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Chapter 2
Biomolecules
Solutions
SECTION - A
Objective Type Questions
(How to Analyse Chemical Composition? Primary and Secondary Metabolites, Carbohydrates)
1. Which of the following is not strictly a biomacromolecule?
(1) Proteins (2) Lipids (3) Polysaccharides (4) Nucleic acid
Sol. Answer (2)
Because the molecular weight of lipids does not exceed 800 Da but they come under the acid insoluble fraction.
(Proteins, Lipids)
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9. Lecithin is a
(1) Type of wax (2) Phospholipid (3) Oil (4) Simple fatty acid
Sol. Answer (2)
Because lecithin made up of a molecule of glycerol, a phosphate group, 2 fatty acid molecules, choline
(N-containing alcohol molecule)
O
O CH2 O C R1
R2 C O CH O CH3
CH2 O P O CH2 CH2 N CH3
OH CH3
Lecithin
10. Lipids that insulate the nerve fibre are
(1) Lecithin (2) Cholesterol (3) Suberin (4) Glycolipids
Sol. Answer (4)
The glycolipids are present in myelin sheath of nerve fibres.
11. The primary precursor for the production of cholesterol in our body is
(1) Acetic acid (2) Citric acid (3) Ethyl alcohol (4) Methanol
Sol. Answer (1)
In biosynthetic pathway or anabolic pathway, the acetic acid is converted into cholesterol in liver.
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13. Nucleoside is
(1) Sugar + Nitrogenous base (2) Sugar + Phosphate
(3) Nitrogenous base + Phosphate (4) Purine + Pyrimidine
Sol. Answer (1)
Nucleoside = Sugar + Nitrogenous base
Nucleotide = Sugar + Nitrogenous base + Phosphate
15. In a DNA molecule adenine of one strand base pair with ____ on the other strand
(1) Guanine (2) Thymine (3) Cytosine (4) Both (1) & (3)
Sol. Answer (2)
In DNA, A T, C G
17. The nitrogenous bases of the two strands of DNA are joined by
(1) Phosphodiester bond (2) Hydrogen bond (3) Glycosidic bond (4) Peptide bond
Sol. Answer (2)
Hydrogen bond : The bond formed between two polynucleotide strands of DNA.
Glycosidic bond : Formed between the two monosaccharides (sugar).
Peptide bond : Formed between 2 amino acids.
Phosphodiester bond : Bond formed in nucleic acid i.e. DNA or DNA, between the phosphate and hydroxyl
group of sugar.
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30. What is the fate of pyruvic acid under anaerobic conditions in our body?
(1) It gets converted into methyl alcohol
(2) It gets converted into acetyl CoA
(3) It gets converted into lactic acid
(4) It gets converted into glycogen
Sol. Answer (3)
Under anaerobic condition, the glucose is converted into lactic acid in muscle.
Enzyme (Holoenzyme)
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SECTION - B
Objective Type Questions
(How to Analyse Chemical Composition? Primary and Secondary Metabolites, Carbohydrates)
1. In maltose glycosidic bond is formed between
(1) Carbon 1 of one glucose molecule and carbon 4 of second glucose molecule
(2) Carbon 2 of one glucose molecule and carbon 3 of second glucose molecule
(3) Carbon 3 of one glucose molecule and carbon 4 of second glucose molecule
(4) Carbon 1 of one glucose molecule and carbon 6 of second glucose molecule
Sol. Answer (1)
CH2OH CH2OH
O H H O H
H
H H
1 4
OH H OH H
OH O
OH
H OH H OH
OH OH
OH OH
(1) Ribose (2) Glucose (3) Fructose (4) Raffinose
Sol. Answer (1)
Ribose is a pentose sugar.
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4. One of the following is correct sequence of carbohydrates in the order of increasing complexity of chemical
structure
(1) Sucrose, starch, oligosaccharide, maltose, triose (2) Triose, maltose, sucrose, oligosaccharide, starch
(3) Triose, glucose, maltose, oligosaccharide, starch (4) Oligosaccharide, triose, starch, sucrose, maltose
Sol. Answer (3)
Triose – 3 C containing molecule
Glucose – Monosaccharide (6 C)
Maltose – Disaccharide (2 Monosaccharide units)
Oligosaccharide – (2–10) Monosaccharide units
Starch – Polysaccharides
6. A cellulose molecule is formed by the polymerisation of glucose. The number of glucose molecules present
in a cellulose is
(1) 600 (2) 6000 (3) 60,000 (4) 60
Sol. Answer (2)
A cellulose molecule is formed by polymerisation of 6000 molecules of β glucose.
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P = Phosphate
S A T S S = Sugar
A = Adenine
P P T = Thymine
G = Guanine
S G C S C = Cytosine
P P
S T A S
5' P 3'
12. If the sequence of bases in one of the DNA strand is A G G A G A A, then the sequence of bases in the other
complementary strand of DNA would be
(1) C C T T C T T (2) T C T C T C C (3) T C C T C T T (4) C C T C T C T
Sol. Answer (3)
Because A = T, G ≡ C
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COOH
H2N–C–H
CH2.COOH
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(1) (a) & (c) (2) (b) & (d) (3) (c) & (d) (4) (a) & (b)
(b) Statement is wrong because enzyme activity decreases above optimum temperature.
(d) Statement is wrong because competitive inhibitor completes with substrate for active site, not with product
formed.
27. Enzymes catalysing the breakdown of larger molecules into smaller molecules are
(1) Hydrolases (2) Isomerases (3) Ligase (4) Both (1) & (3)
Because, hydrolases are the enzyme which catalyse the breakdown of larger molecules into smaller molecules
with the addition of water.
Isomerases : They are the enzymes which catalyse the rearrangement of molecular structure to form isomers.
28. Michaelis constant (Km) value of enzyme is substrate concentration at which velocity of reaction is
(1) Vmax (2) One third Vmax (3) Half Vmax (4) One fifth Vmax
Vmax
Velocity Vmax
of reaction 2
Km [s]
(1) Invertase
(2) Amylase
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30. The enzyme that catalyses the conversion of glucose-6-phosphate into fructose-6-phosphate is
isomerase
Glucose-6-phosphate
fructose-6-phosphate
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SECTION - C
Previous Years Questions
2. Which one of the following statements is correct, with reference to enzymes? [NEET-2017]
(1) Apoenzyme = Holoenzyme + Coenzyme (2) Holoenzyme = Apoenzyme + Coenzyme
(3) Coenzyme = Apoenzyme + Holoenzyme (4) Holoenzyme = Coenzyme + Cofactor
Sol. Answer (2)
Holoenzyme is conjugated enzyme in which protein part is apoenzyme while non-protein is cofactor.
Coenzyme are also organic compounds but their association with apoenzyme is only transient and serve as
cofactors.
4. Which of the following is the least likely to be involved in stabilizing the three-dimensional folding of most
proteins? [NEET(Phase-2) 2016]
(1) Hydrogen bonds (2) Electrostatic interaction
(3) Hydrophobic interaction (4) Ester bonds
Sol. Answer (4)
Ester bond is formed between sugar and phosphate in a nucleotide.
5. Which of the following describes the given graph correctly? [NEET(Phase-2) 2016]
B
Potential Energy
A
Substrate
Product
Reaction
(1) Endothermic reaction with energy A in presence of enzyme and B in absence of enzyme
(2) Exothermic reaction with energy A in presence of enzyme and B in absence of enzyme
(3) Endothermic reaction with energy A in absence of enzyme and B in presence of enzyme
(4) Exothermic reaction with energy A in absence of enzyme and B in presence of enzyme
Sol. Answer (2)
Potential energy of substrate is more than the product. So it is an exothermic reaction. 'A' represents the
activation energy in the presence of enzyme while 'B' in the absence of enzyme i.e., enzyme lowers down
the activation energy.
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11. In sea urchin DNA, which is double stranded 17% of the bases were shown to be cytosine. The percentages
of the other three bases expected to be present in this DNA are [AIPMT-2015]
(1) G 8.5%, A 50%, T 24.5%
(2) G 34%, A 24.5%, T 24.5%
(3) G 17%, A 16.5%, T 32.5%
(4) G 17%, A 33%, T 33%
Sol. Answer (4)
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13. Select the option which is not correct with respect to enzyme action: [AIPMT-2014]
(1) Substrate binds with enzyme at its active site
(2) Addition of lot of succinate does not reverse the inhibition of succinic dehydrogenase by malonate
(3) A non - competitive inhibitor binds the enzyme at a site distinct from that which binds the substrate
(4) Malonate is a competitive inhibitor of succinic dehydrogenase
Sol. Answer (2)
Inhibition of succinic dehydrogenase by malonate is an example of competitive inhibition. This is reversible
reaction. On increasing the substrate (succinate) concentration the effect of inhibitor is removed and Vmax
remain same.
17. Transition state structure of the substrate formed during an enzymatic reaction is : [NEET-2013]
(1) Permanent but unstable (2) Transient and unstable
(3) Permanent and stable (4) Transient but stable
Sol. Answer (2)
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19. Which one out of A – D given below correctly represents the structural formula of the basic amino acid?
A B C D
NH2 NH2 CH2OH
| | NH2
|
H C COOH H C COOH CH2 H C COOH
| | |
CH2 CH2
CH2 CH2 |
| | | CH2
CH2 OH NH2 |
| CH2
C |
CH2
OH |
O
NH2
[AIPMT (Prelims)-2012]
(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D
Sol. Answer (4)
Because in 'D', it has an extra amino group, because of which it carry +ve charge which comes under basic
amino acid.
20. Given below is the diagrammatic representation of one of the categories of small molecular weight organic compounds
in the living tissues. Identify the category shown and the one blank component “X” in it
HOCH2 O "X"
OH OH
[AIPMT (Prelims)-2012]
Category Component
(1) Nucleotide Adenine
(2) Nucleoside Uracil
(3) Cholesterol Guanin
(4) Amino acid NH2
Sol. Answer (2)
Because the given structure doesn't have phosphate group so it is nucleoside and "X" is uracil because it
consists ribose sugar.
22. Which one of the following biomolecules is correctly characterised? [AIPMT (Mains)-2012]
(1) Alanine amino acid – Contains an amino group and an acidic group anywhere in the molecule
(2) Lecithin – a phosphorylated glyceride found in cell membrane
(3) Palmitic acid – an unsaturated fatty acid with 18 carbon atoms
(4) Adenylic acid – adenosine with a glucose phosphate molecule
Sol. Answer (2)
Option (1) is wrong, because alanine contains an amino group and an acidic group at α-carbon in the molecule.
Option (3) is wrong, because palmitic acid is a saturated fatty acid with 16C atoms.
Option (4) is wrong, because adenylic acid is form by adding phosphate group to adenosine.
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y-axis
x-axis
What do the two axes (x and y) represent? [AIPMT (Prelims)-2011]
x-axis y-axis
(1) Enzymatic activity Temperature
(2) Enzymatic activity pH
(3) Temperature Enzyme activity
(4) Substrate concentration Enzymatic activity
Sol. Answer (3)
y
Enzymatic
activity
x
pH or Temperature
24. Which one of the following structural formulae of two organic compound is correctly identified along with its
related function
O
O CH2—O—C—R
NH2
A R2—C—O—CH O N
B N
CH2—O—P—O—CH2—CH2 [AIPMT (Prelims)-2011]
OH N+ N NH
CH3 CH3
CH3
(1) A : Lecithin – a component of cell membrane
(2) B : Adenine – a nucleotide that makes up nucleic acids
(3) A : Triglyceride – major source of energy
(4) B : Uracil – a component of DNA
Sol. Answer (1)
Given structure 'A' is Leathin and 'B' is Adenine.
25. The figure given below shows the conversion of a substrate into product by an enzyme. In which one of the
four options (1–4) the components of reaction labelled as A, B, C and D are identified correctly?
A
C
D
B Substrate
Product
Progress of Reaction [AIPMT (Mains)-2010]
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A B C D
(1) Potential energy Transition state Activation energy with Activation energy
enzyme without enzyme
(2) Transition state Potential energy Activation energy Activation energy with
without enzyme enzyme
(3) Activation energy Transition state Activation energy with Potential energy
without enzyme enzyme
(4) Activation energy with Transition state Activation energy Potential energy
enzyme without enzyme
26. Three of the following statements about enzymes are correct and one is wrong. Which one is wrong?
[AIPMT (Mains)-2010]
(1) Enzymes require optimum pH for maximal activity
(2) Enzymes are denatured at high temperature but in certain exceptional organisms they are effective even
at temperatures 80°-90°C
(3) Enzymes are highly specific
(4) Most enzymes are proteins but some are lipids
Sol. Answer (4)
Because most enzymes are protein but some are RNA i.e. Ribonuclease-P and ribozyme.
27. Which one of the following pairs is wrongly matched? [AIPMT (Prelims)-2009]
(1) Alcohol – Nitrogenase
(2) Fruit juice – Pectinase
(3) Textile – Amylase
(4) Detergents – Lipase
Sol. Answer (1)
28. Carbohydrates are commonly found as starch in plant storage organs. Which of the following five properties
of starch (a - e) make it useful as a storage material? [AIPMT (Prelims)-2008]
a. Easily translocated b. Chemical non-reactive
c. Easily digested by animals d. Osmotically inactive
e. Synthesized during photosynthesis
The useful properties are
(1) Both a & e (2) Both b & c (3) Both b & d (4) a, c & e
Sol. Answer (3)
Carbohydrates like glycogen and starch are relatively easy to store because of the following advantages.
• They are stored in bulk.
• They are chemically non-reactive.
• They are osmotically inactive.
29. An organic substance bound to an enzyme and essential for its activity is called [AIPMT (Prelims)-2006]
(1) Coenzyme (2) Holoenzyme
(3) Apoenzyme (4) Isoenzyme
Sol. Answer (1)
Organic compound which bound to an enzyme is either coenzyme or prosthetic group.
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31. Which of the following is the simplest amino acid? [AIPMT (Prelims)-2005]
(1) Tyrosine (2) Asparagine (3) Glycine (4) Alanine
Sol. Answer (3)
Because in glycine, the R-group is replaced by hydrogen.
H
HOOC C NH2
H = R group
32. Enzymes, vitamins and hormones can be classified into a single category of biological chemicals, because all of
these [AIPMT (Prelims)-2005]
(1) Enhance oxidative metabolism
(2) Are conjugated proteins
(3) Are exclusively synthesized in the body of a living organism as at present
(4) Help in regulating metabolism
Sol. Answer (4)
(1) is incorrect, because enzymes can both enhance and inhibit the oxidative metabolism.
(3) is incorrect, different enzymes, vitamins and hormones are synthesized in the body at different situations.
(2) is incorrect, because all hormones and enzymes are not conjugated protein.
33. Carbohydrates, the most abundant biomolecules on earth, are produced by [AIPMT (Prelims)-2005]
(1) All bacteria, fungi and algae (2) Fungi, algae and green plant cells
(3) Some bacteria, algae and green plant cells (4) Viruses, fungi and bacteria
Sol. Answer (3)
Autotrophic organism produce glucose by photosynthesis which is a carbohydrate. Heterotrophic are dependent
on autotrophes and don't produce carbohydrate and fungi are saprobic organisms.
34. Which of the following statements regarding enzyme inhibition is correct ? [AIPMT (Prelims)-2005]
(1) Non-competitive inhibition of an enzyme can be overcome by adding large amount of substrate
(2) Competitive inhibition is seen when a substrate competes with an enzyme for binding to an inhibitor protein
(3) Competitive inhibition is seen when the substrate and the inhibitor compete
(4) Non-competitive inhibitors often bind to the enzyme irreversibly
Sol. Answer (3)
(1) is wrong, because competitive inhibition of an enzyme can be overcome by adding large amount of
substrate.
(2) is wrong, because competitive inhibtion is seen when a substrate competes with an inhibitor for binding
to the active site of enzyme.
(4) is wrong, because non-competitive inhibitor often bind to enzyme irreversibly.
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35. The catalytic efficiency of two different enzymes can be compared by the [AIPMT (Prelims)-2005]
(1) The Km value (2) The pH optimum value
(3) Formation of the product (4) Molecular size of the enzyme
Sol. Answer (1)
36. The four elements that make up 96% of all the elements found in a living system are
(1) C, H, O and P (2) C, N, O and P (3) H, O, C and N (4) C, H, O and S
Sol. Answer (3)
% weight of human body : C = 18.5; O = 65.0; N = 3.3; H = 0.5
40. The major role of minor elements inside living organisms is to act as
(1) Co-factors of enzymes (2) Building blocks of important amino acids
(3) Constituents of hormones (4) Binders of cell structure
Sol. Answer (1)
Minor elements basically includes Zn, Mg, K, Ni, Co, NAD+, NADP+, they all come under the category of
cofactor.
41. Nucleotides are building blocks of nucleic acids. Each nucleotide is a composite molecule formed by
(1) Base-sugar-phosphate (2) Base-sugar-OH
(3) (Base-sugar-phosphate)n (4) Sugar-phosphate
Sol. Answer (1)
Nucleotide : Base + Sugar + Phosphate
Nucleic acid : (Base + Sugar + Phosphate)n
42. About 98 percent of the mass of every living organism is composed of just six elements including carbon,
hydrogen, nitrogen, oxygen and
(1) Sulphur and magnesium (2) Magnesium and sodium
(3) Calcium and phosphorus (4) Phosphorus and sulphur
Sol. Answer (3)
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46. Which of the following is incorrect regarding the amino acids and their functions?
(1) Tyrosine : Converted into epinephrine hormone and used in the synthesis of melanin pigment
(2) Glycine : Involved in the formation of heme
(3) Tryptophan : Helps in the synthesis of auxin hormone
(4) Histidine : Can be converted into histamine by the removal of amino group
Sol. Answer (4)
Histamine is derived from amino acid histidine through decarboxylation.
O O
CH2 – O – C – R1 CH2 – O – C – R1
O O
(1) CH – O – C – R2 (2) CH – O – C – R2
O O
CH2 – O – P – O – CH2 – CH2 – NH3
+
CH2 – O – C – R3
OH
O O
CH2 – O – C – R1 CH2 – O – C – R1
O O
(3) CH – O – C – R2 (4) R2 – C – O – CH
O CH3 O
OH CH3 OH
Sol. Answer (3)
Lecithin is a phospholipid present in cell membrane
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53. Collagen is
(1) Fibrous protein (2) Globular protein (3) Lipid (4) Carbohydrate
Sol. Answer (1)
Because collagen are thread like proteins, which are insoluble in water.
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Agar is a type of mucopolysaccharide and is obtained from red algae. It is used as culture medium in
laboratory.
59. Cellulose, the most important constituent of plant cell wall is made up of
(1) Branched chain of glucose molecules linked by α1, 4 glycosidic bond in straight chain and
α1, 6 glycosidic bond at the site of branching
(2) Unbranched chain of glucose molecules linked by β1, 4 glycosidic bond
(3) Branched chain of glucose molecules linked by α1, 6 glycosidic bond at the site of branching
(4) Unbranched chain of glucose molecules linked by α1, 4 glycosidic bond
Sol. Answer (2)
Glycogen and starch are branched polymer of glucose while cellulose is unbranched polymer of β glucose.
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62. An important step in the manufacture of pulp for paper industry is the
(1) Preparation of pure cellulose
(2) Treatment of wood with chemicals that break down cellulose
(3) Removal of oils present in the wood by treatment with suitable chemicals
(4) Removal of water from the wood by prolonged heating at approximately 50°C
Sol. Answer (1)
Because the raw material for paper is cellulose.
65. If the total amount of adenine and thymine in a double-stranded DNA is 60%, the amount of guanine in this
DNA will be
(1) 15% (2) 20% (3) 30% (4) 40%
Sol. Answer (2)
A + T = 60%
Then, C + G = 40%, when 20% ⇒ C and 20% = G
66. DNA has equal number of adenine and thymine residues (A = T) and equal number of guanine and cytosine
(G = C). These relationships are known as
(1) Chargaff's rule (2) Coulomb's law
(3) Le Chatelier's principle (4) Van't Hoff plot
Sol. Answer (1)
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73. The 3′-5′ phosphodiester linkages inside a polynucleotide chain serve to join
(1) One DNA strand with the other DNA strand
(2) One nucleoside with another nucleoside
(3) One nucleotide with another nucleotide
(4) One nitrogenous base with pentose sugar
Sol. Answer (3)
Because nucleotide is a monomeric unit of nucleic acid which are joined together by 3' – 5' phosphodiester bond.
74. ATP is
(1) Nucleotide (2) Nucleoside (3) Nucleic acid (4) Vitamin
Sol. Answer (1)
Because ATP (Adenosine triphosphate) is made up of adenine, ribose sugar and 3 phosphate groups.
Product
Progress of reaction
76. Which of the following factor(s) do(es) not affect enzyme activity?
A. Temperature B. pH
C. Enzyme concentration D. Product concentration
E. Substrate concentration F. Activation energy
(1) C only (2) C & D (3) D only (4) F only
Sol. Answer (4)
Because enzyme activity is affected by temperature, pH, enzyme concentration, product concentration and
substrate concentration.
Enzyme are not affected by activation energy but it lowers down the activation energy.
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79. Which factor is responsible for inhibition of enzymatic process during feedback?
(1) Substrate (2) Enzyme (3) End product (4) Temperature
Sol. Answer (3)
Feedback inhibition is also konwn as End product inhibition or allosteric modulation.
Km K'm [S]
vmax
Velocity vmax
of reaction 2
Km [s]
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82. If an enzyme has been given the EC code 5.2.1.7, it is likely to be involved in
(1) Digestion (2) Redox reaction (3) Isomerization (4) Molecular breakdown
Sol. Answer (3)
EC code 5.2.1.7, in this the first digit represents class of enzyme.
And the class V of enzyme is isomerases, which catalyse the isomerisation reaction.
Protein Non-protein
(Apoenzyme) (Cofactor)
86. Apoenzyme is
(1) Always a protein (2) Often a metal
(3) Always an inorganic compound (4) Often a vitamin
Sol. Answer (1)
Protein part of enzyme is known as apoenzyme and non-protein part of enzyme is known as cofactor.
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SECTION - D
Assertion-Reason Type Questions
1. A : Cofactor of an enzyme may be a prosthetic group.
R : NAD derived from niacin is a co-enzyme.
Sol. Answer (2)
Organic compound firmly attach to protein part of enzyme is prosthetic group.
5. A : Dextrins are intermediate polysaccharides formed during hydrolysis of starch into sugar.
R : Ascorbic acid is a sugar derivative.
Sol. Answer (2)
Ascorbic acid is sugar acid.
7. A : The polypeptide coil of collagen helix is strengthened by the estabilishment of hydrogen bond between >
NH - group of glycine residue of each strand with –CO group of other two strand.
R : In collagen helix locking effect also occurs with the help of proline and hydroxyproline amino acid.
Sol. Answer (2)
In collagen, there are generally three polypeptides coil around one another.
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10. A : Tertiary structure of protein is absolutely necessary for many biological activities of proteins.
R : In protein, only right handed helices are observed.
Sol. Answer (2)
Enzymes have tertiary structure of protein.
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Chapter 3
Solutions
SECTION - A
Objective Type Questions
(Digestive System)
1. The major components of food are
(1) Carbohydrates (2) Proteins (3) Fats (4) All of these
Sol. Answer (4)
Carbohydrates, fats and proteins are macronutrients or proximate principles of food because these components
constitute the energy source for the production of heat and different organic function and are required in large
quantity in our body.
2. In which type of dentition, each tooth in the buccal cavity is embedded in a socket of jaw bone?
(1) Heterodont (2) Thecodont (3) Diphyodont (4) Monophyodont
Sol. Answer (2)
Because thecodont is a condition in which teeth are embedded in sockets and have well developed roots.
Monophyodont : Teeth which come once in life.
Diphyodont : Teeth which come twice in life.
Heterodont : Human (Adult) has 32 permanent teeth which are of four different types i.e., incisors, canines,
premolars, molars. Such type of dentition is called Heterodont.
2123
(Adult)
2123 2102
(Childhood)
2102
Incisors Canines Premolars Molars
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Fundus
Cardiac
Superior portion
of duodenum
Pyloric
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12. Which organ of the following is present in abdominal cavity, just below diaphragm.
(1) Pharynx (2) Pancreas (3) Liver (4) Tongue
Sol. Answer (3)
Liver is the largest gland of the body, which is situated in the abdominal cavity, just below the diaphragm. It
has two lobes i.e., right and left lobes.
14. The wall of alimentary canal from oesophagus to rectum possesses _____ layers.
(1) 2 layers (2) 3 layers (3) 4 layers (4) 5 layers
Sol. Answer (3)
Four layers
Serosa
Muscularis Wall of alimentary canal
Sub-mucosa
Mucosa
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(Digestion of Food)
16. The antibacterial enzyme, present in the saliva that prevents infections is
(1) Maltose
(2) Salivary amylase
(3) Lysozyme
(4) Pepsinogen
Sol. Answer (3)
Maltose → Sugar
Salivary amylase → Help in digestion of carbohydrate
Pepsinogen → Inactive form of pepsin, which help in digestion of protein.
18. Which enzyme gets activated by HCl, secreted from gastric glands?
(1) Trypsinogen (2) Pepsinogen (3) Renin (4) Chymotrypsin
Sol. Answer (2)
Enterokinase
Trypsinogen ⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯ → Trypsin
HCl
Pepsinogen ⎯⎯⎯ → Pepsin
Trypsin
Chymotrypsinogen ⎯⎯⎯⎯→ Chymotrypsin
Renin → Hormone which help in osmoregulation
20. The breakdown of biomolecules i.e. dipeptides, lactose, maltose and sucrose etc. occur mainly in the
(1) Ilium
(2) Pyloric region of stomach
(3) Duodenum region of small intestine
(4) Caecum region of large intestine
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lactose
Lactose ⎯⎯⎯⎯ → Glucose + Galactose
24. The wave like muscular contractions of the digestive tract is called
(1) Mastication (2) Assimilation (3) Peristalsis (4) Stimulation
Sol. Answer (3)
During the oesophageal phase of swallowing, food is pushed through the oesophagus by involuntary muscular
movements called peristalsis.
Mastication : Chewing of food.
Assimilation : When the absorbed food material in blood and lymph, will reach to tissue, which we utilise
them for our activity like growth, energy and repair.
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27. Absorption of substances takes place in different parts of the alimentary canal. However maximum absorption
takes place in
(1) Small intestine (2) Large intestine (3) Transverse colon (4) Ascending colon
Absorption of substances takes place in different parts of the alimentary canal, like mouth, stomach, small
intestine and large intestine. But maximum absorption occurs in the small intestine.
28. Absorption of water, simple sugars and alcohol etc. takes place in
Small Intestine : Water, amino acid, sugar, glycerol, fatty acid, minerals, vitamin.
30. Abnormal frequency of bowel movement and increased liquidity of the faecal discharge is known as
(1) Vomiting (2) Diarrhoea (3) Constipation (4) Indigestion
Sol. Answer (2)
Vomiting: It is the ejection of stomach contents through the mouth.
Diarrhoea: The abnormal frequency of bowel movement and increased liquidity of the foecal discharge.
Constipation: In this, faeces are retained within the rectum as the bowel movements occur irregularly.
Indigestion: In this, the food is not properly digested leading to a feeling of fullness.
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SECTION - B
Objective Type Questions
(Digestive System)
1. Pyloric sphincter regulates the opening of
(1) Pharynx into oesophagus (2) Oesophagus into stomach
(3) Stomach into duodenum (4) Ileum into large intestine
Sol. Answer (3)
Pyloric sphincter present in the pyloric region of the stomach which regulates the opening of stomach into
duodenum.
(1) Sphincter of Oddi (2) Cardiac sphincter (3) Pyloric sphincter (4) Ileo-caecal valve
Because sphincter of Oddi guards the common hepatopancreatic duct, through which the bile is released into
duodenum.
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1 1 2 3 → Upper jaw
Root formula =
1 1 1 2 → Lower jaw
(Digestion of Food)
12. Which carbohydrate splitting enzyme initiates the chemical process of digestion in the oral cavity?
(1) Lysozyme (2) Salivary amylase (3) Pepsin (4) Rennin
Sol. Answer (2)
Lysozyme, pepsin, rennin, they are not carbohydrate-digesting enzyme.
Salivary amylase : Only enzyme produced in buccal cavity that starts carbohydrate digestion.
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14. The proteolytic enzyme found in the gastric juice of infants which helps in the digestion of milk proteins is
(1) Renin (2) Rennin (3) Salivary amylase (4) Lysozyme
Sol. Answer (2)
Renin : It helps in osmoregulation
Rennin : Proteolytic enzyme found in the gastric juice of infants which helps in the digestion of protein.
Salivary amylase : help in digestion of carbohydrates.
Lysozyme : It is an antibacterial enzyme, present in saliva.
Carboxypeptidase ⎫
⎬ found in pancreatic juice
Trypsin ⎭
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Ptyalin, pH = 6.8
In mouth, Starch ⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯→ Maltose + Isomaltose + Dextrins
( 30%) Cl−
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28. In acute constipation, purgatives that are used to stimulate intestinal peristalsis and evacuation of fluid faeces
contain salts of
(1) Sodium (2) Magnesium (3) Potassium (4) Calcium
Sol. Answer (2)
For acute constipation, purgatives containing salts of magnesium are used to stimulate intestinal peristalsis
and evacuation of fluid faeces as it increases the fluidity and volume of intestinal contents.
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SECTION - C
Previous Years Questions
2. Lungs are made up of air-filled sacs the alveoli. They do not collapse even after forceful expiration, because
of [NEET-2017]
(1) Residual Volume (2) Inspiratory Reserve Volume
(3) Tidal Volume (4) Expiratory Reserve Volume
Sol. Answer (1)
Volume of air present in lungs after forceful expiration as residual volume which prevents the collapsing of alveoli
even after forceful expiration.
3. A baby boy aged two years is admitted to play school and passes through a dental check-up. The dentist
observed that the boy had twenty teeth. Which teeth were absent? [NEET-2017]
(1) Incisors (2) Canines (3) Pre-molars (4) Molars
Sol. Answer (3)
Total number of teeth in human child = 20. Premolars are absent in primary dentition.
4. Which of the following options best represents the enzyme composition of pancreatic juice? [NEET-2017]
(1) Amylase, peptidase, trypsinogen, rennin
(2) Amylase, pepsin, trypsinogen, maltase
(3) Peptidase, amylase, pepsin, rennin
(4) Lipase, amylase, trypsinogen, procarboxy-peptidase
Sol. Answer (4)
Rennin and Pepsin enzymes are present in the gastric juice. Maltase is present in the intestinal juice.
5. Which of the following guards the opening of hepatopancreatic duct into the duodenum? [NEET-2016]
(1) Sphincter of Oddi (2) Semilunar valve (3) Ileocaecal valve (4) Pyloric sphincter
Sol. Answer (1)
Sphincter of Oddi guards the opening of hepatopancreatic duct into the duodenum.
6. In the stomach, gastric acid is secreted by the [NEET-2016]
(1) Acidic cells (2) Gastrin secreting cells (3) Parietal cells (4) Peptic cells
Sol. Answer (3)
In stomach, gastric acid (HCl) is secreted by parietal cells of gastric gland
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11. The initial step in the digestion of milk in humans is carried out by [AIPMT-2014]
(1) Lipase (2) Trypsin (3) Rennin (4) Pepsin
Sol. Answer (3)
The initial step in the digestion of milk in human is carried out by rennin.
12. Fructose is absorbed into the blood through mucosa cells of intestine by the process called: [AIPMT-2014]
(1) Active transport (2) Facilitated transport
(3) Simple diffusion (4) Co-transport mechanism
Sol. Answer (2)
Fructose is absorbed with the help of the carrier ions like Na+. This mechanism is called facilitated transport.
13. Select the correct match of the digested products in humans given in column I with their absorption site and
mechanism in column II [NEET-2013]
Column I Column II
(1) Fructose, Na+ Small intenstine, passive absorption
(2) Glycerol, fatty acids Duodenum, move as chylomicrons
(3) Cholesterol, maltose Large intestine, active absorption
(4) Glycine, glucose Small intestine, active absorption
Sol. Answer (4)
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14. Where do certain symbiotic microorganisms normally occur in human body [AIPMT (Mains)-2012]
(1) Duodenum (2) Caecum
(3) Oral lining and tongue surface (4) Vermiform appndix and rectum
Sol. Answer (2)
Caecum of large intestine is site which host the symbiotic micro-organism.
15. Anxiety and eating spicy food together in an otherwise normal human, may lead to [AIPMT (Prelims)-2012]
(1) Vomiting (2) Indigestion (3) Jaundice (4) Diarrhoea
Sol. Answer (2)
During indigestion, the food is not properly digested leading to a feeling of fullness. The cause of indigestion
are inadequate enzyme secretion anxiety, food poisoning, spicy food and over eating.
16. Which one of the following enzymes carries out the initial step in the digestion of milk in humans?
[AIPMT (Prelims)-2011]
(1) Trypsin (2) Pepsin (3) Rennin (4) Lipase
Sol. Answer (3)
17. Two friends are eating together on a dining table. One of them suddenly starts coughing while swallowing some
food. This coughing would have been due to improper movement of [AIPMT (Prelims)-2011]
(1) Tongue (2) Epiglottis (3) Diaphragm (4) Neck
Sol. Answer (2)
18. Which one of the following correctly represents the normal adult human dental formula?
[AIPMT (Mains)-2011]
2 1 2 3 3 13 3 3 13 1 2 13 3
(1) , , , (2) , , , (3) , , , (4) , , ,
2 1 2 3 3 13 3 3 12 1 2 1 2 3
Sol. Answer (1)
19. One of the constituents of the pancreatic juice while poured into the duodenum in humans is
[AIPMT (Mains)-2011]
(1) Trypsin (2) Enterokinase (3) Trypsinogen (4) Chymotrypsin
Sol. Answer (3)
Trypsin is an active form of trypsinogen Enterokinase is present in intestinal juice.
Enterokinase
In Duodenum, Trypsinogen ⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯ → Trypsin
Trypsin
Chymotrypsinogen ⎯⎯⎯⎯
→ Chymotrypsin
Trypsin and chymotrypsin are not present in pancreatic juice, their inactive form is present in pancreatic juice.
20. If for some reason our goblet cells are non-functional this will adversely affect [AIPMT (Prelims)-2010]
(1) Smooth movement of food down the intestine (2) Production of somatostatin
(3) Secretion of sebum from the sebaceous glands (4) Maturation of sperms
Sol. Answer (1)
Because goblet cells secrete mucus.
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22. If for some reason the parietal cells of the gut epithelium become partially non-functional, what is likely to
happen? [AIPMT(Mains)-2010]
(1) The pancreatic enzymes and specially the trypsin and lipase will not work efficiently
(2) The pH of stomach will fall abruptly
(3) Steapsin will be more effective
(4) Proteins will not be adequately hydrolysed by pepsin into proteoses and peptones
Sol. Answer (4)
Oxyntic cell → Secretes HCl
HCl
Pepsinogen ⎯⎯→ Pepsin(active)
Pepsin
Protein ⎯⎯⎯⎯ → Proteoses + Peptones
So, if for some reason, the oxyntic cells of the gut epithelium become partially non-functional, then protein
will not be adequately hydrolysed by pepsin into proteoses and peptones.
24. When breast feeding is replaced by less nutritive food low in proteins and calories; the infants below the age
of one year are likely to suffer from: [AIPMT (Prelims)-2009]
(1) Rickets (2) Kwashiorkor (3) Pellagra (4) Marasmus
Sol. Answer (4)
Marasmus occurs due to deficiency of protein and calories and it usually occurs in infant below one year of
age.
25. A young infant may be feeding entirely on mother's milk which is white in colour but the stools which the infant
passes out is quite yellowish. What is this yellow colour due to? [AIPMT (Prelims)-2009]
(1) Bile pigments passed through bile juice
(2) Undigested milk protein casein
(3) Pancreatic juice poured into duodenum
(4) Intestinal juice
Sol. Answer (1)
The yellow colour of faecal matter is due to stercobilin, which is obtained from the breakdown of bilirubin which
is a bile pigment.
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26. Which one of the following statements is true regarding digestion and absorption of food in humans?
[AIPMT (Prelims)-2009]
(1) Fructose and amino acids are absorbed through intestinal mucosa with the help of carrier ions like Na+.
(2) Chylomicrons are small lipoprotein particles that are transported from intestine into blood capillaries.
(3) About 60% of starch is hydrolysed by salivary amylase in our mouth.
(4) Oxyntic cells in our stomach secrete the proenzyme pepsinogen.
Sol. Answer (1)
Option 1 is wrong → Because 30% of starch is hydrolysed by salivary amylase in our mouth.
Option 2 is wrong → Because oxyntic cells secrets HCl.
Option 4 is wrong → Because chylomicrons are transported to lymph vessel (lacteals) in the villi.
27. Which one of the following pairs of food components in humans reaches the stomach totally undigested?
[AIPMT (Prelims)-2009]
(1) Starch and fat (2) Fat and cellulose
(3) Starch and cellulose (4) Protein and starch
Sol. Answer (2)
The enzyme cellulase is not present and fats are digested in small intestine after emulsification with bile.
28. What will happen if the secretion of parietal cells of gastric glands is blocked with an inhibitor?
[AIPMT (Prelims)-2008]
(1) Enterokinase will not be released from the duodenal mucosa and so trypsinogen is not converted to
trypsin
(2) Gastric juice will be deficient in chymosin
(3) Gastric juice will be deficient in pepsinogen
(4) In the absence of HCl secretion, inactive pepsinogen is not converted into the active enzyme pepsin.
Sol. Answer (4)
In the absence of HCl secretion, inactive pepsinogen is not converted into the active enzyme pepsin.
Parietal cells of gastric gland is responsible for the secretion of HCl and further HCl is responsible for the
conversion of pepsinogen into pepsin.
29. Which one of the following is the correct matching of the site of action on the given substrate, the enzyme acting
upon it and the end product? [AIPMT (Prelims)-2008]
Lipase
(1) Stomach : Fats ⎯⎯ ⎯ ⎯→ micelles
Trypsin
(2) Duodenum : Triglycerides ⎯⎯ ⎯⎯→
monoglycerides
α Amylase
(3) Small intestine : Starch ⎯⎯ ⎯ ⎯⎯→
Disaccharide (Maltose)
Pepsin
(4) Small intestine : Proteins ⎯⎯ ⎯⎯→
Amino acids
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30. Which one of the following is a fat-soluble vitamin and its related deficiency disease?
[AIPMT (Prelims)-2007]
(1) Calciferol– Pellagra
(2) Ascorbic acid – Scurvy
(3) Retinol – Xerophthalmia
(4) Cobalamine – Beri-beri
Sol. Answer (3)
31. A person who is on a long hunger strike and is surviving only on water, will have:
[AIPMT (Prelims)-2007]
(1) Less urea in his urine
(2) More sodium in his urine
(3) Less amino acids in his urine
(4) More glucose in his blood
Sol. Answer (1)
32. Examination of blood of a person suspected of having anaemia, shows large, immature, nucleated erythrocytes
without haemoglobin. Supplementing his diet with which of the following, is likely to alleviate his symptoms
[AIPMT (Prelims)-2006]
(1) Thiamine
(2) Folic acid and cobalamine
(3) Riboflavin
(4) Iron compounds
Sol. Answer (2)
33. A patient is generally advised to specially, consume more meat, lentils, milk and eggs in diet only when he
suffers from [AIPMT (Prelims)-2005]
(1) Kwashiorkor (2) Rickets (3) Anaemia (4) Scurvy
Sol. Answer (1)
34. Secretin and cholecystokinin are digestive hormones. They are secreted in : [AIPMT (Prelims)-2005]
(1) Oesophagus (2) Ileum (3) Duodenum (4) Pyloric stomach
Sol. Answer (3)
Secretin and CCK are secreted in duodenum.
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35. Which group of three of the following five statements (A-E) contain is all three correct statements regarding
beri-beri?
A. A crippling disease prevalent among the native population of sub-Sahara Africa.
B. A deficiency disease caused by lack of thiamine (vitamin B1).
C. A nutritional disorder in infants and young children when the diet is persistently deficient in essential
protein.
D. Occurs in those countries where the staple diet is polished rice.
E. The symptoms are pain from neuritis, paralysis, muscle wasting, progressive oedema, mental deterioration
and finally heart failure. [AIPMT (Prelims)-2005]
(1) A, B and D (2) B, C and E
(3) A, C and E (4) B, D and E
Sol. Answer (4)
37. Which of the following is correct location and function of Meissner’s plexus of intestine?
(1) Muscularis external - Peristalsis
(2) Muscularis internal - Peristalsis
(3) Submucosa - Mucosal secretions
(4) Mucosa - Mucosal secretions
Sol. Answer (3)
Meissner's plexus are located in the sub mucosa of alimentary canal and their function is mucosal secretion.
Meissner's plexus also known as Remak's plexus.
38. Which of the following is true regarding the source and nature of the enamel?
(1) Odontoblast, mesodermal (2) Odontoblast, ectodermal
(3) Ameloblast, mesodermal (4) Ameloblast, ectodermal
Sol. Answer (4)
Enamel is ectodermal in origin.
Renin
Casein ⎯⎯⎯⎯→ Paracasein
( substrate ) ( enzyme )
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43. Which of the following is correct pairing of site of action and substrate of rennin?
(1) Mouth-starch (2) Small intestine-protein
(3) Stomach-casein (4) Stomach-fat
Sol. Answer (3)
In infants, renin acts on casein (milk protein) and converts casein to paracasein in stomach
So, site of action is stomach and substrate is casein.
44. If liver is removed, the compound which is not absorbed by mucosa of intestine.
(1) Proteins (2) Carbohydrates (3) Fats (4) Lactose
Sol. Answer (3)
If liver is removed, fats will not be absorbed by mucosa of intestine because liver produces bile juice for the
emulsification of fats.
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47. Which of the following hydrolyses internal phosphodiesterase bonds in a polynucleotide chain?
(1) Lipase (2) Protease
(3) Endonuclease (4) Exonuclease
Sol. Answer (3)
Endonuclease is an enzyme which hydrolyses internal phosphodiesterase bonds in a polynucleotide chain.
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61. Which one of the following vitamins can be synthesized by bacteria inside the gut?
(1) D (2) A
(3) B1 (4) C
Sol. Answer (3)
Vitamin K and Vitamin B complex are synthesized by bacteria of large intestine (colon).
63. Stool of a person is whitish grey coloured due to malfunction of which of the following organ?
(1) Pancreas (2) Spleen
(3) Kidney (4) Liver
Sol. Answer (4)
The yellow colour of stool is due to stercobilin, which is a breakdown product of bile pigment (bilirubin)
And as liver is responsible for the production of bile juice. If there is malfunctioning of liver, then bile will not
produce and stool of person become whitish grey.
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SECTION - D
Assertion-Reason Type Questions
4. A : In humans, duct of wirsung from pancreas combines with bile duct before opening into duodenum.
R : Blockage in duct of Wirsung will prevent the endocrine function of pancreas.
Sol. Answer (3)
Blockage of duct of Wirsung will prevent exocrine function of pancreas.
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7. A : Vomiting is the forcible expulsion of the contents of the upper gastrointestinal tract through the mouth.
R : The strongest stimuli for vomiting are irritation and distension of the stomach.
Sol. Answer (2)
Both assertion and reason are true but the reason is not the correct explanation of the assertion.
8. A : Gastric emptying is slowest after a fat-laden meal containing large number of triglycerides.
R : Fatty acids in chyme stimulate release of both CCK and GIP, which slow stomach emptying.
Sol. Answer (1)
GIP (Gastric Inhibitory Peptide) and CCK (Cholecystokinin).
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Chapter 4
Solutions
SECTION - A
Objective Type Questions
(Respiratory Organs)
1. The process of oxidation of glucose during which CO2, H2O and energy are produced is known as
(1) Breathing (2) Inspiration (3) Respiration (4) Expiration
Sol. Answer (3)
Breathing = Inspiration (Inhalation of air) + Expiration (Exhalation of air)
Respiration is the process of oxidation of food in which CO2, H2O and energy is/are produced.
4. Which animal among the following respires via buccal cavity, moist skin and lungs?
(1) Hydra (2) Frog (3) Sycon (4) Earthworm
Sol. Answer (2)
Frogs can respire by their moist skin, buccal cavity and lungs as they live on land and its larval form i.e.
tadpole which lives in water respire through gills.
Hydra, Sycon : No well-developed respiratory system, exchange of gases by simple diffusion.
Earthworm : Moist cuticle.
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5. Respiratory organs in aquatic arthropods like cray fish, prawn and molluscs like Unio are
(1) Body wall (2) Lungs (3) Trachea (4) Gills
Sol. Answer (4)
Aquatic arthropods (Crustacean) respire through gills.
8. A thin-elastic cartilaginous flap which prevents the entry of food into the larynx is known as
(1) Glottis (2) Wind pipe (3) Epiglottis (4) Bronchiole
Sol. Answer (3)
Epiglottis covers the glottis during swallowing of food.
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(Mechanism of Breathing)
13. Which of the following volume is not included in vital capacity
(1) ERV (2) TV (3) IRV (4) RV
Sol. Answer (4)
Because VC = ERV + TV + IRV
or VC = ERV + IC
Here, RV = Residual volume IRV = Inspiratory reserve volume
VC = Vital capacity IC = Inspiratory capacity
ERV = Expiratory reserve volume TV = Tidal volume
16. Which muscles help us to increase the strength of inspiration and expiration?
(1) Cardiac muscles (2) Abdominal muscles
(3) Internal intercostal muscles (4) Both (2) & (3)
Sol. Answer (4)
Cardiac muscle i.e., muscle of heart, it do not have any role in inspiration and expiration.
Rest two muscles i.e., abdominal and internal intercostal muscle undergo contraction and increase the strength
of expiration.
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19. The volume of air remaining in the lungs even after a forceful expiration is
(1) Tidal volume (2) Residual volume
(3) Inspiratory reserve volume (4) Expiratory reserve volume
Sol. Answer (2)
(1) Tidal volume (500 ml) : It is the volume of air a person can inspired or expired during normal breathing.
(3) Inspiratory reserve volume (2500 – 3000 ml) : The additional or extra volume of air, a person can expire
by forceful expiration.
(4) Expiratory reserve volume (1000 – 1100 ml) : The additional or extra volume of air, a person can expire
by forceful expiration.
(1) pO and pCO (2) pO and pCO (3) pO2 and pCO2 (4) O2p and CO2p
2
22. What will be the pO2 and pCO2 in atmospheric air as compared to alveoli?
(1) High pO2 and low pCO2 (2) High pCO2 and low pO2
(3) Both are equal (pCO2 = pO2) (4) Low pO2 and low pCO2
Sol. Answer (1)
In atmospheric air : pO2 = 159 mmHg
pCO2 = 0.3 mmHg
In alveoli : pO2 = 104 mmHg
pCO2 = 40 mmHg
23. What is the value of pCO2 in atmospheric air, alveoli and tissues respectively?
(1) 0.3 mm Hg, 40 mm Hg and 95 mm Hg (2) 95 mm Hg, 40 mm Hg and 159 mm Hg
(3) 45 mm Hg, 0.3 mm Hg and 40 mm Hg (4) 0.3 mm Hg, 40 mm Hg and 45 mm Hg
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CO2 0.3 40 45 40 45
In lungs
Hb + O2
HbO2
In tissue
(Haemoglobin) (Oxygen) (Oxyhaemoglobin)
Hb + CO2
HbCO2
(Carbon dioxide) (Carbamino-haemoglobin)
Hb + CO
HbCO
(Carbon monoxide) (Carboxy haemoglobin)
(1)
26.
Hb + O2 HbO2
(2)
Lungs
Hb + O2
HbO2
Tissue
27. A graph is plotted between pO2 and percentage saturation of Hb with O2 is known as
(1) O2 association curve (2) CO2-O2 dissociation curve
(3) O2 dissociation curve (4) CO2-O2 association curve
Sol. Answer (3)
A graphical representation of relationship between pO2 and percentage saturation of haemoglobin with O2
is known as oxygen dissociation curve or oxygen haemoglobin dissociation curve. It is sigmoid or S-shaped
curve.
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29. High percentage of CO2 is transported in dissolved form as compared to O2. This is because
(1) O2 has high solubility in plasma (2) CO2 has high solubility in plasma
(3) pCO2 is high in blood than pO2 (4) CO2 has low solubility in plasma
Sol. Answer (2)
Ratio of CO2 and O2 solubility in plasma is 25 : 1 (CO2 : O2).
30. Which factor in tissues favours the formation of HCO3– and H+ ions in the blood?
(1) Low pCO2 (2) High pO2 (3) High pCO2 (4) High alkalinity
Sol. Answer (3)
H+ HCO3−
Carbonic anhydrase Carbonic anhydrase
CO2 + H2 O H2CO3
+
2+
Zn (Carbonic acid) (Hydrogen ion) (Bicarbonate ion)
31. How much CO2 is delivered to the alveoli by every 100 ml of deoxygenated blood?
(1) 6 ml (2) 4 ml (3) 5 ml (4) 3 ml
Sol. Answer (2)
About 4 ml CO2 is delivered to the alveoli by every 100 ml of deoxygenated blood.
32. Which enzyme is present in RBCs and plasma to catalyse the given reaction?
−
CO2 + H2O
H2CO3
H + HCO3
+
Carbonic acid
34. Which substances when present in high level can activate the chemosensitive area present adjacent to rhythm
centre?
(1) CO2 and O2 (2) HCO3– ions and O2 (3) CO2 and H+ ions (4) H+ and HCO3– ions
Sol. Answer (3)
Chemosensitive area i.e. sensitive for chemicals and is located adjacent to the rhythm centre which contains
chemoreceptors which are sensitive for CO2 and H+ ions. The respiratory centre is stimulated by concentration
or partial pressure of CO2 and H+ ions in blood and body fluids.
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SECTION - B
Objective Type Questions
(Respiratory Organs)
1. Which group of animals respire through lungs?
(1) Earthworm and insects (2) Sponges, coelenterates and flatworms
(3) Fishes and aquatic arthropods (4) Reptiles, birds and mammals
Sol. Answer (4)
(i) Earthworm → Respires through moist cuticle
(ii) Insects (Cockroach) → Tracheal system
(iii) Sponges No well-developed respiratory organ
(iv) Coelenterates is present. Exchange of gases occurs
(v) Flatworms by simple diffusion.
(vi) Fish
Gills
(vii) Aquatic arthropod
(viii) Reptiles
(ix) Birds Lungs
(x) Mammals
2. Skin of man cannot act as respiratory organ because
(1) It is dry (2) It is not thin
(3) It is not permeable to O2 and CO2 (4) All of these
Sol. Answer (4)
Because human skin is dry (does not allow exchange of gases), it is not thin (gases can pass through thin
membrane) and it is impermeable to O2 and CO2).
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(3) Sternum and ribs respectively (4) Vertebral column and diaphragm respectively
(1) 100 million (2) 300 million (3) 125 million (4) 300 billion
Factual data.
(1) Right lung (2) Left lung (3) Both of these (4) None of these
Both right and left lungs have oblique fissure whereas only right lung also has a horizontal fissure.
(Mechanism of Breathing)
10. A pair of external nostrils present in humans opens out
(1) Below the upper lips (2) Above the upper lips
(3) Between upper and lower lips (4) Above the larynx
Sol. Answer (2)
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12. Volume of thoracic chamber increases in antero-posterior and dorso-ventral axis in rabbit by
(1) Contraction of diaphragm and external intercostal muscles respectively
(2) Relaxation of diaphragm and external intercostal muscles respectively
(3) Relaxation of diaphragm and abdominal muscles respectively
(4) Contraction of abdominal muscles and relaxation of external intercostal muscles respectively
Sol. Answer (1)
During inspiration, the contraction of diaphragm muscle causes it to become flat and lowered down, thereby
increasing the volume of thoracic cavity in antero-posterior axis.
The contraction of external intercostal muscle, lift ribs and sternum up and outward causing an increases in
volume of thoracic cavity in the dorso-ventral axis i.e., backward-forward direction.
15. What happens to the volume of pulmonary cavity when there is an increase in the volume of thoracic chamber?
(1) It decreases (2) It increases
(3) It remains same (4) First decreases and then increases
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Air enters from atmosphere to the lungs as it moves from higher pressure to lower pressure
17. What happens when pressure within the pulmonary cavity is higher than the atmospheric pressure?
(1) Inhalation of air (2) Expulsion of air
(3) No inhalation and expulsion of air occurs (4) Lungs inflate and rupture
Sol. Answer (2)
High pressure in pulmonary cavity compared to atmosphere results in explusion of air. Air moves high pressure
to low pressure.
18. An additional volume of air, a person can inspire by a forceful inspiration is known as
(1) Inspiratory capacity (2) Expiratory capacity
(3) Expiratory reserve volume (4) Inspiratory reserve volume
Sol. Answer (4)
IRV is the additional volume of air a person can inspire by a forceful inspiration.
IRV = 2500 – 300 ml
IC = IRV + TV
3000 – 3500 ml
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CO2 0.3 40 45 40 45
24. Which are the three main layers that form the diffusion membrane?
(1) Thin squamous epithelium of alveoli, basement membrane of bronchioles and basement substance
(2) Thin squamous epithelium of alveoli, endothelium of alveolar capillaries and the basement substance
(3) Basement substance, cuboidal epithelium of alveoli and stratified epithelium of bronchiole
Respiratory surface should be highly vascular for the easy transport of gases or exchange of gases with the
blood.
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26. What is the percentage of O2 transported in dissolved form through the plasma?
(1) About 7% (2) About 3% (3) About 20–25% (4) About 15%
Sol. Answer (2)
Oxygen transport by plasma = 3%
Oxygen transport by oxyhaemoglobin = 97%
27. How many O2 molecules can bind with single molecule of Hb?
(1) 8 (2) 6 (3) 4 (4) 4.5
Sol. Answer (3)
Haemoglobin consists of four polypeptide chain (2α and 2β) having heme as prosthetic group. Heme is iron
(Fe2+) containing prophyrin ring. One haemoglobin binds four oxygen molecules, one per heme and form
oxyhemoglobin.
Hb + 4O2
Hb(O2)4
2+
Contain Fe with porphyrin ring Include four polypeptide chain (α2β2)
Hb
+ CO2
HbCO2
(Haemoglobin) (Carbamino haemoglobin)
(Amino group)
29. Which of the following condition is not responsible for shifting the curve towards left?
(1) High pO2 (2) Low pCO2
(3) Low temperature (4) High H+ ion concentration
Sol. Answer (4)
Following are the conditions responsible for shifting the curve towards left :
(a) High pO2
(b) Low pCO2
(c) Less H+ concentration and high pH
(d) Low temperature
All above four conditions are favourable for the association of oxygen with hemoglobin, at alveoli.
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32. The amount of oxygen transported by one litre of blood under strenous condition is approximately
(1) 5 ml (2) 50 ml (3) 15 ml (4) 150 ml
Sol. Answer (4)
100 ml of blood contains about ∼20 ml of O2
34. A chronic disorder in which alveolar walls are damaged due to excessive cigarette smoking is
(1) Asthma (2) Emphysema (3) Silicosis (4) Bronchitis
Sol. Answer (2)
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SECTION - C
Previous Years Questions
1. The partial pressure of oxygen in the alveoli of the lungs is [NEET(Phase-2) 2016]
(1) Equal to that in the blood (2) More than that in the blood
(3) Less than that in the blood (4) Less than that of carbon dioxide
Sol. Answer (2)
Partial pressure of oxygen in alveoli of lungs is 104 mm of Hg that is more than that of blood in pulmonary
artery (40 mm of Hg).
2. Lungs do not collapse between breaths and some air always remains in the lungs which can never be expelled
because [NEET(Phase-2) 2016]
(1) There is a negative pressure in the lungs
(2) There is a negative intrapleural pressure pulling at the lung walls
(3) There is a positive intrapleural pressure
(4) Pressure in the lungs is higher than the atmospheric pressure
Sol. Answer (2)
Lungs do not collapse between breaths and some air always remains in the lung which can never be expelled
because there is a negative intrapleural pressure pulling at the lung walls.
3. Name the chronic respiratory disorder caused mainly by cigarette smoking [NEET-2016]
(1) Respiratory alkalosis (2) Emphysema (3) Asthma (4) Respiratory acidosis
Sol. Answer (2)
Emphysema is characterised by inflation of alveoli which is mainly due to chronic cigarette smoking.
4. Reduction in pH of blood will [NEET-2016]
(1) Release bicarbonate ions by the liver
(2) Reduce the rate of heart beat
(3) Reduce the blood supply to the brain
(4) Decrease the affinity of hemoglobin with oxygen
Sol. Answer (4)
Reduction in pH of blood favours the dissociation of oxyhemoglobin.
5. Asthma may be attributed to [NEET-2016]
(1) Accumulation of fluid in the lungs (2) Bacterial infection of the lungs
(3) Allergic reaction of the mast cells in the lungs (4) Inflammation of the trachea
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7. Approximately seventy percent of carbon-dioxide absorbed by the blood will be transported to the lungs
[AIPMT-2014]
(1) As bicarbonate ions (2) In the form of dissolved gas molecules
(3) By binding to R.B.C (4) As carbamino - haemoglobin
Sol. Answer (1)
Nearly 20 – 25 percent of CO2 is transported by RBCs, whereas, 70 percent of it is carried as bicarbonates.
About 7 percent of CO2 is carried as dissolved state in plasma.
8. The figure shows a diagrammatic view of human respiratory system with labels A, B, C, and D. Select the
option which gives correct identification and main function and/or characteristic. [NEET-2013]
Bronchus
(1) B-pleural membrane-surround ribs on both sides to provide cushion against rubbing
(2) C-Alveoli-thin walled vascular bag like structures for exchange of gases
(3) D-lower end of lungs-diaphragm pulls it down during inspiration
(4) A-trachea-long tube supported by complete cartilaginous rings for conducting inspired air
Sol. Answer (2)
9. Which one of the following is the correct statement for respiration in humans? [AIPMT (Prelims)-2012]
(1) About 90% of carbon dioxide (CO2) is carried by haemoglobin as carbamino-haemoglobin
(2) Cigarette smoking may lead to inflammation of bronchi
(3) Neural signals from pneumotoxic centre in pons region of brain can increase the duration of inspiration
(4) Workers in grinding and stone-breaking industries may suffer, from lung fibrosis
Sol. Answer (4)
Option (1) is wrong, because ~70% of CO2 is carried by haemoglobin as carbaminohaemoglobin.
Option (2) is wrong, because cigarette smoking lead to damage of alveoli wall.
Option (3) is wrong, because pneumotaxic centre in pons region of brain decrease the duration of inspiration.
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10. People who have migrated from the planes to an area adjoining Rohtang Pass about six months back
[AIPMT (Prelims)-2012]
(1) Have the usual RBC count but their haemoglobin has very high binding affinity to O2
(2) Have more RBCs and their haemoglobin has a lower binding affinity of O2
(3) Are not physically fit to play games like football
(4) Suffer from altitude sickness with symptoms like nausea, fatigue, etc
Sol. Answer (2)
High altitude (pO2 less) so more RBC production, which leads to polycythemia i.e., increased RBC count.
11. A large proportion of oxygen is left unused in the human blood even after its uptake by the body tissues.
This O2 [AIPMT (Prelims)-2011]
(1) Helps in releasing more O2 to the epithelial tissues
(2) Acts as a reserve during muscular exercise
(3) Raises the pCO2 of blood to 75 mm of Hg.
(4) Is enough to keep oxyhaemoglobin saturation at 96%
Sol. Answer (2)
Because during exercise, contraction of muscle occurs and for that more energy is required and for energy
oxygen is required.
12. The figure given below shows a small part of human lung where exchange of gases takes place. In which
one of the options given below, the one part A, B, C or D is correctly identified along with its function.
[AIPMT (Prelims)-2011]
C
A
B
Option:
(1) B: Red blood cell – transport of CO2 mainly.
(2) C: Arterial capillary – passes oxygen to tissues
(3) A: Alveolar cavity – main site of exchange of respiratory gases
(4) D: Capillary wall – exchange of O2 and CO2 takes place here.
Sol. Answer (3)
Option (1) is wrong because RBCs are involved in transport of CO2 and O2 both
Option (2) is wrong because C is blood capillary.
Option (4) is wrong because D is basement membrane - substance
13. Bulk of carbon dioxide (CO2) released from body tissues into the blood is present as [AIPMT (Mains)-2011]
(1) 70% carbamino-haemoglobin and 30% as bicarbonate
(2) Carbamino-haemoglobin in RBCs
(3) Bicarbonate in blood plasma and RBCs
(4) Free CO2 in blood plasma
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14. Which one of the following is a possibility for most of us in regard to breathing, by making a conscious effort?
[AIPMT (Mains)-2011]
(1) One can consciously breathe in and breathe out by moving the diaphragm alone, without moving the ribs
at all
(2) The lungs can be made fully empty by forcefully breathing out all air from them
(3) One can breathe out air totally without oxygen
(4) One can breathe out air through eustachian tubes by closing both the nose and the mouth
Sol. Answer (1)
If we push voluntarily abdominal contents towards diaphragm, it will lead to expiration without involvement of
intercostal muscle.
15. Which two of the following changes (a–d) usually tend to occur in the plain dwellers when they move to high
altitudes (3,500 m or more)?
(a) Increase in red blood cell size
(b) Increase in red blood cell production
(c) Increased breathing rate
(d) Increase in thrombocyte count
Changes occurring are [AIPMT (Prelims)-2010]
(1) (a) and (b) (2) (b) and (c) (3) (c) and (d) (4) (a) and (d)
Sol. Answer (2)
16. Listed below are four respiratory capacities (a - d) and four jumbled respiratory volumes of a normal human
adult: Respiratory capacities and volumes
(a) Residual volume 2500 mL
(b) Vital capacity 3500 mL
(c) Inspiratory reserve volume 1200 mL
(d) Inspiratory capacity 4500 mL
Which one of the following is the correct matching of two capacities and volumes? [AIPMT (Prelims)-2010)]
(1) (a) 4500 mL, (b) 3500 mL
(2) (b) 2500 mL, (c) 4500 mL
(3) (c) 1200 mL, (d) 2500 mL
(4) (d) 3500 mL, (a) 1200 mL
Sol. Answer (4)
Residual volume – 1200 ml
Vital capacity – 4500 ml
Inspiratory reserve volume – 2500 ml
Inspiratory capacity – 3500 ml
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18. Increased asthamatic attacks in certain seasons are related to [AIPMT (Prelims)-2007]
(1) Low temperature (2) Hot and humid environment
(3) Eating fruits preserved in tin containers (4) Inhalation of seasonal pollen
Sol. Answer (4)
19. People living at sea level have around 5 million RBC per cubic millimeter of their blood whereas those living at
an altitude of 5400 metres have around 8 million. This is because at high altitude [AIPMT (Prelims)-2006]
(1) People get pollution-free air to breathe and more oxygen is available
(2) Atmospheric O2 level is less and hence more RBCs are needed to absorb the required amount of O2 to
survive
(3) There is more UV radiation which enhances RBC production
(4) People eat more nutritive food, therefore more RBCs are formed
Sol. Answer (2)
21. The majority of carbon dioxide produced by our body cells is transported to the lungs
[AIPMT (Prelims)-2006]
(1) Dissolved in the blood (2) As bicarbonates
(3) As carbonates (4) Attached to haemoglobin
Sol. Answer (2)
22. In man and other mammals, air passes from outside into the lungs through
(1) Nasal cavity, larynx, pharynx, trachea, bronchi, alveoli
(2) Nasal cavity, larynx, pharynx, trachea, bronchioles, alveoli
(3) Nasal cavity, pharynx, larynx, trachea, bronchioles, bronchi, alveoli
(4) Nasal cavity, pharynx, larynx, trachea, bronchi, bronchioles, alveoli
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Internal nares
Nasopharynx
Conducting part
Larynx
Trachea
Bronchi
Bronchioles
Alveolar duct
Respiratory/Exchange part
Alveoli
24. When a person breathes air through a tube directly into the trachea (tracheotomy) it may lead to serious lung
crushing and infection due to
(1) Cooling effect (2) Drying effect
(3) Non filtering effect (4) All of these
Sol. Answer (4)
Because upper respiratory tract helps in filtering the air, bringing air to body temperature and making it moist.
25. Pitch of the voice is lower in males than females as the vocal cords of man are
(1) Thicker and longer (2) Thinner and longer
(3) Thicker and shorter (4) Thinner and shorter
Sol. Answer (1)
In males, vocal cord is thicker and longer than females and pitch is affected by this
Male → Low pitch and female → High pitch
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28. In lungs, the air is separated from the venous blood through
(1) Transitional epithelium of alveoli + squamous epithelium of blood vessel
(2) Squamous epithelium of alveoli + endothelium of blood vessel
(3) Squamous epithelium of alveoli + cubical epithelium of blood vessel
(4) Cubical epithelium of alveoli + columnar epithelium of blood vessel
Sol. Answer (2)
Alveolar-capillary membrane or respiratory membrane or diffusion membrane, made up of
(1) Thin squamous epithelium of alveoli
(2) Basement membrane
(3) Endothelial lining of alveolar capillary/blood vessel
29. Which of the following volume or capacity of lungs can’t be measured directly by the spirometer?
(1) Residual volume (2) Functional residual capacity
(3) Total capacity (4) All of these
Sol. Answer (4)
Spirometer can measure the volume of air goes inside and outside the lungs. It does not measure the residual
volume of air that remains inside the lungs. So, residual volume, functional residual capacity and total capacity
cannot be measured by spirometer.
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34. Although much CO2 is carried in blood, yet blood does not become acidic, because
(1) CO2 is continuously diffused through the tissues and is not allowed to accumulate
(2) In CO2 transport, blood buffers play an important role
(3) CO2 is absorbed by the leucocytes
(4) CO2 combines with water to form H2CO3 which is neutralized by NaCO3
Sol. Answer (2)
Because blood acts as a buffer, which resists the change in pH of blood, because of bicarbonate ions.
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37. Blood analysis of a patient reveals an unusually high quantity of carboxyhaemoglobin content. The patient has
been inhaling polluted air containing unusually high content of
(1) Carbon disulphide (2) Chloroform
(3) Carbon dioxide (4) Carbon monoxide
Sol. Answer (4)
CO 2
+ Hb
HbCO 2
(Carbon dioxide) (Carbaminohaemoglobin)
CO
+ Hb
HbCO
(Carbon monoxide) (Carboxyhaemoglobin)
39. How carbon monoxide, emitted by automobiles, prevents transport of oxygen to the body tissues?
(1) By forming a stable compound with haemoglobin
(2) By inhibiting exchange of O2 at alveoli
(3) By changing oxygen into carbon dioxide
(4) By destroying the haemoglobin
Sol. Answer (1)
Because carbon monoxide has more affinity to bind with haeme group of haemoglobin, than oxygen
250 : 1
CO : O2
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42. Which of the following reflex is involved to prevent excessive inflation of the lungs?
(1) Stretch reflex (2) Hering-Breuer’s reflex
(3) Withdrawal reflex (4) Conditioned reflex
Sol. Answer (2)
Excessive inflation → Stretch receptors get activated → Cause expiration by sending signal through vagus
nerve to inhibit inspiratory area.
43. Chemoreceptors present in carotid and aortic arch are very much sensitive to
(1) Increase in pCO2 in arterial blood
(2) Increase in pO2 in arterial blood
(3) Decrease in pO2 in venous blood
(4) Both (2) & (3)
Sol. Answer (1)
Chemoreceptors present in carotid and aortic are sensitive to CO2 and H+.
44. A person remaining at high altitudes for years becomes more and more acclimatized to the low pO2 by the
following except
(1) Increased pulmonary ventilation
(2) Increased in RBCs and haemoglobin concentration
(3) Polycythemia
(4) Increased cardiac output permanently
Sol. Answer (4)
At high altitude (less pO2) then more RBC production which leads to increase RBC count (polycythemia) in
blood, due which viscosity of blood increases, hence cardiac output decreases.
45. If the blood does not deliver adequate O2 to the tissues, it is called
(1) Anaemia (2) Anorexia
(3) Hypoxia (4) Hypopnea
Sol. Answer (3)
Anorexia – Loss of apetite
Hypoxia – Low oxygen condition in tissue
Hypopnea – Slow breathing
Anaemia – Low hemoglobin, immature RBC
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49. Number of alveoli in the human lungs has been estimated to be approximately
(1) 100 million (2) 300 million3
(3) 125 million (4) 300 billion
Sol. Answer (2)
SECTION - D
Assertion-Reason Type Questions
1. A : Pneumotaxic centre controls rate of respiration.
R : Primarily it controls switch off point of inspiration.
Sol. Answer (1)
Pneumotaxic centre are switch off centre of inspiration.
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6. A : The passage starting with the external nostrils upto the terminal bronchiole constitute the respiratory part.
R : The respiratory part transport the air to the alveoli, clears it from the foreign material, humidified and brings
the air to body temperature.
Sol. Answer (4)
The passage starting with the external nostils upto the terminal bronchiole constitute the conducting part.
7. A : Normal expiration during quiet breathing, unlike inspiration, is a passive process because no muscular
contractions are involved.
R : Normal expiration results from the elastic recoil of the chest wall and lungs.
Sol. Answer (1)
Normal expiration in human is due to relaxation of muscles.
8. A : Human blood always contains more amount of CO2 than blood oxygen.
R : Solubility coefficient of CO2 is more than O2.
Sol. Answer (1)
In 100 ml oxygenated blood, amount of O2 is about 20 ml while of CO2 is about 48 ml.
9. A : When a person starts doing exercise, rate and depth of breathing increase even before these are changes
in pO2, pCO2 or H+ concentration.
R : The main stimulus for these quick changes is due to input from the proprioreceptors, which monitor
movements of joints and muscles.
Sol. Answer (1)
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10. A : Emphysema is a chronic obstructive disease of lung, causing irreversible distension and loss of elasticity
of alveoli.
R : Emphysema is preventable if chronic exposure to smoke (cigarette and others) and pollutants is avoided.
Sol. Answer (2)
Emphysema is due to inflation of alveoli.
11. A : 100 ml of venous blood has 14.4 ml of O2 i.e., it is still 75% saturated with oxygen in normal condition.
R : About 4.6 ml of O2, i.e. 25% diffuses from arterial blood into the tissue during exercise.
Sol. Answer (3)
Because during normal condition, oxygen demand in tissue is low.
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Chapter 5
Solutions
SECTION - A
Objective Type Questions
(Blood and Lymph)
(3) Serum
Fluid exuding from clotted blood is serum i.e., plasma without clotting factor, as all the formed element get
trap there in clot.
(1) Thrombocytopenia
(2) Hemophilia
(3) Anaemia
(4) Hypertension
Haemophilia is a hereditary genetic disorders that impair the body's ability to control blood clotting, which
is used to stop bleeding after any injury.
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Haemoglobin consists of four polypeptide chain (2α and 2β chains) and 4 heme group.
The formation of RBC is known as erythropoiesis and it occurs in the red bone marrow in adults.
Granulocytes are basically a type of leucocytes and formation of leucocyte i.e. leucopoiesis occurs in bone
marrow.
6. Immunity is provided by
(1) Erythrocytes (2) Lymphocytes (3) Megakaryocytes (4) Thrombocytes
Lymphocytes are agranulocytes WBC, which exist in two forms i.e., B-lymphocyte and T-lymphocytes and
these are responsible for immune response of the body.
Erythrocytes : These are also known as RBC, which help in gaseous transportation i.e., O2 and CO2.
Thrombocytes : These are also called platelets and are formed from the megakaryocytes (large cells of bone
marrow).
Monocytes, macrophages and neutrophils are phagocytic in nature because these cells can engulf the foreign
structure like bacteria.
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Blood platelets on disintegration produce thromboplastin (platelet factor 3), which start the chain of clotting
reactions.
Person with AB blood group have both antigen A and antigen B, but do not have any antibodies.
Because blood group 'O' is universal donor but can accept blood from 'O' blood group person.
Mother Father
(Rh –ve) (Rh +ve)
+ st
(Rh ) I child (Normal)
+ nd
(Rh ) II child (Erythroblastosis foetalis)
If father is Rh+ and mother is Rh–, the foetus can be Rh– or Rh+. This occurs when mother is Rh– and foetus
is Rh+. This is a serious problem. If the Rh– blood of mother has not earlier come in contact with Rh+ blood
through transfusion, her first child does not suffer. But in the subsequent Rh+ foetuses, the antibodies against
Rh antigen of the mother's blood destroy the foetal RBC. This results in erythroblastosis foetalis.
Blood platelets on disintegration release thromboplastin (platelets factor 3) which starts the chain of blood
clotting reaction.
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16. Prothrombin is a
(1) Protein (2) Lipid (3) Nucleotide (4) Carbohydrate
17. Which of the following prevent(s) blood clotting in uninjured blood vessels?
(1) Albumins (2) Histamine (3) Heparin (4) Globulins
Lymph transports oxygen, nutrients, hormones etc. to the body cells and bring CO2 and other metabolic
wastes from the body cells and finally pours the same into the venous system (major vein).
Because the origin of all muscle except ciliary muscle, has mesodermal origin.
(Circulatory Pathways)
20. Mixing of oxygenated and deoxygenated blood occurs in the heart of
(1) Bird (2) Crocodile (3) Rabbit (4) Frog
Because frog has three-chambered heart with two atria and a single ventricle. In frogs, both oxygenated and
deoxygenated blood get mixed up in the single ventricle and the heart pumps out mixed blood. This is known
as incomplete double circulation.
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Our heart beats 72 times per minute i.e., 72 cardiac cycles are performed per minute and one cardiac cycle
would occur in 0.8 second.
22. In humans, the volume of blood pumped out by each ventricle per minute is
(1) 1040 mL
(2) 5 L
(3) 2.5 L
(4) 1290 mL
During a cardiac cycle, each ventricle pumps out approximately 70 mL of blood. (stroke volume)
Lungs
LA = Left atrium
Pulmonary artery Pulmonary vein LV = Left ventricle
RA = Right atrium
RV = Right ventricle
RA LA
Heart
RV LV
Vena cava Aorta
Body parts
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(Double circulation)
25. How many double circulations are normally completed by human heart in one minute?
(1) Eight (2) Sixteen (3) Thirty six (4) Seventy two
Our heart normally beats 72 times per minute and in every beat the blood passes through the heart twice,
which includes pulmonary and systemic circulation.
Lungs
LA = Left atrium
Pulmonary artery Pulmonary vein LV = Left ventricle
(Deoxygenated blood) (Oxygenated blood) RA = Right atrium
RV = Right ventricle
RA LA
RV LV
Vena cava and Aorta
Coronary sinus (oxygenated blood)
Body parts
(Deoxygenated blood)
The walls of capillaries are composed of just one cell layer – a simple squamous epithelium or
endothelium, which permits a more rapid exchange of materials between the blood and tissues.
Tunica externa is the outermost layer of artery and vein wall and is composed of connective tissue.
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In pulmonary circulation, blood flows from right ventricle to lungs then to left atrium.
In systemic circulation, blood flows from left ventricle to body parts then to right atrium.
32. A special neural centre that can moderate the cardiac function is located in
(1) Cerebrum (2) Pons (3) Medulla oblongata (4) Cerebellum
SECTION - B
Objective Type Questions
(Blood)
1. T-lymphocytes mature in
(1) Bone marrow (2) Lymph nodes
(3) Bursa of fabricius (4) Thymus
Thymus is the primary lymphoid organ where maturation of T lymphocytes takes place.
Neutrophils : They are the most abundant leucocytes (60–65%), which have phagocytic nature i.e., they
engulf the harmful germ.
Eosinophils (2–3% of total leucocytes) : They are non-phagocytic and their number increases in people with
allergic condition such as asthma or hay fever.
Basophils (0–1% of total leucocytes (least)) : They release heparin, serotonin and histamine.
O group (universal donor) cannot receive A and B blood because anti-A and anti-B antibodies.
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2+
Ca
2+
Ca
Prothrombin Thrombin
(Inactive plasma protein) (Active)
Thrombin
Fibrinogen Fibrin
(Soluble) (Insoluble)
Polymerization
Fibrin Fibres
(Clot)
When the RBCs are placed in water, the water moves from surrounding into the RBC by osmosis, which results
in swelling or bursting of RBC due to excess of water.
Because person with AB blood group neither have anti-A nor anti-B antibodies but have both antigens (A and B).
7. A person with antigen A in RBC and antibody b in plasma belongs to blood group
(1) A (2) B (3) O (4) AB
Person having A blood group have antigen A in RBC and antibody b in plasma.
Lymph acts as 'middle man' which transports oxygen, food materials, hormone etc. to the body cells and
bring carbon dioxide and other metabolic wastes, from the body cells to blood and then finally pour the same
into the venous system.
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Blood Lymph
• Consist mainly of plasma, RBC, • Consist of plasma, WBC.
WBC and platelets.
• In plasma, more protein, Ca and • In plasma, have few protein, Ca
phosphorus. and phosphorus.
• Amount of CO2 and metabolic • Amount of CO2 and metabolic
waste is normal. waste is much more.
11. Read the following:
a. Lymph absorbs and transports fat from the intestine.
b. Lymph nodes produce fibrinogen.
c. Lymphatic capillaries present in the intestinal villi are known as lacteals.
d. Lymph transports oxygen only.
Which of these statements are true?
(1) a, c (2) b, d (3) c, d (4) a, b
Sol. Answer (1)
Statement b, is false because lymph nodes produce lymphocytes, not fibrinogen.
Statement d, is false, because lymph does not only transport O2 but it also transports CO2, nutrients,
hormone etc.
(Circulatory Pathways)
12. Blood pumped by the heart passes into sinuses in
(1) Fishes (2) Earthworms
(3) Insects (4) Birds
Sol. Answer (3)
Because arthropods (insects) and noncephalopod molluscs have open circulatory system i.e., blood pumped
by heart passes through large vessels into open spaces or body cavity called sinus.
Rest all, i.e. fishes, earthworm and birds have closed circulatory system.
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13. A patch of nodal tissue responsible for initiating the rhythmic contractile activity of heart is present in
(1) Lower left corner of the left ventricle
(2) Upper right corner of the right atrium
(3) Lower left corner of the right ventricle
(4) Upper left corner of the left atrium
Sol. Answer (2)
A patch of nodal tissue responsible initiating the rhythmic contractile activity of heart is SAN (Sino Atrial Node)
which is located at upper right corner of the right atrium.
P Q S T
15. Time interval between the closure of semilunar valve and closure of AV valve is
(1) 0.3 s (2) 0.5 s (3) 0.1 s (4) 0.7 s
Time interval between the closure of semilunar valve and closure of AV valve is the ventricular diastole time,
which is equal to 0.5 seconds.
16. If one litre of blood is drawn out of 5 litres from the body of man, how much blood would be left by the next
day?
(1) 5 litres (2) 4.5 litres (3) 4 litres (4) 3 litres
Blood lost is compensated by blood cell formed by the bone marrow and RBC stored in spleen and liquid content
is provided from outside in the form of fluid etc, to compensate plasma.
17. The two auricles are demarcated externally from the ventricle by an irregular groove called
(1) Inter-auricular septum
(2) Inter-ventricular septum
(3) Coronary sulcus
(4) Inter-ventricular groove
Sol. Answer (3)
Coronary sulcus demarcated auricles from ventricle externally.
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Auricular
systole
0.1 s
Ventricular
systole
0.3 s
Heart
Artery
Vein Portal system
Portal
Organ 1 Organ 2
Vein
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(Double circulation)
Cephalopods have closed circulatory system, rest all i.e. crustaceans, insect and gastropods have open
circulatory system.
25. The course of blood from the heart to the lungs and back to the heart is called
(1) Systemic circulation (2) Pulmonary circulation (3) Single circulation (4) Double circulation
Sol. Answer (2)
Pulmonary circulation = Right ventricle
↓
Lungs
↓
Left atrium
↓
Systemic circulation = Left ventricle
↓
Body parts
↓
Right auricle
Double circulation = Pulmonary circulation + Systemic circulation
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In case of defective or damaged heart valves, their improper closure leads to leakage of blood which produces
an abnormal sound referred to as heart murmur.
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SECTION - C
Previous Years Questions
1. Match the items given in Column I with those in Column II and select the correct option given below
Column I Column II
a. Tricuspid valve (i) Between left atrium and left ventricle
b. Bicuspid valve (ii) Between right ventricle and pulmonary artery
c. Semilunar valve (iii) Between right atrium and right ventricle [NEET-2018]
(1) a(iii), b(i), c(ii) (2) a(i), b(iii), c(ii) (3) a(ii), b(i), c(iii) (4) a(i), b(ii), c(iii)
Sol. Answer (1)
Tricuspid valves are AV valve present between right atrium and right ventricle. Bicuspid valves are AV valve
present between left atrium and left ventricle. Semilunar valves are present at the openings of aortic and
pulmonary aorta.
2. Match the items given in Column I with those in Column II and select the correct option given below :
Column I Column II
a. Fibrinogen (i) Osmotic balance
b. Globulin (ii) Blood clotting
c. Albumin (iii) Defence mechanism [NEET-2018]
(1) a(iii), b(ii), c(i) (2) a(i), b(ii), c(iii) (3) a(ii), b(iii), c(i) (4) a(i), b(iii), c(ii)
Sol. Answer (3)
Fibrinogen forms fibrin strands during coagulation. These strands forms a network and the meshes of which
are occupied by blood cells, this structure finally forms a clot.
Antibodies are derived from γ-Globulin fraction of plasma proteins which means globulins are involved in defence
mechanisms.
Albumin is a plasma protein mainly responsible for BCOP.
4. Adult human RBCs are enucleate. Which of the following statement(s) is/are most appropriate explanation for
this feature? [NEET-2017]
(a) They do not need to reproduce
(b) They are somatic cells
(c) They do not metabolize
(d) All their internal space is available for oxygen transport
(1) Only (d) (2) Only (a) (3) (a), (c) and (d) (4) (b) and (c)
Sol. Answer (1)
In Human RBCs, nucleus degenerates during maturation which provide more space for oxygen carrying pigment
(Haemoglobin). It lacks most of the cell organelles including mitochondria so respires anaerobically.
5. Name the blood cells, whose reduction in number can cause clotting disorder, leading to excessive loss of
blood from the body. [NEET (Phase-2) 2016]
(1) Erythrocytes (2) Leucocytes
(3) Neutrophils (4) Thrombocytes
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14. How do parasympathetic neural signals affect the working of the heart? [AIPMT-2014]
(1) Reduce both heart rate and cardiac output
(2) Heart rate is increased without affecting the cardiac output
(3) Both heart rate and cardiac output increase
(4) Heart rate decreases but cardiac output increases
Sol. Answer (1)
Post-ganglionic fibers of parasympathetic nervous system secrete acetylcholine which decrease heart rate and
cardiac output.
15. Person with blood group AB is considered as universal recipient because he has [AIPMT-2014]
(1) Both A and B antigens on RBC but no antibodies in the plasma
(2) Both A and B antibodies in the plasma
(3) No antigen on RBC and no antibody in the plasma
(4) Both A and B antigens in the plasma but no antibodies
Sol. Answer (1)
Person with blood group AB has both A and B antigens on RBC but no antibodies in the plasma.
16. The diagram given here is the standard ECG of a normal person. The P-wave represents the [NEET-2013]
P T
Q S
D
A
C B
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25. Which one of the following statements is correct regarding blood pressure? [AIPMT (Prelims)-2011]
(1) 190/110 mm Hg may harm vital organs like brain and kidney
(2) 130/90 mm Hg is considered high and requires treatment
(3) 100/55 mm Hg is considered an ideal blood pressure
(4) 105/50 mm Hg makes one very active
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26. Given below is the ECG of a normal human. Which one of its components is correctly interpreted below?
[AIPMT (Mains)-2011]
P T
Q S
(1) Peak P and Peak R together – systolic and diastolic blood pressures
(2) Peak P– Initiation of left atrial contraction only
(3) Complex QRS – One complete pulse
(4) Peak T – Initiation of total cardiac contraction
Sol. Answer (3)
P wave : Atrial depolarization
QRS wave : Ventricular depolarisation / One complete pulse systole (diastole)
T wave : Ventricular repolarisation
28. If due to some injury the chordae tendinae of the tricuspid valve of the human heart is partially non-functional,
what will be the immediate effect? [AIPMT (Prelims)-2010]
(1) The flow of blood into the pulmonary artery will be reduced
(2) The flow of blood into the aorta will be slowed down
(3) The pacemaker will stop working
(4) The blood will tend to flow back into the left atrium
Sol. Answer (1)
The tricuspid valve is present between right atrium and right ventricle and then from right ventricle blood goes
to lungs via pulmonary artery.
The chordae tendinae which is attached to the flaps of tricuspid valve and prevent it from collapsing back into
the atria during powerful ventricular contraction and if in case, the chordae tendinae of the tricuspid valve
become partially non-functional then the flow of blood into the pulmonary artery will be reduced.
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30. The haemoglobin content per 100 ml of blood of a normal healthy human adult is [AIPMT (Mains)-2010]
(1) 5 - 11 g (2) 25 - 30 g (3) 17 - 20 g (4) 12 - 16 g
Sol. Answer (4)
31. The most popularly known blood grouping is the ABO grouping. It is named ABO and not ABC, because "O" in
it refers to having: [AIPMT (Prelims)-2009]
(1) Overdominance of this type on the genes for A and B types
(2) One antibody only – either anti-A or anti-B on the RBCs
(3) No antigens A and B on RBCs
(4) Other antigens besides A and B on RBCs
Sol. Answer (3)
34. In a standard ECG which one of the following alphabets is the correct representation of the respective activity of
the human heart? [AIPMT (Prelims)-2009]
(1) S – start of systole (2) T – end of diastole
(3) P – depolarisation of the atria (4) R–repolarisation of ventricles
Sol. Answer (3)
P wave : Depolarization of atria
QRS wave : Depolarisation of ventricles
T wave : Repolarisation of ventricles
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35. Globulins contained in human blood plasma are primarily involved in: [AIPMT (Prelims)-2009]
(1) Osmotic balance of body fluids (2) Oxygen transport in the blood
(3) Clotting of blood (4) Defence mechanisms of body
Sol. Answer (4)
36. The most active phagocytic white blood cells are [AIPMT (Prelims)-2008]
(1) Neutrophils and monocytes (2) Neutrophils and eosinophils
(3) Lymphocytes and macrophages (4) Eosinophils and lymphocytes
Sol. Answer (1)
37. Which type of white blood cells are concerned with the release of histamine and the natural anticoagulant
heparin? [AIPMT (Prelims)-2008]
(1) Monocytes (2) Neutrophils (3) Basophils (4) Eosinophils
Sol. Answer (3)
39. In humans, blood passes from the post caval to the diastolic right atrium of heart due to
[AIPMT (Prelims)-2008]
(1) Pressure difference between the post caval and atrium
(2) Pushing open of the venous valves
(3) Suction pull
(4) Stimulation of the sino auricular node
Sol. Answer (1)
41. If you suspect major deficiency of antibodies in person, to which of the following would you look for
confirmatory evidence? [AIPMT (Prelims)-2007]
(1) Haemocytes (2) Serum albumins
(3) Serum globulins (4) Fibrinogen in the plasma
Sol. Answer (3)
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43. A drop of each of the following, is placed separately on four slides. Which of them will not coagulate?
[AIPMT (Prelims)-2007]
(1) Whole blood from pulmonary vein
(2) Blood plasma
(3) Blood serum
(4) Sample from the thoracic duct of lymphatic system
Sol. Answer (3)
46. Which of the following substances, if introduce in the blood stream, would cause coagulation, at the site of its
introduction? [AIPMT (Prelims)-2005]
(1) Fibrinogen (2) Prothrombin (3) Heparin (4) Thromboplastin
Sol. Answer (4)
47. Lymph collected from left side of the body collected through thoracic duct and finally opens into
(1) Right sub clavian vein (2) Righ sub clavian artery
(3) Left sub clavian vein (4) Left sub clavian artery
Sol. Answer (3)
Because thoracic duct is located on the left side and further this duct will drain the lymph into subclavian
vein located on the left side only.
Systemic heart means oxygenated heart which supplies blood to the body parts.
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49. Which of the following layer of heart is related to difference in thickness of different chambers of heart?
(1) Outer fibrous coat (2) Epicardium (3) Myocardium (4) Endocardium
Sol. Answer (3)
The heart has an outermost smooth coelomic epithelium - the visceral pericardium.
The middle thick muscular layer called myocardium, made up of muscle fibres.
Innermost layer i.e., endocardium.
50. Which of the following are in direct contact with the AV valves and prevent these from collapsing back into atria?
(1) Chordae tendinae (2) Papillary muscles (3) Columnae carnae (4) Musculi pectinati
Sol. Answer (1)
Special fibrous cords called the chordae tendinae are attached to the flaps of the bicuspid and tricuspid
valves at one end and their other ends are attached to the ventricular wall with the special muscles. The
papillary muscles. The chordae tendinae prevent the bicuspid and tricuspid valves from collapsing back into
the atria during powerful ventricular contraction.
Columnae carinae : They are the rounded or irregular muscular column which project from the inner surface
of the right and left ventricles of heart.
Musculi pectinati : They are the parallel ridges in the walls of the atria of the heart.
52. The correct route through which impulse travels in the heart is
(1) SA node → Purkinje fibres → bundle of His → AV node → heart muscles
(2) SA node → AV node → bundle of His → Purkinje fibres → heart muscles
(3) AV node → bundle of His → SA node → Purkinje fibres → heart muscles
(4) AV node → SA node → Purkinje fibres → bundle of His → heart muscles
Sol. Answer (2)
SA node (wave of contraction get originated at SA node)
↓
AV node
↓
Bundle of His
↓
Purkinje's fibre (now, the impulse stimulates the ventricles to contract simultaneously)
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Bundle of His are muscle fibres which originate from AV node and present on the each ventricle wall.
54. The cardiac pacemaker in a patient fails to function normally. The doctors find that an artificial pacemaker is
to be grafted in him. It is likely that it will be grafted at the site of
(1) Atrioventricular bundle (2) Purkinje system
(3) Sinoatrial node (4) Atrioventricular node
Sol. Answer (3)
Sinoatrial node is also called pacemaker because it is the site which generates the maximum number of action
potential i.e., 70–75 min–1 and is responsible for initiating and maintaining the rhythmic contractile activity of
the heart.
59. To obtain a standard ECG, a patient is connected to the machine with three electrodes attached
(1) One to each wrist and to the left ankle (2) One to each ankle and to the left wrist
(3) One to each wrist and to the left chest region (4) One to each ankle and to the left chest region
Sol. Answer (1)
To obtain a standard, ECG, three electrodes of the machine are attached one to each wrist and to the left
ankle of patient.
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60. When the heart muscles receive insufficient oxygen, it is indicated in the ECG as
(1) Enlarged P-wave (2) Depressed S-T segment (3) Flattened T-wave (4) Both (2) & (3)
Sol. Answer (4)
S-T segment is elevated in acute myocardial infarction and depressed when the heart muscle receives insufficient
oxygen.
T wave is flat when heart muscle receives insufficient oxygen as in atherosclerotic heart disease and it may be
elevated when the body's potassium level is increased.
62. Difference between pulmonary artery and pulmonary vein is that the pulmonary artery has
(1) No endothelium (2) Valves (3) Thicker wall (4) Oxygenated blood
Sol. Answer (3)
Artery has thick wall, blood flows with more pressure. Thickness of artery is due to tunica media.
63. In veins, valves are present to check backward flow of blood flowing at
(1) Atmospheric pressure (2) High pressure
(3) Low pressure (4) All of these
Sol. Answer (3)
Artery have high pressure
Veins have low pressure, thin walls
64. Fastest distribution of some injectible material/medicine with no risk of any kind can be achieved by injecting
it into the
(1) Muscles (2) Arteries
(3) Veins (4) Lymph vessels
Sol. Answer (3)
Because veins carry blood towards the heart and then heart pumps blood to all organs.
65. An adult human with average health has systolic and diastolic pressures as
(1) 120 mm Hg and 80 mm Hg (2) 50 mm Hg and 80 mm Hg
(3) 80 mm Hg and 80 mm Hg (4) 70 mm Hg and 120 mm Hg
Sol. Answer (1)
Normal blood pressure 120(systolic pressure) / 80 (Diastolic pressure)
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68. Which of the following cannot be taken as a feature of open type circulatory system?
(1) Low pressure system (2) Well regulated blood supply to different organs
(3) Blood returns to the heart slowly (4) Non formation of capillaries
Sol. Answer (2)
Well-regulated blood supply to different organs occurs in closed circulatory system, in which blood flows in
the blood vessel.
69. Which of the following blood vessels bypass are present in the circulatory system before birth?
(1) Foramen ovale (2) Fossa ovalis (3) Ductus arteriosus (4) Both (1) & (3)
Sol. Answer (4)
Before birth, the major portion blood from the right side bypasses the pulmonary circulation through foramen
ovale and ductus arteriosus. At the time of birth with the start of breathing, these bypass cease to act.
Foramen ovale closes to become fossa ovalis.
Ductus arteriosus closes to become ligamentum arteriosum.
SECTION - D
Assertion-Reason Type Questions
1. A : The cardiac impulse which originates from SA node in mammalian heart cannot spread directly from atria to
ventricles.
R : In mammalian heart there is no continuity between cardiac muscle fibres of atria and those of ventricles
except AV bundles.
Sol. Answer (1)
SA node → AV node → Bundle of His → Bundle branch → Purkinje fibre → Ventricle wall
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2. A : First phase of ventricular filling is rapid and causes 3rd sound of heart.
R : It is because of auricular systole.
Sol. Answer (3)
It is because of opening of AV valve.
4. A : Portal system consists of veins which start from capillaries and end into capillaries.
R : All vertebrates have hepatic portal system.
Sol. Answer (2)
A unique vascular connection exists between the digestive tract and liver called hepatic portal system.
5. A : Left ventricle pumps blood at a much higher pressure to all body parts involved in systemic circulation.
R : The muscular wall of the left ventricle is two to four times as thick as the wall of right ventricle.
Sol. Answer (1)
Left ventricle has thickest wall.
6. A : The resting heart rate, about 75/minutes, usually is lower than the autorhythmic rate of the SA node
(90 – 100 beats/minute).
R : At rest condition, the parasympathetic effects dominate.
Sol. Answer (1)
The signals from parasympathetic nervous system decreases the heart rate.
8. A : Endocardium provides a smooth lining for the inside of the heart and covers the valves of the heart.
R : Endocardium is continuous with the endothelial lining of the large blood vessels associated with the heart
and the rest of the cardiovascular system.
Sol. Answer (2)
Inner wall of heart is endocardium.
9. A : Isovolumetric systole of a normal cardiac cycle is responsible for the opening of semilunar valves causing
the blood flow into aortic aorta and pulmonary aorta.
R : During isovolumetric systole, intraventricular pressure increases as semilunar and AV valves are closed and
ventricles are contracting.
Sol. Answer (1)
There is no change in volume of blood in ventricles during isovolumetric systole.
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