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ANDREWS JUNIOR COLLEGE JC2 2009 Preliminary Examination PHYSICS, Higher 2 Paper 1 Multiple Choice 18th September 2009 (1430 Hrs 1545 Hrs) Additional Materials: Optical Mark Sheet (OMS) READ THESE INSTRUCTIONS FIRST Write in soft pencil. Do not use staples, paper clips, highlighters, glue or correction fluid. Write your name, Civic Group and index number on the separate Optical Mark Sheet (OMS). There are forty questions on this paper. Answer all the questions. For each question there are four possible answers A, B, C, D. Choose the one you consider correct and record your choice in soft pencil on the separate Optical Mark Sheet (OMS). Each correct answer will score one mark. A mark will not be deducted for a wrong answer. Any rough working should be done in this booklet. Instructions for using the Optical Mark Sheet (OMS) 9745/01

1 hour 15 minutes

Class no. Write your numbers here Register no.

1. 2. 3.

Fill in your class number (e.g. 08S05 = "05", 08S23 = 23) in the first two rows. Fill in your class register number in the next two rows. (e.g. register number 4 is filled in as "04"). Write your class and register numbers into the column on the left.

This Question Paper consists of 16 printed pages


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2 Data speed of light in free space , permeability of free space, permittivity of free space, c o o = 3.00 x 108 m s-1 = 4 x 10-7 H m-1 = 8.85 x 10-12 F m-1 (1 / (36)) x 10-9 F m-1 elementary charge, the Planck constant, unified atomic mass constant, rest mass of electron, rest mass of proton, molar gas constant, the Avogadro constant, the Boltzmann constant, gravitational constant, acceleration of free fall, e h u me mp R NA k G g = 1.60 x 10-19 C = 6.63 x 10-34 J s = 1.66 x 10-27 kg = 9.11 x 10-31 kg = 1.67 x 10-27 kg = 8.31 J K-1 mol-1 = 6.02 x 1023 mol-1 = 1.38 x 10-23 J K-1 = 6.67 x 10-11 N m2 kg-2 = 9.81 m s-2

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3 Formulae uniformly accelerated motion, s v2 work done on/by a gas, hydrostatic pressure, gravitational potential, W p = u t + a t2 = u2 + 2 a s = p V = g h =

Gm r

displacement of particle in s.h.m., velocity of particle in s.h.m.,

x v

= x0 sin t = v0 cos t
2 = (x 0 x 2 )

resistors in series, resistors in parallel, electric potential,


alternating current/voltage, transmission coefficient,

= R1 + R2 +

1 / R = 1 / R1 + 1 / R2 + V
x T where k

Q 4 0 r

= x0 sin t = exp (-2 k d) = 8 2m(U E) h2

radioactive decay, decay constant,

= x0 exp (- t) =
0.693 t1
2

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The equation governing the volume rate of flow,

V of a fluid under t streamline conditions through a horizontal pipe of length, l and radius, r is V Pr 4 = t 8l a where P is the pressure difference across the pipe and a is a characteristic factor of fluid flow. What is the unit of a?
A B C D

kg m s1 kg1 m s kg m1 s1 kg1 m1 s

A car accelerates uniformly from rest and travels a distance of (100 1) m. If the acceleration of the car is (6.5 0.5) m s2, what would be its final velocity at the end of the distance covered?
A B C D

(36 1) m s1 (36.1 1.5) m s1 (36 2) m s1 (36 3) m s1

A ball is dropped from a window located at the tenth storey of a building. 1 second after it is released, the ball is observed to have fallen by exactly 2 storeys. At which storey will the ball be 2 seconds after it is released?
A B C D

2 4 6 8

A cannon at the top of a 30 m high hill fires a shell at an angle of 30.0 upwards from the horizontal with a speed of 50.0 m s-1. Taking air resistance to be negligible, what is the angle to the vertical at which the shell lands on level ground?
A B C D

7.93 38.9 51.2 82.1

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5 5

A man who weighs 600 N is sitting in a chair with his feet on the floor and arms resting on the armrests. The chair weighs 100 N. Each armrest exerts an upward force of 25.0 N on his arms and the seat exerts an upward force of 500 N. What force does the floor exert on his feet?
A B C D

50 N 75 N 100 N 150 N

The net force on a moving object suddenly becomes zero. The object then
A B C D

stops abruptly. slows down gradually. changes direction. continues at constant velocity.

A mass sits at rest on top of a table. Which two forces that are not action-reaction pair forces but are equal and opposite? i. The force of gravity on the mass due to the earth. ii. The contact force on the mass due to the table. iii. The force of gravity on the earth due to the mass. iv. The contact force on the table due to the mass.
A B C D

i and iii. ii and iv. i and iv. i and ii.

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6 8

The following diagrams show forces acting on uniform rulers. Which of the following diagram(s) does (do) not show a couple? I 20 N 20 N II 20 N 30 N III 20 N IV 10 N

20 N

10 N

A B C D

I and III only I, III and IV only I, II and III only IV only

When a beaker of water rests on a balance, the weight indicated is X. A solid object of weight Y in air displaces weight Z of water when immersed. What will be the balance reading when the object is suspended in the beaker of water so that it is totally immersed?
A B C D X X+Y X+Z X+Z-Y

10

A mass is projected upwards at an angle to the horizontal, where is not equal to 900. Neglecting air resistance, which of the following statements is correct?
A B C D

The kinetic energy of the mass is zero at the maximum height attained. In accordance with the principle of conservation of energy, the total energy of the mass is constant throughout the motion. The mass travels equal distances during equal periods of time during ascent and descent. The potential energy increases uniformly with time during ascent.

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11

In order to check the speed of a camera shutter, the camera was used to photograph a mass hung on a spring vibrating in front of a vertical scale. The extreme positions of the mass were at the 105 mm and 205 mm marks. The photographer showed that while the shutter was opened, the mass moved from the 155 mm mark to the 180 mm mark. If the period of the mass was 2 seconds, the shutter remained open for
A B C D

1.00 s 0.50 s 0.25 s 0.17 s

12

Which one of the following is an effect of an increase in damping in a forced oscillation?


A B C D

the amplitude at resonance increases the natural frequency at resonance increases the total energy of the system increases the period of the driven oscillator at resonance increases

13

Two binary stars of equal mass M move with constant speed v in a circular orbit of radius R about their common centre of mass as shown below.

What is the speed v of each star?


A
GM R

GM 2R

2GM R

GM 4R

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8 14

A stationary object is released from a point at a height of 2R from the surface of the Moon which has radius R and mass M. What is the correct expression for the speed of the object on hitting the Moon?
A
4GM 3R 2GM 3R 4GM R 2GM R

15

A fixed mass of gas in a thermally-insulated container is compressed. After compression, the temperature of the gas will have
A B C D

fallen, since the molecules bombarding the walls of the container will have smaller velocities after the compression. remained constant as the container wall is well insulated. risen, since doing work on the gas increases the kinetic energy of the molecules. risen, since there are more frequent collisions and so more heat is produced by the collisions.

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9 16

In an experiment to find its specific latent heat of vaporisation, water is vaporised using an immersion heater as shown.

Three sources of error in this experiment are:


Error 1: water splashing out of the container; Error 2: vapour condensing on the handle of the heater and dripping back into the container; Error 3: Heat is conducted away from the bottom of the container.

What is the effect of these three experimental errors on the calculated value for the specific latent heat?

A B C D

Error 1 Decrease Decrease Increase Increase

Error 2 Decrease Increase Decrease Increase

Error 3 Increase Increase Decrease Decrease

17

A fixed mass of ideal gas undergoes constant pressure expansion. Which set of changes below correctly represents the change, where

U = change in internal energy, Q = heat energy supplied to the system, and W = work done on the system?
A B C D

U + + -

Q + +

W + +

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10 18

Why would it be impossible to obtain interference fringes in a doubleslit experiment if the separation of the slits is less than the wavelength of the light used?
A B C D

The very narrow slits required would generate many different wavelengths, thereby washing out the interference pattern. The two slits would not emit coherent light. The fringes would be too close together. In no direction could a path difference as large as one wavelength be obtained, and this is needed if a bright fringe, in addition to the central fringe, is to be observed.

19

Radiowaves are diffracted by large objects such as buildings whereas light is not noticeably diffracted. Why is this?
A B C D

Radiowaves are unpolarised whereas light is polarised. The wavelength of light is much smaller than the wavelength of radiowaves. The wavelength of light is much greater than the wavelength of radiowaves. Radiowaves are coherent whereas light is normally not coherent.

20

In a double-slit experiment, the slit separation is 2.0 mm, and two wavelengths, 750 nm and 900 nm, illuminate the slits. A screen is placed 2.0 m from the slits. At what distance from the central maximum on the screen will a bright fringe from one pattern first coincide with a bright fringe from the other?
A B C D

1.5 mm 3.0 mm 4.5 mm 6.0 mm

21

Monochromatic light of wavelength 500 nm is incident normally on a grating. If the third-order maximum of the diffraction pattern is observed at 32.0o, how many maxima can be seen?
A B C D

5 7 10 11

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11 22

The wiring in a house must be thick enough so that it does not become so hot as to start a fire. What diameter must a 2 m copper wire be if it is to carry a maximum current of 35 A and produce no more than 1.8 W of heat per meter of length? (Resistivity of copper = 1.68 10-8 m)
A B C D

1.9 mm 2.7 mm 3.8 mm 5.4 mm

23

A length of insulated wire is cut in half and the two lengths are wrapped together side by side to make a thicker wire. What is the ratio of the resistance of this new combination to the resistance of the original wire?
A B C D

1:1 1:4 2:1 4:1

24

Referring to the figure below, the current through the 4.0 k resistor is 3.5 mA. What is the resistance of the unknown resistor R? 4.0 k R 5.0 k 8.0 k

1.0 k 77.0 V
A B C D

5 k 6 k 7 k 8 k

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25

In the circuit below, the 33 resistor dissipates 0.50 W. What is the E.M.F of the battery? Assume its internal resistance is negligible. 68 33 75

A B C D

1.0 V 5.8 V 8.5 V 10 V

26

In the figure below, the point charge Q1 causes an electric potential of -60 V and electric field strength of magnitude 30 V m-1 at P. The point charge Q2 separately causes a potential of 120 V and field strength of magnitude 40 V m-1 at P.

Q1

Q2 P

Which one of the following gives possible values of potential and field strength at P due to the joint action of Q1 and Q2? Potential/V 180 180 60 60 Field strength/V m-1 10 70 50 10

A B C D

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27

An electron moves in a direction opposite to an electric field. Which of the following statements is correct? Work done by the field on the electron is positive positive negative negative Potential energy of electron and field increases decreases increases decreases Kinetic energy of electron decreases increases decreases increases

A B C D

28

Assuming lightning strikes are vertically downwards and they consist of negative charges, in which direction would a lightning be deflected by the magnetic field of the Earth?
A

North

South

East

West.

29

A charge moves in a circular orbit in a uniform magnetic field. Which one of the following statements is correct?
A B C D

The force on the charge is parallel to the field. The period of the orbit is independent of the speed of the charge. The momentum of the charge is independent of the radius of orbit. The radius of the orbit is directly proportional to the charge.

30

A conducting rod slides along a wire frame of negligible resistance and moves to the right with a speed of v = 4 m s-1 across a magnetic field perpendicular to the plane of the frame as shown in the figure below. If L = 1.5 m, R = 12 , and the magnetic flux density = 5 T, what is the direction of the induced current and the power dissipated by R?

L
B

A B C
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Direction of induced current anticlockwise clockwise anticlockwise


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Power dissipated 75 W 75 W 2.5 W


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14 D 31

clockwise

2.5 W

An alternating current with a rectangular waveform flows through a 11 resistor. What is the average power dissipated by the resistor?

0W

44 W

66 W

88 W

32

A 10 MW nuclear power station produces electrical power at 600 V. It uses a step-up transformer with a turns ratio of 1:200 to increase the voltage before transmitting it over long-distance cables of total resistance 15 . At the destination end of the cables, a second transformer with a turns ratio of 10:1 steps down the voltage. Calculate the power lost as heat in the cables.

5.0 104 W 1.0 106 W

1.0 105 W 9.6 108 W

C 33

An electron is incident on a potential barrier with a kinetic energy of 2.0 eV.The barrier height is 6.0 eV and the transmission coefficient is 0.13. What is the reflection coefficient?
A

zero

0.25

0.33

0.87

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15 34

Part of an emission spectrum for hydrogen is shown in the figure below.

Intensity

linewidth

Frequency of emitted photon

The emission lines which represent electronic transitions between discrete energy levels are not perfectly sharp, but instead display finite linewidths as shown above. Which of the following best accounts for this phenomenon?
A B C D energy-time uncertainty principle quantum tunnelling of electrons position-momentum uncertainty principle wave-particle duality of photons

35

When an atom absorbs radiation of wavelength 1, it makes a transition from its ground state of energy E1 to an excited state of energy E3. Then it makes a second transition to a state of lower energy E2, emitting radiation of wavelength 2. What is the wavelength of the radiation emitted by the atom when it makes a third transition back to the ground state?
A

1 2

2 1

12 1 2

12 2 1

36

A semiconductor, bombarded with light of slowly-increasing frequency, begins to conduct when the wavelength of light is 640 nm. Estimate the size of the energy gap.
A

1.94 eV

2.65 eV

3.11 eV

4.78 eV

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37

Which statement about semiconductors is correct?


A B C D

Intrinsic semiconductors at low temperatures are good conductors of electricity. Current in a p-type semiconductor involves the motion of positive ions. An n-type semiconductor contains a lattice of positive ions. A junction between n- and p-type semiconductors conducts electric current best when the p slice is negative and the n slice is positive.

38

A helium nucleus is formed by the fusing together of two deuterium nuclei. The reaction is represented by
2 1 2 H + 1H 4 2

He + energy

Given that the binding energy per nucleon of helium is 2.54 MeV and the minimum amount of energy released in this reaction is 3.26 MeV, what is the binding energy per nucleon of deuterium?
A B C D

1.73 2.18 2.72 3.45

MeV MeV MeV MeV

39

In order to trace the line of a water pipe buried 1.0 m below the ground, a radioactive isotope could be added to the water. Which of the following best describes the most appropriate radioactive isotope to be used for this purpose? Radioactive isotope
A B C D

. Half life A few seconds A few minutes A few hours A few days Alpha emitter Beta emitter Gamma emitter Gamma emitter

40

Which of the following has the lowest initial decay rate?


A B C D

0.7 mole of 1.0 mole of

241 94

Pu ; half-life 4800 days

230 90

Th ; half-life 400 days


228 88 225 89

0.001 mole of 0.004 mole of

Ra ; half-life 3.5 days Ac ; half-life 10 days

End of Paper

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