.63 is the fraction of an inhalation intake that
deposits in the respiratory tract and is rapidly absorbed into the blood, 0.3 is the fraction of
the uptake in the blood that is deposited in the thyroid, k is the effective removal rate constant
for I-131 in the thyroid, and t is the time since the acute intake. For organic vapor forms of
I-131, the fraction of the intake deposited in the respiratory tract is unity; therefore, the IRF
value is estimated from (0.3)e
-kt
, and the ingestion ALI then should be used to estimate the
CDE. The CDE in either case can be estimated from the expression, (A(t)/IRF)(50 rem/ALI),
and the CEDE then can be estimated from the product of w
T
CDE.
Comment: The ALI given in this question is incorrectly stated as 50 mCi; the actual value
for the ALI is 50 : Ci.
32
QUESTION 14
GIVEN: questions pertaining to environmental monitoring principles:
1 gallon = 3.785 liters; and the correct equation from HPS N13.30-1996:
where:
s
b
/ Poisson propagated standard deviation in background rate = (R
b
/T)
; counts min
-1
;
T / sample or background counting interval, minutes; and
K / calibration constant, which in this question is the counting efficiency, counts decay
-1
.
Comment: The equation given in the ABHP exam is wrong, and the definition given for K
also is wrong. I will use the correct equation above.
A. Given the Gaussian dispersion model, the ground level centerline concentration P(x, 0, 0),
which is measured at distance x of 1 km downwind, crosswind distance y of zero, and
distance z of zero above the ground, is expected to change for the following conditions:
The answers shown below are justified by how factors in the dispersion equation
influence the calculated value of P(x, 0, 0):
where I assume an elevated release from a stack and where quantities are defined:
Q / release rate, Ci s
-1
;
h / effective stack height, m;
u / wind speed, m s
-1
;
F
y
/ dispersion coefficient measured in meters in the crosswind direction from the centerline
of the plume, which increases with downwind distance x and which is greater the greater
the instability of the atmosphere, i.e., the more the environmental lapse rate exceeds the
33
process or dry adiabatic lapse rate for a parcel of dry air as it rises, expands, and cools
adiabatically in its surrounding air environment. This process, positive, lapse rate relates
to a parcel of air released from the stack, and it corresponds to a decrease in temperature
of 1centigrade for each 100 meters rise; and
F
z
/ dispersion coefficient measured in meters in the vertical direction from the centerline of
the plume, which also increases with downwind distance x and which is greater the
greater the instability of the atmosphere.
Answers are obtained with reference to the factors in the above equation:
C 1. As h increases, P(x, 0, 0) decreases as exp[-(h/F
z
)
2
] decreases.
C 2. As u increases, P(x, 0, 0) decreases as 1/u decreases.
C 3. As the environmental lapse rate goes from a (super-adiabatic) positive lapse rate (unstable
condition) to a negative lapse rate (very stable condition, temperature inversion, temperature
increases with height), F
y
and F
z
will decrease. The value of P(x, 0, 0) will generally decrease
provided the value of x of 1 km for both lapse rates happens to correspond to a distance
downwind that is less than the distance where the maximum ground concentration occurs,
which depends upon the effective stack height h for isotropic dispersion: P
max
= (0.234)/(u h
2
)
when F
z
= h/2
1/2
. Because the stack height h and dispersion coefficients were not given, a
definitive answer cannot be given. For isotropic dispersion, the answer depends on the
magnitude of the decreasing factor exp[-(h/F
z
)
2
] relative to the increasing factor (1/F
z
)
2
as
F
z
becomes smaller in going from a positive to a negative lapse rate.
C 4. In this case the effective stack height h increases; therefore, P(x, 0, 0) decreases as
exp[-(h/F
z
)
2
] decreases.
B. For release through a pipe at the bottom and middle of a wide shallow and straight river, the
downstream centerline concentration C (assumed at the center of the river) is expected to
change with the stated conditions:
C 1. The centerline concentration is expected to increase as the temperature of the discharge is
increased because the density of the discharged water is less.
C 2. If the release rate Q in Ci s
-1
increases with increased velocity of discharge, assuming the
released concentration does not change, then the concentration everywhere in the river will
increase.
C 3. If the river current F in m
3
s
-1
increases, then the average concentration C) in the river will
decrease.
C 4. As time t increases, the activity concentration C(t) in sediment on the river bottom will
decrease with depth in the sediment if the activity release rate Q and sedimentation rate do
34
C
C
not change with time t. The reason for this conclusion is that radioactivity in sediment at
greater depths has a longer period for decay.
C. For the stated conditions, the actual MDA is calculated:
K / counting efficiency = 0.2 c d
-1
;
R
b
/ background rate = 85 cpm;
MDA
d
/ desired MDA = (0.1 pCi g
-1
)(500 g) = 50 pCi = 111 dpm for
m / sample mass = 500 g; and
T / sample or background counting interval = 4 minutes; so
s
b
/ (R
b
/T)
= 4.61 cpm.
which meets the desired MDA
d
of 111 dpm.
D. The committed effective dose equivalent (CEDE) for an individual consuming fish from a
contaminated stream is calculated:
V / volume of contaminated water = 15,000 gallons = 5.68x10
7
mL;
T / release time = 2 days = 1.728x10
5
s; so
F
R
/ V/T = 329 mL s
-1
;
C
R
/ Cs-137 concentration in released effluent = 8.81x10
3
pCi mL
-1
= 0.00881 : : Ci mL
-1
;
F
S
/ stream flow rate = 200 cfs = 5.66x10
6
mL s
-1
;
B / bioaccumulation factor for fish = 2,000;
m / mass of consumed fish = 250 g;
ALI / stochastic annual limit on intake = 100 : : Ci.
A solution for the stated information is obtained:
Comment: The ALI of 100 mCi given in the exam has been replaced by the correct value of
100 : Ci in ICRP Publication 30. This question assumes incorrectly that a steady state
35
bioaccumulation factor B of 2,000 applies to fish swimming in water over a two day period.
Of course we could assume that the fish swim along with the slug of contaminated water until
they reach a steady state activity, but such an assumption would not be realistic.
Comments Applicable to Questions on the 1999 ABHP Exam
The given information provided in some parts to Question 14 as well as some other
questions on this 1999 ABHP exam is poorly stated, often obtuse or even wrong, and needlessly
redundant and extraneous to the solutions. We have changed the wording of some of the given
information to make clear our answers. For Question 14, there is no definitive answer to
Part A, 3. Members of the ABHP and the Part II panel are encouraged to evaluate and improve
their peer review process, including the writing of their solutions using the actual given
information on the final draft printed version of the exam. By using a peer review process that
requires the writing of solutions using the actual given information (e.g., the given MDA
equation in Question 14 which is wrong and gives the wrong units and the ALI for Cs-137 which
is 1,000 times the actual value), most of the errors in a question should be easily identified and
corrected before the exam is actually given to candidates. The final corrected printed version
given to candidates should be printed using the same printer as the final draft version of the
exam.
2000
K.A.L., Inc., 2000
All Rights Reserved

COMPREHENSIVE EXAMINATION INSTRUCTIONS
READ THESE INSTRUCTIONS CAREFULLY AND FOLLOW THEM CLOSELY.
- The first section (questions 1-6) consists of six core questions. All six will be
graded.
- The second section (questions 7-14) consists of seven specialty questions.
Answer any four. The proctor can accept only four answers from this section.
2. Questions 1-6 are each worth 50 points. Questions 7-14 are each worth 100 points. The
given.
a. Print your name;
b. Write your identification number;
c. Sign your name;
a. Identify yourself with each sheet by writing your number (not your name) in the
upper right corner. The graders can be objective when names do not appear.
c. When you have completed the answer to a question, go back and write beside the
question number the number of pages in your answer: Page 1 of , Page 2 of ,
etc., so that the grader knows that all answer sheets are present.
6. This is a closed-book examination, so no texts or reference materials are permitted.
Standard slide rules may be used, but not the so-called "Health Physics" slide rules.
Non-programmable electronic calculators are permissible. Only those programmable
calculators which have been previously approved by the Board are allowed. All
calculators must be checked by the proctor prior to the start of the examination.
7. If the information given in a particular question appears to be inadequate, list any
assumptions you make in developing your solution.
8. If you find you are running short of time, simply set up an outline showing clearly how
you would complete the solution without working out the actual numerical answer.
Appropriate partial credit will be given.
9. Return the completed cover sheet and your answer sheets to the proctor when you have
completed the examination. You may keep the copy of the examination.
Version 001 Page 1 of 3
May 27, 1999
Useful Equations and Constants
Useful Constants and Conversions
Avogadros Number.....................6.023 x 10
23
mole
-1
Plancks Constant..............................6.625 x 10
-34
J s
Volume of Ideal Gas (STP) .................... 22.4 1 mol
-1
Curie....................................................3.7 x 10
10
dps
Charge (e
-1
)............................................1.6 x 10
-19
C
Roentgen (STP) ............................ 2.58 x 10
-4
C Kg
-1
R........................................ 8.32 x 10
7
ergs/C gr mol
1 MeV ............................................ 1.602 x 10
-6
ergs
1 atm .......................................................760 mmHg
1 dps..................................................................1 Bq
W..................................................... 33.7 eV/ion pair
Rad..............................................6.242 x 10
7
MeV/g
1 m
3
..........................................................1000 liters
1 ft
3
..........................................................28.32 liters
Standard Temperature ....................................... 20C
Standard Pressure............................................. 1 atm
1 barn (b) .................................................... 10
-24
cm
2
1 Sv ............................................................. 100 rem
1 Gy.............................................................. 100 rad
General
nRT PV
2
2 2
1
1 l
T
V P
T
V P
AV Q
p
V 4005 V
v C
hv Q
Ionizing Radiation
N A
n

p
h
p
693 . 0
T
b p
b p h
e
T
+

Ionizing Radiation (Cont.)

p b e
T
1
T
1
T
1
+
t
0
p
e A ) t ( A

b p e
+
2
2
2
1
1 2
d
d
X X
Mass Atomic ) s ( T
10 x 129 . 1
) g / Ci ( SA
h
p
13
2
.
d
A ) d ( X
d
) ( C
) d ( X
2 1 L
.
+
( )
]
]
]
+

2
2 2
a
.
d
d r
ln C ) d ( X
( )
t h
e
e
e 1 T n E C 8 . 73 D

( )
t h
e
e
e 1 T E C 8 . 73 D

CEN 6 D
.
5 . 0 log
) ( log
N
10
10
HVL
x
0
e I I

Fe ) x 1 ( +
Pb ) 3 / x 1 ( +
May 27, 1999
( )
T U W
d P
K
2
pri
x
Nonionizing Radiation
RF/Microwave Radiation
2
2
H 120
120
E
S
G
dB
= 10 log
10
G
a
PRF PW P P
peak ave

A
P 4
S
ave
2
a ave
d 40
G P
S

Laser Radiation
e / l
e / 1
d 2 d
2

2
a
d
MPE
27 . 1 1
NOHD
MPE
cos
NHZ
v
MPE
log OD
10
Ultraviolet Radiation

S E E
eff
Statistics
2 / 1
B B S
s
T
B
T
B S
]
]
]
+
+

+
B
B S
opt
T
T
B
B S
+
+
b C
33 . 2 L
b D
65 . 4 71 . 2 L +

N
i
2
i
2
2
x
) x x (
x
S ) 1 N (
May 27, 1999
Miscellaneous Equations
K K +
,
`
.
|
,
`
.
|
+
,
`
.
|

2
z
2
2
y
2
2
x
2
2
u
z
u
y
u
x
u
]
]
]
]
,
`
.
|
+
+
,
`
.
|
,
`
.
|

2
z
2
2
z
2
2
y
2
z y
2
) h z (
exp
2
) h z (
exp
2
y
exp
u 2
' Q
) e 1 (
C 2
X
R
en
.
en

) cos 1 (
c m
E
1
E
E
2
o
'

e ) e 1 ( N A
t
a a
] e e [
N
) t ( N
t t
1 2
1
1
0
2
2 2

]
]
]
1
2
1 2
max
ln
1
T
Range of Alpha Particles Range of Beta Particles
R
"
= 0.56E (E<4 MeV) R
$
= 412E
(1.265-0.0954lnE)
(0.01<E<2.5 MeV)
R
"
= 1.24E-2.62 (4<E<8 MeV) R
$
= 530E 106 (E>2.5 MeV)
ABHP PART II EXAMINATION COVER SHEET
June 26, 2000
Name: ___________________________________________
Identification Number: ______________________________
Signature: ________________________________________
Mark (X) the questions you have answered and are submitting for grading.
1. __X__
2. __X__
3. __X__
4. __X__
5. __X__
6. __X__
7. _____
8. _____
9. _____
10. _____
11. _____
12. _____
13. _____
14. _____
Remember to indicate on each answer sheet your identification number, the question
number, and the number of pages for each, e.g.,

My signature on this form is my declaration that the responses given on the attached examination
are entirely my own and I have received no unauthorized assistance on this examination. It
further declares that I am aware that I am subject to permanent exclusion from certification by
the American Board of Health Physics for cheating on and/or compromising this examination.
Page 1 of 1
QUESTION 1
A criticality accident occurred at a nuclear fuel reprocessing plant. You, the facility Health
Physicist, are at the command post providing technical support to the Incident Commander.
POINTS
15 A A search and rescue team has been established. The Incident Commander asks you
if it is OK to send in a team to rescue a worker who is in the vicinity of the
criticality accident. What are your 3 primary considerations in developing your
recommendation? Number your responses. Only the first three will be graded.
15 B. Name the primary exposure pathways and radiation sources for:
1. Workers in the room at the time of the accident;
2. Rescue workers (assume the criticality has stopped);
3. Other individuals within 0.1 to 1 km at the time of, and following the
incident.
5 C. Describe a method that could be used to quick sort (i.e., quickly screen persons
potentially involved) following a criticality accident.
10 D. Describe two medical interventions that could change the health outcome for an
individual exposed to 750 rad (whole body, deep dose) if administered during the
first month following the incident.
5 E. Why are large acute radiation doses (e.g., from a criticality accident) correctly
presented in units of rad, and not rem?
Page 1 of 1
QUESTION 2
You are using an open-air ion chamber (specifications given below) to perform surveys at a food
irradiation facility. Your ion chamber was calibrated to give the correct response at a temperature
of 20
o
C and at an atmospheric pressure of 760 mm of Hg. The facility uses a 100 Ci
137
Cs
source. Assume negligible humidity.
GIVEN
Active volume of 235.5 cm
3
(5 cm radius, 3 cm deep)

air
= 1.29 kg m
-3
POINTS
10 A. What current is generated by an exposure rate of 1 R/hr?
20 B. A measurement of 12.6 R/h is taken on a hot day of 35
o
C and 740 mm of Hg.
Calculate the correct exposure rate. Show all work.
20 C. You are surveying a shielding wall for radiation leakage. You discover a 1 cm
wide crack in the shielding giving a detector response of 20 mR/hr when the active
volume of the ion chamber is centered over the crack. Assuming that the crack
length exceeds the dimensions of the ion chamber, provide an estimate of the true
exposure rate. Assume electronic equilibrium and the following measurement
conditions: 20
o
C and 760 mm of Hg. Show all work. Specify the detector
orientation you are assuming.
Page 1 of 1
QUESTION 3
You are a graduate assistant on the Radiation Safety staff of Ground State University. You are
involved in planning an activation experiment. It has been decided to examine the thermal neutron
activation of Manganese.
The buildup and decay characteristics of this source require your attention.
GIVEN
Thermal neutron absorption cross-section for Mn-56 = 13.3 barns
for the Mn-55 (n, ) Mn-56 reaction.
Atomic weight of manganese = 55
Half life of Mn-56 = 2.58 h
Mn-56 decay gamma rays
Gamma 1 = 0.847 MeV @ 100%
Gamma 2 = 1.81 MeV @ 27%
Gamma 3 = 2.11 MeV @14%
Density of air at STP = 0.00129g cm
-3
POINTS
25 A. What is the flux in neutrons per square centimeter per second which will produce
0.31 mCi of Mn-56 at saturation in a thin manganese target of 1 g in weight.
Assume no attenuation in target material. Show all work.
25 B. What is the unshielded, gamma dose equivalent rate (in air) to a student standing
one-half meter from the 0.31 mCi Mn-56 source, one hour after the irradiation
ends? Show all work.
Page 1 of 1
QUESTION 4
You are the radiation safety officer for a radiopharmaceutical laboratory. A laboratory
worker reports to you that he accidentally boiled to dryness a beaker containing 15 mCi of
131
I in a room that is 5 m 5 m 5 m. He was not using the available fume hood. Assume
that the
131
I is instantaneously vaporized and uniformly distributed at t = 0, and the worker
is in the room for one hour after t = 0.
GIVEN
Breathing rate, B = 1.2 m
3
h
1
.
Room ventilation rate, F = 100 m
3
h
1
.
Fractional thyroid uptake of
131
I from blood = 0.3 (remainder goes directly to
excretion).
Respiratory tract deposition fraction = 0.75. (Assume 100% goes instantaneously to
blood).
Committed dose to the thyroid = 5.5 rad Ci
1

131
I deposited in the thyroid.
POINTS
30 A. Calculate the workers thyroid uptake of
131
I and the committed dose due
to that uptake. Show all work.
20 B. In addition to performing bioassay on the worker, list five actions you will
take following the accident. Number your responses. Only the first five
responses will be graded.
Page 1 of 1
QUESTION 5
A thin window, pancake GM instrument is labeled with an efficiency value of 0.20 cpm/dpm.
This instrument was calibrated with a
137
Cs source of one inch diameter on an aluminum planchet
in a calibration jig at your calibration facility. The nominal window diameter for the detector is
1.75 inches.
GIVEN
Isotope t 1/2 Max Beta
Energy (MeV)
%
Beta
Intensity
Gammas
(MeV)
%
Gamma
Intensity
99
Tc 2 E 5 y 0.293 100 none N/A
137
Cs 30 y 0.511
1.173
95
5
0.661 85
90
Sr 29 y 0.546 100 none N/A
90
Y 64 h 2.283 100 none N/A
POINTS
10 A. A 1.0 Ci
99
Tc source of 1.75" diameter on a thin plastic backing is counted in the
field. Using the quoted efficiency, calculate the expected count rate. Show all
work.
20 B. Assume that an observed net count rate of 3 x 10
5
cpm for the
99
Tc is lower than
the calculated count rate. Provide four possible reasons for the discrepancy.
10 C. The background count rate for this detector system is 50 cpm. What is the MDA,
in dpm, at the 95 % confidence level, for
137
Cs using the instruments scaler and a
one-minute count? Assume the same counting geometry as used for calibration.
Show all work. State any Assumptions.
10 D. The GM tube has a dead time of 50 s. If the observed count rate is 100,000 cpm,
what is the true count rate? Show all work.
Page 1 of 1
QUESTION 6
You are using the data below to prepare a special incident report that concerns a 27- year
old male radiation worker.
GIVEN
Period External Deep Dose
Equivalent (rem)
Intake Inhalation Class
D (Ci)
1
st
Quarter 0.7
137
Cs 80
131
I 19.5
2
nd
Q 1.2
3
rd
Q 1.8
4
th
Q 0.3
Radionuclide Inhalation ALI (ICRP 30) (Ci)
137
Cs (D) 200
131
I (D) 50 Non-stochastic Thyroid
(200 Stochastic)
POINTS
10 A. What is the Committed Dose Equivalent to the thyroid from the
131
I intake?
Show all work.
20 B. What is the approximate Committed Effective Dose Equivalent (CEDE)
from the internally deposited radionuclides? State any assumptions.
Show all work.
20 C. Assume you have calculated a CEDE from radionuclide intake of 1.2 rem
and a CDE to the thyroid of 26 rem. What is the Total Effective Dose
Equivalent (TEDE)? Have any of the occupational dose equivalent limit
recommendations in NCRP Report No.116 (1993) been exceeded? State
which recommendation(s). Justify your answer.
Page 1 of 2
QUESTION 7
You are a consultant RSO for two manufacturing companies. The Alpha Company uses
Plutonium-239 in a nitrate solution. The Beta Company uses I-131 for medical research. Your
contract stipulates that you use ICRP-30/26 concepts and models. Spills occur at each of these
facilities and result in the data given below.
GIVEN
Alpha Company- Pu-239 Beta Company- I-131
Inhalation intake amount 5 ALI (non-stochastic) 5 ALI (non-stochastic)
Approximate effective half-
life
50 years 8 days
Organ that the non-
stochastic ALI is based on:
Bone surfaces Thyroid
Organ tissue weighting
factor:
0.03 0.03
POINTS
10 A. Calculate the Committed Dose Equivalent(CDE) to the following organs and their
contribution to the respective Committed Effective Dose Equivalents (CEDE).
Show all work.
1. The Alpha Company workers bone surface.
2. The Beta Company workers thyroid.
20 B. The physician treating the worker from the Beta Company proposes to remove the
workers thyroid to preclude the likelihood of thyroid cancer later in life. Is removal
of the thyroid a prudent action? Justify your answer.
15 C. Both workers develop solid tumor cancer 1 year later and are suing the respective
companies, claiming the cancers were caused by the spill. In court, the respective
attorneys claim that, the worker received a dose that is 5 times the annual limit,
therefore it is likely that the cancer was caused by the spill. Provide 3 arguments to
challenge the validity of this statement. Number your responses. Only the first
three will be graded.
Page 2 of 2
D. The day that the spill occurs in the Alpha Company, the workers physician
administers the chelating agent DPTA.
25 1. Why is the chelation appropriate for one of the exposures and not the
other?
15 2. List 3 factors that most determine the effectiveness of DTPA. Number
your responses. Only the first three will be graded.
15 E. For calculating doses resulting from inhalation of transuranics, the ICRP 66
respiratory tract model is more sophisticated than the ICRP 30 model. Name three
(3) of the changes in the transuranic ICRP 66 lung model (relative to ICRP 30).
Page 1 of 2
QUESTION 8
You are asked to design the shielding for an electron accelerator facility with the facility
information given below. Use the figures copied from the NCRP Report No. 51 (1977),
Radiation Protection Design Guidelines for 0.1-100 MeV Particle Accelerator Facilities,
attached.
GIVEN
Electron beam kinetic energy = 20 MeV
Peak current = 1 A
Beam pulse length = 1 microsecond
Beam pulse frequency = 10 Hz
The target is a thick, tungsten beam dump.
Z, tungsten = 74
Z, copper = 29
Five figures from NCRP Report No. 51 (attached).
POINTS
30 A. Assume that the dose equivalent rate in an office, which is at 90 degrees from the
beam line and five (5) meters from the target (perpendicular distance from the beam
line), can be no greater than 0.5 mrem hr
-1
. Calculate the minimum thickness required
for the concrete wall (density is 2.35 g cm
-3
) between the target and the office. State
any assumptions. Show all work.
20 B. Assume that in part A the required transmission factor is 1 x 10
-4
and the existing
concrete wall is 30 inches thick. Calculate the additional lead thickness required to
complement the concrete wall. State any assumptions. Show all work.
20 C. List and describe five (5) parameters of significant importance to estimate the
emission of radiation from an accelerator. Number your responses. Only the first
five responses will be graded.
20 D. List five (5) considerations for selecting shielding materials for an accelerator.
Number your responses. Only the first five responses will be graded.
Page 2 of 2
10 E. For each of the following accelerator types, complete the table by identifying the two
principle radiations of concern for occupied areas.
Accelerator Particle Accelerated Beam Energy (MeV) Principle Radiations
a. Potential Drop Protons/ deuterons 1- 10 1. ______________
2. ______________
b. Electron linear Electrons 1- 10 3. ______________
4. ______________
c. Electron linear Electrons > 10 5. ______________
6. ______________
d. Cyclotron Protons/ deuterons 10 - 50 7. ______________
8. ______________
e. Betatron Electrons 1- 50 9. ______________
10. ______________
Question 8
First figure of 5
E.1. X-Ray Emission Rates from High-Z Targets
Question 8
Second figure of 5
E.6 Equivalent Incident Electron Energies
Equivalent electron energy for analysis of transmission of x-rays emitted in the 90 direction from
very thick high-Z targets, as a function of the incident electron energy. The x-ray spectrum at 90
is lower in energy than the spectrum at 90. This lower-energy radiation can be described in terms
of an incident electron energy that would in effect produce x-rays with similar transmission
characteristics in the 0 direction. Transmission curves or tenth-value layer curves applicable
to the lower energy selected from this graph may be used in the calculation of shielding
thicknesses for the 90 beam. The same procedure would be a conservative approach for x-rays
from low-Z targets, and for x-rays emitted in the 190 direction.
References: (1) Burrill (1968); (2) and Seltzer (1970); (3) McCall and Nelson (1974); and (4)
Saxon (1964).
Question 8
Third figure of 5
E.8 Broad-Beam Transmission Through Concrete of X Rays
Produced by 0.5- to 176-Mev Electrons
Transmission of thick-target x rays through ordinary concrete (density 2.35 g/cm
-3
), under broad-
beam conditions. Energy designations on each curve (0.5 to 176 MeV) refer to the monoenergetic
electron energy incident on the thick x-ray producing target. Curves represent transmission in
dose-equivalent index ration. (See Appendix E-12 for basis for interpolating between curves.)
Curves derived from (1) Miller and Kennedy (1956); (2) Kirn and Kennedy (1954); (3) Karzmark
and Capone (1968); and (4) NCRP Report No. 34 (NCRP, 1970a) and NCRP Report No. 49
(NCRP, 1976).
Question 8
Fourth figure of 5
E.12 Dose-Equivalent Index Tenth-Value Layers for
Broad-Beam X-rays in concrete
Dose-equivalent index tenth-value layers in ordinary concrete (density 2.35g/cm
-3
) for thick target
x-rays under broad-beam conditions, as a function of the energy of electrons incident on the thick
target. The dotted curve refers to the first tenth-value layer; the solid curve refers to subsequent
or "equilibrium" tenth-value layers. Both curves are empirically drawn through data points derived
from the following references: (1) Miller and Kennedy (1956); (2) Kirn and Kennedy (1954); (3)
Karzmark and Capone (1968); and (4) NCRP Report No. 34 (NCRP, 1970a), (5) Maruyama et
al. (1971). Studies by Lokan et al. (1972) on light Ilmenite-loaded concrete (density 2.89 g/cm
-3
)
are in reasonable agreement with the solid curve above, on a mass thickness basis (g cm
-2
).
Question 8
Fifth figure of 5
E.14 Dose-Equivalent Index Tenth-Value Layers for
Broad-Beam X Rays in Lead
Dose-equivalent index tenth-value layers in ordinary lead (density 11.3 g/cm
-3
) for thick target x-
rays under broad-beam conditions, as a function of the energy of electrons incident on the thick
target. The dotted curve refers to the first tenth-value layer; the solid curve refers to subsequent
or "equilibrium" tenth-value layers. Both curves are empirically drawn through data points derived
from the following references: (1) Miller and Kennedy (1956); (2) Maruyama et al. (1971); (3)
ICRP Publication No. 4 (ICRP, 1964); and (4) NCRP Report No. 34 (NCRP, 1970a). The
empirical curve is not extended into the 10- to 100-MeV region because of uncertainties in the
available data.
Page 1 of 3
QUESTION 9
As Laser Safety Officer you are asked the following questions concerning laser hazards and
safety.
GIVEN
Limiting aperture = 7 mm.
Following transmission and absorption graphs:

Anatomy of the eye:

Page 2 of 3
POINTS
20 A. Preventing eye injury is a primary concern of laser safety programs. For the
following four types of lasers, IDENTIFY the anatomical structure(s) of the eye
that are the most sensitive to damage. JUSTIFY the selection of the anatomical
structure(s).
1) Far infrared, carbon dioxide laser (10.6 m).
2) Visible, gold vapor laser (0.628 m).
3) UV-A, nitrogen laser (0.337 m).
4) UV-C, krypton fluoride excimer laser (0.248 m).
15 B Maximum Permissible Exposure Limits vary considerably within a narrow range of
the visible spectrum. For example, MPEs of 2.5 x 10
-3
W cm
-2
and 1.7 x 10
-5
W
cm
-2
apply respectively to quarter-second exposures for wavelengths of 0.647 m
(red) and 0.530 m (green). Briefly EXPLAIN the source(s) of these differences.
15 C. Deleterious effects to the skin are associated with exposure to lasers with
wavelengths in the ultraviolet region of the electromagnetic spectrum. LIST the
skin effect(s) associated with the following UV bands:
1) UV-A (0.315 m - 0.400 m).
2) UV-B (0.280 m - 0.315 m).
3) UV-C (0.200 m - 0.280 m).
20 D. Lasers have gained wide acceptance for refractive eye surgery. Surgical units, such
as LASIK (Laser In Situ Keratomileusis) systems, are typically equipped with
laser alignment devices which operate in the visible region. Assuming that beam
divergence is negligible, calculate the maximum allowable power output (in units
of mW) for the following alignment system:
Laser: Continuous Wave Diode
Wavelength: 635 nm
MPE: 0.01 J cm
-2
Laser to eye distance 0.2 m
Beam diameter 3.5 mm
Blinking Reflex Time: Inhibited for surgery
Maximum Alignment Time: 1.2 seconds per eye
Page 3 of 3
30 E. A local sports team plans to add a laser show to their pre-game entertainment
routine. The show will include figure tracing and direct audience scanning. The
proposed laser array includes the following:
Laser: Q-Switched 40W Nd:YAG
Wavelength: 532 nm
Pulse Width: 20 microseconds
Pulse Frequency: 25 kHz
Beam diameter 2 mm
Laser to audience distance: 25 m
Beam Divergence: 0.2 milliradians
Scanning Rate: 20,000 cm sec
-1
MPE: 1.8 t
3/4
x 10
-3
J cm
-2
Using the MPE as your guide, is this equipment appropriate for use in such a
show? Assume no optically aided viewing. Justify your answer.
Page 1of 2
QUESTION 10
You are the health physicist at a downwind location in response to a brush fire at the
Smooth Peaks Weapons Facility. The facility handled weapons grade plutonium and some
of the land surrounding the facility is contaminated with plutonium.
GIVEN:
Filter alpha self-absorption = 0.4 (i.e., 60% of alphas are absorbed in filter).
Filter collection efficiency = 0.8
Detector active detection area of 60 cm
Background count = 180 counts in 60 minutes
First sample count = 500 counts in 10 minutes
Second sample count 1 hour later = 360 counts in 10 minutes
Detector efficiency for alpha is 0.3 cpm/dpm (assume uniform distribution over
detector area).
Active filter area = 500 cm

239
Pu Committed Effective Dose Conversion Factor per unit of inhalation intake
= 5 E-05 Sv/Bq.
Active filter area = 500 cm
2
(assume uniform distribution).
Breathing rate = 1.2 m
3
/h
Assume:
Effective half-life for radon (Rn-222) progeny = 30 minutes
LLD r t
t
t
b g
g
b
+
|
.
`
,
|
.
`
,
+ 329 1 3 .
POINTS
40 A. You take a 1-m
3
air sample at the downwind location. Calculate the
239
Pu
airborne activity in Bq/m
3
correcting for the contribution from radon (Rn-
222) progeny. Assume no thoron progeny are present and neglect decay
correction during the counting. Show all work
10 B. Calculate the LLD for this counting system in cpm. Show all work.
Page 2 of 2
10 C. Calculate the Committed Effective Dose Equivalent to a person standing at
the sampler location. Assume the release takes place over a period of four
hours and the average activity concentration is 20 Bq/m
3
. Show all work.
20 D. Provide five (5) ways of improving the dose estimate for off-site
individuals. Number your responses. Only the first five responses will
be graded.
20 E. List five (5) possible methods to reduce the potential long term dose to
individuals from brush fires or other high re-suspension events? Number
your responses. Only the first five responses will be graded.
Page 1 of 2
QUESTION 11
You have been asked to perform risk estimates for a large, proposed residential development in an
area of higher than normal radon levels. Measured radon emanation at the soil surface is
approximately 5 pCi m
-2
s
-1
. Predicted radon flux in the first floor of a slab foundation home
without any radon mitigation is 2 pCi m
-2
s
-1
.
GIVEN
J
i
= radon flux into home = 2 pCi m
-2
s
-1
J
o
= radon flux into soil surface = 5 pCi m
-2
s
-1
Equilibrium factor, F
eq
= 0.4
A = Building area = 200 m
H = Building room height = 2.5 m
K
v
= ventilation removal constant (ventilation flow rate/room volume) = 0.5 hr
-1
R = lifetime excess cancer mortality risk per WLM = 5.5 x 10
-4
/WLM
F = Occupancy factor = 0.7
L = life expectancy = 70 years
Nuclide Alpha Energy (MeV) Half-life
Radon 222 5.49 3.82 days
Polonium 218 6.00 3.1 minutes
Lead 214 26.8 minutes
Bismuth 214 19.7 minutes
Polonium 214 7.68 1.6 x 10
-4
s
POINTS
25 A. Calculate the steady state indoor radon concentration (in pCi L
-1
) in the first floor
living space.
10 B. Assume the answer to Part A was 14 pCi L
-1
. What is the exposure to the short-
lived radon progeny in Working Level Months (WLM) per year?
20 C. List four sources of uncertainty in the application of the results from
epidemiological studies of populations of underground miners to health effects in
the general population. Number your responses. Only the first four numbered
responses will be graded.
Page 2 of 2
20 D. The current radon risk model is based on empirical studies (i.e., developed from
epidemiological studies of underground uranium miners). Another type of model
could develop risk estimates based on radons effects on the respiratory tract. List
four sources of uncertainty in this dosimetric model for the respiratory tract as
applied to risk estimates from radon exposures. Number your responses. Only
the first four numbered responses will be graded.
20 E. List four methods to reduce the radon entry into a home or building. Number
your responses. Only the first four numbered responses will be graded.
5 F. Of potential concern is the radon in the water supply to the homes. Which of the
following statements represents the best estimate of the transfer factor for the
reduction in concentration of radon in water (in pCi L
-1
) to the indoor air
concentration (in pCi L
-1
).
A. 10 to 1 reduction (i.e., a 10 pCi L
-1
water concentration results in a 1 pCi
L
-1
air concentration);
B. 100 to 1 reduction;
C. 1,000 to 1 reduction;
D. 10,000 to 1 reduction.
Page 1 of 1
QUESTION 12
An endocrinologist has referred a patient to a nuclear medicine physician for treatment of Graves
disease. The nuclear medicine physician administers a small amount of
123
I to determine the 24
hour uptake and to perform imaging. The physician plans to treat the condition with
131
I .
GIVEN
24 hour thyroid uptake in the patient = 60%
Thyroid mass in the patient = 100 g
Thyroid mass in Reference Man = 20 g
Absorbed Dose per Unit Cumulative Activity (S factor) for thyroid as source and target
organ = 1.57 x 10
-3
mGy MBq
-1
s
-1
Assume contribution from all other source organs, to the thyroid (target organ) is negligible
Effective half-life in the patients thyroid = 5 d
Physical half-life of
131
I = 8.03 d
POINTS
40 A. The nuclear medicine physician has decided to give a dose of 70 Gy to the thyroid.
Calculate the
131
I activity (MBq) that needs to be administered to the patient to
deliver the prescribed dose.
30 B. Suppose the patient above, was administered 1480 MBq. Calculate the cumulative
external dose to his spouse under the following conditions:
Sleeping arrangements: distance is 1 meter;
The thyroid is the only source of exposure;
Time spent in the vicinity (1 meter) of the spouse, over a period of 24 hours =
8 hours;
Specific Gamma-ray Dose Equivalent Constant at 1 meter
= 7.647 x 10
-5
mSv h
-1
MBq
-1
.
10 C. Assume the dose equivalent to the patients spouse is 2.5 mSv. Is the licensee in
compliance with the radiation limits of 10CFR35 if the patient is released from the
hospital immediately after administration? Justify your answer.
20 D. Give four general precautionary measures that you would suggest to a patient
treated for the condition of Graves disease upon release from the hospital.
Page 1 of 2
QUESTION 13
You are the health physicist at a power reactor facility that uses continuous air monitors (CAMs)
to measure airborne, beta-emitting particles near work activities that present some potential of
generating airborne activity. The monitor uses a fixed-filter sample and a pancake-type GM
detector contained inside a lead shield. The monitor reads out in counts per minute (cpm) and
uses a strip chart to record data for historical purposes.
A maintenance job is to be performed within a contaminated area. Prior to performing work in
the area, the filter paper on the monitor is replaced and the monitor is moved into place and
turned on at 0800.
GIVEN
Monitor flow rate: 1 ft
3
min
-1
Filter collection efficiency: 90%
Counting efficiency: 0.30 c d
-1
per beta disintegration
Detector background (with fresh filter paper): 70 c min
-1
DACs are based on ICRP 26 methodologies
Radon progeny T
1/2
(effective) = 30 minutes
Isotope DAC
(Ci/cm
3
)
Inhalation ALI
(Ci)
Co-60 1 x 10
-8
30
I-131 2 x 10
-8
(Thyroid)
50
Cs-137 6 x 10
-8
200
POINTS
30 A. Particulate radon daughters are known to be present in the room at a beta
concentration of 3 x 10
-10
Ci cm
-3
with an effective half-life of approximately 27
minutes. At 0900 hours, what count rate should be observed on the monitor?
State all assumptions. Show all work.
20 B. At 0900 hours, work begins in the room where the air monitor is located. At
0945, the air in the room suddenly becomes contaminated. Over the next 10
minutes, the strip chart recorder shows that the count rate has increased by 40,000
c min
-1
. Based upon this information, what is the estimated airborne concentration
in the room, assuming that the half-life of the measured activity is much greater
than 10 minutes? State all assumptions and show all work.
Page 2 of 2
20 C. The workers leave the room at 0955 and report the incident to the health physics
office. You suspect that the workers were exposed to a mixture of
137
Cs and
60
Co.
To confirm your suspicions, you send the workers to have a whole body count.
What are four advantages of a whole body count in this specific case over urine
bioassay? Number your responses. Only the first four will be graded.
10 D. A count of the filter on a gamma spectroscopy system shows that the airborne
radioactivity is due to 25%
60
Co, and the remainder due to
137
Cs. What is the
potential Committed Effective Dose Equivalent (CEDE) for each hour of exposure
if the air concentration is measured to be 2 10
-6
Ci cm
-3
? Show all work.
20 E. Gamma spectroscopy screening of an air sample shows that
131
I and
137
Cs are
present. The worker is exposed for 4 hours to the contaminated atmosphere, and
inhales 2 ALI of
131
I and 0.5 ALI of
137
Cs. What are the Committed Effective Dose
Equivalent and the Committed Dose Equivalent to the thyroid from this exposure?
Show all work.
Page 1 of 1
QUESTION 14
A researcher reported a spill of radioactive material in his laboratory. The lab is authorized for use
of
32
P,
35
S, and
14
C. Subsequent surveys showed widespread contamination throughout a corridor
with three outside entrances and 12 rooms. Further investigation shows that the spill occurred
about 24 hours ago.
GIVEN

35
S maximum beta energy = 167.4 keV
Sulfur biological half-life = 9.3 h

35
S physical half-life = 87.2 d
POINTS
20 A. List four actions you could take to ensure the extent of the spill is determined and
contaminated areas properly isolated. Number your responses. Only the first
four will be graded.
15 B. List three items (e.g., supplies, equipment) that you would take to the scene to
assess and control the spill. Number your responses. Only the first three will
be graded.
30 C. One laboratory technician reported a possible uptake of
35
S. A subsequent
urinalysis indicated 1500 dpm ml
-1
of
35
S in a urine sample. Assume this
concentration reflects the average
35
S concentration in the body. Calculate the
CEDE received by this worker assuming that the intake occurred 48 hours ago.
State your assumptions. Show all work.
15 D. It is possible that multiple nuclides were spilled. Describe how you would
determine the nuclides present at this location.
20 E. Further investigations revealed that:
1. personnel were using radioactive materials prior to completing radiation safety
training;
2. a centrifuge was contaminated to 1500 dpm/100 cm
2
;
3. some laboratory personnel were found to not be wearing radiation dosimetry;
4. one (1) millicurie of
14
C was used in un-posted rooms.
For each of these items, indicate if it violates federal/ agreement state regulations,
violates good work practices, or is not of concern. You DO NOT have to cite the
regulation.

Solutions
to the
K.A.L., Inc., 2000
All Rights Reserved
1
corresponding units are used to obtain numerical answers for quantities asked in a question on the
2000 exam of the American Board of Health Physics (ABHP). Symbols representing quantities in
an equation are defined either in our list of general given information after the stated premise to a
question or within the solution to each part of a question. Sometimes an acronym is used as an
algebraic quantity. Within the text of a solution, the words forming an acronym are italicized, and
the acronym is shown in parentheses following the use of the words which form that acronym. For
convenience, some quantities in our list of general given information are either actually calculated
from the given quantities by specified relationships or assumed as stated in the definition for that
quantity. The algebraic symbol for a quantity is understood to have a numerical value
corresponding to certain specified units. When symbols for quantities are contained in the ABHP
question itself, these same symbols are used in the equations giving the solution(s). Symbols used
by the ABHP in their attachment to the 1999 exam, Useful Equations and Constants, are also
used in our solutions unless indicated otherwise. Any necessary change in a given symbol or in its
given numerical value and units also will be indicated in our solution. To obtain numerical
solutions to the various parts of a question, bolded numerical values and their corresponding
units for given or calculated quantities are understood to be used in place of the algebraic symbols
representing those quantities in the equations. For efficiency and convenience, bolded numerical
values, including the units for a bolded quantity, also are shown in the text of a premise to various
parts of a question. This procedure is followed to make clear our solutions and answers, which
are identified by a C to the left of the equation containing a numerical answer. Except for answers
read from given figures, other numerical answers are shown to three significant digits regardless
of the number of significant digits of input quantities used to calculate an answer. Sometimes only
the numerical values for given quantities are shown in an equation giving the solution for another
quantity.
might arise from the use of such quantities. Comments provided in our solutions are intended to
provide guidance to candidates in answering all of the questions on an ABHP exam, and
sometimes the information in a comment is needed for a solution. Comments also are provided for
current and future members of the ABHP and its Part II panel in the hope of improving future
exams. Comments, however, are mostly factual, and the ABHP and Part II panel members are
encouraged to evaluate the impact on qualified candidates of questions containing incorrect or
confusion information and to take appropriate measures to help eliminate such questions on future
exams. We encourage readers of our solutions to this exam to contact us when they find an error
in our solutions or comments.
2
QUESTION 1
GIVEN: criticality accident at a nuclear fuel reprocessing plant.
SOLUTIONS AND ANSWERS(C C) TO PARTS A THROUGH E:
A. Three primary considerations in developing a recommendation for rescuing a worker who is in
the vicinity of the criticality accident include: 1. whether or not rescue operations might cause
a secondary criticality, 2. whether or not the primary criticality accident might have caused the
release of highly active fission and activation products from any spent fuel that was being
processed and whether or not such release could present lethal radiation fields to the rescue
team, and 3. whether or not nuclear criticality information suggests that the accident victim
already received a radiation dose significantly above a lethal dose.
B. Primary exposure pathways and radiation sources include for specified individuals:
1. Workers in the room at the time of the accident: external radiation from the neutrons and
gamma rays emitted during the prompt criticality phase of the accident.
2. Rescue workers after criticality stopped: external radiation from beta and gamma radiation
emitted by neutron activation and fission products released during the accident.
3. Other individuals within 0.1 km to 1 km at the time and following the incident: 1 and 2
above, depending on distance and shielding and details on any released radionuclides, and
internal exposure from inhaled radioactive aerosols.
Comment: More specific information would have to be given for this case 3 to more
specifically state the primary exposure pathways.
C. A method used to quick sort persons potentially exposed during a criticality accident
includes the detection of neutron activation products, e.g., 15 h half-life Na-24, in the body by
detecting the gamma radiation emitted from the body with a GM survey meter.
Comment: It is assumed that the question refers only to persons directly involved and
exposed to fission neutrons emitted during the prompt critical phase of the accident.
D. Two medical interventions that could change the health outcome for an individual exposed to
750 rad include: 1. blood transfusions and 2. bone marrow transplants.
E. The unit rad is correctly used for an acute radiation dose from a criticality accident because
it more closely relates to the threshold, non-stochastic effects of cell death and organ or tissue
functions. The unit rem is reserved primarily for chronic occupational exposures, and it is
used to estimate the risk of stochastic effects of cancer and hereditary disease.
3
C
C
QUESTION 2
GIVEN: an open-air, cylindrical ion chamber calibrated to give correct response at temperature
T
1
of 20 /C or 293 / /K and pressure P
1
of 760 mm Hg is used to perform surveys at a
food irradiation facility that uses a 100 Ci
137
Cs source:
V / active volume of chamber = 235.5 cm
3
;
R / radius of chamber = 5 cm;
H / height of chamber = 3 cm; and
D D
air
/ density of air at STP ( 0 /C and 760 mm Hg) = 1.29 kg m
-3
= 0.00129 g cm
-3
.
Comment: The given value for the density D D
air
is recognized as the value at standard temperature
and pressure or STP ( 0 /C and 760 mm Hg); although, this was not stated as given information
in the question. Normal temperature and pressure or NTP are respectively 20 /C and
760 mm Hg, which are the stated calibration values for the ion chamber. The failure of this ABHP
question to specify the temperature/pressure conditions for the given value of D D
air
should be
considered in grading solutions to this question.
SOLUTIONS AND ANSWERS(C C) TO PARTS A THROUGH C:
A. The current I in A for an exposure rate X0 0of 1 R h
-1
based on the assumption of NTP
conditions not stated in this part of the question is calculated:
Comment: The temperature pressure conditions should have been stated in the question, and this
omission should be considered in grading solutions to this part of the question.
B. A measurement X0 0of 12.6 R h
-1
is made at a pressure P of 740 mm Hg and a temperature T
of 35 /C or 308 / /K. The corrected or true exposure rate X0 0
c
is calculated:
C. A measurement X0 0of 20 mR h
-1
is made under NTP conditions in a beam from a crack in a
shield having a width W of 1 cm. Under the assumption that the axis of the ion chamber is
4
C
C
parallel to the surface of the shield and perpendicular to the length of the crack and that the
length of the crack exceeds the diameter, 2 R, of the ion chamber, the corrected exposure rate
X0 0
c
in the exit beam is then calculated:
Comment: Under the assumption that the axis of the ion chamber is directly over the
midpoint of the crack and is either parallel or perpendicular to the length of the crack and
shield surface and that the length of the crack exceeds the diameter, 2R, and height, H, of the
ion chamber, the corrected exposure rate X0 0
c
in the exit beam is then approximated by:
5
C
C
QUESTION 3
GIVEN: neutron activation of manganese:
F F / Mn-55 activation cross section for reaction, Mn-55(n,( )Mn-56 = 13.3x10
-24
cm
2
at
-1
;
A
wt
/ atomic weight of manganese and of Mn-55 for 100% abundance = 55 g mole
-1
;
T
1/2
/ half-life of Mn-56 = 2.58 h = ; so
8 8 / decay constant of Mn-56 = (ln 2)/(T
1/2
) = 7.46x10
-5
s
-1
;
D / density of air at STP = 0.00129 g cm
-3
; and
Energies E
i
and fractional yields Y
i
of the Mn-56 associated decay gamma photons, i = 1 to 3:
E
1
= 0.847 MeV and Y
1
= 1; E
2
= 1.81 MeV and Y
2
= 0.27; and E
3
= 2.11 MeV and Y
3
= 0.14,
which yield a total photon energy E per disintegration: E = E E
i
Y
i
= 1.63 MeV per decay.
SOLUTIONS AND ANSWERS(C C) TO PARTS A AND B:
A. The neutron flux (i.e. fluence rate) N N in n cm
-2
s
-1
needed to produce a saturation activity A of
0.31 mCi of Mn-56 or 1.15x10
7
Bq in a thin manganese target having a mass m of 1 g is
calculated:
The assumed constant number of target atoms N of Mn-55 is calculated:
The saturation activity A is given by the product FNN; so
B. The exposure rate X0 0in mR h
-1
at a time interval t of 1 h or 3,600 s after irradiation ends is
calculated for the Mn-56 source having an activity A of 0.31 mCi at the end of irradiation for
a distance d of 0.5 m or 1.64 feet from the empirical relationship:
Comment: The question asks for the gamma dose equivalent rate (in air) to a student, which is
confusing because dose equivalent only applies to tissue and not air. The dose equivalent rate H0 0in
mrem h
-1
to the student is about (0.98) X0 0or 0.845 mrem h
-1
.
6
C
C
QUESTION 4
GIVEN: accidental release of
131
I in a laboratory and exposure of a worker:
A / / activity instantaneously vaporized at t = 0 and uniformly distributed = 15,000 : : Ci;
V / room air volume = 125 m
3
;
t / exposure time interval for worker = 1 h;
B / breathing rate = 1.2 m
3
h
-1
;
F / room ventilation = 100 m
3
h
-1
; so
K / ventilation removal rate constant = F/V = 0.800 h
-1
;
F
th
/ fraction of
131
I in blood that deposits in thyroid = 0.3;
F
d
/ fraction of
131
I inhaled that deposits in respiratory tract and reaches blood = 0.75; and
D
u
/ committed absorbed dose per unit activity uptake by thyroid = 5.5 rad : : Ci
-1
.
SOLUTIONS AND ANSWERS(C C) TO PARTS A AND B:
A. The uptake U by the thyroid and the thyroid committed dose D are calculated:
When removal of
131
I from the room air volume is assumed to be dominated by ventilation and
when decay of 8.05 day half-life
131
I is neglected, the uptake U and dose D are calculated:
and
B. If urinalysis and thyroid counting are assumed to comprise any bioassay of involved
individuals, then five additional actions that should be taken include:
1. Report the incident to the appropriate regulatory authority.
2. Estimate the workers thyroid dose from thyroid counting, and report this dose to the
workers supervisor and appropriate regulatory authorities.
3. Review the incident with the affected worker and the workers supervisor including regulatory
requirements and laboratory control procedures to limit contamination and exposures of
personnel.
4. Require the worker to attend a training program commensurate with the exposure potential.
5. Require that all handling and processing of radioactive material, such as the evaporation of
volatile radioactive material, take place in a fume hood.
7
C
C
C
QUESTION 5
GIVEN: a 1.75 inch diameter GM instrument with a labeled efficiency E of 0.20 cpm/dpm
based on a calibration with a one inch diameter
137
Cs source in an aluminum planchet;
table of radionuclides with radiations and intensities.
SOLUTIONS AND ANSWERS(C C) TO PARTS A THROUGH D:
A. The expected counting rate R from a
99
Tc source having an activity A of 1 : : Ci based on the
given efficiency E of 0.2 cpm/dpm for
137
Cs is calculated:
B. Four possible reasons why an observed counting rate of 3x10
5
cpm for
99
Tc is lower than the
calculated counting rate based on the efficiency E for
137
Cs include: 1. The effective solid
angle for detection for the larger
99
Tc source is smaller than that for the smaller
137
Cs source.
2. Back scatter of beta particles from the plastic backing of the
99
Tc source is smaller than that
from the aluminum backing of the
137
Cs source. 3. Absorption of the lower energy beta
particles from the
99
Tc source in the source itself, the intervening air, and the window of the
GM detector is greater than that for the higher energy beta particles emitted from the
137
Cs
source. 4. Gamma rays associated with the decay of
137
Cs also contribute to the response from
the
137
Cs source while no gamma rays are associated with the
99
Tc source.
C. The
137
Cs MDA in dpm is calculated for a 95% confidence level (i.e., for a false negative
probability $ = 0.05 corresponding to the normal deviate Z
$
= 1.645), for a sample counting
interval T
s+b
of 1 minute, background rate R
b
of 50 cpm, an assumed background counting
interval T
b
of 1 minute, and for an assumed lower limit of detection corresponding to a false
positive probability " of 0.05 so that the normal deviate Z
"
= Z
$
= Z = 1.645, and for the
assumption that the net counting rates are approximated by a normal distribution:
D. The true counting rate R
T
is calculated for an observed counting rate R
O
of 100,000 cpm and
a GM dead time J J of 50 : s or 8.33x10
-7
minutes per count:
8
C
C
C
QUESTION 6
GIVEN: data for preparing a special incident report for a male worker of age N = 27 years:
quarterly external deep dose equivalents H
i
of 0.7 rem, 1.2 rem, 1.8 rem, and 0.3 rem
respectively in the i = 1
st
to 4
th
quarter, which sum to a total external deep dose
equivalent H
total
of 4 rem for the year; inhalation intakes I
j
(j = 1 to j = 2) in the first
quarter: I
1
= 80 : : Ci of
137
Cs and I
2
= 19.5 : : Ci of
131
I, whose inhalation, stochastic-
effect-based annual limit on intakes (SALIs) are equal: SALI
1
= SALI
2
= 200 : : Ci.
The inhalation, non-stochastic-effect-based annual limit on intake (NALI) is the
limiting ALI for I-131: NALI
2
= 50 : : Ci of
131
I.
A. The committed dose equivalent (CDE) to the thyroid from the
131
I intake is calculated:
B. The committed effective dose equivalent (CEDE) from all intakes is calculated based on the
assumption that an intake of 1 SALI of any radionuclide corresponds to a CEDE of 5 rem:
C. The total effective dose equivalent (TEDE) is calculated as follows from the sum of the
annual total deep dose equivalent H
total
of 4 rem calculated from the sum of the given
quarterly values shown in the given information to this question and assumed to apply to this
part and from the CEDE of 1.2 rem from radionuclide intake stated in this part. This given
CEDE is assumed to include the contribution of 0.780 rem calculated from the product of the
stated CDE of 26 rem to the thyroid and an assumed stochastic-effect-based thyroid weighting
factor w
T
of 0.03; so the TEDE is calculated:
which does exceed the TEDE limit of 5 rem recommended by the NCRP from exposures in
any control year of practice and the limit of 1 rem per year if this workers lifetime
occupational dose happens to exceed a TEDE of N rem or 27 rem. Information is not
9
provided to evaluate this latter lower limit of 1 rem (See comment below.).
Comment: This part to the question does not make it clear to the candidate what given
information in the question should be included in the calculation of the CEDE and then the
TEDE, and this lack of clarity should be considered in grading this part to the question. It is
not clear whether or not the given CEDE of 1.2 rem includes the contribution of 0.780 rem
from the stated CDE of 26 rem to the thyroid. The word intake in the statement, Assume
you have calculated a CEDE from radionuclide intake of 1.2 rem..., is a singular word, which
might lead the candidate to add the calculated 0.780 rem CEDE contribution from the stated
26 rem CDE to the thyroid. The word intake should be replaced by all intakes or at least
intakes to make the meaning clear. A candidate should not be required to guess at the
ABHP meaning in statements of given information. Because part B already requires a
candidate to calculate a CEDE from all relevant intake data, there is no point in using obtuse
wording in this part to test a candidates knowledge on this point again.
10
C
C
QUESTION 7
GIVEN: An intake I of 5 ALI (non-stochastic, based on bone surface limit) at a company
designated by index 1 employing Pu-239; an intake I of 5 ALI (non-stochastic, based
on thyroid limit) at another company designated by index 2 employing I-131; and a
tissue stochastic-effect-based weighting factor w
T
of 0.03 in either case.
A. The committed dose equivalent (CDE) to the bone surface for the worker at company 1 and
to the thyroid for the worker at company 2 are recognized to be the same value calculated:
Their individual contributions to the committed effective dose equivalents (CEDE) are the
same value calculated for either worker at company 1 and company 2:
B. Removal of the thyroid to preclude the likelihood of thyroid cancer is not justified because the
cancer mortality risk is small and approximately given by the product of the CEDE and the
ICRP 26 risk factor of 1x10
4
rem
-1
or (7.5)(1x10
4
) or 7.5x10
-4
(0.075% chance). Also,
thyroid cancer is an easily diagnosed and treatable cancer.
C. Three arguments against the argument that tumors were caused 1 year later in both workers
by their intakes of 5 ALI include: 1. The ALIs are designed to prevent non-stochastic effects
that might cause the impairment of the functions of the respective tissues, and these limits are
less than the stochastic-effect-based ALIs. 2. The risk of cancer mortality in either case is
small, about a 0.0.08% chance during the remaining lifetime. 3. In either case, the latent
period following irradiation for the observation of the cancer greatly exceeds the time for the
observation of tumors 1 year after the intake, and for the case of the worker at company 1
who had an intake of Pu-239, most of the committed dose will not even have occurred
because of the relatively long effective half-life of 50 years for Pu-239.
D. With respect to the administration of the chelating agent DPTA to the worker at company 1:
1. It is appropriate for Pu-239 because the DPTA combines with Pu-239 in the blood , and it is
then excreted in the urine with the Pu-239 thereby preventing the deposition of Pu-239 in
bone and liver. The DPTA does not affect the I-131 in the blood. Also, most of the
I-131intake is rapidly taken up into the blood and rapidly deposited in the thyroid before a
11
blocking agent, e.g., KI, or any chelating agent could be administered.
2. Three factors that most contribute to the effectiveness of the DPTA following the inhalation
intake include: (a) the timeliness of the administration of the DPTA shortly after the intake to
assure that Pu-239 in blood uptake, primarily from certain respiratory tract compartments, is
chelated and excreted with the urine before it has a chance to deposit in the bone and liver; (b)
the inhalation chemical compound class which affects the solubility and transportability of the
Pu-239, thereby affecting the uptake of Pu-239 into the blood and the relative saving in dose
to bone and liver; and (c) the type of DPTA (zinc or calcium) and whether or not the toxicity
of the DPTA and the general health of the patient would allow especially extended treatment
which could yield dose savings that would justify the toxicity risks.
E. Three changes in the ICRP 66 lung model relative to the ICRP 30 model include: 1. an
increase in the default AMAD from 1 : m to 5 : m for evaluating occupational exposures and
for deriving intake to dose conversion factors or ALIs, and DACs and a large extension in the
applicable particle size range; 2. extension of the models application from occupationally
exposed adults to children, smokers versus non-smokers, and mouth breathers versus nose
breathers; and 3. change from the inhalation chemical compound classes of D, W, and Y,
which did not specifically relate to mechanical and dissolution clearance pathways, to the
classifications F, M, and S (fast, moderate, and slow clearance), which treat mechanical and
dissolution clearance pathways specifically.
12
QUESTION 8
GIVEN: electron accelerator for which shielding is required:
E / electron energy = 20 MeV;
I / peak current = 1 A = 1,000 mA;
L / pulse length =1 : s = 10
-6
s;
F / pulse frequency = 10 Hz = 10 s
-1
;
Z
W
/ tungsten atomic number = 74;
Z
Cu
/ copper atomic number = 29, and
five figures from NCRP 51.
SOLUTIONS AND ANSWERS (C C) TO PARTS A THROUGH E:
A. The concrete wall thickness (density = 2.35 g cm
-3
) to yield 0.5 mrem h
-1
when the dose point
is at 90
o
from the beam direction and 5 meters from the target is calculated:
The average beam current I
avg
is calculated:
I
avg
= (I)(L)(F) = (1000 mA)(10
-6
s)(10 s
-1
) = 10
-2
mA.
The output D0 0
Io
I
-1
of 2000 rads m
2
mA
-1
min
-1
at 90
o
for 20 MeV is read from Fig. E.1. The
dose rate at 5 meters in the 90
o
degree direction is then obtained:
D
5m
= (I
avg
)(2000 rads m
2
mA
-1
min
-1
)(1/5 m)
2
= 0.800 rads min
-1
,
which is equivalent to 0.800 rem min
-1
or 800 mrem min
-1
since the quality factor for
bremsstrahlung is unity.
The required transmission, T, is then calculated:
T = (0.5 mrem h
-1
)/((800 mrem min
-1
)(60 min h
-1
)) = 1.04x10
-5
.
The bremsstrahlung at 90
o
has a lower effective energy than that in the beam direction, and
Fig. E.6 may be used to incorporate the difference by finding an equivalent electron energy
that would yield the desired photon energy distribution. From the figure, the equivalent
electron energy is slightly above 10 MeV for the given 20 MeV incident electron energy. I
shall assume 10 MeV. From Fig. E.8, using the 10 MeV curve, we may read the required
concrete thickness (density = 2.35 g cm
-3
) as 190 cm for the required transmission value T
of 1.04x10
-5
:
13
C required thickness = 190 cm.
B. If the required transmission T is 10
-4
and the existing concrete wall thickness x
1
is 30 inches,
the required additional lead thickness x
2
is calculated:
From the approach used in part A, a thickness x
1
of 30 inches of concrete yields a
transmission T
1
= 10
-2
for photons produced by 10 MeV electrons. Thus, the additional
transmission T
2
required of the lead is calculated:
T
2
= T/T
1
= 10
-4
/10
-2
= 10
-2
,
and this additional transmission may be obtained by adding two tenth value layers of lead.
From Fig. E.14 (solid curve), at an electron energy of 10 MeV, 1 TVL = 2.2 in. Thus,
C The required added thickness is (2)(2.2 in) = 4.4 in = 11.2 cm of lead.
C. Five parameters important to the estimation of the emission of radiation from an accelerator
are described: 1. Average beam current: Radiation output varies linearly with average beam
current. 2. Beam particle energy: As energy increases, radiation yields from the target
typically increase, and nuclear reactions not possible at low energies become important.
3. Beam particle type: Electrons will produce bremsstrahlung radiation as they strike the
target, and at energies / 8 MeV, which corresponds approximately to the binding energies of
nucleons, photoneutron production becomes increasingly important. In positive ion
accelerators, positive ions most notably produce neutrons from direct nuclear interactions of
beam particles with nuclei within the target. 4. Atomic number of target nuclei: Typical
bremsstrahlung yields increase for electron machines as atomic number increases. Radiation
yields from positive ion accelerators markedly increase once the kinetic energy of the positive
ion exceeds the coulomb potential barrier of target nuclei, which varies as the square of the
atomic number of the target nuclei. 5. Target thickness: Radiation yields vary with target
thickness, typically reaching a peak at a specific thickness.
D. Five considerations for selecting shielding materials for an accelerator include: 1. Type(s) of
radiation; 2. Energies of radiation; 3. Atomic number; 4. Mass density; and 5. Hydrogen
content as it relates to neutron shielding.
E. For the specified beam particles and energies, two principle radiations of concern for occupied
areas are listed for each type of accelerator a through e: a. Potential drop with
protons/deuterons of 1-10 MeV:1. neutrons and 2. bremsstrahlung from back-streaming
electrons; b. Electron linear with electrons 1-10 MeV: 1. bremsstrahlung and 2. neutrons if
14
selected target used, e.g., Be at E > 1.62 MeV or high Z targets at E / 8 MeV; otherwise,
direct or scattered electrons; c. electron linear with electrons > 10 MeV: 1. bremsstrahlung
and 2. neutrons; d. Cyclotron with protons/deuterons 10-50 MeV: 1. neutrons and 2.
gamma rays; and e. Betatron with electrons 1-50 MeV: 1. bremsstrahlung and 2. neutrons.
15
QUESTION 9
GIVEN: laser information including limiting aperture of 7 mm, transmission and absorption
graphs, and figure depicting anatomy of the eye.
A. For the specified four types of lasers, the anatomical structures that are most sensitive to
damage include, for the following stated reasons: 1. Far infrared, CO
2
(10.6 : : m): Cornea
because this wavelength is strongly absorbed by most organic molecules, including those in
corneal tissue, which is located on the outer eye structure; 2. Visible, gold vapor laser (0.628
: : m): Retina because this wavelength is transmitted to the retina and largely absorbed in the
pigmented retinal epithelium, thereby causing thermal effects and damage; 3. UV-A, nitrogen
laser (0.337 : : m): Lens because this longer wavelength UV-A radiation can be absorbed in
the lens producing photochemical effects leading to possible cataracts; 4. UV-C, krypton
fluoride excimer laser (0.248 : : m): Cornea because this shorter wavelength UV-C radiation
is strongly absorbed superficially in corneal tissues thereby producing effects such as
conjunctivitis and possibly corneal clouding.
B. MPEs vary considerably between wavelengths of 0.647 : m(red) and 0.530 : m (green)
because the retinal tissue is the major tissue at risk, and the first pathology occurs in the
pigmented retinal epithelium (PRE). The damage to the retinal tissue varies with wavelength
because: 1. the percentage of light transmitted to the retina and PRE varies with wavelength;
2. the energies of the photons, and the consequent thermal energy produced by absorption,
vary inversely with wavelength; and 3. the efficiency of absorption of photons by melanin in
the PRE varies somewhat with wavelength.
C. Skin effects associated with the following UV bands include: 1. UV-A: This band is reflected
to a significant extent and unless the individual is unusually photosensitive, e.g., through the
use of certain chemical sensitizers, significant adverse skin effects would not be expected.
Skin tanning and short-duration erythema are possible minor effects. 2. UV-B and 3.UV-C:
Both of these bands could be expected, at significant exposures, to produce erythema, skin
tanning, premature skin aging, and possibly skin cancer at a future time. Melanoma seems to
be most strongly associated with UV-B exposure.
D. The maximum allowable laser power output P in mW is calculated based on stated
assumptions and pertinent given data:
MPE / maximum permissible exposure = 0.01 J cm
-2
;
d / / beam diameter = 3.5 mm = 0.35 cm; and
16
C
C
t / maximum alignment time = 1.2 s.
E. The evaluation of whether or not the Q-switched laser equipment is appropriate to use in a
show involving the scanning of the audience with a laser beam is made from the given
pertinent data, calculated quantities, and assumed quantities:
P / power, assumed in a single pulse = 40 W;
W / pulse width = 20 : s = 2x10
-5
s;
F / pulse frequency = 25 kHz = 2.5x10
4
s
-1
; so
P) ) / average power assumed to be delivered to an observer = P W F = 20 W;
d
a
/ beam diameter = 2 mm = 0.2 cm;
r / laser to audience distance = 25 m = 2,500 cm;
N N / beam divergence = 0.2 milliradians = 2x10
-4
radians;
R / assumed lateral scan rate of audience = 20,000 cm s
-1
;
d
p
/ assumed maximum pupil diameter = 7 mm = 0.7 cm; so
t / maximum eye exposure time in scan of audience = d
p
/R = 3.50x10
-5
s; and
MPE / maximum permissible exposure = 1.8 t
3/4
x10
-3
J cm
-2
; so
MPE = 8.19x10
-7
J cm
-2
.
The energy M M in J delivered to the eye of an observer is calculated from the product of the
average delivered power P) ) of 20 W and the maximum eye exposure time t of 3.5 x10
-5
s,
which yields a value of 7x10
-4
J for M M. This value for M M is used along with other given bolded
quantities listed above and in the equation for the nominal ocular hazard distance (NOHD)
given in the attached list of Useful Equations and Constants to evaluate the appropriateness of
the laser:
which greatly exceeds the listed distance r of 25 meter from the laser. Therefore, this laser
would not be appropriate for the proposed use.
17
C
QUESTION 10
GIVEN: air sampling data at a downwind location from a brush fire over land contaminated
with plutonium:
F
a
/ fraction of alpha particles not absorbed in filter = 0.4;
R / filter retention = 0.8;
S
d
/ detector active area = 60 cm
2
;
r
b
/ background rate = 3 cpm;
t
b
/ background counting interval = 60 minutes;
R
1
/ first gross sample counting rate = 50 cpm;
t
g
/ first sample counting interval = 10 minutes;
R
2
/ second gross sample counting rate = 36 cpm;
t
g
/ second sample counting interval = 10 minutes;
t / time between start of first to start of second sample counting interval = 60 minutes;
E / alpha detection efficiency assumed uniform over S
d
= 0.3 cpm/dpm;
S
f
/ active filter area with uniform activity distribution = 500 cm
2
;
B / breathing rate = 1.2 m
3
/h;
t
1/2
/ effective half-life of Rn-222 progeny on filter = 30 minutes;
<CEDE/I> /
239
Pu CEDE per unit inhalation intake = 5x10
-5
Sv/Bq; and
LLD equation, which is in units of net counts and is expressed in terms of r
b
, t
b
, and t
g
.
A. The
239
Pu airborne activity concentration U in Bq m
-3
is calculated from the given data, stated
assumptions, and a sample air volume V of 1 m
3
:
The initial counting rate R
0
from radon progeny at the time of the first count of the filter is
calculated:
Thus, U is calculated from the first sample count and other given data:
18
C
C
Comment: The simple correction for radon progeny in part A above is based on stated
assumptions in the question. Such simple corrections may cause a gross error in calculated
concentrations, and such inappropriate corrections should not be encouraged by the ABHP in
their exams (See comments for part B below and for part A in question 13.).
B. The LLD in cpm is obtained from the given equation in units of net counts by dividing the
given equation by the symbol t
g
for the gross sample counting interval, which yields:
Comment: A given equation in any question or in the attached list of Useful Equations and
Constants has very little meaning when symbols are not defined and the units for the algebraic
quantities are not specified. The given equation for the LLD in this question is in units of net
counts, but the units are not specified. This part B asks for the LLD in units of cpm. If the
ABHP meant to confuse candidates, I believe that it has succeeded whether or not this confusion
was intended or not. Obviously, the same symbol, LLD, should not be used for two separate
quantities, one in terms of net counts and the other in terms of net counting rate. The actual LLD
also depends on interference from radon progeny, but this interference is not taken into account in
the given equation. The above stated obtuseness should be considered by the ABHP panel in
grading this part B of Question 10.
C. The committed effective dose equivalent (CEDE) is calculated from the given <CEDE/I>
value of 5x10
-5
Sv Bq
-1
and for the given exposure to a concentration U of 20 Bq
3
for a
time interval t of 4 h at a breathing rate B of 1.2 m
3
h
-1
:
D. Five ways of improving the dose estimate for off-site individuals include: 1. determination of
the particle size distribution and AMAD of collected
239
Pu aerosol particles on the filter;
2. correcting the calculated respiratory tract deposition for the actual AMAD; 3. correcting
the <CEDE/I> factor for the actual AMAD; 4. determination of the inhalation compound
classes for the
239
Pu aerosol particles and taking this information into consideration in
calculating a revised <CEDE/I> factor; and 5. collecting and analyzing deposited plutonium
aerosol particles at various downwind locations and relating this data and other data obtained
in 1 through 4 above along with an estimate of the settling velocity of
239
Pu aerosols to the
total exposures and calculated doses of individuals at these locations.
19
E. Five methods to reduce the potential long term dose to individuals from exposures in brush
five events over contaminated land include: 1. limitation of the amount of brush over
contaminated land through the use of defoliation agents; 2. establishment of fire breaks
between contaminated land areas and other land areas with a significant amount of brush and
fire potential; 3. decontamination of areas where the potential exists for resuspension of
radioactive materials; 4. early warning of individuals in downwind locations to shelter
themselves and close intake ventilation of homes if potential exposure and dose are not too
high; and 5. early warning of individuals in downwind locations to evacuate area if potential
exposures and corresponding doses would warrant such an evacuation.
Comment: I do not believe that contamination levels of sufficiently high specific activity exist in
the United States that would have the potential of causing significant downwind airborne
concentrations of concern despite the concerns expressed in the media about recent fires near Los
Alamos. From this standpoint, the calculated airborne concentration is unrealistically high,
especially when the dilution associated with the wind and large volumes of air needed to sustain a
brush fire are considered.
20
C
C
QUESTION 11
GIVEN: radon flux measurements from soil and from concrete surface into a home along with
other given data defined by symbols and units given in the question, except for the
same symbols converted to different bolded units used in equations shown in the
following solutions and in other expanded symbol definitions:
F
eq
/ equilibrium factor / (C
WL
)(100 pCi L
-1
WL
-1
)/(U) = 0.4, where:
C
WL
/ concentration of Rn-222 progeny in number of WL, and
U / steady state radon concentration actually present, pCi L
-1
, and
100 pCi L
-1
WL
-1
/ radon concentration needed to sustain 1 WL of progeny under secular
equilibrium conditions, i.e., when there is no removal of radon or of each progeny from the air
volume other than by radioactive decay therefore resulting in a steady state activity
concentration of radon which equals that for each progeny.
K
V
= 0.5 h
-1
= 1.39x10
-4
s
-1
; and
8 8 / decay constant for Rn-222 = (ln 2)/T
1/2
= 2.10x10
-6
s
-1
; so
k / total removal rate constant for Rn-222 = K
V
+ 8 = 1.41x10
-4
s
-1
.
SOLUTIONS AND ANSWERS(C C) TO PARTS A THROUGH F:
A. The steady state indoor radon concentration U in pCi L
-1
is calculated:
B. The annual exposure rate E in WLM per year for a radon concentration U of 14 pCi L
-1
is
calculated:
From the given value of 0.4 for F
eq
, the concentration C
WL
of progeny is calculated:
and so the exposure E is calculated for the given occupancy factor F of 0.7 and the definition
of 170 h per occupational month:
21
C. Four sources of uncertainty in the application of the results from epidemiological studies of
underground miners to health effects in the general population include:
1. Miners were heavy smokers and their epidemiological data will most likely overestimate the
risk to non-smoking occupants of a home especially if radon and smoke acted synergistically
in causing the high incidence of lung cancers observed in miners.
2. Miners also may have been exposed to other carcinogens, e.g., diesel smoke and dusts
including radioactive species such as uranium, thorium, and their progeny that are not present
in a home but which might have been partially responsible for lung cancers observed in miners.
3. The unattached radon progeny cause most of the dose to the bronchial epithelium, and the
fraction of progeny unattached to condensation nuclei and other aerosol particles in a mine
differs from that in a home.
4. The breathing pattern of miners differs from that of occupants of homes.
D. Four sources of uncertainty in the dosimetric model for the respiratory tract as applied to risk
estimates from radon exposures include:
1. The fraction of radon progeny unattached to condensation nuclei and other aerosol particles
can greatly alter the deposition and dose to the critical bronchial epithelium tissue.
2. The thickness of the mucous sheet can greatly influence the dose to the underlying critical
basal cells and this thickness may vary with smokers and non-smokers and the degree of any
respiratory disease.
3. The deposition of radon progeny in various regions of the respiratory tract can vary with the
breathing pattern, e.g., nose versus mouth breathing, and this deposition can vary in
individuals from values assumed in the dosimetric model.
4. The rate of clearance of deposited radon progeny aerosols from various regions of the
respiratory tract may vary considerably from individual to individual and from the default
values used in the dosimetric model.
E. Four methods to reduce radon entry into a home or building include: 1. seal cracks in
foundation; 2. ventilate crawl spaces with outdoor air; 3. maintain a positive pressure in the
basement relative to that of soil gas, e.g., by using outdoor air for combustion of fuel in the
furnace and/or pressuring basement with a fan; 4. strip high levels of radon from well water or
absorb radon on charcoal filters before well water is used in a house.
F. The answer for the factor reduction of radon in water in pCi L
-1
to radon in air in pCi L
-1
is
D. 10,000 to 1 reduction.
22
C
C
QUESTION 12
GIVEN: patient administered
131
I for Graves disease and pertinent data:
F / fractional uptake by patients thyroid = 0.60;
T
e
/ effective half-life in patient, which I assume to include decay = 5 d; so
k / effective removal rate constant = (ln2)/T
e
= 0.139 d
-1
= 1.60x10
-6
s
-1
; and
S / dose per unit cumulated activity = 1.57x10
-3
mGy MBq
-1
s
-1
.
A. The administered
131
I activity A in MBq needed for a dose D of 70 Gy or 70,000 mGy is
calculated:
B. The external dose H to the spouse is calculated for an administered activity A of 1480 MBq,
distance d of 1 meter, exposure time t of 8 h over a period of 24 h; and gamma constant ' ' of
7.647x10
-5
mSv h
-1
MBq
-1
m
2
when decay and biological elimination are neglected:
C. Given that the dose equivalent to the patients spouse is 2.5 mSv or 0.25 rem if the patient is
released immediately after administration, the licensee is in compliance with requirements of
10CFR35 which allows release if it is not likely that any individual coming in contact with the
patient will receive a dose greater than 0.5 rem.
D. Four general precautionary measures that should be suggested to the patient for perhaps a
month include: 1. not to nurse an infant until sufficient clearance of
131
I has taken place; 2. not
to hold an infant or child for an extended period of time; 3. to maintain distance between self
and other persons and to limit contact with persons; and 4. the tongue-in-cheek precaution of
limiting sexual contact with others, especially nuclear power plant radiation workers, e.g.
health physics technicians, who may be mistakenly thought to have had an occupational
exposure to I-131 and/or who may contaminate samples used in the evaluation of their
workplace.
23
C
QUESTION 13
GIVEN: use of CAM beginning at 0800 hours to monitor airborne beta emitting radionuclides
at a power reactor facility and data relating to an airborne release:
F / monitor flow rate = 1 ft
3
min
-1
= 2.83x10
4
cm
3
min
-1
;
R / filter retention = 0.9;
E / counting efficiency = 0.3 c d
-1
;
R
b
/ background rate excluding collected radon progeny on filter = 70 c min
-1
;
T
1/2
/ effective half-life of radon progeny = 30 minutes; so
8 / effective decay constant for radon progeny = (ln2)/T
1/2
= 0.0231 min
-1
; and
Table of ALIs in : : Ci and DACs in : : Ci cm
-3
for Co-60, I-131, and Cs-137.
A. A radon progeny beta concentration U
1
of 3x10
-10
: : Ci cm
-3
is present with an effective
half-life of 27 minutes. At 0900 hours or for a sampling interval t
1
of 60 minutes, the gross
counting rate R
g
that should be observed on the monitor is calculated:
Comment and assumptions: It is not clear what is meant by the given phrase, ...beta
concentration of 3x10
-10
: Ci cm
-3
with an effective half-life of approximately 27 minutes.
How does the concentration have an effective half-life? I assume that the stated effective
half-life refers to the activity of radon progeny on the filter sample and not that associated
with the airborne concentration of progeny. The beta activities of the radon progeny,
27 minute half-life Pb-214 and its daughter 20 minute half-life Bi-214, would not exist on the
filter under transient equilibrium conditions at any significant activity level; so a 27 minute
effective half-life is not likely. The apparent or effective half-life would vary with the
sampling time, the relative airborne concentrations of radon progeny, and the time after the
end of sampling. The effective half-life after the end of sampling would vary from a value of
about 45 minutes at 20 minutes after the end of sampling to a value corresponding to the
transient equilibrium value of 27 minutes at about 600 minutes after the end of sampling. An
approximate effective half-life of about 35 minutes might be observed at 60 minutes after
the end of sampling. The radon progeny effective half-life stated in this part of the question
differs from that given above; so the radon progeny effective decay constant is calculated
now: 8 8 = (ln 2)/(27 min) = 0.0257 min
-1
, which with other given data gives R
g
if it assumed
incorrectly that the given radon progeny concentration U
1
can be considered as representing a
single radionuclide having the values specified for 8, R, F, and E above:
24
C
C
C
C
B. From the observation of a net counting rate increase R
s
of 40,000 c min
-1
over a sampling
interval t of 10 minutes, the airborne concentration U of beta emitters with half-lives much
greater than 10 minutes is calculated on the assumption that no significant decay is associated
with radionuclides causing R
s
:
C. Four advantages of a whole body count over urine bioassay for detecting suspect inhalation
intakes of
137
Cs and
60
Co include: 1. Both radionuclides are easily detected by high intensity
gamma rays associated with their decay. 2 Whole body counting provides a rapid evaluation
of whether significant intakes took place, while urine bioassay generally requires a longer time
for the collection of 24 hour samples and the separate chemical processing and counting of the
samples. 3 Whole body counting provides a direct measurement of the body burden, which
can be directly related to the internal dose rate while urine bioassay requires the use of an
assumed biokinetic model for first the estimation of an intake from the urine data and then an
estimate of the committed dose from an intake to committed dose conversion factor based
upon the assumed biokinetic model. 4. Repetitive whole body counts provide a measure of the
clearance rate and the cumulated activity, which can be directly related to the internal dose
over the time of measurements while urine bioassay only indicates what has been excreted
with the urine and not the activity remaining in the body nor the activity that also may have
been excreted by other excretion pathways, e.g. by the fecal pathway.
D. For an air concentration U of 2x10
-6
: : Ci cm
-3
comprised of 25%
60
Co and 75%
137
Cs, the
CEDE for an exposure time t of 1 h is calculated since both DACs are based upon the
stochastic-effect-based limit of 5 rem for an exposure of 2000 DAC-h:
E. The CDE to the thyroid and the CEDE for an intake of 2 ALI of
131
I and an intake of
0.5 ALI of
137
Cs are calculated for a thyroid stochastic risk weighting factor w
T
of 0.03:
and
25
C
QUESTION 14
GIVEN: A researcher reported a spill in a laboratory where
32
P,
35
S, and
14
C are used, and
subsequent investigations indicate that wide spread contamination in a corridor with
three outside entrances and 12 attached rooms had occurred from a spill 24 hours ago.
Data for
35
S include values given and calculated:
E
max
/ maximum beta energy = 167.4 keV = 0.1674 MeV; so
, , / average energy, which is assumed to be absorbed in body = E
max
/3 = 0.0558 MeV;
T
b
/ biological half-life = 9.3 h = 0.388 day; and
T
r
/ physical half-life = 87.2 d; so
8 8
e
/ effective rate constant for removal of
35
S from body = (ln2)/T
b
+ (ln2)/T
r
= 1.79 d
-1
.
A. Four actions to ensure the extent of the spill is determined and contaminated areas properly
isolated include: 1. Except for members of a survey team, prevent personnel access to all
potentially contaminated areas. 2. Monitor for contamination those persons who had access
within the last 24 hours to potentially contaminated areas, especially their shoe bottoms, and
remove contaminated clothing and shoes. 3. Interview all persons who had access to
contaminated areas within the past 24 hours with respect to where they have been, and
identify on and off-site locations that will require surveying. 4. Perform contamination surveys
using wipes and portable instruments, e.g., thin window GM detector, to determine the extent
of contamination and the need for decontamination.
B. Three items that should be taken to the scene to assess and control the spill include: 1. thin
window pancake GM detector used in conjunction with rate meter having an audible output
for monitoring individuals and surfaces for beta activity; 2. absorbent paper to cover and
confine surface contamination, especially on floors; and 3. floor tape, yellow rope and
stanchions, and signs to demarcate and prevent access to contaminated areas.
C. Given a workers urine sample contains a concentration of 1500 dpm mL
-1
and that it may be
assumed this value reflects the average
35
S concentration in the body or a calculated mass
concentration C of 6.76x10
-4
: : Ci g
-1
and that the intake by the worker took place at a time
interval t 48 hours or 2 days ago, the CEDE in rem is calculated from this data and other
given bolded quantities listed in the given information above:
Comment: The stated assumption in this part to the question shown in quotes above is a
26
gross oversimplification. The assumption would apply to HTO in body water, but even then
the urine concentration should be corrected by the fraction of (42 kg/62 kg) or by 0.677 to
obtain the concentration in soft tissue. For
35
S and other internal emitters that are retained in
certain body compartments with much longer half-lives, the calculated residence time could be
much longer than that implied by the given biological half-life of 9.3 h for
35
S in this question.
The activity concentration of
35
S in the body would not be uniform. This instruction by the
ABHP is not justified, and it may encourage candidates to perform such overly simplified
internal dose calculations in their practice, thereby causing gross under estimates of internal
radiation doses.
D. Radionuclides present in the spill could be determined as follows. The most direct way would
be to ask the researcher what radionuclides he was working with when the spill occurred. If
this is not effective, it is relatively easy to distinguish
35
S and
14
C together from
32
P by a two
channel liquid scintillation counting system, where the lower energy beta particles from
35
S
and
14
C produce pulses in the lower energy channel and the much higher energy beta particles
from
32
P produce pulses mostly in the higher energy channel. If it is necessary to distinguish
35
S from
14
C, this differentiation can be made by placing some of the spilled contaminants in
aqueous solution, converting sulphur to the sulphate ion, adding stable sulphate ions to the
solution, precipitating the sulphate ion with excess barium ions, and filtering the precipitate.
The filtrate will contain
14
C and
32
P if present. If liquid scintillation counting of the filtrate
shows activity in the
14
C channel, but if such activity is less than what would be calculated by
scintillation counting prior to the precipitation, it can be concluded that
35
S was also present
along with
14
C in the spill. If no activity is found in the
14
C channel, then
14
C was not present in
the spill.
E. The following four items are evaluated with respect to (a) violation of federal/agreement state
regulations, (b) good work practices, or (c) not of concern:
1. personnel use radioactive materials before completing radiation safety training: (a) if not done
under direct supervision of an authorized user as part of the training program and (b).
2. a centrifuge contaminated to 1500 dpm/100 cm
2
: (b) but may be (c) if users are aware of it
and if the level of contamination is expected.
3. one millicurie of
14
C was used in un-posted rooms: (b).
2001
K.A.L., Inc., 2001
All Rights Reserved

COMPREHENSIVE EXAM INSTRUCTIONS

READ THESE INSTRUCTIONS CAREFULLY AND FOLLOW THEM CLOSELY

The first section (questions 16) consists of six fundamental questions. All six will be
graded.
The second section (questions 714) consists of eight specialty questions. Answer any
four. The proctor can accept only four answers from this section.

2. Questions 16 are each worth 50 points. Questions 714 are each worth 100 points. The
given.


a. Print your name.
b. Write your identification number.
c. Sign your name.

a. Identify yourself with each sheet by writing your number (not your name) in the upper right corner.
The graders can be objective when names do not appear.
c. When you have completed the answer to a question, go back and write beside the question number
the number of pages in your answer: Page 1 of _, Page 2 of _, etc., so that the grader knows that all
answers sheets are present.

6. This is a closed-book examination, so no texts or reference materials are permitted. Standard slide
rules may be used, but not the so-called "Health Physics" slide rules. Non-programmable electronic
calculators are permissible. Only those programmable calculators which have been previously
approved by the Board are allowed. All calculators must be checked by the proctor prior to the start of
the examination.

7. If the information given in a particular question appears to be inadequate, list any assumptions you
make in developing your solution. You may be asked to assume a value for a quantity that you have
calculated in a previous part of a question. Please use the assumed value as directed. This is done to
make each part independent of other parts of a question. The assumed value is not related to the
calculated value.

8. If you find you are running short of time, simply set up an outline showing clearly how you would
complete the solution without working out the actual numerical answer. Appropriate partial credit
will be given.

9. Return the completed cover sheet and your answer sheets to the proctor when you have completed the
examination. You may keep the copy of the examination.
Page 1 of 2

QUESTION 1

You are a health physicist at a nuclear power plant. During a routine frisk survey of a worker
exiting a controlled area, a hot particle is discovered. As an initial estimate of the potential
dose rate from this particle, a technician removed the particle using a piece of tape and then
measured the contact dose rate using an ion chamber with the end window open. Following that
initial measurement, the particle was taken to the gamma spectroscopy lab for analysis on a high
resolution germanium detector.

GIVEN

Specifications for air filled ionization chamber vented to atmosphere:
Detector volume 220 cm
3

Chamber window 7 mg cm
-2

Beta shield 1,000 mg cm
-2

The ionization chamber was calibrated using a gamma-only source.
Gamma spectrum analysis showing the following peaks:

0
5000
10000
15000
20000
25000
30000
0 0.5 1 1.5 2 2.5 3
E(MeV)
C
o
u
n
t
s
.308 .511
.659
.819
1.17 1.33
2.50
Page 2 of 2

POINTS

STATE ALL ASSUMPTIONS

4 A. When calculating the dose from a hot particle, what skin area and tissue depth is
generally assumed for the purpose of estimating the skin dose?

12 B. Is a dose measured by an ion chamber the true skin dose? State 3 reasons why
or why not. Number your responses. Only the first three answers will be
graded.

28 C. The gamma spectrum reveals that the activity of this particular hot particle is due
primarily to
60
Co. Given the seven peak energies shown on the spectrum graph
above, identify the most likely origin of each of the seven peaks and describe the
mechanism that causes each peak.

6 D. What three follow up actions would you take in the work area upon discovery of
this hot particle? Number your responses. Only the first three answers will
be graded.

Page 1 of 1

QUESTION 2

A radiobiology student comes to your office and asks for your assistance in studying for the final
exam. Answer the following questions in such a way that the student has a good chance of doing
well on the exam.

POINTS


12 A. Identify and describe two general mechanisms by which radiation can damage a
critical target in a cell. In your discussion identify which mechanism is usually
dominant with high-LET radiation. Number your responses. Only the first two
will be graded.

9 B. Name three (3) general types of biological effects of ionizing radiation that are
taken into consideration in the derivation of dose limits for radiation workers.

15 C. List five (5) deterministic effects resulting from exposure to acute, high dose rate
ionizing radiation. Number your responses. Only the first five will be graded.

5 D. What is the relationship between RBE and LET for low LET radiation (up to 100
keV/m)?

9 E. Rank the following forms of radiation in order of increasing RBE. (use 1 = low,
3 = high)

_____ 5 MeV protons
_____ Fission-spectrum neutrons
_____ 20 keV x-rays
Page 1 of 2

QUESTION 3

A 2 diameter hot liquid waste line carries 10 L min
-1

131
I waste, at a concentration of 50 Ci L
-1
,
through a closed room 3 m wide x 2 m deep x 3 m high to a shielded ion exchange unit in an
adjacent laboratory. The ventilation rate in the closed room is 5 m
3
min
-1
. A supervisor who
looks through the viewing port of the shielded door sees that a valve in the line is leaking at a
rate of 10 drops per minute. (The volume of each drop is 0.05 mL, the drops evaporate
immediately, and the iodine is immediately dispersed uniformly into the room air.) Another
supervisor estimates that a single mechanic can repair the valve in 1 hour.

GIVEN

Q
- t
V
G
C = 1 - e
Q
| `

. ,

where
G is the release rate,
Q is the ventilation rate, and
V is the volume.
Non-stochastic (thyroid) DAC for
131
I = 2 x 10
-8
Ci mL
-1

T
1/2
(
131
I) = 8.05 d
w
T
(thyroid) = 0.03

POINTS


10 A. 1) At what rate is
131
I being introduced into the atmosphere of the room? Show all
calculations.

2) If conditions remain the same, what is the maximum concentration that
airborne
131
I in the room could reach? Show all calculations.

10 B. What is the air turnover rate in the room, assuming complete, instantaneous
mixing? Show all calculations.

10 C. Assume that the air turnover rate is 0.1

min
-1
. How long will it take before the
atmospheric
131
I concentration is reduced to 1% of its value after the leak has been
stopped? Show all calculations.

Page 2 of 2

10 D. Assume that the room concentration is 8 x 10
-9
Ci mL
-1
. What would be the
mechanics committed effective dose equivalent (CEDE) if he spends 1 hour in
the room without respiratory protection (according to current US regulations per
10CFR20 and 10CFR835) with the room ventilation turned off for the duration?
Assume that contributions to the CEDE from other organs is negligible. Show all
calculations.

10 E. Based on the situation initially described above, what are two actions that you
would recommend be taken prior to allowing the mechanic to enter the room?
Number your responses. Only the first two will be graded. Justify each
answer.
Page 1 of 2

QUESTION 4

You are the project health physicist decommissioning a hot cell that manufactured thermoelectric
generators from
90
Sr, with strontium nitrate being converted to strontium titanate. Most of the
radioactivity is in steel tubing in the hot cell and only strontium nitrate has been found so far. All
external surfaces within the hot cell and the adjacent isolation room also have high levels of
removable and fixed surface contamination.

GIVEN

ICRP-30 model
The stochastic inhalation ALI for Class D
90
Sr = 20 Ci
The non-stochastic inhalation ALI (Bone Surfaces) for Class D
90
Sr = 20 Ci
The stochastic inhalation ALI for Class Y
90
Sr = 4 Ci
Strontium nitrate is Class D and strontium titanate is Class Y.
Counting efficiency of GM instrument with a pancake probe for
90
Sr
on an air filter paper = 25%
Air flow of a high volume air sampler = 4.0 L min
-1

Reference Man breathing rate (light activity) = 20 L min
-1

From NUREG/CR 4884, the fraction of any initial intake of
Class D
90
Sr in a 24-hour urine void beginning directly after intake = 0.0857

POINTS


15 A. A worker in the isolation room may have been exposed to airborne
90
Sr. Identify
two (2) qualitative measures you can take to see if the individual was exposed.
Number your responses. Only the first two will be graded. Identify three (3)
quantitative analyses you can do to estimate exposure. Number your responses.
Only the first three will be graded.

15 B. Assume that the worker was exposed to strontium nitrate and that a 24 hour urine
void taken directly after the exposure has a
90
Sr activity of 2.62 Ci. What is the
estimated committed effective dose equivalent (CEDE) to the individual? State
all assumptions and show all calculations. List the two (2) primary reasons why
a dose estimate that was based on a urine sample collected immediately after the
exposure would not be accurate. Number your responses. Only the first two
will be graded. Explain your answer.
Page 2 of 2

15 C. During robotic dismantling activities a continuous air monitor alarms in the hot
cell because of an inadvertent release of source material. A 5-minute high volume
air sample from the isolation room reads 10
3
cpm on the GM instrument with a
pancake probe. What is the DAC level in the isolation room? Show all
calculations. Workers are wearing full-face respirators with a respiratory
protection factor of 50. Based on the potential internal dose, will you allow work
to continue in the isolation room? Justify your answer.

5 D. For the situation in part C, you discover that
90
Sr is in the form of strontium
titanate. How would this information change the internal dose estimated in part C
above? It is not necessary to repeat the calculation. Describe qualitatively what
the result will be.

Page 1 of 1

QUESTION 5

You are a health physicist working at a nuclear power station. You are assigned the task of
calculating potential dose rates from systems scheduled for maintenance during an upcoming
outage to enable pre-staging of temporary shielding materials.

GIVEN

The sample coupon originally weighed 5 grams
The sample was 100%
59
Co
The dimensions of the sample are 1 cm x 3 cm x 0.2 cm
The
59
Co (n,)
60
Co thermal neutron activation cross section is 37 barns
Average thermal neutron fluence rate in the reactor is 1 x 10
10
n cm
-2
sec
-1

Average fast neutron fluence rate is 4 x 10
10
n cm
-2
sec
-1

60
Co has a half-life of 5.27 years
The specific gamma-ray exposure constant, , for
60
Co is 1.3 R m
2
Ci
-1
hr
-1

POINTS


20 A. Nine months ago, a sample coupon was removed from the reactor vessel. Plant
records indicate that the sample had been in the reactor since initial start-up for a
length of 22 effective full power years. What is the activity in the sample coupon
currently? State all assumptions and show all calculations.

10 B. Assume that the activity of the coupon is 0.75 Ci. What is the exposure rate, in R
hr
-1
, that can be expected at a point 3 meters from the coupon? State all
assumptions and show all calculations.

20 C. A worker will have to stand at a point X that is 2.5 m away from the mid-point
of a 0.5-cm diameter sample line that is 10 m long (See below). The interior of the
line is uniformly contaminated with 4 Ci of
60
Co. What is the exposure rate at the
point X, where the worker is standing? Neglect self-shielding in the pipe. State
all assumptions and show all calculations.

2.5 m
10 m
X
Page 1 of 2

QUESTION 6

A worker at a facility where
131
I materials are manufactured appears to have a positive result for
131
I in a spot urine sample. The chemical form of the
131
I is NaI. The sample was taken late in
the day, after the majority of the day was spent working with
131
I. No air sample results are
available for this case.

GIVEN

From external thyroid counting, the following data are obtained:

Time Post Intake (d) Thyroid Activity (kBq) IRF*
1 250 0.133
7 230 0.0995
10 130 0.0751

* Intake Retention Fraction for Inhalation of Class D
131
I fraction of intake expected to be in
the thyroid this time post-intake. NOTE: Radioactive decay is accounted for in these values.

For inhalation of class D
131
I, the dose conversion factor for thyroid is 2.9 x 10
-7
Sv Bq
-1

Approximately 75% of
131
I as NaI is excreted from the body in the urine in 1-2 days with an
effective halftime of about 6 hours. The remaining 25% of
131
I will be trapped in the
subjects thyroid, reaching a maximum about 24 hours post-intake, and be excreted with an
effective half-time of about 7 days
10CFR20 Organ Dose Weighting Factor, w
T
, for the thyroid is 0.03

POINTS


20 A. Given that you can choose in vivo or in vitro methods of analysis to perform
bioassay, describe and discuss the optimal approach for this case. In your
discussion list two advantages and two disadvantages for in vitro and for in vivo
methods of analysis as related to this case. Justify your answer. Number your
responses. Only the first two advantages and the first two disadvantages for
in vitro and for in vivo methods will be graded.

10 B. How might your approach to bioassay change as time goes by, given the
metabolic model for iodine? Explain your answer.

10 C. Based on the thyroid counting data given, what is your best estimate of the
subjects intake? Show all calculations.
Page 2 of 2

10 D. Assume that the intake was 5 MBq. What is the committed dose equivalent
(CDE) to thyroid for this intake? What is the committed effective dose equivalent
(CEDE) for this intake? Assume that organs other than the thyroid make a
negligible contribution to the CEDE. Have any regulatory limits been exceeded?
State all assumptions and show all calculations.

Page 1 of 2

QUESTION 7

As RSO at a university with a vivarium, you receive a call at 1:05 PM saying that there has been
a spill of radiopharmaceutical containing
99m
Tc in one of the rooms. An inexperienced
technician tells you that a large dog had been injected with 5 mCi of the compound at noon
(12:00 PM). The animal urinated on the floor at 1:00 PM and the technician observed a reading
of 20 mR hr
1
when using a G-M instrument held at waist level above the spill.

GIVEN

Assume the technicians waist level is about 1 m above the ground
The area of the puddle is 0.25 m
2

The specific gamma-ray exposure constant for
99m
Tc = 0.06 R m
2
hr
-1
Ci
-1

99m
Tc half life = 6.02 hr E
beta
(max) = 0.002 MeV E
gamma
= 0.141 MeV

99
Tc half life = 213,000 yr E
beta
(max) = 0.293 MeV no gamma
The Universitys license sets the limit for free release of contaminated areas as
1000 dpm/100 cm
2
removable (average),
5000 dpm/100 cm
2
fixed plus removable, and
Not to exceed 15,000 dpm / 100 cm
2
total contamination in any location when averaged
over 1 square meter.

POINTS


15 A. When you asked the technician about the instrument he used to measure radiation
levels, he showed you a Geiger-Mueller instrument with a pancake probe. Is
this detector suitable for measuring radiation exposure rate in this instance? Give
two reasons why this detector is or is not acceptable for measuring radiation
exposure rate in this instance. Number your responses. Only the first two will
be graded.

20 B. Calculate the exposure rate at 1 meter above the spill at 1:00 PM. Assume that all
activity is voided in the first urination. State all assumptions and show all
calculations.

20 C. List five precautions necessary to begin cleaning up this spill. Number your
responses. Only the first five will be graded.
Page 2 of 2

30 D. Because the floor is composed of individual tiles, it is not possible to fully
decontaminate the room. After two hours of steady work, the highest total
contamination levels are 150,000-dpm/100 cm
2
and average total contamination
levels are about 75,000 dpm/100 cm
2
, with removable contamination levels of up
to 10,000 dpm/100 cm
2
. The vivarium director informs you that the room must be
in use by noon tomorrow because of some time-critical research. Can it be
released immediately? Can it be released by noon tomorrow? Justify your
answers.

15 E. After 7 days you survey the spill site with a GM pancake detector and you
detect no activity.

1) Show by calculation why you did not detect
99m
Tc activity. Show all
calculations.

2)
99m
Tc decays into
99
Tc. Show that
99
Tc would not be detectable either. Show
all calculations.

Page 1 of 2

QUESTION 8

An unconscious woman was brought into the Emergency Room, bleeding and with broken
bones, following a motor vehicle accident. When first admitted, the Computed Tomography
(CT) scanner was down and a trauma series of diagnostic x-rays was taken, after which
fluoroscopy was required as part of an effort to investigate for internal injuries. When the woman
awakened, she informed her physician she just found out she is pregnant and that she thinks the
date of conception was about 1 month ago.

GIVEN

The trauma series of diagnostic x-rays include one each of the head/neck, chest, abdomen,
pelvis, and lumbar spine. Assume all x-ray projections are anterior-posterior (AP).
Four minutes of fluoroscopy time at 2 mA was logged for abdominal procedures.
For the machine parameters on file for the machines in use, fetal dose is determined to be
45% of the entrance skin exposure to the mother.
Radiological information is summarized in the following table:

Procedure Entrance Skin Exposure (ESE) (C/kg)
Chest 0.07 x 10
-4

Pelvic 0.79 x 10
-4

Head/neck 1.14 x 10
-4

Abdomen 1.08 x 10
-4

Lumbar spine 1.40 x 10
-4

Thoracic spine 1.33 x 10
-4

Cervical spine 0.39 x 10
-4

Fluoroscopy Entrance Skin Exposure (ESE) = 1.7 R/mA-min

POINTS


30 A. Calculate the radiation dose to the fetus using the above information. You need
not calculate radiation dose from every procedure if you can justify omitting the
calculations. State all assumptions and show all calculations.

15 B. Assume that the radiation dose calculated in part A was 3.5 rad. What three
pieces of advice (based on NCRP 54: Medical Radiation Exposure of Pregnant
and Potentially Pregnant Women) would you give the womans OB/GYN
regarding terminating the pregnancy or letting it proceed? Number your
responses. Only the first three will be graded. Justify your answer.
Page 2 of 2

15 C. What are three pieces of information necessary to determine the risk of injury to
the fetus from this incident? Number your responses. Only the first three will
be graded.

25 D. During subsequent communication with the womans physician you are informed
that she appeared to have skin burns. List five reasonable explanations as to why
this could occur. Number your responses. Only the first five will be graded.

15 E. List five machine parameters that will affect fetal radiation exposure from CT, x-
ray, or fluoroscopy. Number your responses. Only the first five will be
graded.

Page 1 of 3

QUESTION 9

You are the designated laser safety officer (LSO) for an outdoor military battlefield tactics range,
which has controlled air space in order to exclude commercial or private aviation from the area.
A variety of military aircraft, ground troops, and mechanized equipment utilize the range. In
addition to conventional weapons, a multitude of lasers are actively employed in the training.
They may be operated for long exposure duration during field operations. For all potential
exposures, purposeful staring into a laser beam is neither intended nor anticipated.

GIVEN

Maximum Permissible Exposure for Direct Ocular Exposure Intra-beam
Viewing from a Laser Beam [From ANSI Z136.1 (1993)]
Wavelength Exposure Duration Maximum Permissible Exposure
(micrometers) (seconds) (J * cm
-2
) (W * cm
-2
)
0.4 to 0.7 10
-9
to 18 x 10
-6
0.5 x 10
-6

0.4 to 0.7 18 x 10
-6
to 10 1.8 t
3/4
x 10
-3

0.4 to 0.55 10 to 10
4
10 x 10
-3

0.55 to 0.7 10 to T
1
1.8 t
3/4
x 10
-3

0.55 to 0.7 T
1
to 10
4
10 C
B
x 10
-3

0.4 to 0.7 10
4
to 3 x 10
4
C
B
x 10
-6

0.7 to 1.05 10
-9
to 18 x 10
-6
0.5 C
A
x 10
-6

0.7 to 1.05 18 x 10
-6
to 10
3
1.8 C
A
t
3/4
x 10
-3

0.7 to 1.05 10
3
to 3 x 10
4
320 C
A
x 10
-6

1.05 to 1.4 10
-9
to 50 x 10
-6
5 C
C
x 10
-6

1.05 to 1.4 50 x 10
-6
to 10
3
9.0 C
C
t
3/4
x 10
-3

1.05 to 1.4 10
3
to 3 x 10
4
1.6 C
C
x 10
-3

Limiting Aperture Diameter: 0.7 cm

Correction Factors:

T
1
= 10 x 10
20(-0.55)
0.55 to 0.7 m C
A
= 1.0 0.4 to 0.7 m
C
B
= 1.00 4 to 0.55 m C
A
= 10
2(-0.7)
0.7 to 1.05 m
C
B
= 10
15(-0.55)
0.55 to 0.7 m C
A
= 5.0 1.05 to 1.4 m
C
C
= 1.0 1.05 to 1.15 m C
C
= 10
18(-1.15)
1.15 to 1.2 m
C
C
= 8.0 1.2 to 1.4 m
Page 2 of 3

Maximum Permissible Exposure for Skin Exposure
to a Laser Beam [From ANSI Z136.1 (1993)]
Wavelength Exposure Duration Maximum Permissible Exposure
(micrometers) (seconds) (J * cm
-2
) (W * cm
-2
)
0.4 to 1.4 10
-9
to 10
-7
2 C
A
x 10
-2

0.4 to 1.4 10
-7
to 10 1.1 C
A
x t
1/4

0.4 to 1.4 10 to 3 x 10
4
0.2 C
A

C
A
is defined above
Limiting Aperture Diameter: 0.35 cm

POINTS


15 A. For a laser with the following specifications, calculate an appropriate MPE.
Justify selection of exposure duration (T
max
) used for the MPE calculation.
Show all calculations.

Wavelength = 1.06 m Energy/Pulse = 1.0 J
Pulse Repetition Frequency = 0.5 Hz Pulse Width = 25 x 10
-9
s
Beam Width (Laser Exit-1/e) = 0.9 cm Divergence = 1 mrad (1/e)
Beam is Diverging
10 B. For the laser with specifications given in (A) and an MPE of 7 x 10
-6
J cm
-2
,
determine the nominal ocular hazard distance (NOHD). Show all calculations.

40 C. For the two continuous-wave (CW) lasers with parameters listed in the table
below, determine the organs at risk for biological damage from unprotected
exposure at 1) the exit port and 2) 2 kilometers (km). Justify selection of
exposure duration (T
max
) for MPE calculations. Show all calculations.

Laser
Type
Power
(Watts)
Beam Diameter (1/e)

(m)
Irradiance (W * cm
2
) Divergence
(1/e)
radians
Exit (cm) @ 2 km (cm) Exit @ 2 km
Argon 0.1 8 21 0.515 2.0 x 10
-3
2.9 x 10
-4
65 x 10
-6
GaAs 0.02 0.8 200.8 0.905 0.04 6.3 x 10
-7
1.0 x 10
-3

Page 3 of 3

10 D. For the two lasers listed in Part C, what additional hazards exist from use of the
lasers on this range? Assume that aircraft, equipment, or personnel are within
2 km of the lasers exit ports and long exposure duration may be used. List only
the two most important additional hazards. If the hazard is exclusive to just one
of the lasers, state such. Justify your answer. Number your responses. Only
the first two will be graded.

25 E. For the lasers of emission wavelength listed in the left column select the tissue(s)
with significant energy absorption from the list in the right column. Select only
one answer per laser wavelength. Selections from the right column may be
used more than once.

Wavelength ( m) Tissues with Significant Energy Absorption

1. 1.3 ______ A. Retina & Cornea

2. 5.0 ______ B. Skin & Retina

3. 0.28 ______ C. Skin & Cornea

4. 0.5 ______ D. Skin, Retina, Cornea, & Lens

5. 0.36 ______ E. Skin & Lens

Page 1 of 2

QUESTION 10

You are a health physicist at a nuclear power plant. The plant is shutting down for refueling
shortly. The plant manager asks you to assess some of the expected radiological conditions
during the shutdown.

GIVEN

Reactor coolant system (RCS) data (average data for 90 days prior to shutdown):

Reactor coolant volume = 60,000 gal
Reactor coolant
131
I concentration = 0.01 Ci mL
-1

Reactor coolant
133
Xe concentration = 10 Ci mL
-1

RCS leak rate to containment atmosphere = 0.5 gal min
-1

Reactor coolant cleanup rate = 100 gal min
-1

Reactor coolant cleanup efficiency = 90 %
Containment
131
I concentration = 8 x 10
-9
Ci cm
-3

Containment data:

Containment free air volume = 2 x 10
6
ft
3
or 6 x 10
10
cm
3

Containment atmosphere pressure reduction ventilation rate = 2000 ft
3
min
-1

Containment atmosphere charcoal filters cleanup flow rate = 15,000 ft
3
min
-1

Containment atmosphere charcoal filter efficiency = 95%
Ambient containment radiation level = 5 mrem h
-1

Additional data:

1 gal = 3800 cm
3

Half-life of
131
I = 8 d
Half-life of
58
Co = 71 d
DAC for
131
I = 2 x 10
-8
Ci cm
-3

Specific gamma-ray exposure constant for
58
Co, , = 5.5 (R cm
2
mCi
-1
hr
-1
)
w
T
(thyroid) = 0.03

Page 2 of 2

POINTS


25 A. List five considerations when estimating the
131
I airborne concentration in
containment 24 hours after shutdown. Number your responses. Only the first
five will be graded.

20 B. Determine the committed dose equivalent (CDE) to the worker's thyroid from a
10-hour exposure to an
131
I containment atmosphere of 8 x 10
-9
Ci cm
-3
. The
worker did not use respiratory protection. State all assumptions and show all
calculations. Also determine the workers committed effective dose equivalent
(CEDE). State all assumptions and show all calculations.

20 C. List four factors that should be considered in the pre-job analysis for a
containment entry after shutdown in order to keep the worker's total effective
dose equivalent ALARA. Number your responses. Only the first four will be
graded.

25 D. The plant manager considers H
2
O
2
treatment of the RCS. H
2
O
2
will be added at
Mode 5 initiation and will increase the level of soluble
58
Co in the RCS. The
solubilized
58
Co is removed by the RCS demineralizers. You expect the level of
58
Co in the RCS to increase to 1 Ci ml
-1
as a result.

1) State three methods for reducing the RCS
58
Co cleanup time. Number your
responses. Only the first three responses will be graded.

2) State two benefits of adding H
2
O
2
to the RCS at the onset of a refueling.
Number your responses. Only the first two responses will be graded.

10 E. Given an exposure rate of 0.25 mR hr
-1
at 2 meters away on the center line of a 2
m long pipe containing uniform concentration of
58
Co, calculate the total activity
contained in the pipe. State all assumptions and show all calculations.

Page 1 of 1

QUESTION 11

You are the Radiation Safety Officer (RSO) at a large fuel reprocessing facility. The facility
includes a tank used to process highly enriched uranium. During a batch processing operation, a
technician violates the plants operating procedures, which leads to a critical geometry in the
tank. The technician is standing behind a 30-cm thick, polyethylene shield, and is 3 meters from
the center of the tank.

GIVEN

1.0 x 10
16
fissions occur during the criticality incident
Each fission event produces three (3) neutrons and eight (8) gamma rays
Density of polyethylene shield is 1.5 g cm
-3

Dose conversion factor for 2.5 MeV neutrons is 2.0 mrem hr
-1
per 20 neutrons cm
-2
sec
-1

Gamma exposure rate conversion factor is 6.0 x 10
5
gamma rays cm
-2
sec
-1
per 1 R hr
-1

Mean neutron and gamma energies are 2.5 MeV and 1.0 MeV, respectively
Neutron dose attenuation factor for 2.5 MeV neutrons through 30 cm of polyethylene is
0.005
Mass attenuation coefficient for polyethylene for a fission gamma spectrum is 0.073 cm
2
g
-1

The dimensions of the tank are 45 cm by 45 cm
The quality factor for 2.5 MeV neutrons is 10
The quality factor for 1.0 MeV gamma rays is 1.0
0.95 rad = 1 R

POINTS


50 A. What is the neutron dose equivalent in rem received by the technician during the
criticality incident? Show all calculations. What is the gamma dose equivalent in
rem received by the technician during the same incident? Show all calculations.

30 B. The facility criticality monitor is a -response instrument with an alarm set point
of 500 mR hr
-1
. If, during a short transient, the detector response corresponds to
1/3500 of the actual gamma exposure rate, what is the maximum distance over
which the device will be effective in signaling an unshielded, 1-msec criticality
incident with 1.0 x 10
16
fissions? Neglect air absorption. Assume that an
incident with 1.0 x 10
15
fissions results in a gamma exposure of 2.0 R at 2
meters. Show all calculations.

20 C. List four (4) factors that affect criticality. Number your responses. Only the
first four will be graded.

Page 1 of 2

QUESTION 12

The water-cooled beam stop for the electron accelerator at your facility was designed for 0.5 to
5.0 GeV electron energies and beam currents no greater than 200 A. By design, 10% of the
beam power is absorbed in the cooling water, and the rest is absorbed into the beam stop itself.
Assume that the circulation rate of the water results in a well-mixed system. The entire water
capacity of the system is 6000 liters. The beam energy is 2.0 GeV, and the average current is
100 A.

GIVEN

Radionuclides produced in water:

Radionuclide Saturation Activity Half-life Principal Emission
15
O 330 GBq/kW in water 123 seconds Positron
13
N 3.7 GBq/kW in water 9.96 minutes Positron
11
C 15 GBq/kW in water 20.34 minutes Positron
7
Be 1.5 GBq/kW in water 53.6 days Gamma
3
H 7.4 GBq/kW in water 12.3 years Beta

POINTS


30 A. Starting with new water and assuming that only the given radionuclides are
produced, what is the activity concentration in the water:
1) after 30 days of constant beam time?
2) after running for 30 days and then being shut down for 7 days?
Show all calculations.

10 B. Assume that activation varies linearly with power. If you increase the energy of
the accelerator to 4.5 GeV and decrease the current to 50 microamps, by what
factor would the specific activity change? Show all calculations.

30 C. The accelerator will be shut down for a major upgrade that will take six months to
complete. You would like to reduce the radiological content of the water to as
low as reasonably achievable during the upgrade. You decide that you would like
to release a portion of the water each day to the sanitary sewer under an existing
disposal permit. Due to limitations on the system, you cannot reduce the water
volume in the cooling system to less than 90% capacity (5400 L) at any time. List
six (6) factors that your would consider in planning this release. Number your
responses. Only the first six will be graded.
Page 2 of 2

30 D. You discover that 20 liters of water has leaked into the cooling water building and
cooling water is still leaking. Entry into the building by personnel will be
required to stop the leak and clean up the spill. State two (2) factors you would
take into consideration for each of the following radiological aspects of the
operation:

1) Personal Protective Equipment (PPE)
2) External Dosimetry
3) Internal Dosimetry
4) Radiation Monitoring for Dose/Exposure
5) Analysis of Samples

Number your responses. Only the first two for each item will be graded.

Page 1 of 1

QUESTION 13

You are the project health physicist at an industrial site that used uranium ore in an extraction
process. Several buildings and the surrounding grounds are lightly contaminated with natural U
(U-nat). These buildings and the grounds must be remediated and surveyed for unrestricted
release. On a small portion of Building B-7 there is a maximum reading on an alpha scintillation
probe of 100 cpm with the detector in a fixed position.

GIVEN

The surface activity derived concentration guideline level (DCGL) for U-nat is 500 dpm per
100 cm
2
, assuming that no more than 10% of the activity is removable.
The response of your alpha scintillation probe for U-nat is 20%.
The surface area of your alpha scintillation probe is 50 cm
2
.
The surface emission abundance of alphas from a concrete block is 50%.
The alpha scintillation probe has a background of 2 cpm.

POINTS


10 A. What are two (2) critical factors one must consider in evaluating equipment or
property to determine whether it meets the release criteria for license termination
or unrestricted release of equipment or property? Number your responses.
Only the first two will be graded.

15 B. Explain what a DCGL is and how is it determined. Does the predicted land use or
reuse of structures affect the DCGL determination? Justify your answer.

35 C. What is the activity associated with this location at Building B-7? . Show all
work. Can you release Building B-7 without further decontamination? Justify
your answer.

20 D. In scanning surface soils for gross gamma activity explain four factors that must
be considered in converting field instrument readings to a specific DCGL.

20 E. Describe 5 pathways by which radioactivity in soil can contribute to human dose.
Number your responses. Only the first five will be graded. What are two (2)
parameters that are important to know when conducting a dose assessment?
Explain why each is important. Number your responses. Only the first two
will be graded. Justify your answer.
Page 1 of 2

QUESTION 14

A molecular biologist works with
125
I in the form of sodium iodide. He has recently begun
experiments involving the iodination of thyroid hormones and their subsequent metabolism in
rats. His laboratory technicians will perform a series of three procedures over a week:
iodination, animal sacrifice and tissue preparation, and low-pressure liquid chromatography
(LPLC). Each procedure is performed in a separate room in the laboratory and the iodination is
done in a fume hood. You place air samplers in each of the rooms and collect a sample for the
duration of each procedure.

GIVEN

Half-life of
125
I = 60.14 days
Exhaust Rate in Room #3 = 15 m
3
min
-1

Air sample filter efficiency = 95 %
Volume of Room #3 = 60 m
3

CEDE per unit intake of
125
I = 6.53 10
9
Sv Bq
1

Air Sampler Data
Room
No.
Sampling
rate (L min
-1
)
Description of
Procedure
Duration of
Procedure (hours)
125
I Filter Activity
(MBq)
1 20 iodination 5 0.56
2 15 animal sacrifice 2 0.15
3 30 LPLC 6 1.76

Organ Committed Dose Equivalent per Unit Intake
(Sv Bq
-1
)
Gonad 1.84 x 10
-11

Breast 9.25 x 10
-11

Lung 1.19 x 10
-10

R Marrow 4.41 x 10
-11

B Surface 4.27 x 10
-11

Thyroid 2.16 x 10
-7

Remainder 3.33 x 10
-11

125
I Occupational ALI
(MBq)
Occupational DAC
(MBq m
-3
)
Stochastic 4 0.002
Non-stochastic 2 0.001
Page 2 of 2

POINTS


15 A. Calculate the average airborne iodine concentration in each room. Show all
work.

15 B. If one of the technicians was exposed to a room air concentration of
0.192 MBq m
-3
for a three-hour procedure, have any dose limits been exceeded?

20 C. One of the laboratory technicians is a declared pregnant worker. Three weeks
after a procedure, she showed a decay-corrected intake of 0.27 MBq, with
minimal deep dose equivalent. Based on this information, calculate the CDE and
the CEDE and determine if the NCRPs fetal dose recommendation for the entire
pregnancy was exceeded. Justify your answer.

20 D. List four (4) radiological controls that could be established to reduce personnel
exposures during the procedures. Number your responses. Only the first four
will be graded.

30 E. An air conditioning repairman enters Room #3 for the final 1 hour of the
chromatography procedure and stays in the room for an additional 2 hrs. The
repairman is an unmonitored member of the general public. How many DAC-hrs
was he exposed to and did this exceed the limits for a member of the public? For
this problem, assume the air concentration in Room #3 during the
chromatography procedure to be 0.10 MBq m
-3
. Show all work.

Solutions
to the
K.A.L., Inc., 2001
All Rights Reserved
1
Equations containing either algebraic symbols or their given numerical values and corresponding
units are used to obtain numerical answers for quantities asked in a question on the 2001 exam of the
American Board of Health Physics (ABHP). Symbols representing quantities in an equation are
defined either in our list of general given information after the stated premise to a question or within the
solution to each part of a question. Sometimes an acronym is used as an algebraic quantity. Within the
text of a solution, the words forming an acronym are italicized, and the acronym is shown in parentheses
following the use of the words which form that acronym. For convenience, some quantities in our list of
general given information are either actually calculated from the given quantities by specified
relationships or assumed as stated in the definition for that quantity. The algebraic symbol for a quantity
is understood to have a numerical value corresponding to certain specified units. When symbols for
quantities are contained in the ABHP question itself, these same symbols are used in the equations
giving the solution(s). Symbols used by the ABHP in their attachment to the exam, Useful Equations
and Constants (Version 004, March 2001) are used in our solutions unless indicated otherwise. Any
necessary change in a given symbol or in its given numerical value and units also will be indicated in our
solution. To obtain numerical solutions to the various parts of a question, bolded numerical values and
their corresponding units for given or calculated quantities are understood to be used in place of the
algebraic symbols representing those quantities in the equations. For efficiency and convenience, bolded
numerical values, including the units for a bolded quantity, also are shown in the text of a premise to
various parts of a question. This procedure is followed to make clear our solutions and numerical
answers, which are identified by a C to the left of the equation containing the numerical answer. Except
for answers read from given figures, other numerical answers are shown to three significant digits
regardless of the number of significant digits of input quantities used to calculate an answer. Sometimes
only the numerical values for given quantities are shown in an equation giving the solution for another
quantity.
To make clear our solutions and any problems associated with an ABHP question itself, more
detail and information are provided in our solutions than needed or recommended. Some quantities
stated for an ABHP question sometimes are not used in the solutions for that question. Such extraneous
or irrelevant quantities may or may not be listed in our summary of the given information to a question,
but their algebraic symbols and their numerical values will not be bolded if listed. When given
extraneous or irrelevant quantities could be used in a solution, they will be listed, and an explanation
sometimes will be given in comments on any confusion that might arise from the use of such quantities.
Sometimes we add one or more words shown in square brackets to clarify a given quantity or
information stated in a given ABHP question. Comments provided in our solutions are intended to
provide guidance to candidates in answering all of the questions on an ABHP exam, and sometimes the
information in a comment is needed for a solution. Comments are mostly factual, and the ABHP and
Part II panel members are encouraged to evaluate the impact on qualified candidates of questions
containing incorrect or confusing information. We encourage readers of our solutions to this exam to
2
QUESTION 1
GIVEN: A hot particle is removed from an individual, the contact dose rate is measured with an
open window ionization chamber, and then it is subjected to gamma spectroscopy with a
germanium detector:
Volume of ion chamber = 220 cm
3
.
Window thickness = 7 mg cm
-2
.
Beta shield: 1000 mg cm
-2
.
Chamber calibrated using a gamma-only source.
Gamma pulse height distribution shown.
A. The skin area and tissue depth generally assumed for estimating the skin dose are 1 cm
2
and 7 mg
cm
-2
respectively.
B. Three reasons why the dose measured by an ion chamber may not be the true skin dose are:
1. In measuring the dose, the source-chamber geometry is commonly such that the chamber volume is
not irradiated uniformly.
2. Depending on chamber design characteristics, e.g., the presence of a central planar electrode as in
the Eberline RO-2, and whether all beta radiation enters through the window, beta radiation
attenuation may be a problem. For a distributed source, for example, some beta radiation incident
on the thick wall of the chamber may be highly attenuated.
3. The conversion of beta instrument response to tissue dose often requires different conversion
factors than are implicit in gamma exposure to tissue dose conversion - e.g., mass collision stopping
power ratios vs. mass energy absorption coefficient ratios.
A. Given that Co-60 was the major radionuclide present, the most likely origin of each of the seven
peaks in the given figure is summarized as follows:
1. The 1.17 MeV and 1.33 MeV peaks are the full energy photopeaks or more correctly the total
absorption peaks (TAP), one for each of the two primary, cascade gamma rays of these energies
from de-excitation of the Ni-60 nucleus, the beta decay product of Co-60.
2. The 2.50 MeV peak is a sum peak resulting from full energy deposition of both of the above
cascade gamma rays within the resolving time of the germanium detector.
3. The 0.819 MeV peak is a single escape peak resulting from escape of one of the 511 keV photons
following annihilation of a positron with a conventional electron after the 1.33 MeV photon interacts
3
by a pair production event in the detector. All of the remaining energy is then deposited, i.e., (1.33
MeV- 0.511 MeV) = 0.819 MeV.
4. The 0.659 MeV peak also is a single escape peak, as in 3 above, but the pair production
interaction is that of the 1.17 MeV gamma photon.
5. The 0.511 MeV peak is likely from the full energy deposition of a 511 keV annhilation photon that
originated from positron annihilation outside of the detector volume, e.g., in the sample or detector
casing and shield, following a pair production event of either of the primary photons.
6. The 0.308 MeV peak is likely the double escape peak from escape of both of the 511 keV
annhilation photons following positron annhilation after a pair production interaction of a 1.33 MeV
gamma ray in the detector volume.
Comment: It is obvious that the pulse height distribution (PHD) shown in the given figure is
somewhat artificial, and the secondary peaks arising from multiple interactions may or may not be
obvious in a real PHD from the two primary photons associated with the decay of Co-60. The pair
production interaction cross section is zero below the threshold photon energy of 1.022 MeV; so
the probability for pair production interactions of the 1.17 MeV and 1.33 MeV primary photons
within the Ge detector is relatively small at these energies. Unless sufficient counts occur in the
peaks associated with these multiple interaction events, especially those following pair production
interactions of the 1.17 MeV and 1.33 MeV primary photons in the Ge detector, the secondary
escape peaks may not be obvious.
D. Three followup actions to take in the area after discovery of the hot particle include:
1. Monitor other individuals who have been working in the area for hot particle contamination.
2. Identify and isolate, if possible, the source of the hot particles.
3. Minimize the spread of hot particles by proper cleanup of affected surfaces, e.g., use sticky tape
rollers to clean up small to moderate sized areas and other methods, such as wetting of surfaces, to
minimize potential for airborne suspension of hot particles.
4
QUESTION 2
GIVEN: Questions related to radiobiology.
A. Radiation can damage a critical target in a cell by direct action and by indirect action:
1. If the deposition of energy by radiation, usually by ionization, causes immediate damage to a critical
target, such as an enzyme or nucleic acid, in or near the path of the radiation, then it is considered
direct action.
2. If the damage of the critical target is caused by a reaction with a chemical byproduct of the
radiation interaction, such as a free radical or peroxide molecule, it is considered indirect action. As
the linear energy transfer (LET) of the radiation increases, the contribution from indirect action
decreases, e.g., due to recombination of free radicals that are in close proximity, and the direct
action becomes the dominant mechanism of radiation caused damage.
B. Three general types of biological effects of ionizing radiation that are taken into consideration in the
derivation of dose limits for radiation workers are:
1. stochastic, somatic effects such as cancer in the exposed individual;
2. non-stochastic (deterministic), somatic effects resulting in the impairment of the function of organs
and tissues when certain threshold doses are exceeded in the exposed individual.
3. genetic effects in the progeny of the exposed individual.
C. Five deterministic effects resulting from exposure to acute, high dose rate ionizing radiation include:
1. cataracts, 2. epilation, 3. skin erythema, 4. purpura, and 5. desquamation.
D. For low LET radiation, the RBE increases with increasing LET up to a maximum at an LET value
of about 100 keV/:m.
E. For the following radiations, the RBE increases from 1 for low to three for high:
1. for 20 keV x-rays, 2. for 5 MeV protons, and 3. for fission-spectrum neutrons.
Comment: RBE is defined for a specific biological endpoint and the answers to parts D and E depend
on the chosen endpoint as well as on dose and dose rate. The answers provided above for parts D and
E are for biological endpoints of cell lethality, cell mutation, and oncogenic transformation based on the
irradiation of monolayers of mammalian cells at low dose rates as described in the National Academy
of Sciences BEIR V report.
5
QUESTION 3
GIVEN: leakage of hot liquid
131
I waste from a valve in a line into a ventilated room where the
released
131
I immediately evaporates and disperses uniformly in the room air:
C
L
/
131
I liquid concentration in line = 50 : :Ci L
-1
;
V / room air volume = 18 m
3
;
Q / ventilation flow rate = 5 m
3
min
-1
; so
K / Q/V / air turn over rate and
131
I ventilation removal rate constant = 0.278 min
-1
;
L / liquid drop leakage rate = 10 drops min
-1
;
V
d
/ drop volume = 0.05 mL drop
-1
= 0.00005 L drop
-1
; so
G /
131
I activity release rate into room air = C
L
L V
d
= 0.0250 : :Ci min
-1
;
T / estimated exposure time interval for mechanic = 1 h;
DAC / non-stochastic (thyroid)
131
I derived air concentration = 0.02 : :Ci m
! !3
;
T
1/2
/
131
I physical half-life = 8.05 d = 11,600 min; so
8 8 /
131
I decay constant = (ln 2)/(T
1/2
) = 5.98x10
-5
min
-1
; so
k /
131
I total removal rate constant = K + 8 K = Q/V = 0.278 min
-1
;
w
T
/ thyroid stochastic risk weighting factor = 0.03; and
given equation for
131
I airborne concentration C as function of time t post onset of release (Note: It is
recognized for this equation to apply that radioactive decay can be neglected compared to ventilation
removal of
131
I from the room, i.e, 8 n K. For the units shown by the bolded quantities above, C has
the units of : :Ci m
-3
and t has the units of minutes.).
A. The
131
I activity release rate G into room air is calculated as shown in the list of given data:
C G = C
L
L V
d
= 0.0250 : :Ci min
-1
.
The maximum concentration C
max
of
131
I is calculated from the given equation for t = 4 4:
C C
max
= G/Q = (0.0250 :Ci min
-1
)/(5 m
3
min
-1
) = 0.005 : :Ci m
3
.
B. The air turn over rate, Q/V, or ventilation removal rate constant, K, is calculated as shown in the
list of given data:
C C K / Q/V = 0.278 min
-1
.
6
C
C. For a ventilation removal rate constant K of 0.1 min
-1
(assumed also to approximate the total
removal rate constant: k = K + 8 0.1 min
-1
), the time J J for the
131
I concentration C(J J) to be
reduced to 1% or a fraction f of 0.01 of its initial value C(0) after the leak has been stopped is
calculated:
C J J = (1/k) ln[ C(0)/C(J) ] = (1/k) ln[ 1/f ] = 46.1 minutes.
D. For a constant airborne concentration C of 0.008 : :Ci m
-3
and an exposure time T of 1 h, the
mechanics CEDE is estimated:
E. Two actions that need to be taken prior to allowing the mechanic to enter the room include:
1. Obtain an air sample near the release point from the valve and in the ambient air and analyze them
to verify the calculated concentrations of
131
I and the workers anticipated exposure.
2. Obtain external gamma radiation measurements in the room and in the vicinity of the leaking valve
to estimate the workers anticipated external gamma radiation exposure.
7
QUESTION 4
GIVEN: decommissioning of a hot cell used to manufacture
90
Sr thermoelectric generators, worker
airborne exposures, air sampling data, urinalysis data, and ICRP Publication 30 models:
S-ALI
D
/ stochastic inhalation ALI for Class D
90
Sr nitrate = 20 : :Ci;
ALI
D
/ non-stochastic ALI for Class D
90
Sr nitrate = 20 : :Ci;
S-ALI
Y
/ stochastic inhalation ALI for Class Y
90
Sr titanate = 4 : :Ci;
E / filter paper counting efficiency for GM probe = 25% = 0.25 c per decay of
90
Sr;
F / flow rate of high volume air sampler = 4.0 L min
-1
;
B / Reference Mans breathing rate = 20 L min
-1
;
IRF / fraction of an acute inhalation intake of Class D
90
Sr expected to be present in a 24 h
urine void beginning directly after the intake = 0.0857.
Comments: Because the basis for the given 25% counting efficiency E is unclear, it is assumed that it
represents 0.25 c per decay of
90
Sr, which is assumed to account for all factors including the fact that
64 h half-life
90
Y, the short lived decay product of 28.1 y half-life
90
Sr, is expected to be present on the
filter and to contribute as many or more counts than
90
Sr itself. The given sampling flow rate F of
4.0 L min
-1
would not ordinarily be considered as that for a high volume air sampler (HVAS) but
rather that for a personal air sampler (PAS). A HVAS has a sampling flow rate that is typically 10 to
300 times higher than the given value. The given value shown for the S-ALI
Y
is also the ALI
Y
of 4 : :Ci
because the stochastic limit is controlling for class Y
90
Sr titanate.
A. Two qualitative measures to see if an individual had an airborne exposure to
90
Sr include: 1. analysis
of nose wipes for
90
Sr/
90
Y, and 2. detection of beta radiation with a GM pancake probe of
contamination present on the face and/or nares.
Three quantitative analyses to estimate exposure include first the estimation of the intake I by
dividing the following measurements q by their applicable intake retention fraction (IRF): 1. the
activity q estimated to be present on the filter of a workers personal air sampler (PAS), whose
IRF for a PAS filter with a 100% retention is estimated from the quotient of the PAS flow rate by
Reference Mans breathing rate B, 2. the activity q estimated to be present in a 24 h urine sample,
and 3. the activity q estimated to be present in a 24 h fecal sample. The exposure in DAC-h is then
estimated by the relationship: Exposure = (I)(2000 DAC-h)/(ALI).
8
C
C
B. Based on stated assumptions in the question, the given class D IRF of 0.0857, and the S-ALI
D
of
20 : :Ci, the committed effective dose equivalent (CEDE) is calculated for a measurement q of
2.62 : :Ci of
90
Sr in a 24 h urine sample taken immediately after the exposure to strontium nitrate:
Two reasons why such a dose estimate would not be accurate include: 1. uncertainties associated
with biokinetic parameter values needed to calculate the IRF value, especially within the first 24
hours after an acute inhalation intake, and 2. uncertainties associated with the actual physical and
chemical forms of inhaled aerosols, which influence the inhalation, deposition, and clearance from
respiratory tract compartments, the actual IRF value for a 24 h urine sample, and the appropriate
S-ALI.
C. The concentration C in DAC units is calculated for a filter having a counting rate R of 1,000 cpm
observed on the GM instrument for a high volume air sample in the isolation room over a sampling
interval T of 5 minutes or (5/60) hours when (1) R is assumed to be approximately the net rate for
a filter with 100% retention, (2) other given data are assumed to apply to class D
90
Sr nitrate, and
(3) the concentration C is assumed to be constant before and after the release:
For workers wearing respiratory protection having a protection factor or PF of 50, the effective
exposure concentration would be about 20% of the DAC. If the concentration is not likely to
change then they should be allowed to continue work that might be needed to secure the
90
Sr
source and to terminate leakage assumed to have occurred from the hot cell.
D. If class Y
90
Sr titanate were assumed for the other data in part C, then the calculated concentration
C in DAC units would be five times higher or 54.0 DAC because its ALI
Y
of 4 : :Ci is one fifth of
the ALI
D
of 20 : :Ci used in part C. Thus, the concentration in DAC units, the exposure in DAC-h,
and the internal dose estimate for the data in part C all would be increased by a factor of five. The
given PF of 50 for respiratory protection then would not control the concentration below the DAC.
However, work could still take place provided the projected total exposures are adequately
controlled and the total effective dose equivalent (TEDE) from external and internal sources is
maintained ALARA.

9
C
C
C
QUESTION 5
GIVEN: Evaluation of potential dose rates from a cobalt sample coupon and systems scheduled for
maintenance at a nuclear power plant:
m / mass of 1 cm x 3 cm x 0.2 cm sample coupon (100%
59
Co initially) = 5 g; so
N / atoms of
59
Co in sample coupon = (m/59)(6.023x10
23
) = 5.10x10
22
at;
F F /
59
Co(n,()
60
Co thermal neutron activation cross section = 37 barns = 3.7x10
-23
cm
2
at
-1
;
N N / thermal neutron fluence rate in reactor and assumed for sample = 1x10
10
n cm
-2
s
-1
;
8 8 /
60
Co decay constant = (ln2)/(5.27 y) = 0.132 y
-1
; and
' ' /
60
Co gamma constant = 1.3 R m
2
Ci
-1
h
-1
.
A. The current
60
Co activity A(J J) of the sample coupon is calculated at a time J J of 9 months or
0.750 y after removal from the reactor and a neutron activation time t of 22 y assumed for the
stated 22 effective full power years based on other assumptions including: there is no significant
neutron burn-up of
59
Co and
60
Co during the irradiation time t; the stated value of N is the average
fluence rate in the sample coupon; and no significant other activity is induced by fast neutrons and
other reactions:

B. The exposure rate X0 0 is calculated at a distance r of 3 m from a coupon having an activity A of 0.75
Ci based on the assumptions that the coupon can be considered as a point source and that
attenuation of gamma photons in the sample coupon and air can be neglected:
C. The exposure rate X0 0 (d) is calculated at a perpendicular distance d of 2.5 m from the midpoint of a
sample line having a diameter of 0.5 cm and length L of 10 m and an activity A of 4 Ci of
60
Co
based on the stated assumptions as well as the assumptions that (1) the sample line can be
considered as a line source; (2) attenuation of gamma photons in the sample line and air can be
neglected; (3) the specific activity C
L
of 0.4 Ci m
-1
calculated from the quotient A/L applies to the
line source; and (4) the angle 2 2 of 2.21 radians that the line subtends at the exposure point is
calculated from 2 tan
-1
(5/2.5), and it represents the sum of the angles 2
1
and 2
2
in the line source
equation shown in the attached Useful Equations and Constants given to candidates:
10
QUESTION 6
GIVEN: bioassay and other data for an inhalation intake of
131
I; thyroid activities q(t) in kBq and
applicable thyroid IRF values versus time t in days post an inhalation intake; and the following:
<H
T
/I> / intake to dose conversion factor for thyroid = 2.9x10
-7
Sv Bq
-1
;
w
T
/ thyroid stochastic risk dose weighting factor = 0.03; and
T
e
/ effective half-life describing the reduction of the thyroid burden q(t) after about 24
hours to 48 hours and corresponding to about 25% of the deposition = 7 days.
Comment: The given 25% trapped in the thyroid is incorrectly described to be excreted with an
effective half-life of 7 days when in fact this quoted effective half-life includes both radioactive and
biological removal processes. Most removal from the thyroid is dominated by radioactive decay, which
corresponds to the physical half-life of 8.05 days. The biological half-life describing excretion of iodine
from the thyroid is much longer, about 80 days or about 130 days when redeposition of recycled,
metabolized inorganic iodine is considered.
A. A 24 h urinalysis sampling protocol is the preferred in vitro bioassay procedure for several
consecutive days post the intake, and thyroid counting is the preferred in vivo bioassay procedure
over each day until the measurements decrease with a constant effective half-life T
e
corresponding
to removal by biological processes and radioactive decay. Thyroid counting is the optimal
monitoring procedure for this case for the following reasons.
Two advantages for the in vivo thyroid counting procedure include: (1) the repetitive
thyroid measurements q can be directly related to the accumulated thyroid activity and thyroid
dose, which is the only significant internal dose in this case and (2) the total intake, I, can be simply
estimated from the quotient, (Gq)/(GIRF), of the sum of the individual thyroid measurements q
uncorrected back to the time of the intake and the sum of the applicable IRF values corrected for
radioactive decay to the time of the thyroid measurement q. This intake relationship applies to the
ratio of the means intake equation. Two disadvantages for the in vivo thyroid counting procedure
include: (1) it requires the presence of the worker during each thyroid count, and (2) care must be
used to assure that the measurements reflect only the thyroid burden and not external contamination
nor the burden of
131
I in the respiratory and GI tracts, especially at early times after an acute intake.
Two advantages for the in vitro urinalysis procedure include: (1) the exposed person need
not be present during the analysis of the 24 h samples, and (2) the total activity Gq of consecutive
24 hour urine samples over the first several days, assumed to be corrected back to the time of the
intake, represents about 75% of the deposition in the body and about (0.63)(75%) or about 47%
of the intake I for 1 :m AMAD aerosols, which is then simply estimated from the quotient: I =
11
C
C
C
(Gq)/(0.47) (Note: For the case of airborne
131
I generated from processing
131
I tagged NaI
solutions in the premise of this question, the airborne iodine is most often in the form of a diatomic
vapor in which the respiratory tract deposition fraction is 1 compared to 0.63 for 1 :m AMAD
aerosols. The applicable IRF value for stable iodine then would be 0.75. This same note applies to
part B below.). Two disadvantages for the in vitro urinalysis procedure include: (1) it requires the
cooperation of the worker to submit all urine during each 24 h void, and (2) it represents only the
excretion and not necessarily the thyroid burden, especially if a thyroid blocking agent such as KI
has been used to block the uptake of
131
I by the thyroid.
B. Given the metabolic model for iodine and as time goes on, thyroid counting alone would be the
preferred bioassay procedure because the measurements q directly reflect only the thyroid burden
of
131
I (See answer to part A above.), which would be decreasing with an approximately constant
effective half-life T
e
of about 7 days corresponding to an effective removal rate constant k of (ln
2)/(7 days) or 0.0990 day
-1
. The actual value of k could be determined from repetitive thyroid
measurements. The intake I then could be estimated from the quotient, q/IRF, of any single thyroid
measurement q and the applicable IRF value, which could be estimated at the time t post intake:
IRF = F
d
F
T
e
-k t
, where F
d
is the fraction of inhaled
131
I aerosols deposited in the respiratory tract
and F
T
is the fraction of
131
I in the blood that is deposited in the thyroid and which have values of
about 0.63 and 0.3 respectively for 1 :m AMAD aerosols and 1 and 0.3 for molecular iodine
vapors. The intake, I, also could be estimated from the sum of all repetitive measurements q
i
from
the relationship: I = (Gq
i
)/(GIRF
i
) or by I = (Gq
i
)/( F
d
F
T
G e
-k ti
).
C. The subjects intake, I, is estimated from the given thyroid measurements q and respective IRF
values shown in the table:
D. Based upon stated assumptions, other given data, and an intake I of 5 MBq or 5x10
6
Bq, the CDE
to the thyroid and the CEDE are calculated:
therefore, the 50 rem limit in the DOE and NRC regulations for any organ or tissue from internal
and external exposures in any control year of practice has been exceeded.
12
QUESTION 7
GIVEN: A
99m
Tc spill at a university vivarium with:
S / area of spill = 0.25 m
2
;
A(0) / initial activity of spill = 5 mCi;
8 8 / decay constant for
99m
Tc = 0.115 h
-1
;
' ' / specific gamma constant for
99m
Tc = 0.06 R m
2
h
-1
Ci
-1
= 60 mR m
2
h
-1
Ci
-1
;
r / distance from spill = 1 m; and
stated license contamination limits for the free release of areas.
A. The pancake Geiger-Mueller instrument used by the technician to measure the exposure rate is not
suitable for this application because:
1. The window is not air equivalent and does not offer an equilibrium thickness for the energies of the
primary and secondary photons being measured.
2. It must be calibrated for the specific
99m
Tc source and geometry because the window allows the
penetration of non-photon radiations, including secondary electrons produced by the interaction of
99m
Tc gamma photons in the 1 m of air between the source and window, which does represent an
equilibrium thickness of air for the low energy 140 keV
99m
Tc gamma photons.
B. The spill is spread over a small area and will be assumed to be a point, isotropic source of only
99m
Tc. The exposure rate will be overestimated by this assumption and by the assumption that all of
the activity was excreted in the spill. The activity A(t) at 1:00 pm is calculated where t = 1 h:
A(t) = A(0) e
-8t
= (5 mCi) e
- 0.115
= 4.46 mCi = 0.00446 Ci.
The exposure rate X0 is calculated:
C X0 0 = A(t) ' r
- 2
= (0.00446 Ci)(60 mR m
2
h
-1
Ci
-1
)(1 m)
- 2
= 0.268 mR h
-1
.
C. Five precautions prior to cleanup of the spill include:
1. Prevent animals from spreading the contamination.
2. Monitor the technician, animals, and areas outside of room for contamination.
3. Choose appropriate instruments, monitor, and identify (post areas if necessary) the extent of the
contamination.
4. Establish a contamination control area.
13
5. Choose proper protective clothing and dosimetry for workers and suitable materials for the cleanup
operation.
D. The room cannot be released immediately without additional measures. For a contaminated area S
of 0.25 m
2
, the average total contamination level can be estimated from the measured values
reduced by a factor of four when averaged over 1 m
2
. The total contamination averaged over 1 m
2
would be 18,750 dpm per 100 cm
2
. This exceeds the license limit of 15,000 dpm per 100 cm
2
.
The removable contamination level of up to 10,000 dpm per 100 cm
2
exceeds the license limit of
1000 dpm per 100 cm
2
. The highest total contamination levels of 150,000 dpm per 100 cm
2
exceeds the license limit of 5,000 dpm per 100 cm
2
, the most restrictive limit in this case.
If no additional measures are taken, the room cannot be released by noon the next day. The
elapsed time is approximately 3.5 half-lives of
99m
Tc (assuming that cleanup began at 1:00 pm) and
this decay will result in a reduction of the contamination levels by a factor of about 11. The highest
total contamination value of 150,000 dpm per 100 cm
2
will be approximately 13,000 dpm per 100
cm
2
, which still is in excess of the license limit of 5,000 dpm per 100 cm
2
.
Comment: Because the contamination is confined to a small area and because of the short half-life
of
99m
Tc, it would be relatively easy to coat or cover the contaminated area until the short-lived
contamination has decayed to acceptable levels. The room could be released immediately in this
case, as long as the covering is secured. It is assumed that the three different release limits are
mutually exclusive and that each limit has to be met before the room can be released. It also is
assumed that the 5,000 dpm per 100 cm
2
limit on total contamination is not averaged over a 1 m
2
area. The limits stated in the problem are somewhat confusing, with a limit on removable
contamination that is stated as an average (no area specified), a total contamination limit that is not
stated as an average, and a total contamination limit that is stated as an average over a specific area
of 1 m
2
. The fact that this averaged total contamination limit (15,000 dpm per 100 cm
2
) is greater
than the non-averaged limit (5,000 dpm per 100 cm
2
) also is confusing. The averaged limit will
always be satisfied as long as the 5,000 dpm per 100 cm
2
limit is met and therefore, the averaged
limit is unnecessary.
E. No detectable activity is calculated because:
1. The fraction, f, of the activity of
99m
Tc remaining after a time t of 7 days or 168 h is calculated: f = e
- 8 t
= e
- 19.3
= 4.15 x 10
-9
. The total activity remaining, assuming no decontamination, would be
46.1 dpm. This activity would be undetectable regardless of the decontamination effort.
2. The activity, A, of
99
Tc, assuming the complete decay of
99m
Tc to
99
Tc is calculated from the initial
activity of
99m
Tc (5 mCi or 1.11 x 10
10
dpm) and the ratio of the half-life of 6.02 h for
99m
Tc to the
half-life of 1.86 x 10
9
h for
99
Tc: A = (1.11 x 10
10
dpm)(6.6 h) / (1.86 x 10
9
h) or 39.4 dpm, which
also would not be detectable regardless of the decontamination effort.
14
QUESTION 8
GIVEN: An unconscious woman, who later informed her physician that she had recently learned she
was pregnant (likely about 1 month), undergoes various single, radiographic x-rays and
fluoroscopy of the abdomen:
T / fluoro time for abdomen exam = 4 min;
I / fluoro current for abdomen exam = 2 mA;
ESE / fluoro entrance skin exposure per mA-min = 1.7 R/mA-min;
F / fetal dose, assumed in rads, relative to entrance skin exposure in R = 0.45 rads/R; and
a table of entrance skin exposure data in C/kg for various x-ray procedures, assumed to apply to the
given single radiographic procedures.
SOLUTIONS AND ANSWERS (C C) TO PARTS A THROUGH E:
A. The radiation dose to the fetus is calculated:
Since the head/neck and chest exposures should contribute no direct exposure to the fetus except for a
very small amount of scatter, these will be neglected. It is assumed that the factor F applies to all of the
exposures. Contributions from the remaining procedures are estimated below:
Abdomen: DA = F[(1.08x10
-4
C kg
-1
)/(2.58x10
-4
C kg
-1
R
-1
) + (ESE)(T)(I)] = 6.31 rads;
Pelvis: DP = F[ (0.79x10
-4
C kg
-1
)/(2.58x10
-4
C kg
-1
R
-1
)] = 0.138 rads; and
Lumbar spine: DL = F[(1.40x10
-4
C kg
-1
)/(2.58x10
-4
C kg
-1
R
-1
)] = 0.244 rads; so
C Total estimated dose to fetus = DA + DP +DL = 6.69 rads.
B. For an assumed dose in Part A of 3.5 rads, three pieces of advice, based on NCRP-54, given to
the womans OB/GYN regarding terminating the pregnancy or not include:
1. Advise the physician to make an actual recommendation to the woman, rather than simply giving
her statistics and risk information.
2. Advise the physician to present a comparison of the risks of continuing the pregnancy compared to
the risk of abortion.
3. Advise the physician to inform the woman that the incidence of birth defects in babies, independent
of radiation exposure, is about 5% and that any increased risk from fetal doses less than about 10
rads, during any stage of pregnancy, is very small compared to this normal risk. Such would be the
case here for the 3.5 rad dose.
15
C. Three pieces of information necessary to determine the risk of injury to the fetus from this incident
include: 1. age of fetus, 2. dose to fetus, and 3. dose to risk conversion factors for the effects
possible at this stage of gestation.
D. Five reasonable explanations as to why the woman appeared to have skin burns from the
[fluoroscopy] procedure include:
1. The timer was wrong, and the actual exposure time was greater than 2 minutes.
2. The current was wrong, and the actual machine current was greater than 2 mA.
3. The voltage was wrong, and the actual voltage was greater than that assumed.
4. The machine calibration was in error and the entrance skin exposure factor of 1.7 R/mA-min was
not correct.
5. If the fluoroscopic unit were equipped with a high level control, it is possible that the operating
physician made use of this high output system and it was not properly recorded.
Note: It seems unlikely that conditions could have been so far off from those anticipated as to produce
actual skin burns for this case because several hundred rads of entrance skin dose are required to
produce burns. It is likely that the skin irritation could have been due to something other than radiation
burns, and this should be followed up.
E. Five machine parameters that will affect fetal exposure from CT, x-ray, or fluoroscopy include: 1.
machine voltage, 2. machine current, 3. beam filtration, 4. beam area, and 5. machine on-time.
16
QUESTION 9
GIVEN: Lasers are in use for extended durations on a military battlefield tactics range where
purposeful staring into the beam is not anticipated nor intended. Tables of eye MPE
e
and
skin MPE
s
are provided.
A. For a laser with the following specifications, an appropriate MPE is calculated for a justified
selection of exposure duration T
max
:
Wavelength = 1.06 micrometers;
Pulse frequency = F = 0.5 Hz;
Beam width (exit, 1/e) = d
a
= 0.9 cm;
Energy/pulse = M M = 1.0 J;
Pulse width = W = 25x10
-9
s; and
Divergence = N N = 0.001 rad.
Per the cited ANSI standard Sections 8.2.2 and 8.2.2.2, an exposure duration t of 10 seconds is
reasonable for this near infrared wavelength and no purposeful staring into the beam. The eye MPE
e
for
a single pulse is calculated:
MPE
e
= 5 C
c
x 10
-6
J cm
-2
= 5x10
-6
J cm
-2
for C
c
= 1, as given below the table.
For the pulsed laser a correction factor is used to account for multiple pulses and is given by
C
p
= n
-1/4
where n is the number of pulses during the exposure interval. For this case n = (t)(F) or 5,
and so C
p
= 0.669. The adjusted MPE
e
is then calculated:
C MPE
e
= (0.669)(5x10
-6
J cm
-2
) = 3.34x10
-6
J cm
-2
.
The standard also requires a second calculation to protect against thermal effects for multiple pulses in
which the MPE is calculated as if for a CW laser for which the T
max
value is normally taken as 0.25 s.
For this case the table gives MPE = 9 C
c
t
3/4
x 10
-3
, and C
c
= 1. Thus for a single effective pulse, the
MPE is calculated:
MPE
e
= 9 C
c
t
3/4
x 10
-3
= 3.18x10
-3
J cm
-2
.
This would normally be divided by the number of pulses during the 0.25 s interval, but since this is less
than 1 pulse, we can assume that this value of 3.18x10
-3
J cm
-2
is the MPE
e
for thermal effects. This
17
value is clearly greater than the first value calculated above; thus, the first value of 3.34x10
-6
J cm
-2
would be the appropriate MPE
e
value. Note that the MPE
s
for the skin would have been calculated as
10 J cm
-2
from the last entry in the skin MPE table after multiplying by 10 s to convert to energy
density. Thus, the eye MPE
e
is limiting.
B. For the laser in A and an MPE of 7x10
-6
J cm
-2
, the NOHD is calculated from the handout sheets
of useful equations and the parameter values given in part A of this question:
C C NOHD = (1/N)(1.27 M/MPE - d
a
2
)
0.5
= 425,900 cm or 4259 km.
C. For the two CW lasers given, the organs at risk for biological damage are determined from
unprotected exposure at 1) the exit port and 2) 2 km based upon justified selections of T
max
for the
MPE calculated values in W cm
-2
compared to the values for the exit and 2 km irradiance in the
units of W cm
-2
and not the incorrect units W * cm
2
as shown in the given table to this part of the
question:
Argon laser: At the wavelength of 0.515 micrometers (green part of spectrum), the retina and skin
could be tissues at risk from unprotected exposure. The eye MPE
e
is calculated from the table
formula divided by the exposure time, t, to obtain W cm
-2
for an assumed exposure time t of 0.25 s
corresponding to the blink aversion time:
C MPE
e
=1.8 t
3/4
x 10
-3
/t = 2.55x10
-3
W cm
-2
.

The skin MPE
s
is calculated from MPE
s
= 1.1 C
A
x t
1/4
/t (given table value divided by t to get it into
power density) for exposure times from 1x10
-7
seconds to 10 seconds and from 0.2 C
A
for longer
times. Extended exposure times (compared to 0.25 s) to the skin are more likely, especially at the 2
km distance, and for a C
A
value of 1.0 and t = 10 seconds we obtain:
C C MPEs = 1.1 C
A
x t
1/4
/t = 0.2 W cm
-2
.
Both the eye MPE
e
and skin MPEs exceed the respective irradiance values given for exit and 2 km;
thus, neither tissue appears threatened. The eye is potentially irradiated to a much greater fraction of
the MPE, about 0.78, compared to only 0.01 for the skin at the beam exit port. The relative
irradiances at the 2 km distance are about 7 times less.
GaAs laser: At the 0.905 micrometer wavelength absorption occurs in the skin and all supraretinal
as well as retinal tissues of the eye. The eye MPE
e
is calculated from the given table formula again
divided by t to convert it to power density. The value of C
A
is obtained from the given formula: C
A
= 10
2(8-0.7)
= 2.57. An exposure interval t of 10 s is assumed based on the rationale shown in the
18
answer to Part A:
C MPE
e
= 1.8 C
A
t
3/4
x 10
-3
/t = 2.60x10
-3
W cm
-2
.
The skin MPE
s
would be calculated from the same expression used for the argon laser, except C
A
is 2.57 and t is 10 s; thus,
C MPE
s
= 1.1 C
A
x t
1/4
/t = 0.503 W/cm
2
.
The irradiance of 0.04 W cm
-2
at the exit exceeds the MPE
e
of 2.60x10
-3
W cm
-2
for the eye in this
case, and the eye would be the tissue at possible risk very close to the laser. Even if one allowed for a
very long time for possible skin exposure to the GaAs laser at the 2 km distance, e.g., 8 hours, the
calculated MPE
s
of 1.3x10
-3
W cm
-2
for an 8 hour exposure would be greater than the given irradiance
of 6.3x10
-7
W cm
-2
at 2 km.
D. For the two lasers of Part C, additional hazards for use of the lasers on this range include:
1. use of optical aids (e.g., binoculars) by personnel with possible enhancement of energy density to
the eye. The effect would be greater for the argon visible light than for the GaAs near I.R radiation.
Possible night use of infrared optical sensing aids could result in enhanced eye impact especially for
the GaAs laser depending on the extent of I.R. transmission through the associated optics.
2. reflection and refraction of beams from equipment/aircraft in the field with redirection of the beam
to ground personnel or to aircraft personnel. Reflection would be somewhat greater for the argon
laser than for the GaAs for many surfaces.
E. For the wavelengths 1 through 5 shown for the lasers in the left column, the tissue(s) A through E
with significant energy absorption shown in the list in the right column are: 1-D, 2-C, 3-C, 4-B,
and 5-E*.
* Comment: Based on the properties of the given wavelength of 0.36 :m for 5, the skin and
cornea tissues shown in C would seem to be an appropriate answer. According to the 1993 ANSI
standard Section B5.1 the cornea is at risk and per Section E.6 the lens is at potential risk
(opacities) as well as the retina from photochemical retinitis. Other answers would be possible
depending on the meaning of the word significant in this part of the question.
19
C
C
QUESTION 10
GIVEN: You are to assess expected radiological conditions during shutdown of a nuclear power
plant. Lists of data include: (1) average RCS conditions at 90 days prior to shutdown, (2)
containment system parameters, and (3) additional quantities including:
DAC / derived air concentration for
131
I = 2x10
-8
: :Ci cm
-3
;
w
T
/ thyroid stochastic risk dose weighting factor = 0.03; and
' ' / gamma constant for
58
Co = 5.5 R cm
2
h
-1
mCi
-1
= 0.55 mR m
2
h
-1
mCi
-1
.
A. When estimating the
131
I airborne concentration in containment 24 hours after shutdown from the
RCS and containment data, five considerations include: 1. the
131
I concentration in the reactor
coolant, 2. the RCS leak rate to the containment atmosphere, 3. the containment free air volume, 4.
the containment atmosphere charcoal filters cleanup flow rate, and 5. the containment atmosphere
pressure reduction ventilation rate.
B. The CDE to a workers thyroid and the associated CEDE are estimated from an exposure to a
constant containment atmosphere concentration C of 8x10
-9
: :Ci cm
-3
of
131
I for a time interval T of
10 h for the stated assumptions, given data, Reference Man ICRP models, and the assumption that
the thyroid is the only significantly irradiated tissue following an intake:
and
C. Four factors that should be considered in the pre-job analysis for containment entry after shutdown
to keep the total effective dose equivalent ALARA include: 1. the potential external radiation
exposures, 2. the potential internal radiation exposures, 3. the effect of adding shielding to reduce 1
and the additional exposures received by workers who add this shielding, 4. the effect that
respiratory protection has on reducing 2 but perhaps increasing 1 because of increased time
required to complete the job(s).
D. Adding H
2
O
2
to the RCS is expected to decrease the level of
58
Co on all internal surfaces of the
RCS and increase the level of
58
Co to 1 :Ci mL
-1
in the coolant, which is removed by the RCS
demineralizer:
20
C
1) Three methods for reducing the RCS
58
Co cleanup time include: (1) increasing the reactor
coolant cleanup flow rate above the given value of 100 gal min
-1
, (2) adding new resins to the
RCS demineralizer or regenerating the resins prior to cleanup, and (3) increasing the size of the
RCS demineralizer resin beds to improve the cleanup efficiency.
2) Two benefits of adding H
2
O
2
to the RCS at the onset of refueling include: (1) external radiation
exposures to workers will be reduced, and (2) internal radiation exposures will be reduced to
workers who are exposed to internal surfaces of the RCS that are contaminated with
58
Co.
E. The total activity A of
58
Co in a pipe having a length L of 2 m and a measured exposure rate X0 0 (d)
of 0.25 mR h
-1
at a perpendicular distance d of 2 m from the midpoint is calculated as follows
based on the stated assumptions as well as the assumptions that (1) the sample line can be
considered as a line source; (2) attenuation of gamma photons in the sample line and air can be
neglected; (3) the uniform specific activity C
L
of the line source is represented by the quotient A/L;
and (4) the angle 2 2 of 0.927 radians that the line subtends at the exposure point is calculated from
2 tan
-1
(), and it represents the sum of the angles 2
1
and 2
2
in the line source equation shown in
the attached Useful Equations and Constants given to candidates:
21
C
QUESTION 11
GIVEN: criticality accident in a fuel reprocessing facility involving a 45 cm by 45 cm tank containing
enriched uranium and the exposure of a technician standing behind a polyethylene shield:
r / distance of technician from the center of the tank = 300 cm;
x / thickness of polyethylene shield = 30 cm;
D D / density of polyethylene shield = 1.5 g cm
-3
;
S
F
/ number of fissions (f) in criticality accident = 1.0x10
16
f;
Y
n
/ neutron (average energy of 2.5 MeV) yield per fission = 3 n f
-1
;
Y
( (
/ gamma (average energy of 1.0 MeV) yield per fission = 8 ( ( f
-1
;
C
n
/ dose conversion factor for 2.5 MeV neutrons = 2 mrem h
-1
per 20 n cm
-2
s
-1
, or
2.78x10
-8
rem per n cm
-2
;
XC
( (
/ exposure conversion factor for fission (-rays = 1 R h
-1
per 6.0x10
5
( cm
-2
s
-1
, or
= 4.63x10
-10
R per ( ( cm
-2
; so
C
( (
/ dose conversion factor for fission (-rays = (XC
( (
)(0.95 rem/R)
= 4.40x10
-10
rem per ( ( cm
-2
;
T
n
/ neutron dose transmission through 30 cm polyethylene shield = 0.005;
: : / polyethylene linear attenuation coefficient for fission gamma spectrum = (:/D)D, or
= (0.073 cm
2
g
-1
)(1.5 g cm
-3
) = 0.110 cm
-1
; so
T
( (
/ uncollided gamma transmission through polyethylene shield = e
-:x
= 0.0369.
Note: The conversion of 0.95 rem/R shown for calculating C
(
is based on the given statement that 0.95
rad = 1 R, where the 0.95 rad is assumed here to represent the absorbed dose to tissue equivalent to
an exposure in air of 1 R and hence a dose equivalent of 0.95 rem.
A. The technicians neutron dose equivalent H
n
in rem is estimated from the bolded numerical values
shown for the given quantities in the equation:
The technicians gamma dose equivalent H
( (
in rem is estimated from the bolded numerical values
shown for the given quantities in the equation:
22
C
C
B. The maximum distance d in m over which a gamma criticality monitor will alarm is calculated from
the given data and assumptions stated for this part:
X0 0 / actual gamma exposure rate at alarm set point = (0.5 R h
-1
)(3500) = 1,750 R h
-1
;
S
F
/ number of fissions (f) in criticality accident = 1.0x10
16
f;
X
F
/ exposure constant for S
F
= 20 R at 2 m = 80 R m
2
;
J J / time interval for criticality incident = 1x10
-3
s = 2.78x10
-7
h; so
X0 0
F
/ exposure rate constant for S
F
= X
F
/J J = 2.88x10
8
R h
-1
m
2
.
C. Four factors that affect criticality include: 1. the mass of fissile material, 2. the geometry of the fissile
material, 3. the presence of moderator, and 4. the presence of reflector, e.g. a worker who may
approach a sub critical assembly which becomes prompt critical when the worker comes in close
proximity to the assembly of fissile material.
23
QUESTION 12
GIVEN: Electron accelerator having a water cooled beam stop in which 90% of beam power is
absorbed in the beam stop and 10% or a fraction f of 0.1 in the cooling water which has
saturation activities per unit power in water, A
i
(4 4)/P
w
, in GBq/kW listed in the given table
for each of five radionuclides i along with each half-life, principal emission, decay constant
8, and calculated concentrations for part A:

Nuclide i A
i
(4 4)/P
w
(GBq/kW)
Half-life Principal
Emission
8 8
(day
-1
)
C
i
(t)
(Bq L
-1
)
Ci(J J)
(Bq L
-1
)
15
O 1 330 123 s positron 487 1.10x10
9
0.00
13
N 2 3.7 9.96 m positron 100 1.23x10
7
0.00
11
C 3 15 20.34 m positron 49.1 5.00x0
7
0.00
7
Be 4 1.5 53.6 d gamma 0.0129 1.60x10
6
1.47x10
6
3
H 5 7.4 12.3 y beta 0.000154 1.14x10
5
1.14x10
5

C C(t) / / G G C
i
(t) = 1.16x10
9
Bq L
-1
, and C(J J) / / G G C
i
(J J) = 1.58x10
6
Bq L
-1
.
Other given data include:
V / volume of coolant water in which A
i
(4 4) is assumed to be uniformly mixed = 6000 L;
E / electron beam energy = 2.0 GeV = 2x10
9
eV;
I / average beam current = 100 :A = 1x10
-4
A; so
P / average total beam power = (E)(I) = 2x10
5
watts = 200 kw.
A. The activity concentrations C
i
(t) in Bq L
-1
of each radionuclide i and total activity concentration
C(t) in the coolant water after a time t of 30 days of constant beam are calculated from quantities
in the above table by
From values calculated for each radionuclide shown in the above table, C(t) is calculated:
C C(t) / / G G C
i
(t) = 1.16x10
9
Bq L
-1
.
24
The activity concentrations C
i
(J J) in Bq L
-1
of each radionuclide i and total activity concentration
C(J J) are calculated in the coolant water after a time t of 30 days of constant beam and a decay
interval J J of 7 days from quantities in the above table by
From values calculated for each radionuclide shown in the above table, C(J) is calculated:
C C(J J) / / G G C
i
(J J) = 1.58x10
6
Bq L
-1
.
B. For an accelerator with a beam energy of 4.5 GeV instead of 2.0 GeV and average beam current
of 50 : :A instead of 100 : :A, its specific activity relative to the original value would be a factor F
calculated:
C F = (4.5/2)(50/100) = 1.13 times higher.
C. Six factors to be considered in planning the release each day of up to 600 L out of a total coolant
water volume of 6000 L into the sanitary sewer include:
1. time for essentially complete decay of the short lived radionuclides, 1 through 3 in the above table,
so that the anticipated release each day would involve only 53.6 day half-life
7
Be and 12.3 y half-
life
3
H;
2. the activities of any other radionuclides released from the facility into the sanitary sewer in the month
and year of the anticipated release of the coolant water and accounting for these in calculating the
anticipated fractions of the respective limits.
3. the anticipated total activities of each radionuclide in the coolant water to be released;
4. the monthly volume of sanitary sewage for calculating the monthly average concentrations of each
radionuclide in the sanitary sewer from their total activities released in the month.
5. the sum of the anticipated monthly average concentrations in the sanitary sewer relative to their
stated limits (e.g., 0.006 :Ci mL
-1
of
7
Be and 0.01 :Ci mL
-1
of
3
H), whose sum should not exceed
unity; and
6. the limits for the total activities of released radionuclides in any year (e.g., 5 Ci of
3
H, 1 Ci of
14
C,
and 1 Ci of all other radionuclides).
Comment: From data shown in the above table, a concentration C
4
(J) of 0.0397 :Ci mL
-1
and
total activity A
4
(J) of 0.238 Ci of
7
Be and a concentration C
5
(J) of 0.00308 :Ci mL
-1
and total
activity A
5
(J) of 0.0185 Ci
3
H are expected to be present in the 6000 L coolant system 7 days
after a 30 day operating period. Such values should not present any problem for release under
current NRC regulations, especially when diluted by the monthly volume of sanitary sewage
released from the accelerator facility alone.
25
D. The two factors that should be considered for each of the stated five radiological aspects are the
same:
(1) the calculated activities of each radionuclide expected to be present in the spill taking into
account the amount of any decay, and
(2) the potential for these activities to cause external and/or internal exposures of workers.
Comment:
Based on the stated premise that you discover that 20 liters of water has leaked into the
cooling water building and cooling water is still leaking and entry into the building by personnel will be
required to stop the leak and clean up the spill, the requirements for any of the stated five radiological
aspects will depend on the total activities released and their potential of causing external and internal
radiation exposures. At the end of a 30 day operating period (See above table.), the total activities of
the first three, short lived, positron emitters (i.e., 123 s
15
O, 9.96 m
13
N, and 20.34 m
11
C) in the 20
liter spill are calculated respectively as 595 mCi, 6.65 mCi, and 27 mCi or a total activity of about 630
mCi. From the approximation for the exposure rate in R h
-1
at 1 foot from a point source, X0 = 6 C E,
the annihilation photons associated with these positron emitters would present an initial external
radiation exposure rate potential to workers in mR h
-1
of about (6)(630)(1.02) mR h
-1
or 3,860 mR h
-1
at one foot from the spill. The spill would not likely be represented as a point source, and the actual
exposure rate could be significantly less. In addition, this initial exposure rate of 3,680 mR h
-1
, which is
mostly due to 123 s half-life
15
O, would rapidly decrease with about a 2 minute half-life; so the total
exposure would be only about 270 mR even if a worker were to remain at a distance of one foot until
all three radionuclides completely decayed to zero activity. The ultimate exposure at 3 feet would be
only about 30 mR for a point source. If volatile, these same three radionuclides might also present some
internal exposure, but this internal exposure would be very small based upon their very short half-lives
and an unlikely intake fraction of 1x10
-6
(NRC Regulatory Guide 8.25, Air Sampling in the
Workplace, 1992). Because there is some external exposure potential, no effort should be made to
clean up the spill until these short lived radionuclides essentially decay to zero activity levels. It
reasonably can be assumed that the accelerator has been shut down and that sufficient time has elapsed
for the first three positron emitters to have essentially decayed to insignificant activities prior to entry
into the cooling water building. However, if shutting the accelerator down could cause undue costs and
inconvenience to the ongoing research programs, then entry could be made into the cooling water
building to terminate the leak with minimal internal and external exposures to workers. Based on the
calculations shown above, the external exposure of any worker from the spill certainly would not likely
exceed 30 mR, and the internal exposures would be insignificant, certainly less than a CEDE of 1
mrem.
Cleanup of the spill could be delayed until all short lived positron emitters decay to negligible
activity levels. The activities of the remaining two radionuclides (i.e.,
7
Be and
3
H) in the 20 L spill are
26
assumed in the following evaluations to be comparable to respectively 795 :Ci and 61.6 :Ci calculated
from values shown for C
i
(J) in the above table. These activities correspond to specific activities S
A
of
only 0.0397 :Ci g
-1
for
7
Be and 0.00308 :Ci g
-1
for
3
H in the 20 L of spilled cooling water at 7 days
after a 30 day operating period. The maximum absolute concentration C
m
of water in the air cannot
exceed the saturation concentration limit for a given temperature, which is 17.3 g m
-3
at twenty degrees
centigrade. Even if the room containing the spill in the cooling water building is unventilated and even if
all of the water vapor in the room were to be derived from water contaminated with tritium at the
specific activity S
A
of 0.00308 :Ci g
-1
for
3
H in the spilled cooling water, the airborne activity
concentration U could not exceed:
which is only 0.27% of the DAC of 20 :Ci m
-3
for HTO. The stochastic effect-based inhalation ALIs
or S-ALIs of
7
Be and
3
H are respectively 20,000 :Ci (HTO) and 80,000 :Ci (any compound form).
In cleaning up the spill, the potential intakes I of
7
Be and
3
H are calculated from the NRC unlikely
intake fraction of 1x10
-6
as 7.95x10
-4
:Ci and 6.16x10
-5
:Ci, which have CEDEs of only about
2x10
-4
mrem and 4x10
6
mrem respectively. The 795 :Ci of
7
Be (total photon energy E of 0.0494
MeV per Bq s) would yield an exposure rate of only about (6)(0.795)(0.0494) mR h
-1
or 0.24 mR h
-1
at 1 foot from the spill and 0.026 mR h
-1
at 3 feet from the spill, which again is conservatively assumed
to be represented by a point source. The activities of
7
Be and
3
H pose an insignificant potential for
external or internal radiation exposures, and none of the five stated radiological aspects would be
required except perhaps protective clothing and gloves to minimize contamination of workers and
external dosimetry to document the external exposures for reasons other than justified by any potential
exposure from the spill, including for example the exposures from normal external radiation fields in the
cooling water building if the machine were to remain in operation.
More specific answers to this part D can be made only if sufficient radiological data are
provided for the external and internal radiation sources, including information that allows the estimation
of potential external and internal radiation exposures. Other than data provided in the premise to this
question, which does not necessarily apply to this part, no specific information nor data are given for
this part. In general, the evaluation and control of exposures to external and internal radiation sources
should include:
1. an inventory of the types and quantities of internal and external radiation sources,
2. the evaluation of potential exposures to both types of sources,
3. the establishment of justified monitoring requirements for both types of sources that provide
timely detection of significant exposures so that corrective actions can be taken and follow-up
monitoring procedures implemented to improve the accuracy of the exposures and
corresponding internal and/or external radiation doses, and
4. the selection of those protective measures for external and internal radiation sources that are
27
thought to maintain the total effective dose equivalent as low as reasonable achievable
(TEDE ALARA). For example, respiratory protection and other internal radiation protective
measures that increase the time required to complete a job should not be used if the external
radiation exposure potential far exceeds the internal radiation exposure potential, which is
certainly the situation in this case.
28
QUESTION 13
GIVEN: an industrial site with several buildings contaminated with natural uranium being remediated,
surveyed with an alpha scintillation probe, and evaluated for unrestricted release, where:
R / maximum gross measurement = 100 cpm;
DCGL / derived concentration guideline level assuming that no more than 10% of the activity
is removable = 500 dpm per 100 cm
2
;
A / probe area = 50 cm
2
;
E / the response of your alpha scintillation probe for U-nat = 20%
= 0.2 c per decay of U-nat;
Y / surface emission abundance of alphas from a concrete block = 50%; and
B / probe background = 2 cpm.
A. The release criteria are usually regulatory limits expressed in terms of dose or risk. Two critical
factors in evaluating equipment or property for unrestricted release are:
1. the types and quantities of radioactive contamination present and
2. the possible pathways of exposure.
B. A DCGL is a Derived Concentration Guideline Level, which is an action level based on a
specific release criterion, exposure pathway, and measurement. The DCGL is a predicted or
measured concentration of a contaminant that would cause a dose or risk equal to the release
criterion for a specific exposure pathway. Because DCGLs are based on possible exposure
pathways, the planned use or reuse of structures does affect the determination of DCGLs.
(reference: MARSSIM - NUREG 1575).
C. The surface specific activity or concentration U associated with the probe measurement is
calculated:
C U = (R-B)(100/AE) = (100 cpm - 2 cpm)(100)/[(50 cm
2
)(0.2 c d
-1
)] = 980 dpm per 100 cm
2
;
therefore, the building cannot be released. The measurement value corresponds to a concentration
that exceeds the DCGL value of 500 dpm per 100 cm
2
. In addition, it is not known from the probe
measurement what fraction of the activity is removable.
Comment: The given 20% response of the alpha scintillation probe is ambiguous. Because the
basis for this percentage is not given and no units are given, this parameter can be interpreted in
29
many ways (e.g., counts per alpha, counts per decay, etc.). I choose to interpret this response as
0.2 counts per decay of natural uranium on the surface of a concrete block. Therefore, I assume
that the number of alpha particles emitted by uranium and progeny per decay of natural uranium,
the fraction of the alpha particles emitted from the surface, and the probability that an alpha particle
emitted from the surface of the block is detected are all factored into this value. The value of 50%
and definition given for Y, surface emission abundance of alphas from a concrete block, is very
obscure, and it is considered here as irrelevant and extraneous information.
D. Four factors to be considered in converting gross gamma instrument readings to a specified DCGL
(actually to convert them to the same quantity and units for comparison with a specified DCGL)
when scanning soils for gamma emitters include:
1. the detector background counting rate,
2. the scanning speed and geometry (technique),
3. the detector intrinsic gamma detection efficiency, and
4. the effect of photon absorption and scatter in soils.
E. Five pathways by which radioactivity in soil can contribute to human dose include:
1. direct terrestrial exposure to penetrating radiations,
2. transfer of radioactivity from soil to water and subsequent ingestion of water.
3. transfer of radioactivity to air by evaporation, emanation, or other physical airborne entrainment
with subsequent inhalation of the radioactive aerosols,
4. absorption of radioactivity from soil by plants and subsequent ingestion, and
5. transfer of radioactivity to grazing livestock and subsequent ingestion of milk and other animal
byproducts.
Two important parameters when conducting a dose assessment of contaminated soil include:
1. the specific activity of the soil, which determines the mass of suspended soil per unit volume of air
that is required to reach a given airborne activity concentration, and
2. the AMAD and geometric standard deviation of the suspended soil particles, which influence their
respiration, deposition, and clearance from compartments within the respiratory tract.
30
C
QUESTION 14
GIVEN: a table including air sampling data for
125
I in three separate rooms including the sampling
flow rate F in L min
-1
, duration of procedure which is assumed to equal the air sampling
time t in hours, and
125
I filter activity A in MBq; a table for the CDE per unit intake for
various target organs; a table of stochastic and non-stochastic ALIs and DACs; and
additional data specifically given:
T
1/2
/ half-life of
125
I = 60.14 days = 8.66x10
4
min; so
125
I = (ln 2)/T
1/2
= 8.00x10
-6
min
-1
;
R / air sample filter collection efficiency = 0.95;
F
v
/ exhaust ventilation flow rate in room 3 = 15 m
3
min
-1
;
V / air volume of room 3 = 60 m
3
; so
K / room 3 ventilation removal rate constant for
125
I = F
v
/V = 0.25 min
-1
; so
k / room 3 total removal rate constant for
125
I = K + 8 K = 0.250 min
-1
= 15 h
-1
;
DAC / non-stochastic DAC for
125
I = 0.001 MBq m
-3
;
S-DAC / stochastic effect-based DAC for
125
I = 0.002 MBq m
-3
;
<CEDE/I> / CEDE per unit intake of
125
I = 6.53x10
-3
Sv MBq
-1
; and
<CDE/I> / thyroid CDE per unit intake of
125
I = 2.16x10
-1
Sv MBq
-1
;
A. The average airborne
125
I concentration C in each room is calculated:
which yields for the three rooms from quantities in the specified units shown above:
C C
1
= 0.0984 MBq m
-3
for room 1;
C C
2
= 0.0878 MBq m
-3
for room 2; and
C C
3
= 0.172 MBq m
-3
for room 3.
B. The exposure E in the units of non-stochastic DAC-h of a technician exposed to an airborne
concentration C of 0.192 MBq m
-3
compared to the given DAC of 0.001 MBq m
-3
for a time T
of 3 h is calculated:
31
therefore, no dose limits have been exceeded because the exposure is less than the exposure limit
of 2,000 DAC-h for any control year of practice for a technician having no other internal nor
external exposures in that control year of practice.
C. The CDE and CEDE of a declared pregnant worker with minimal deep dose equivalent who has an
intake I of 0.27 MBq of
125
I are calculated:
C CDE = I <CDE/I> = (0.27 MBq)(0.216 Sv MBq
-1
) = 0.0583 Sv = 5.83 rem, and
C CEDE = I <CEDE/I> = (0.27 MBq)(6.53x10
-3
Sv MBq
-1
) = 1.76x10
-3
Sv = 0.176 rem.
Given no further information in the question, the CDE
G
to the gonads of the pregnant worker is
calculated as a surrogate of the CDE
F
to the fetus from the given intake to dose constant of
1.84x10
-11
Sv Bq
-1
or 1.84 mrem MBq
-1
:
C CDE
F
= (0.27 MBq)( 1.84 mrem MBq
-1
) = 0.497 mrem,
which is considerably less than the NCRPs fetal dose recommendation of 500 mrem. Therefore, it
is not likely that the NCRPs recommendation was exceeded.
Comment: Intake to dose conversion factors are available for the fetus of a pregnant worker, and
one should have been provided in this part to the question.
D. Four radiological controls that could be established to reduce exposures to
125
I include:
1. daily screening of each workers thyroid gland to trigger investigations and corrections of
situations in the workplace that might be causing significant exposures;
2. improving the face velocity in the fume hood and procedures used for iodination to limit releases
to the ambient air;
3. requiring the animal sacrifice and LPLC procedures to take place in fume hoods; and
4. using iodine continuous air monitors that alarm and trigger evacuations, investigations, and
corrections of situations in the workplace that might be causing significant exposures.
E. For a non-stochastic DAC of 0.001 MBq m
-3
, the exposure E is calculated for a repairman who is
exposed to a constant concentration C(0) of 0.10 MBq m
-3
for a time interval T of 1 h in Room #
3 during the end of the LPLC procedure and then for an additional time interval J J of 2 h when the
concentration C(J J) is assumed to decrease exponentially from its initial value C(0) due to ventilation
removal and decay with an associated rate constant k of 15 h
-1
:
32
C
which for an S-DAC of 0.002 MBq m
-3
corresponds to a stochastic effect-based exposure of
53.5 S-DAC-h and a CEDE of 134 mrem. Therefore, the exposure exceeds the 100 mrem limit
for a member of the general public.

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ADVANCED HEALTH PHYSICS REVIEW COURSE

ABHP American Board of Health Physics Examination Preparation Guide

. The theoretical, Poisson estimated standard deviation, F

, of the average count C) of 9,463. Thus, the

or 70.7% when < equals (n - 1) or 4

or as 63.2% for 5 degrees of freedom <. Such a poor precision in the

Ionizing Radiation (Cont.)

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