Mind, Brain & Behaviour Practice Exam 2 hrs 105 questions

1. Which of the following statements are false: I. II. Franz Gall proposed that the brain was composed of faculties reflected by characteristic bumps on the skull Thomas Willis rejected the notion that the mind resides in the ventricles and proposed that thought is generated by the cortex (outer tissue of cerebral hemispheres) Hippocrates claimed that animals could only act reflexively whereas humans have a mind that permits them to act voluntarily. Descartes claimed that the pineal gland could tilt to direct animal spirits from ventricles out through hollow nerve fibres a) b) c) d) e) f) I II III IV None of the above All of the above

III. IV.

2. Which of the following statements are true: I. II. III. Walter Freeman introduced the prefrontal leucotomy for the relief of psychiatric disorders Hippocrates proposed that the brain is the seat of the command centre of the body in opposed to the heart Broca, Fritsch and Willis contributed to the development of the localisation of function in the brain I II III II & I None of the above All of the above

a) b) c) d) e) f)

3. Which of the following statements are false in terms of MS (Multiple Sclerosis): I. MS is an autoimmune disorder in which the body selectively attacks the synapses, effectively inhibiting the process of synaptic transmission between neurons, preventing information from propagating MS ultimately leads to paraplegia MS is an acquired neurological disorder that generally appears in people in their 20s or 30s

II. III. a) I

b) c) d) e)

II III None of the above All of the above

4. Which of the following statements are true: I. II. III. IV. Interneurons reside entirely in the PNS and communicate to the motor neurons with the assistance of the glia cells Neurons are only present in the CNS Sensory neurons transmit signals from the brain to the nucleus Pseudounipolar neurons have one axon that branches in two directions, ending in a dendritic tree at one end and axon terminals at the other I II III IV None of the above All of the above

a) b) c) d) e) f)

5. Which neuron correlates to the correct location of the neuron: I. II. III. IV. a) b) c) d) e) f) g) h) Motor Neuron Association Cell Pyramidal Cell Purkinje Cell Skin Cerebellum Cortex Spinal Cord

I II III IV IV & II IV & I None of the above All of the above

6. Which of the following statements are true: I. Withdrawal Reflex is an example of excitatory effects to the respective synaptic connections

II.

III. IV.

In terms of inhibition, the motor neurons in the spinal cord respond to a certain noxious stimulus, however the inhibition overrides the noxious stimulus and the excitatory reaction is repressed Astrocytes provide physical support for neurons as well as provide myelin sheath for neurons which surround the axon. Microglia are responsible for inflammation after brain damage and are agents of phagocytisis

a) b) c) d) e) f) g) h)

I II III IV IV & II I, IV & III None of the above All of the above

7. Which of the following statements are false: I. II. III. IV. a) b) c) d) e) f) g) h) Electrostatic pressure occurs when two ions or the opposing electrical charge are in the same vicinity Electrostatic pressure push cations away from regions where cations are scarce and anions get pushed away from regions where anions are scarce Normally the cell membrane is not very permeable to sodium ions (Na+) occurs before the refractory period I II III IV I & II II & III None of the above All of the above

8. Which statement best describes the Saltatory Conduction of the AP : I. II. III. IV. The process in which the action potentials jump into the segments of myelin around the axon which saves energy and increases the speed of neural signalling The action potential is generated by the influx of Ca2+ into the cell and occurs where the axon membrane is in direct contact with the extracellular fluid The strength of the electrical potential increases along the axon due the conservation of energy that the Saltatory Conduction of the AP enables Once triggered an action potential remains at the same amplitude and must reach a certain threshold for excitation

a) b) c) d) e) f)

I II III IV None of the above All of the above

9. Which of the following statements are false: I. II. III. Myasthenia Gravis arises from the disruption of the action potentials in nerves on the muscles leading to extreme fatigability Myasthenia Gravis causes weakness more in the distal muscles than the proximal muscles Myasthenia Gravis causes sufferers to experience dysphagia which is when they have problems talking I II III II & I None of the above All of the above

a) b) c) d) e) f)

10. Leucotomies were championed by a) Egas Moniz b) Luigi Galvani c) Thomas Willis d) Andrew Willis e) None of the above 11. Electricity plays a role in neural communication was a claim made by a) Egas Moniz b) Luigi Galvani c) Thomas Willis d) Andrew Wade e) None of the above 12. Which of the following processes are true of the withdrawal reflex: a) Detection of noxious signal signal is sent to the terminal buttons in the spinal cord the signal is sent to the brain the brain sends a signal to excite the motor neuron in the muscles which causes the muscle to contract b) detection of noxious signal signal is sent to the terminal buttons of affecter neurons located in the spinal cord the signal is sent to the brain the brain sends a signal to excite the interneurons in

the spinal cord the interneurons in the spinal cord send the single to motor neurons in the muscle which cause the muscle to contract c) detection of noxious signal is sent along the axon to the terminal buttons in the spinal cord signal is sent to the terminal buttons of affecter neurons located in the spinal cord the signal is sent to the brain the brain sends a signal to excite the motor neuron in the muscles which causes the muscle to contract d) Detection of noxious signal is sent along the axon to the terminal buttons in the spinal cord terminal buttons release a neurotransmitter into the synapse which excites the interneurons the interneuron send a message to its axon which releases neurotransmitters to excite the motor neuron the muscles contract 13. The inhibition of the withdrawal reflex is due to which of the following a) inhibitory synapses in the post-synaptic membranes of the neurons in the spinal cord b) inhibitory neurotransmitters c) insufficient action potentials due to a failure in neural comminucation 14. Which are the following is not a type of glial cell: a) Oligodendrocytes b) astrocytes c) purkinje d) Schwann 15. Which is the correct action potential sequence: a) depolarisation, refractory period, repolarisation, hyperpolarisation, interface period b) depolarisation, repolarisation, refractory period, interface period, hyperpolarisation c) depolarisation, repolarisation, interface period, hyperpolarisation d) depolarisation, interface period, repolarisation, refractory period, hyperpolarisation e) depolarisation, repolarisation, refractory period, hyperpolarisation 16.What is true in reference to the All-or-None law: a) the greater the frequency of stimulus to greater the likelihood that the resting potential threshold will be exceeded b) the jumping of the action potential along the myelinated axons increases the speed of the neural signalling c) despite varying levels of excitement, the amplitude is consistent d) none of the above 17. Which of the following statements are false: 1) Mysathenia Gravis is due to the disruption of the normal process of the transmission of the action potential along the axon 2) The side effects of Mysathenia Gravis include respiratory weakness and dysphagia 3) The muscle weakness in Mysathenia Gravis is more affected by the distal muscles than the proximal muscles a) 1 & 2

b) 2 & 3 c) 1 & 3 d) 1 only e) 2 only f) 3 only g) 1, 2, 3 are all false h) none of the statements are false 18. Which of the following statements are true in respect to neural migration? 1) neural migration is the interaction between the affects of EPSPs and IPSPs 2) Axosomatic and axodendritic synapses have EPSPs and IPSPs and neural migration 3) Axoaxonic synapses are not involved in neural integration a) 1 & 2 b) 2 & 3 c) 1 & 3 d) 1 only e) 2 only f) 3 only g) 1, 2, 3 are all true h) none of the statements are true 19. Which is not true of the telecephalon: 1) is composed of two cerebral hemispheres which form the cerebrum 2) the cerebrum composes of cortex, basal ganglia and the limbic system 3) encompasses the telencephalon and mesencephalon a)1 b)2 c)3 d)2 and 3 e) 1 and 2 f) 3 and 1 g) all of the above h) none of the above 20. Which of the following statements are false: 1) the cortex develops from the outside in 2) cortical development halts at the age of 16 3) the positions to which the different types of neurons migrate during developing determines the layered structure of the mature cortex a)1 b)2 c)3

d)2 and 3 e) 1 and 2 f) 3 and 1 g) all of the above h) none of the above 21. The inferior frontal gyrus is known as/for a) Brocas area b) the region responsible for motion detection and set-shifting c) engaging multiple senses simultaneously 22. Experimental methods in psychology aim to: A. Determine causation. B. Determine the relationship between two variables. C. Describe abnormal psychology. D. Determine absolute truth. 23 . The founder of the first psychology laboratory in Leipzig, Germany in 1875 was: A. E.B. Titchener. B. Wilhelm Wundt. C. William James. D. Sigmund Freud. 24. Which of the following statements best captures the basic idea of operant conditioning? A. Behaviour is shaped and maintained by its consequences. B. By pairing a neutral stimulus with a response-producing stimulus, the neutral stimulus can come to produce the same response. C. Mental processes play a critical role in the process of imitating the behaviour of others. D. Behaviour can only be understood by considering underlying mental processes. 25. The process of rewarding successive approximations to a desired behaviour is called: A. Shaping B. Latent learning C. Observational learning D. None of the above. 26. In operant conditioning terms, any event whose presence decreases the likelihood that a behaviour will occur in future is known as: A. Positive reinforcement. B. Negative reinforcement. C. Conditioned reinforcement. D. Punishment.

27. An animal learns to press a button in order to turn off an aversive noise. This is an example of: A. Negative reinforcement. B. Learned helplessness. C. Punishment. D. Torture. 28. Learning theory is associated with which school of psychological thought? A. Structuralism. B. Functionalism. C. Behaviourism. D. Cognitivism. 29. Negative reinforcement _________ the likelihood of a behaviour being repeated, and punishment _____ the likelihood of a behaviour being repeated. A. increases; increases B. increases; decreases C. decreases; increases D. decreases; decreases 30. The failure to learn to avoid an electric shock after repeated exposure to unavoidable electric shock is referred to as: A. learned helplessness. B. biological preparedness. C. avoidance due to negative reinforcement. D. an unconditioned response (UCR). 31. According to psychologist Edward Tolman, learning that is not immediately demonstrated in overt behavior is: A. a conditioned response. B. discriminative learning. C. latent learning. D. trial-and-error learning. 32. Which of the following statements is true? A. Observational learning is entirely separate from both classical and operant conditioning. B. Observational learning is a form of classical conditioning. C. Observational learning is a form of operant conditioning. D. Both classical and operant conditioning can take place vicariously through observational learning. 33. Information in working memory is held: A. In an encapsulated state.

B. Outside of awareness. C. In an active state. D. In a permanent state. 34. Working memory is used for: A. Automatic and skilled activities. B. Problem solving and reasoning. C. Conscious and deliberate activities. D. A and B. E. B and C. 35. According to Baddeley s model of working memory, processing in the phonological loop is based on: A. Visually coded representations. B. Speech coded representations. C. Sensory coded representations. D. Propositionally coded representations. 36. In Baddeley s model, mental rotation of objects is accomplished using which working memory component: A. The homunculus. B. Short-term memory. C. The phonological loop. D. The visuospatial sketchpad. 37. In Baddeley s model of working memory, the system that controls the contents of working memory and relates it to long-term memory is called: A. The central executive. B. The central processor. C. The central controller. D. The homunculus.

38. For boys, the average number of absences in the first grade is 15 with a standard deviation of 7; for girls, the average number of absences is 10 with a standard deviation of 6. In a nationwide survey, suppose 100 boys and 50 girls are sampled. What is the probability that the male sample will have at most three more days of absences than the female sample? (A) 0.025 (B) 0.035 (C) 0.045

(D) 0.055 (E) None of the above 39. 1. One of the side e ects of ooding a lake in northern boreal forest areas (e.g. for a hydro-electric project) is that mercury is leached from the soil, enters the food chain, and eventually contaminates the sh. The concentration in sh will vary among individual sh because of di erences in eating patterns, movements around the lake, etc. Suppose that the concentrations of mercury in individual sh follows an approximate normal distribution with a mean of 0.25 ppm and a standard deviation of 0.08 ppm. Fish are safe to eat if the mercury level is below 0.30 ppm. What proportion of sh are safe to eat? (a) 63% (b) 23% (c) 73% (d) 27% (e) 37% 40. The Department of Fisheries and Oceans wishes to know the mercury level of the top 20% of the sh. The appropriate percentile and mercury level for this lake is (refer to previous questions): (a) 20th percentile has a value of 0:84 ppm (b) 20th percentile has a value of 0:18 ppm (c) 80th percentile has a value of 0:32 ppm (d) 80th percentile has a value of 0:84 ppm (e) 20th percentile has a value of 0:07 pp 41. A 95 % confidence interval:

a. can only be used in parametric data b. it is a test of the null hypothesis c. it is calculated at 1.96 times the standard error of the mean d. is useful when comparing data with another population e. if zero difference lies within the 95% when comparing two groups to a treatment, it indicates the treatment has no effect 42. Which of the following statements are true? (Check one) I. Categorical variables are the same as qualitative variables. II. Categorical variables are the same as quantitative variables. III. Quantitative variables can be continuous variables. a) I b) II c) III D) I & III 43. Which of the following statements is true. I. When the margin of error is small, the confidence level is high. II. When the margin of error is small, the confidence level is low. III. A confidence interval is a type of point estimate. IV. A population mean is an example of a point estimate. a) b) c) d) e) f) I II III IV None of the above All of the above

44. Which of the following statements is true. I. The standard error is computed solely from sample attributes. II. The standard deviation is computed solely from sample attributes. III. The standard error is a measure of central tendency.

a) I b) I c) III d) I & II