TEST 1 Question 1: While in use, where are software applications stored? A. RAM B. ROM C. NIC D.

EPROM Question 2: What is a network interface card (NIC)? A. a WAN adapter B. a card used to make modem connections C. a card used only for Ethernet networks D. a printed circuit board that provides network communication Question 3: What is NOT an important consideration when purchasing a NIC? A. the type of network B. the type of applications C. the type of media D. the type of system bus Question 4: Which PC hardware upgrade must take place to change the PC's network speed from 10Mbps to 100Mbps? A. install a faster video card B. install a faster hard drive C. install a faster serial port D. install a faster NIC Question 5: What is the expansion slot on laptops commonly called? A. IEEE B. PCMCIA C. ITU-T D. FDDI Question 6: Which Control Panel icon should be accessed to configure TCP/IP LAN settings in a Windows 95 PC? A. Device Manager B. System C. Network D. Internet Options Question 7: What does a plug-in do? A. allows one to view material saved in the HTML format B. allows one to view GIF files C. allows the browser to display proprietary file types D. allows multiple versions of the browser to run at the same time Question 8: All computers on a network can view academy curriculum via a web browser except one. Locally, this computer operates well. What is the most likely cause of the problem? A. PC CPU speed B. PC Bus speed C. Network speed D. Network Connection Question 9: Which component of a PC is a collection of wires through which data is transferred from one part of the computer to another?

A. B. C. D.

Expansion slot Bus Microprocessor System unit

Question 10: Which numbering system do computers use for data processing? A. binary B. decimal C. hexadecimal D. octal Question 11: What is NOT a WAN technology? A. Modem B. Frame Relay C. ISDN D. Ethernet 10BaseT Question 12: What is the name of a device that has many transistors, performs a specific task, and is made of semiconductor material? A. Integrated circuit B. LED C. Capacitor D. Resistor Question 13: What is located within a single building or campus? A. LAN B. WAN C. TAN D. MAN Question 14: What is the decimal value of the binary number 11111111? A. 0 B. 64 C. 192 D. 255 Question 15: What is a WAN? A. a network that connects users across a large geographic area B. a network that connects devices in a workgroup setting C. a network that connects business departments in a building D. a technique that was an early solution to the networking problem Question 16: What is the definition of a bit? A. the section of a network that is bounded by bridges, routers, or switches B. a binary digit used in the binary number system, either 0 or 1 C. the interface on an internetworking device, such as a router D. the network areas within which data packets that have collided are propagated Question 17: How many bits are in a byte? A. 2 B. 4 C. 8

D. 10 Question 18: Which describes the decimal numbering system? A. It is also called the Base 100 Number System. B. It uses the 10 symbols 0 - 9. C. It is based on powers of 1. D. It is the same as the ASCII numbering system. Question 19: Which numbering system is based on powers of 2? A. octal B. hexadecimal C. binary D. ASCII Question 20: What is the decimal number 151 in binary? A. 10010110 B. 10010111 C. 10101011 D. 10010011 Question 21: What is the binary number 11011010 in decimal? A. 218 B. 202 C. 222 D. 186 Question 22: How is bandwidth described? A. bytes per second B. bits per second C. megabits per millisecond D. centimeters Question 23: What is the term to describe the maximum number of bits that can be transferred in a given amount of time? A. impedance B. propagation C. attenuation D. bandwidth Question 24: Which factor reduces throughput? A. increased number of users B. decreased number of users C. increased size of hard drive D. decreased size of hard drive TEST2 Question 1: Which correctly describes a source address? A. the address of a host that receives data and information from other computers in a network B. the address of a host that sends data and information to other computers in a network C. data information that moves between computers in a network D. it provides a connection between computers in a network Question 2: Which best defines media in terms of networking? A. material through which data packets travel B. encapsulation of encoded information

C. production model for assembling complex electronic devices D. activation and maintenance of data links between systems Question 3: A set of rules that determines the format and transmission of data is known as what? A. standard B. model C. representation D. protocol Question 4: Which is an advantage of a layered network model? A. slows evolution B. increases complexity C. simplifies learning D. increases proprietary protocols Question 5: Which process does the OSI model describe? A. how to protect networks from unwanted intrusions such as hackers and viruses B. how a network uses transmission devices provided by common carriers to create a steady and reproducible signal C. how information or data moves from one computer through a network to another computer D. how to maintain physical and software links between networks Question 6: What is the correct order of the layers of the OSI model? A. physical, data link, network, transport, session, presentation, application B. physical, session, data link, network, application, transport, presentation C. physical, data link, network, session, transport, presentation, application D. physical, data link, network, session, application, transport, presentation Question 7: What is layer 3 of the OSI model called? A. network B. session C. data link D. application Question 8: Which best describes the function of the physical layer? A. Defines the electrical and functional specifications for the link between end systems. B. Provides reliable transit of data across a physical link. C. Provides connectivity and path selection between two end systems. D. Concerned with physical addressing, network topology and media access. Question 9: Which layer of the OSI model provides connectivity and path selection between two end systems where routing occurs? A. physical layer B. data link layer C. network layer D. transport layer

Question 10: Which layer of the OSI model is responsible for reliable network communication between end nodes and provides mechanisms for the establishment, maintenance, and termination of virtual circuits, transport fault detection and recovery, and information flow control? A. physical layer B. data link layer C. network layer D. transport layer Question 11: What is the function of the session layer? A. concerned with data structures and the negotiation of data transfer syntax B. provides reliable transit of data across the physical layer C. provides connectivity and path selection between two end systems D. manages data exchange between presentation layer entities Question 12: Which best describes the function of the presentation layer? A. responsible for reliable network communication between end nodes B. concerned with data structures and negotiation data transfer syntax C. provides connectivity and path selection between two end systems D. manages data exchange between layer entities Question 13: Which layer of the OSI model describes the various types of networking media? A. network layer B. data link layer C. physical layer D. transport layer Question 14: When encapsulating data, what is the control information that is placed before the data called? A. frame B. header C. capsule D. routing information Question 15: What is one function of the physical layer of the OSI model? A. Allows for physical addressing of computers on the network media . B. Data transmission across the network media. C. Defines the data as it crosses the network media. D. Provides network services to applications. Question 16: Packets are encapsulated into frames at which layer of the OSI model? A. data link B. network C. transport D. session Question 17: What is the order of the layers in the TCP/IP model? A. network, internet, transport, application B. network, data link, transport, application

C. physical, data link, transport, application D. internet, data link, transport, application Question 18: In the TCP/IP model, which layer would deal with reliability, flow control, and error correction? A. transport B. internet C. network D. application Question 19: At which layer of the TCP/IP model are FTP and HTTP located? A. application B. transport C. internet D. network Question 20: Which is a characteristic of the TCP/IP model? A. combines host and media layers B. combines session and transport layers C. combines data link and physical layers D. combines network and data link layers Question 21: At which layer of the OSI model is telnet located? A. transport B. session C. presentation D. application TEST3 Question 1: What is a type of logical topology? A. star B. hierarchical C. mesh D. token passing Question 2: What is the purpose of a NIC? A. establishes, manages, and terminates sessions between applications and manages data exchange between presentation layer entities B. provides the host's access to the medium C. provides services to application processes D. provides mechanisms for the establishment, maintenance, and termination of virtual circuits, recovery, and information flow control Question 3: At which layer of the OSI model is the NIC located? A. Layer 2 B. Layer 3 C. Layer 4 D. Layer 5 Question 4: Which layer of the OSI model describes networking media? A. network layer B. data link layer C. physical layer D. transport layer Question 5:

Which material is used for network media? A. switch B. hub C. router D. fiber Question 6: What is the purpose of a repeater? A. connects a LAN to a WAN B. amplifies and retimes network signals C. records web pages and repeats them for other users D. relays time signals between network devices Question 7: At which OSI layer does a repeater function? A. 1 B. 2 C. 3 D. 4 Question 8: What is another name for a multi-port repeater? A. bridge B. host C. hub D. sequencer Question 9: A hub operates at which OSI layer? A. 1 B. 2 C. 4 D. 6 Question 10: Which statement best describes bridges and the way they make forwarding decisions? A. they operate at OSI Layer 2 and use IP addresses to make decisions B. they operate at OSI Layer 3 and use IP addresses to make decisions C. they operate at OSI Layer 2 and use MAC addresses to make decisions D. they operate at OSI Layer 3 and use MAC addresses to make decisions Question 11: What does a switch use to make data forwarding decisions? A. IP address B. MAC address C. network address D. subnetwork address Question 12: What is the primary purpose of a router? A. to make packet forwarding decisions based on physical addresses B. to make packet forwarding decisions based on logical addresses C. to make frame forwarding decisions based on physical addresses D. to make frame forwarding decisions based on port addresses Question 13: What are the most important traffic-regulating devices on large networks?

A. B. C. D.

hubs servers routers bridges

Question 14: Because a cloud is not really a device, but a collection of assumed capabilities, which OSI layers are represented in a cloud? A. Layers 1-3 B. Layers 1-4 C. Layers 4-7 D. Layers 1-7 Question 15: Routers operate primarily at what layer of the OSI model? A. Layer 1 B. Layer 2 C. Layer 3 D. Layer 4 Question 16: What is the correct order of encapsulation? A. data, segment, packet, frame, bits B. data, frame, packet, segment, bits C. bits, data, packet, frame D. bits, frame, data, packet Question 17: What data units are associated with OSI Layer 1? A. bits B. frames C. packets D. segments Question 18: Which is considered a layer 2 device? A. hub B. repeater C. switch D. transceiver Question 19: What is the function of a transceiver? A. extends the length of network segment B. converts one media type to another C. segments two LANS D. increases the number of devices on a segment Question 20: Which could be considered a layer 1-7 device? A. router B. hub C. switch D. computer Question 21: When creating a network from just two PCs, what kind of cable would be used to directly connect them? A. fiber optic cable B. standard UTP cable C. UTP rollover cable D. UTP crossover cable Question 22: If 4 hosts are connected to a hub how many IP addresses are required for these 5 devices? A. one B. two

C. four D. five TEST4 Question 1: Which best describes an insulator? A. Any material with a low resistance to electrical current. B. Any material with a high resistance to electrical current. C. Any highly malleable metal. D. Any material that cannot transmit currents over 110 volts. Question 2: In electrical terms, what does AC mean? A. alternating current B. attenuating current C. amplitude current D. amplified current Question 3: What is the best definition of electrical current? A. force or pressure caused by the separation of electrons and protons B. the measurement of electron flow in an electrical circuit C. the opposition to electron flow in a curcuit D. the absence of electron flow in a curcuit Question 4: What is the opposition to the movement of electrons as they move through materials? A. current B. resistance C. ohms D. voltage Question 5: Where is the safety ground connected on a computer? A. exposed metal parts B. the monitor C. the mouse D. the network connection Question 6: What is the best definition of voltage? A. force or pressure caused by the separation of electrons and protons B. the measurement of electron flow in an electrical circuit C. the opposition to electron flow in a circuit D. the absence of electron flow in a circuit Question 7: What is the unit of measure for resistance? A. volt B. ohm C. amp D. joule Question 8: When measuring voltage with a multimeter which setting must be set? A. AC or DC B. polarity C. frequency D. amperage range Question 9: What are the three required parts of an electrical circuit? A. switch, source or battery, load or resistance B. source or battery, complete path, switch

C. source or battery, complete path, load or resistance D. power, source or battery, load or resistance Question 10: Which type of electrical circuit will have a continuously varying voltage-versus-time graph? A. DC B. analog C. digital D. open Question 11: What is propagation of a network signal? A. travel B. delay C. attenuation D. latency Question 12: What is attenuation? A. travel B. delay C. a signal losing strength to its surroundings D. a signal gaining strength from its surroundings Question 13: What is the result of impedance mismatch? A. reflected energy B. power sags C. brown outs D. power surges Question 14: Which is an external source of electrical impulses that can attack the quality of electrical signals on a cable? A. EMI caused by electrical motors B. EMI caused by DC Batteries C. impedance caused by radio systems D. EMI caused by fiber optic cable Question 15: What is the primary cause of crosstalk? A. cable wires that are too large in diameter B. too much noise in a cable's data signal C. electrical motors and lighting D. electrical noise from other wires in a cable Question 16: Which describes cancellation in cabling? A. Wires in the same circuit cancel each other's electrical current flow. B. Twisting of wire pairs provides self-shielding within the network media. C. The magnetic fields from separate cables cancel magnetic fields of another cables. D. External magnetic fields cancel the fields inside network cabling. Question 17: Which term best describes the delay of a network signal? A. dispersion B. jitter C. latency D. attenuation Question 18: Which term best describes two devices communicating on a shared-medium at the same time?

A. B. C. D.

latency dispersion collision obstruction

What is an advantage of coaxial cable? A. It can run unrepeated farther than twisted-pair cabling. B. It is less expensive than any other type of cabling. C. It is easier to install than UTP. D. It is more susceptible to noise than UTP. Question 4: What is one advantage of using fiber optic cabling in networks? A. cheap B. easy to install C. not susceptible to electromagnetic interference D. it is available either with or without an outer shield Question 5: What is a feature of fiber-optic cable? A. It is capable of higher data rates than other types of networking media. B. Its core is made of highly reflective Kevlar. C. It relies on total internal cancellation to guide light for tremendous distances. D. It uses an intense incandescent light. Question 6: What kind of cable is most frequently recommended and implemented in installations today? A. category 3 B. category 4 C. category 5 D. coaxial cable Question 7: Which element of the TIA/EIA standard allows for the greatest cable length? A. patch cords B. work area cable C. horizontal cabling D. diagonal cabling Question 8: What is the standard 10Base-T termination for the telecommunications outlet? A. UTP 55 B. RJ-45 C. EIA 45 D. TIA 74 Question 9: What does the twisting of the wires do in a CAT-5 cable? A. makes it thinner B. makes it less expensive C. limits signal degradation D. allow 6 pairs to fit in the space of 4 pairs Question 10: What is true about RJ-45 connectors? A. have eight conductors B. have four conductors C. have one center conductor D. They are a layer 2 component. Question 11: Which is true about patch panels? A. have RJ77 jacks on one side B. have a punch down block on one side C. cannot be rack mounted D. require a power supply

Question 19: How many bits compose 1 byte? A. 2 B. 4 C. 8 D. 255 Question 20: Which term describes the conversion of binary data into a form that can travel on a physical communications link? A. encoding B. decoding C. encrypting D. decrypting Question 21: What kind of schemes are Manchester and NRZ? A. encoding B. decoding C. encrypting D. decrypting Question 22: What are the three parts of an atom? A. electron, neutron, positron B. proton, nucleus, orbit C. neutron, electron, proton D. proton, nucleus, positron Question 23: Which of the following would represent a DC source of electricity? A. an electrical generator B. a car or flashlight battery C. a magnet D. a steam engine Question 24: A multimeter can be used to measure which of the following? A. voltage, current, frequency B. voltage, resistance, continuity C. continuity, voltage, noise D. noise, voltage, continuity TEST5 Question 1: What is the maximum cable length of unshielded twisted pair (UTP), in meters? A. 100 B. 185 C. 200 D. 500 Question 2: What is a feature of coaxial cable? A. It contains four wire pairs in the center. B. It uses a plastic woven braid. C. It contains a copper conductor at the center. D. It relies on cancellation effects to reduce the amount of interference. Question 3:

Question 12: What is one purpose of a repeater? A. filters network traffic B. increases traffic on a network C. decreases data transmission rates D. extends the physical length of a network segment Question 13: What is the networking term used for a device that is the center of a star topology network? A. bridge B. port C. hub D. filter Question 14: What happens to data packets during a collision? A. The packet is resent by the multiport hub. B. The packet is converted to analog and retransmitted. C. It will be destroyed, bit by bit. D. It will be rebuilt by destination device. Question 15: Which is a characteristic of a collision domain? A. all computers on a single shared access media B. all computers sharing a single IP address C. all computers sharing a single MAC address D. all computers within a WAN Question 16: How many collision domains exist in a network containing two repeaters? A. one B. two C. three D. five Question 17: How many collision domains exist in a network containing two hubs? A. one B. two C. three D. five Question 18: How many collision domains exist in a network containing one repeater AND one hub? A. one B. two C. three D. five Question 19: What is the term used for separating collision domains with bridges, switches, and routers? A. switching domains B. extending domains C. segmentation D. fragmentation Question 20: Which best describes bus topology? A. all of its nodes connected directly to a central point (like a hub) B. all of its nodes connected directly to one physical link C. all nodes connected to each other (fully meshed) D. all nodes connected to exactly 2 other nodes

Question 21: What are disadvantages of using a star topology? A. hard to setup, install, and maintain the network B. difficult to diagnose problems that occur in the network C. needs lots of network media and the network would be susceptible to problems at central node D. inability to modify the design of the network once it has been set up Question 22: Which of the following best describes a star topology? A. transmission across a single coaxial cable B. a trunk node which branches to other nodes C. every node is linked to all other nodes D. central node with all links to other nodes radiating from it Question 23: Which best describes an extended star topology? A. LAN topology in which each of the end nodes of the core topology are acting as the center of its own star topology B. LAN topology in which transmissions from network stations propagate the length of a single coaxial cable and are received by all other stations C. LAN topology in which end points on a network are connected to a common central switch by point-to-point links D. LAN topology where central points on a network are connected to a common central switch by linear links Question 24: What is a characteristic of a complete (mesh) topology. A. Every node is linked directly to the same hub. B. Every node is linked directly to a switch. C. Every node is linked directly to each other. D. All nodes share a single wire (or cable). TEST6 Question 1: What section of the frame contains the source and destination information? A. data field B. FCS C. address field D. stop frame field Question 2: Which organization's LAN standards include 802.3 and 802.5? A. EIA. B. IEEE. C. TIA. D. UL. Question 3: What section of the frame contains the information you want to send? A. data field B. FCS C. address field D. stop frame field Question 4: What section of the frame handles error checking? A. data field B. FCS

C. address field D. stop frame field Question 5: How did the IEEE standard differ from the OSI model? A. They defined their own layer 1 protocol. B. They split layer 2 into two sublayers. C. They split layer 3 into two protocols. D. They combined layers 1 and 2. Question 6: Why did the IEEE create LLC? A. to allow part of the datalink layer to be independent of existing technologies B. to replace an older IBM protocol C. to create a protocol that would not be controlled by the US government D. to allow for data encryption before transmission Question 7: Convert the decimal number 43 to Hex. A. 2B B. 1F C. EF D. 1A Question 8: Hexadecimal is used to represent what kind of addresses? A. IP B. MAC C. Octal D. Digital Question 9: What is 16 raised to the first power (16 1 )? A. decimal 1 B. decimal 16 C. hex FF D. hex 16 Question 10: Convert the decimal number 2989 to Hex. A. FDD1 B. BAD C. ED D. CAD Question 11: What is the decimal value of the hex number ABE? A. 2750 B. 5027 C. 2570 D. 7250 Question 12: What is the hex value of the binary number 11100010? A. D2 B. E2 C. G2 D. H20 Question 13: What is the Organizational Unique Identifier (OUI)? A. all hex digits of a MAC address B. the 1st 6 hex digits of a MAC address C. the last 6 hex digits of a MAC address D. the prefix to all network device model numbers

Question 14: Which best describes a MAC address? A. a 48 bit address consisting of 24 bits for OUI and 24 bits for vendor B. a 32-bit address that consists of a etwork number, an optional subnetwork number, and a host number C. a 48 bit address that is administered by InterNIC D. a set of four numbers that use a hierarchical addressing scheme Question 15: Which OSI layer handles MAC addresses? A. 4 B. 3 C. 2 D. 1 Question 16: What is a function of a MAC address? A. provides a unique identity B. provides a hierarchical addressing scheme C. provides a collision free domain D. provides increased network stability Question 17: What is the term used to describe the result of the layer 2 encapsulation process? A. frame B. segment C. packet D. data Question 18: What are the sections of a frame called? A. fields B. sublayers C. limiters D. FPS Question 19: Define media access control. A. Protocols that determine which computer on a sharedmedium environment are allowed to act as management stations. B. Protocols that determine which computer on a sharedmedium environment are allowed to receive management frames. C. Protocols that determine which computer on a sharedmedium environment are allowed to receive broadcasts. D. Protocols that determine which computer on a sharedmedium environment are allowed to transmit data. Question 20: What is true of a deterministic MAC protocol? A. It defines collisions and specifies what to do about them. B. It allows the hub to determine the number of users active at any one time. C. It allows hosts to "take their turn" for sending data. D. It allows the use of a "talking stick" by network administrators to control the media access of any users considered "troublemakers". Question 21: Which protocol uses deterministic media access? A. Ethernet B. Token Ring C. ATM D. Frame Relay

TEST7 Question 1: What are two types of token ring frames? A. BPU and ACK B. 802.2 and 802.5 C. data/command and token D. NCP and LCP Question 2: What are two token-ring frame fields, within the Access Control Byte, that control priority? A. reservation field and priority field B. relay field and priority field C. remote field and control field D. restriction field and placement field Question 3: How does a token-ring topology differ from an Ethernet topology? A. Token-ring is deterministic. B. Token-ring networks have increased collisions. C. Token-ring uses 802.3 and Ethernet uses 802.5. D. Token-ring operates at 10 Mbps and Ethernet at 16 Mbps. Question 4: Which of the 4 FDDI specifications defines how the medium is accessed? A. Media Access Control (MAC) B. Physical Layer Protocol (PHY) C. Physical Layer Medium (PMD) D. Station Management (SMT) Question 5: FDDI and token-ring share which of the following features? A. operate at the same speed B. use a ring topology C. use CSMA/CD D. use of dual rings Question 6: Which fiber mode characteristic is recommended for interbuilding connectivity? A. single-mode B. multi-mode C. intra-mode D. inter-mode Question 7: What is the most widely used local area network (LAN) technology? A. Token Ring B. Ethernet C. ArcNet D. FDDI Question 8: What private company created Ethernet? A. Apple B. IBM C. Xerox D. Cisco Question 9: What is the relationship between an Ethernet version 2 header and the header of an 802.3 frame? A. The Ethernet version 2 header is much longer than the header of an

802.3 frame. B. The Ethernet version 2 header is much shorter than the header of an 802.3 frame. C. The two headers are the same length as each other. D. The two headers are completely different from each other. Question 10: Which LAN technology uses CSMA/CD? A. Ethernet B. Token Ring C. FDDI D. All of the above. Question 11: Why is Ethernet known as a best-effort delivery system? A. If a destination device detects any errors, then the data packet is discarded and the sender notified. B. The destination device notifies the source only if it receives all of the data. C. The destination only notifies the source if the data was corrupted. D. If the destination must discard the data, then it does not notify the source. Question 12: What is true of 10BaseT signals? A. They use Manchester encoding. B. They combine both clock and data information into a self-synchronizing stream of signals. C. They are designed to send and receive signals over a segment that consists of 4 wires. D. All of the above are true. Question 13: What can be done if the area of the LAN is more than 200 meters in diameter? A. a repeater could be installed to extend the network B. another server could be used to extend the network C. special NICs can be purchased to extend the network D. all of the above Question 14: What device builds a MAC address table? A. passive hub B. bridge C. active hub D. transceiver Question 15: On a LAN, what part of a host connects to the media? A. media interface port B. serial port C. MAC card D. NIC card Question 16: Which of the following is true concerning bridges? A. They forward all data packets to other segments of the network. B. They can restrict unauthorized access to files by reading the filename from the header. C. They forward packets based on IP addresses. D. They can improve network performance. Question 17: Which of the following best describes a broadcast storm? A. A frame that will be sent to one node on a network

B. When too many broadcasts are sent out over the network C. A section of a network that is bounded by bridges, routers, or switches D. The network areas within which frames that have collided are propagated Question 18: Which device can significantly reduce collisions? A. hub B. NIC C. switch D. transceiver Question 19: What is the process of each port of a switch being its own small bridge? A. macrosegmentation B. microsegmentation C. port-centric D. none of the above Question 20: Which of the following statements are true of routers? A. They are passive. B. They operate only at the data link layer. C. They base forwarding decisions on Layer 2 addresses. D. They base forwarding decisions on Layer 3 protocol addresses. Question 21: Which best describes a network segment? A. section of a network containing a predetermined number of addressable services B. section of a network that is a logical grouping based on MAC addresses C. section of a network that contains Token Ring topology D. section of a network bounded by routers, switches, or bridges TEST8 Question 1: When starting to design a network, what should be the first step in the process? A. collecting information about the organization B. gathering information about the network devices and media that will be used C. documenting costs and developing a budget for implementation D. identifying the resources and constraints of the organization Question 2: If Acme Inc. occupies the first three floors of a building and each floor is 1500 square meters, how many wiring closets should be installed according to EIA/TIA 569? A. one B. three C. six D. nine Question 3: What kind of floor should the wiring room have? A. tile or other finished surface B. carpet C. unfinished stone

D. electronics grade carpet Question 4: Why should fluorescent light fixtures be avoided in wiring closets? A. They provide false color lighting which can lead to mistakes in making connections. B. They generate outside interference. C. They can degrade some plastic materials used in network equipment. D. There often is insufficient room in a wiring closet to change out the fluorescent bulbs easily and safely. Question 5: What best describes a wiring closet specification? A. No horizontal cabling coming from work areas should be run under a raised floor. B. All cable leaving the room to intermediate distribution facilities and computer and communications rooms located on other floors of a building should be via 8 cm (or smaller) conduits or sleeved cores. C. Any wall or ceiling openings provided for conduits or sleeved cores must be sealed with smoke and flame retardant materials. D. The room should be equipped with a single stage sprinkler system. Question 6: What is considered when selecting a potential location for a wiring closet? A. identify secure locations close to the POP. B. determine the exact number of cable runs needed for the network. C. determine the location of the building's file servers and printers. D. make an initial selection of potential locations based on EIA/TIA-568B specifications. Question 7: What network device is used in an extended star topology when the catchment area of one wiring closet is not enough? A. repeater B. backoff C. terminator D. suppressor Question 8: What is the first step in locating a wiring closet for a network? A. Identify the number of computers that will be part of the network. B. Identify the number of printers and file servers that will be part of the network. C. Identify on a floor plan, all devices that will be connected to the network. D. Identify the topological requirements of devices that will be in the network. Question 9: Which type of networking media is now installed most often for backbone cabling? A. 100 ohm unshielded twisted pair cable B. 150 ohm shielded twisted pair cable C. 62.5/125 micron fiber-optic cable D. 50 ohm coaxial cable Question 10:

Where should the main distribution facility (MDF) be located in a multi-story building using an extended star topology? A. next to the POP B. on the first floor C. on one of the middle floors D. in the basement Question 11: What best describes the difference between alternating and direct current? A. DC helps computers to work more efficiently, whereas AC can cause noise. B. AC flows at a constant value, whereas DC rises and falls. C. DC shifts ions from pole to pole, whereas AC ions run in one direction. D. DC flows at a constant value, whereas AC rises and falls. Question 12: How does AC line noise create problems? A. by overflowing the logic gates B. by adding unwanted voltage to the desired signals C. by hindering the CPU in detecting signal waves D. by intensifying the leading and trailing edges on signals Question 13: What best describes the problems caused by electrostatic discharge (ESD)? A. It erases power supplies, hard drives, and RAM. B. It destroys semiconductors and data. C. It shoots alternating current through a computer. D. It overwrites the BIOS chip. Question 14: What is the purpose of the safety ground in a computer? A. connects the hot wire to the chassis B. prevents metal parts from discharging hazardous voltage through the chassis C. connects the neutral wire to the chassis D. prevents metal parts from becoming energized with a hazardous voltage Question 15: In what types of situations will a safety ground connection not be sufficient? A. when the earth ground is attached to multiple floors of a building B. when the earth grounds between two parts of a network are identical C. when the power plant sends an irregular surge of power that defeats the earth ground D. when ground wires in separate locations have slightly different potential Question 16: What happens if you touch two objects with different potential voltages? A. nothing B. you complete the circuit and get a shock C. the computer receives a power surge D. the computer may lose data Question 17: What is the "one-hand rule?" A. Only touch electrical devices with one hand at a time to prevent electricity from flowing through the body.

B. When setting up the network only use one bare hand-always wear a glove on at least one hand. C. When using tools that are not insulated only use one hand, hold onto a ground with the other hand. D. There is no such rule. Question 18: What problem could be caused by a faulty ground wire connection at an outlet that is used by networking equipment? A. Nothing, because IEEE standards separate LAN networking media from power connections. B. The networking media could allow the network to run at higher speeds. C. The networking media would ground the signal preventing it from operating normally. D. There could be potentially fatal voltages between the LAN's UTP cabling and the chassis of a networking device. Question 19: How can the creation of potentially dangerous circuits between buildings be avoided? A. A voltage regulator, that will shut off the network if the voltage gets too high, should be installed at both buildings. B. Fiber-optic cable should be used as the backbone of the network. C. Shielded twisted pair (STP) cable should be used as the backbone of the network. D. New ground wires should be installed so that the energy potentials between the buildings will be the same. Question 20: How can UTP backbone cabling facilitate entry of lightning into a building? A. The insulation in the wire acts as a lightning rod and attracts the strike. B. The copper provides a pathway for lightning to enter a building. C. It won't facilitate lightning strikes if the wire is fused at both ends. D. It does not facilitate lightning strikes unless the copper has been damaged. Question 21: In technical fields, such as engineering, the design process includes which one of the following? A. IEEE engineers B. specifications development C. problem solving matrix D. Dartmouth cycle Question 22: Why are common mode problems a hazard to you or your computer? A. They go directly to the computer chassis. B. They go directly to the computer's CPU. C. They short wires to the power supply. D. They fuse computer components.

Question 23: What is a common cause of oscillation often called harmonics? A. excessively long electrical wiring runs B. nearby lightning strikes C. a power line that falls below 80% of the normal voltage D. power company switching operations Question 24: What kind of power disturbances can be caused by strikes? A. oscillations B. sags C. surges D. brownouts Question 25: How can the problem of electrical spikes be addressed? A. grounding cables B. surge suppressors C. line voltage meter D. uninterruptible power supplies TEST9 Question 1: What kind of jack must be used for making a connection to a Category 5 unshielded twisted pair cable in a horizontal cabling scheme? A. RJ-45 B. BNC C. UTP 55 D. EIA 45 Question 2: How is an RJ-45 jack surface mounted? A. with a punch tool B. with Velcro C. flush with the surface D. adhesive backed or screw box Question 3: Why shouldn't you install a jack in the bottom five centimeters of a wooden baseboard? A. The bottom plate of the wall will prevent you from pushing the box into the baseboard. B. Most floors have metal supports that produce electromagnetic interference when close to the jack. C. Dust and dirt accumulate under it that can then get into the connection and affect network performance. D. It's so close to the floor, there isn't enough space for most people to work and manipulate the wires. Question 4: What is the most important thing to do before you work in walls, ceilings or attics? A. Label the faceplate. B. Measure out the cable. C. Turn off power to the area. D. Install the patch panel. Question 5: Why is the wiring sequence critical when RJ-45 jacks are used at the telecommunications outlet in a horizontal cabling scheme? A. For the network to function properly.

B. Improper wiring sequence will short out the connection. C. You could get a nasty electrical shock. D. The collision rate is adversely affected. Question 6: What is a rough diagram that shows where the cable runs are located called? A. cut sheet B. sketch C. cable plan D. cabling route Question 7: When running cable from the wiring closet to wall jacks, where is the cable itself labeled? A. at each tie B. at each end C. at the jack end D. at the panel end Question 8: What should be done when preparing to run cable? A. Cut the cable before pulling it. B. Unroll it before pulling it through the ceiling. C. Label the boxes and cable. D. Take the cable out of the boxes. Question 9: What should be used to mount cable to a wall? A. tie wraps B. electrical tape C. staples D. paperclips Question 10: What type of raceway should be used if it will be visible in the room? A. channel guide B. decorative C. ladder rack D. gutter Question 11: When should cable not be routed in an existing raceway? A. if the raceway distance exceeds 100 feet B. if the raceway material is partially metallic C. if it already contains a power cable D. if it contains a telephone line Question 12: All the items below are personal safety precautions before you install cable except : A. Wear long sleeves. B. Wear long pants. C. Wear baggy clothes. D. Check for power cables. Question 13: What kind of a cable must you use when laying cable through spaces where air is circulated? A. shielded B. double coated C. fire rated D. unshielded Question 14: What is the central junction for the network cable? A. POP

B. server C. center point D. wiring closet Question 15: If you have one wiring closet and you want to add more, what name is given to additional wiring closets? A. IDFs B. MDFs C. Extended Stars D. POPs Question 16: Which best describes a patch panel's function? A. It serves as a temporary fix to network problems. B. It acts as a router for temporary networks connecting the various devices often found at conventions and shows. C. It acts as a switchboard where horizontal cabling from workstations can be connected to other devices to form a LAN. D. It allows the network administrator to test the entire network cabling from a single location. Question 17: How many pins are on each of the ports of a patch panel? A. 4 pins B. 8 pins C. 11 pins D. 45 pins Question 18: What tool would you use to attach CAT5 cable to a patch panel? A. 110 patch tool B. cable terminator C. punch tool D. patch terminator Question 19: What is one advantage of using distribution racks for mounting patch panels? A. allows easy access to both the front and back of the equipment B. provides neutral ground C. inexpensive compared to brackets D. requires minimal wall space Question 20: Why is establishing a baseline performance level for a network important? A. for fulfilling one of the requirements necessary for you to get your network certification B. for providing your client with proof of a successful installation C. for future periodic testing of the network and diagnostics D. for obtaining a network registration and identification number from TIA/EIA and IEEE Question 21: How does a cable tester (a TDR) measure distance? A. The cable tester identifies signal degradation, indicating the cable is longer than the acceptable maximum length. B. It determines the time a signal takes to be reflected back from closed-ended cable.

C. It times the signal sent towards and reflected back from the end of an open-ended cable. D. It measures the ability of other devices on the network to receive and send signals through the cable. Question 22: Why are split pairs a problem for network installations? A. The wires are unshielded and easily lose synchronicity. B. The wires are part of different circuits so signals are not protected and cross-talk occurs. C. The wires are part of different circuits and easily shorted out by power spikes. D. It is difficult to detect split pairs which requires performing a wire map. Question 23: Which of the following describes a cable tester measurement of signal attenuation? A. It measures the reduction in power of a signal received from a signal injector. B. It measures the increase in power of a signal received from a signal injector. C. The signal injector attaches to the near end of the cable. D. The frequency to be used for testing is specified in EIA/TIA 568A. Question 24: What is the first thing you should do if near-end crosstalk is detected? A. Redo all connections at the patch panel. B. Isolate which connection is the cause by running a TDR test. C. Redo all connections at the cross connects. D. Visually check the horizontal cabling. Question 25: Which of the following is a source that can produce interference on UTP cable? A. fluorescent lights B. fiber-optic cabling C. bridges D. coaxial cabling TEST10 Question 1: Which of the following is a benefit of network segmentation? A. reduced congestion B. reduced equipment requirements C. creation of more IP addresses D. creation of more MAC addresses Question 2: Which of the following correctly describes an ISP? A. Internal Service Protection B. Internal Service Provider C. Internet Service Provider D. Internet Service Protection Question 3: Which of the following describes the relationship between path determination and the routing of packets?

A. B. C. D.

performed only by switches performed only by different devices they are different processes they are the same process

C. 11000100 D. 10101010 Question 13: Which of the following would be the decimal value of the binary IP address 11001101.11111111.10101010.11001101? A. 205.255.170.205 B. 109.255.170.109 C. 205.127.200.205 D. 109.127.200.109 Question 14: Which of the following best describes the address 139.219.255.255 in an unsubnetted environment? A. Class A broadcast address B. Class B host address C. Class B broadcast address D. Class C host address Question 15: What characteristic must hosts on a network possess in order to communicate directly ? A. same vendor code B. same network ID C. same MAC address D. separate subnets Question 16: Which of the following assists devices on the same network in determining a packet's final destination? A. source IP address B. vendor number C. host protocol D. host ID Question 17: Which of the following is an example of a Class C broadcast address? A. 190.12.253.255 B. 190.44.255.255 C. 221.218.253.255 D. 129.219.145.255 Question 18: Which of the following is the approximate number of hosts supported in a Class B unsubnetted network? A. 254 B. 2024 C. 65 thousand D. 16 million Question 19: What must be used to allow the rest of the Internet to see our organization as a single network, but allow routing inside our network? A. partitions B. autonomous systems C. subnets D. divisions Question 20: What is the maximum number of bits that can be borrowed from the host portion of a Class C network to create subnets? A. 2

Question 4: Which part of a network layer address does the router use during path determination? A. the host address B. the router address C. the server address D. the network address Question 5: Which type of addressing scheme is formed by MAC addresses? A. flat B. circular C. hierarchical D. elliptical Question 6: Which OSI layer adds an IP header? A. Layer 1 B. Layer 2 C. Layer 3 D. Layer 4 Question 7: Which address(es) appear in an IP packet's header? A. source address B. destination address C. source and destination addresses D. there are no addresses in the IP packet header. Question 8: How many bits are in an IP address? A. 4 B. 8 C. 16 D. 32 Question 9: What is specified by the network number in an IP address? A. the network to which the host belongs B. the physical identity of the computer on the network C. the node of the subnetwork which is being addressed D. the broadcast identity of subnetwork Question 10: Which octet(s) are assigned locally in a class B address? A. The first octet is assigned locally. B. The second octet is assigned locally. C. The first and second octets are assigned locally. D. The third and fourth octets are assigned locally. Question 11: Which of the following would be the largest possible number expressed by an 8 bit binary number? A. 0 B. 11111111 C. 10101011 D. 10101010 Question 12: What is decimal number 164 in binary? A. 10100100 B. 10010010

B. 4 C. 6 D. 8 Question 21: Which of the following describes the effect of subnetting on the amount of broadcast traffic? A. decreases it, because broadcasts are not forwarded outside a subnet B. decreases it, because it will take less time for a host to get broadcasts from the routers. C. increases it, because the packets must be forwarded to all subnets D. increases it, because router's duplicate broadcasts Question 22: Which of the following represents the use of binary ones in a subnet mask? A. host bits B. subnet bits C. network bits D. subnet and network bits Question 23: Which class of network addresses allows the borrowing of 15 bits to create subnets? A. Class A B. Class B C. Class C D. No class of network allows the borrowing of 15 bits. Question 24: How large is the network/subnet portion of a Class B license having a subnet mask of 255.255.240.0? A. 18 bits B. 19 bits C. 20 bits D. That is an invalid mask for a Class B network. Question 25: How many total subnets can be created if four bits are borrowed from the host field? A. 8 B. 16 C. 32 D. 64 TEST11 Question 1: Which is an example of a Layer 3 internetworking device that passes data packets between networks? A. router B. hub C. bridge D. switch Question 2: What do bridges and switches use to make data forwarding decisions? A. logical addresses B. physical addresses C. network addresses D. IP addresses Question 3:

Which of the following contains a unique network number that is used in routing? A. MAC address B. physical address C. IP address D. NIC card Question 4: Which protocol is used to dynamically assign IP addresses? A. DHCP B. ARP C. proxy ARP D. IGRP Question 5: Which protocol can find the MAC address of a computer given its IP address? A. RARP B. DHCP C. ARP D. Proxy RARP Question 6: When configuring a host computer, which of the following describes the router interface that connects to the same network segment? A. default interface B. default gateway C. default port D. default subnet Question 7: Which is a network layer protocol that can be routed? A. IP B. ISP C. NetBEUI D. ARP Question 8: Which is an example of a routed protocol? A. RIP B. IPX/SPX C. EIGRP D. OSPF Question 9: What is the most common protocol used to transfer routing information between routers located on the same network? A. OSPF B. RIP C. IGRP D. EIGRP Question 10: In a connectionless system, which of the following is correct? A. The destination is not contacted before a packet is sent. B. The destination is contacted before a packet is sent. C. A connectionless connection is established with the recipient before a packet is sent. Question 11: B. a connection is established between the sender and receiver C. a connection is established with the sender's local router D. the destination is not contacted before any actual data is sent

Question 12: Connection-oriented network processes are often referred to as what? A. packet switched B. segment switched C. circuit switched D. network switched Question 13: IP relies upon which OSI layer protocol to determine whether packets have been lost and request retransmission? A. application B. presentation C. session D. transport Question 14: The IP address for a router interface should be part of what? A. the network attached to the interface B. any network attached to the router C. it does not matter D. router interfaces never have IP addresses Question 15: Router ARP tables hold information from which of the following? A. all Ethernet LANs B. all networks connected to them C. all networks in the Internet D. MAC addresses only Question 16: What is described when a router acts as a default gateway, allowing a device on one subnet to find the MAC address of a host on another subnet? A. proxy ARP B. proxy RARP C. RARP D. subnetting Question 17: When sending data to a host on a different network, the source host encapsulates data so that it contains what destination address in the IP header? A. IP address of the router B. MAC address of the router C. MAC address of the destination device D. IP address of the destination host Question 18: What do routers use to exchange routing tables and share route information? A. routed protocols B. transport protocols C. routing protocols D. UDP protocols Question 19: What happens if a data packet reaches a router that is destined for a network with which that router is not directly connected? A. The router forwards the packet to all other routers. B. The router returns the packet to the source device with no explanation. C. The router forwards the packet to another router that most likely

contains information about the destination. D. The router returns the packet to the source device with the explanation that the destination was unreachable. Question 20: Which of the following is an example of an IGP (Interior Gateway Protocol)? A. IPX B. SPX C. UDP D. IGRP Question 21: Which type of routing protocol is RIP? A. distance vector B. link state C. hybrid D. spanning tree Question 22: What are the two proprietary routing protocols developed by Cisco? A. RIP and OSPF B. IGRP and EIGRP C. IPX and SPX D. TCP and IP Question 23: What is the correct term for when routes are learned automatically? A. static routing B. automatic routing C. enhanced routing D. dynamic routing Question 24: Why is a static route the preferred method for reaching stub networks? A. static routing requires less overhead B. static routing requires more overhead on the network C. this allows routers to adjust to changes in the network D. the routes are learned automatically Question 25: Which type of routing allows routers to adjust to changing network conditions? A. static B. dynamic C. automatic D. stub Question 26: Which describes the changes made to a packet's IP destination address, as that packet is passed from router to router on it's way to the destination host? A. The destination IP address changes each hop, to be the address of the next router. B. The destination IP address changes anytime a router is sending the packet over a WAN. C. The destination IP address will always be the address of the first router. D. The destination IP address never changes.

TEST12-14 Question 1: Which layer of the OSI model has the primary duty of regulating the flow of information from source to destination reliably and accurately? A. presentation B. session C. transport D. network Question 2: Which of the following is a characteristic of TCP? A. unreliable B. connectionless C. divides outgoing messages into segments D. provides no software checking for segments Question 3: At which OSI layer does TCP operate? A. Layer 4 B. Layer 5 C. Layer 6 D. Layer 7 Question 4: Which of the following would describe Transmission Control Protocol? A. unreliable B. connection-oriented C. connectionless D. Layer 3 Question 5: What type of communication is used when two messages can cross during a conversation? A. two-way simultaneous B. two-way continuous C. two-way alternate D. one-way alternate Question 6: In a TCP segment, which field defines the number of octets a recipient is willing to accept? A. flag B. checksum C. window D. HLEN Question 7: Which simple protocol exchanges datagrams, without acknowledgements or guaranteed delivery? A. TCP B. ASP C. TCP/IP D. UDP Question 8: Which layer of the OSI model is responsible for the compression of files? A. transport B. session C. presentation D. application Question 9:

Which ports are reserved by TCP and UDP for public applications? A. numbers from 255 to 1023 B. numbers below 255 C. numbers above 1023 D. numbers from 0 to 1023 Question 10: What is the correct term for the sequence that synchronizes a connection at both ends before any user data is exchanged? A. closed connection B. segment retransmission C. three-way handshake D. sliding windows Question 11: What type of communication avoids interrupts by taking turns? A. two-way simultaneous B. two-way symmetric C. two-way alternate D. one-way continuous Question 12: Which term refers to the amount of data that can be transmitted before receiving an acknowledgement? A. window size B. closed connection C. two way handshake D. expectational acknowledgement Question 13: The session layer establishes, manages, and terminates sessions between _____________. A. networks B. servers C. applications D. media Question 14: What is it called when the session layer decides whether to use two-way simultaneous or two-way alternate communication? A. expectational acknowledgement B. dialogue separation C. resynchronization D. dialogue control Question 15: Which of the following would be an example of an important Layer 5 protocol? A. OSPF B. NFS C. IGRP D. FTP Question 16: Which layer of the OSI model is responsible for presenting data in a form that the receiving device can understand? A. transport B. session C. presentation D. application Question 17:

Which of the following is a main function of the presentation layer? A. dialogue control B. managing applications C. windowing D. data compression Question 18: What is the correct term for the orderly initiation, termination, and managing of communication? A. dialogue separation B. dialogue control C. segmentation D. expectational acknowledgement Question 19: If one system uses EBCDIC and a second system uses ASCII, which layer provides the translation between the two different types of code? A. Layer 6 B. Layer 5 C. Layer 4 D. Layer 3 Question 20: What is ASCII and EBCDIC used to format? A. graphics B. text C. digitized music D. video Question 21: What are two file formats used by the Internet applications to display still images? A. WAV and HTML B. PICT and MIDI C. GIF and JPEG D. MPEG and TIFF Question 22: What is the term used when sound files are downloaded while they are playing? A. Musical Instrument Digital Interface B. EBCDIC C. video streaming D. streaming audio Question 23: Since TCP reassembles segments into complete messages, what happens if a sequence number is missing in the series? A. The segment is dropped. B. The missing segment is re-transmitted. C. All segments are retransmitted from the beginning. D. Sequence numbers are never checked when using TCP. Question 24: What file format acts as a set of directions that tell a web browser how to display and manage documents? A. HTML B. HTTP C. MIDI D. JPEG Question 25: Which layer is responsible for data encryption? A. Layer 7

B. Layer 6 C. Layer 5 D. Layer 4 TEST15 Question 1: Which layer of the OSI model is closest to the user and determines whether sufficient resources exist for communication between systems? A. transport B. session C. presentation D. application Question 2: Which of the following is a network application? A. web browser / WWW B. network director C. Hypertext Markup Language D. ASCII Question 3: What enables data to be sent to a device that is not directly connected to a computer? A. Telnet B. network redirector C. presentation managers D. EBCDIC Question 4: What are most applications that work in a networked environment classified as? A. file storage applications B. network redirector applications C. client-server applications D. dialogue control applications Question 5: What type of server is used to translate a domain name into the associated IP address? A. FTP B. DNS C. TFTP D. DHCP Question 6: Which application layer protocol supports e-mail programs? A. SNMP B. POP3 C. TFTP D. Telnet Question 7: If you want to save a word processor file on a network server, what network protocol enables the word processing application to become a network client? A. redirector B. file locator C. StorFil D. SNMP Question 8: What is the correct term for a string of characters and/or numbers that represents the numeric address of a group of computers at an Internet site?

A. B. C. D.

domain name Uniform Resource Locator network redirector Hypertext Markup Language

C. the type of resource to contact D. the folder Question 17: Which of the following is a protocol that works with computer operating systems and network clients instead of specific application programs? A. extender B. TCP C. redirector D. Uniform Resource Locator Question 18: Which OSI layer does not provide support for any other OSI layer? A. application B. session C. network D. physical Question 19: Which connection to the remote server will be maintained only long enough to process the transaction? A. an FTP connection B. a telnet session C. downloading a web page D. starting a computer Question 20: Which connection is made to a server and maintained until the user terminates the connection? A. printing a file from a web page B. an FTP connection C. downloading a web page D. processing a web transaction Question 21: Which of the following allows for routing that is based on classes of address, rather than individual addresses? A. DNS address B. MAC address C. WINs address D. IP address Question 22: What is the language used to create web pages? A. HTTP B. HTML C. GIF D. ASCII

Question 9: What device on a network manages domain names and responds to requests from clients to translate a domain name into the associated IP address? A. Hypertext Markup Language B. domain name server C. Uniform Resource Locator D. network redirector Question 10: E-mail addresses consist of which two parts? A. recipient's username and postoffice address B. InterNIC name and postoffice address C. server ID and router ID D. Electronic portfolio and IP address Question 11: For security, when message recipients click to get their email, they are usually prompted for what? A. e-mail address B. server IP C. domain name D. e-mail password Question 12: The Telnet application works mainly at which layers of the OSI model? A. application and presentation B. application, presentation, and session C. presentation and session D. presentation, session, and transport Question 13: Which protocol is designed to download or upload files on the Internet? A. SNMP B. Telnet C. FTP D. HTTP Question 14: What is an example of an application that requires both a client and server component in order to function? A. web browser B. Microsoft Word C. ASCII D. PICT Question 15: Which of the following best defines an object on a web page that, when clicked, transfers you to a new web page? A. network redirector B. hyperlink C. web browser D. ASCII Question 16: In the URL http://www.cisco.com, the "cisco.com" part identifies what? A. the domain B. the protocol to be used