CCNA netowork fundamentals Final Exam Answers 2011

1. Due to a security violation, the router passwords must be changed. What information can be learned from the following configuration entries? (Choose two.) Router(config)# line vty 0 3 Router(config-line)# password c13c0 Router(config-line)# login The entries specify three Telnet lines for remote access. The entries specify four Telnet lines for remote access. The entries set the console and Telnet password to "c13c0". Telnet access will be denied because the Telnet configuration is incomplete. Access will be permitted for Telnet using "c13c0" as the password.

2. Which two actions could be taken by a router if a specific match is not made to a route in the routing table? (Choose two.) The packet will be discarded. The packet will be sent back to the source. The packet will be flooded out all interfaces. Neighboring routers are polled to find the best path. The packet will be forwarded to a default route if one is present.

3. Refer to the exhibit. The network administrator remotely accesses the CLI of RouterB from PC1 using a secure connection. Which statement is true about this connection? The Telnet server process is running on PC1. Only the exchange of the Telnet username and password is encrypted. The GET request is sent to RouterA to retrieve data.

The SSH service is used to connect PC1 to RouterB.

4. Refer to the exhibit. What three statements are true about the IP configuration that is shown? (Choose three.) The prefix of the subnet mask is /26. The network on which this computer resides can have 30 hosts. The computer is unable to communicate outside of the local network. The address that is assigned to the computer represents private addressing. The IP address that is assigned to the computer is routable on the Internet. The IP address that is assigned as the default gateway is valid for this host.

5. What information can be gathered by using the command netstat? the default gateway the routing protocol active TCP connections the locally configured subnet mask

6. Refer to the exhibit. The nslookup command that is shown was issued on a Windows PC host. What does the 10.32.5.74 address represent? the IP address of the host the default gateway for the host the primary DNS server for the host

the home page address for the host

7. Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator remotely accesses the CLI of RouterB from PC1 using Telnet. Which statement is true about this connection? The data is automatically encrypted. A Telnet server process is running on PC1. The connection is made through a VTY session on the router. A GET request was sent to RouterB to retrieve data during this session.

8. Which three addresses are private IP addresses? (Choose three.) 10.0.0.1 46.1.1.88 172.31.31.10 172.32.16.10 192.168.8.8

9. Refer to the exhibit. Host C is able to ping 127.0.0.1 successfully, but is unable to communicate with hosts A and B in the organization. What is the likely cause of the problem? Hosts A and B are not on the same subnet as host C. The IP addresses on the router serial interfaces are wrong. The subnet mask on host C is improperly configured. The FastEthernet interface fa0/0 of router 1 is wrongly configured.

10. Which OSI layer addressing is required to route packets between two networks? Layer 1 Layer 2 Layer 3 Layer 4

11. What is the effect of using the Router# copy running-config startup-config command on a router? The contents of ROM will change. The contents of RAM will change. The contents of NVRAM will change. The contents of flash will change.

12. A PC can not connect to any remote websites, ping its default gateway, or ping a printer that is functioning properly on the local network segment. Which action will verify that the TCP/IP stack is functioning correctly on this PC? Use the ipconfig /all command at the hosts command prompt. Use the ping 127.0.0.1 command at the command prompt. Use the traceroute command at the command prompt to identify any failures on the path to the gateway. Use FTP to check for connectivity to remote sites. Download a troubleshooting tool from the PC manufacturers website.

13. Which subnet mask will allow 2040 hosts per subnet on the IP network 10.0.0.0?

255.255.0.0 255.255.254.0 255.255.252.0 255.255.248.0 255.255.240.0 255.255.255.128

14. Refer to the exhibit. When computer A sends a frame to computer D, what computers receive the frame? only computer D only computer A and computer D only computer B, computer C, and computer D all computers

15. Refer to the exhibit. While configuring a network, a technician wired each end of a Category 5e cable as shown. Which two statements are true about this setup? (Choose two.) The cable is suitable for connecting a switch to a router Ethernet port. The cable is suitable for connecting dissimilar types of devices. The cable is unusable and must be rewired. The cable is terminated in a way that the transmit pin is wired to the receive pin.

The cable simulates a point-to-point WAN link.

16.

Refer to the exhibit. Which layered network model is shown in the diagram? Cisco IETF OSI TCP/IP

17. An administrator makes changes to the default configuration of a router and saves them to NVRAM. After testing, it is discovered that the configurations did not have the desired effect and must be removed. What steps must be taken to remove the changes and return the router to the default configuration? Reboot the router. Use no version of the commands that are issued. Issue the erase startup-config command, and then reboot the router. Issue the erase running-config command, and then reboot the router.

18. Refer to the exhibit. Host A and B are unable to communicate with each other. What is the reason for this? Host A is assigned a network address. Host B is assigned a multicast address. Host A and host B belong to different networks.

The gateway addresses are network addresses.

19. Refer to the exhibit. A network technician has made several changes to R1 since the configuration has last been saved. The modified configuration did not produce the desired changes. The technician wants to store a backup copy of the saved configuration on a TFTP server before reloading. Which action will cause the unmodified data to be saved on the TFTP server?

20. What can the user do from the command prompt, Router(config-line)# ? Configure one of the network interfaces. Configure one of the physical or virtual lines. Verify the running configuration on the device. Configure the parameters for one of the routing protocols.

21. Refer to the exhibit. A PC is connected to a network. Which action will verify that the PC can communicate with its default gateway? Use the ping 127.0.0.1 command. Use the ipconfig command. Use the ipconfig/all command. Use the ping 10.0.0.254 command.

22. Refer to the exhibit. The serial interface of the router was configured with the use of the commands that are shown. The router cannot ping the router that is directly connected to

interface serial 0/0/0. What should the network technician do to solve this problem? Configure the description at interface serial 0/0/0. Configure an IP address on interface serial 0/0/0. Remove the no shutdown command at interface serial 0/0/0 Reboot the router.

23. A technician is asked to secure the privileged EXEC mode of a switch by requiring a password. Which type of password would require this login and be considered the most secure? console enable enable secret VTY

24. What are two purposes for configuring a banner on a router? (Choose two.) to announce system downtime to prevent unauthorized access to the router to provide a description of interface connections to assist in legal prosecution for unauthorized access to provide a welcome message to users who access the router

25. Refer to the exhibit. A PC is communicating with another PC on a remote network. The two networks are connected by three routers. Which action will help to identify the path between the hosts?

Use the ipconfig command at the host. Use the ipconfig/all command at the destination. Use the tracert command at the host. Use the ping command at the destination.

26. Refer to the exhibit. Which list refers only to end devices? D,E,F,G A,H,B,C A,D,E,F A,D,E,G

27. When must a router serial interface be configured with the clock rate command? when the interface is functioning as a DTE device when the interface timers have been cleared when the connected DTE device is shut down when the interface is functioning as a DCE device

28. Which table accurately associates the RFC 1918 private IP addresses with the correct network mask? Answer No. 1

29.

Refer to the exhibit. Which two layers of the OSI model describe the same functions as the transport and internet layers of the TCP/IP model? (Choose two.) application layer presentation layer session layer transport layer network layer data link layer physical layer

30. What happens when a host station receives a frame that contains its own MAC address in the destination field? The Layer 2 information is removed and the frame is pushed up to Layer 3. The host station will copy the information to its buffers and send it back out. The frame originated from the host and will be ignored. The Layer 3 information is added to the frame.

31. Refer to the exhibit. Host A is configured with the correct IP address for the default gateway of the router R1 FastEthernet0/1 interface. How will a packet that is sent from host A to host B be handled by the devices on the network? R1 will drop the packet because R1 does not have a specific route in its routing table to the 10.1.1.0/24 network. R1 will forward the packet to its default gateway, the next hop router R2. R2 will forward the packet to the directly connected network 10.1.1.0/24.

R1 will forward the packet to its default gateway, the next hop router R2. R2 will drop the packet because it does not have a default route to network 10.1.1.0/24. R1 will forward the packet to its default gateway, the next hop router R2. R2 will drop the packet because it does not have a route that is learned by a routing protocol to network 10.1.1.0/24.

32. What type of network is maintained if a server takes no dedicated role in the network? mainframe client/server peer-to-peer centralized

33. In a network design project, a network designer needs to select a device to provide collision free connections to 40 hosts on the LAN. Which device should be selected? hub router switch firewall

34. Which TCP/IP model layer creates additional overhead on network resources due to acknowledgments, tracking, and retransmission of data? internet transport application network access

35. How many host addresses may be assigned when using the 128.107.0.0 network address with a subnet mask of 255.255.248.0? 30 256 2046 2048 4094 4096

36. Which service is used when the nslookup command is issued on a computer? FTP DNS DHCP Telnet

37. Which process provides the means to send and receive data when running multiple applications at the same time on a computer? interleaving sequencing segmentation acknowledgement

38. Which three IPv4 addresses represent valid host addresses for a subnet? (Choose

three.) 10.1.12.79/28 10.1.12.113/28 10.1.12.32/28 10.1.11.5/27 10.1.11.97/27 10.1.11.128/27

39. What is the consequence of issuing the erase startup-config command in privileged EXEC mode on a Cisco router? Data stored in RAM will be removed. Data stored in NVRAM will be erased. Information in flash memory will be removed. Flags in the configuration register will be set to 0. Both the startup-config and the running-config will be erased.

40. Refer to the exhibit. A network technician is trying to determine the correct IP address configuration for Host A. What is a valid configuration for Host A? IP address: 192.168.100.19; Subnet Mask: 255.255.255.248; Default Gateway: 192.16.1.2 IP address: 192.168.100.20; Subnet Mask: 255.255.255.240; Default Gateway: 192.168.100.17 IP address: 192.168.100.21; Subnet Mask: 255.255.255.248; Default Gateway: 192.168.100.18

IP address: 192.168.100.22; Subnet Mask: 255.255.255.240; Default Gateway: 10.1.1.5 IP address: 192.168.100.30; Subnet Mask: 255.255.255.240; Default Gateway: 192.168.1.1 IP address: 192.168.100.31; Subnet Mask: 255.255.255.240; Default Gateway: 192.168.100.18

41. What is the Cisco IOS? system software for Cisco devices Read Only Memory in Cisco devices non-volatile storage for device configurations an initial operating system that is used for boot functions

42. Which router configuration mode will require user authentication if an administrator issues the enable secret command? user executive mode privileged executive mode global configuration mode service specific configuration mode

43. Which command or commands will require authentication to access the privileged exec mode? RTRA(config)# enable secret cisco RTRA(config)# service password encryption RTRA(config)# line con 0 RTRA(config-line)# login RTRA(config-line)# password cisco RTRA(config)# line vty 0 4

RTRA(config-line)# login RTRA(config-line)# password cisco

44. A routing issue has occurred in your internetwork. Which of the following type of devices should be examined to isolate this error? access point host hub router switch

45. Which statement is true about Layer 3 addresses? They are physical addresses. They are used in routing decisions. They are only used on local networks. They are altered each time a packet crosses a router.

46. Refer to the exhibit. An administrator on PC1 wants to view some HTML code from a web page housed on the web server. Which client application will allow this request to be started?

47. Which OSI layer does IP rely on to determine whether packets have been lost and to request retransmission? application presentation

session transport

48. Refer to the exhibit. PC1 is unable to access PC2. To troubleshoot this problem, the technician needs to confirm that the next hop interface is operational. Which default gateway address should the technician ping from PC1 to confirm this? 10.0.0.254 192.168.0.249 192.168.0.250 10.0.1.254

49. An administrator is in the middle of entering a lengthy command when suddenly output from the IOS appears stating that an interface has gone down and then up again. Consequently, the command that the administrator was typing is no longer legible on the terminal. What CLI keystrokes can be entered to return to the line that the administrator was typing? Ctrl-D Ctrl-K Ctrl-R Ctrl-Z

50. Which option represents a point-to-point logical topology diagram? Answer No. 4

51. Which physical component is used to access and perform the initial configuration on a new unconfigured router? Answer No. 2 52. Which option shows how a router will route packets to a remote network? Answer No. 4 Posted by bluefiz at 11:07 PM 0 comments Email ThisBlogThis!Share to TwitterShare to Facebook Labels: CCNA, CCNA 1 Exploration 4.0, CCNA Final, Cisco

Sunday, September 19, 2010

Year 2010 EWAN Final Exam : Accessing the WAN (Version 4.0)
1 Which encapsulation protocol when deployed on a Cisco router over a serial interface is only compatible with another Cisco router? PPP SLIP HDLC Frame Relay 2 What is a characteristic feature of a worm? exploits a known vulnerability attaches to executable programs masquerades as a legitmate program lies dormant until triggered by an event, time, or date 3 An administrator is configuring a dual stack router with IPv6 and IPv4 using RIPng. The administrator receives an error message when trying to enter the IPv4 routes into RIPng. What is the cause of the problem? When IPv4 and IPv6 are configured on the same interface, all IPv4 addresses are overwritten in favor of the newer technology. Incorrect IPv4 addresses are entered on the router interfaces. RIPng is incompatible with dual-stack technology. IPv4 is incompatible with RIPng. 4 Which statement accurately describes a characteristic of a security policy?

It creates a basis for legal action if necessary. It should not need altering once it is implemented. It provides step-by-step procedures to harden routers and other network devices. It is kept private from users to prevent the possibility of circumvention of security measures. 5 Which characteristic of VPN technology prevents the contents of data communications from being read by unauthorized parties? QoS latency reliability confidentiality 6 Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator is configuring Frame Relay on router HQ. It is desired that each Frame Relay PVC between the routers be in a separate subnet. Which two commands on HQ will accomplish this task for the connection to R1? (Choose two.) HQ(config)# interface S0/0/0 HQ(config)# interface S0/0/0.1 multipoint HQ(config)# interface S0/0/0.1 point-to-point HQ(config-subif)# frame-relay interface dlci 103 HQ(config-subif)# frame-relay interface dlci 301 HQ(config-if)# frame-relay map ip 172.16.1.1 255.255.255.0 301 broadcast 7 Refer to the exhibit. Router1 and Router2 are directly connected over a point-to-point serial link. Router1 initiates a PPP session with Router2. Which statement is true based on the configuration? The password is sent in clear text. The routers are unable to authenticate. The username and password are sent encrypted. A hash value of the username and password are sent. 8 A technician has been asked to run Cisco SDM one-step lockdown on the router of a customer. What will be the result of this process? Traffic is only forwarded from SDM-trusted Cisco routers. Security testing is performed and the results are saved as a text file stored in NVRAM. The router is tested for potential security problems and any necessary changes are made.

All traffic entering the router is quarantined and checked for viruses before being forwarded. 9 Which two statements are true about creating and applying access lists? (Choose two.) There is an implicit deny at the end of all access lists. One access list per port, per protocol, per direction is permitted. Access list entries should filter in the order from general to specific. The term "inbound" refers to traffic that enters the network from the router interface where the ACL is applied. Standard ACLs should be applied closest to the source while extended ACLs should be applied closest to the destination. 10 Refer to the exhibit. Company ABC expanded its business and recently opened a new branch office in another country. IPv6 addresses have been used for the company network. The data servers Server1 and Server2 run applications which require end-to-end functionality, with unmodified packets that are forwarded from the source to the destination. The edge routers R1 and R2 support dual stack configuration. What solution should be deployed at the edge of the company network in order to successfully interconnect both offices? a new WAN service supporting only IPv6 NAT overload to map inside IPv6 addresses to outside IPv4 address a manually configured IPv6 tunnel between the edge routers R1 and R2 static NAT to map inside IPv6 addresses of the servers to an outside IPv4 address and dynamic NAT for the rest of the inside IPv6 addresses 11 A company uses a PVC with a committed information rate (CIR) of 128 kb/s and a committed burst information rate (CBIR) of 64 kb/s. The link is used to periodically send updates at a rate of 144 kb/s. What will happen to the update traffic? The traffic will be sent, but the company will be charged a penalty. The traffic will be sent using the additional CBIR and will be guaranteed delivery. The traffic will be dropped at the CO for exceeding the committed information rate. The traffic will be sent, but the burst traffic will be marked for discard if congestion is encountered. 12 Refer to the exhibit. All devices are configured as shown in the exhibit. PC1 is unable to ping the default gateway. What is the cause of the problem?

The default gateway is in the wrong subnet. STP has blocked the port that PC1 is connected to. Port Fa0/2 on S2 is assigned to the wrong VLAN. S2 has the wrong IP address assigned to the VLAN30 interface. 13 A system administrator must provide Internet connectivity for ten hosts in a small remote office. The ISP has assigned two public IP addresses to this remote office. How can the system administrator configure the router to provide Internet access to all ten users at the same time? Configure DHCP and static NAT. Configure dynamic NAT for ten users. Configure static NAT for all ten users. Configure dynamic NAT with overload. 14 Refer to the exhibit. From the output of the show interfaces and ping commands, at which layer of the OSI model is a fault indicated? application transport network data link physical 15 Refer to the exhibit. Results of the show vlan and show vtp status commands for switches S1 and S2 are displayed in the exhibit. VLAN 11 was created on S1. Why is VLAN 11 missing from S2? There is a Layer 2 loop. The VTP domain names do not match. Only one switch can be in server mode. S2 has a higher spanning-tree priority for VLAN 11 than S1 does. 16 Refer to the exhibit. What is the effect of the extended ACL when applied inbound on the S0/0/0 interface on R2? All IP traffic will be permitted during the specified days and time range.

Both IP and Telnet traffic will be permitted during the specified days and time range. Only Telnet traffic destined for 172.16.10.0/24 will be permitted during the specified days and time range. Telnet traffic will be permitted only during the specified days and time range. All other network traffic will be permitted any time. 17 Which three guidelines would help contribute to creating a strong password policy? (Choose three.) Once a good password is created, do not change it. Deliberately misspell words when creating passwords. Create passwords that are at least 8 characters in length. Use combinations of upper case, lower case, and special characters. Write passwords in locations that can be easily retrieved to avoid being locked out. Use long words found in the dictionary to make passwords that are easy to remember. 18 Refer to the exhibit. How is the TCP/IP configuration information specified by the default-router and dns-server commands made available? The TCP/IP information is forwarded to a 10.0.1.3 to be supplied to DHCP clients. The TCP/IP information is used by DNS clients to forward all data to the default gateway on R1 of 10.0.1.3. The TCP/IP information is supplied to any DHCP client on the network connected to the FastEthernet 0/0 interface of R1. The TCP/IP information is applied to each packet that enters R1 through the FastEthernet 0/0 interface that are hosts on the 10.0.1.0 /24 network except packets from addresses 10.0.1.2, 10.0.1.16, and 10.0.1.254. 19 Which variable is permitted or denied by a standard access control list? protocol type source IP address source MAC address destination IP address destination MAC address

20 When configuring a Frame Relay connection, what is the purpose of Inverse ARP? to assign a DLCI to a remote peer to disable peer requests from determining local Layer 3 addresses to negotiate LMI encapsulations between local and remote Frame Relay peers to create a mapping of DLCI to Layer 3 addresses that belong to remote peers Posted by bluefiz at 11:47 AM 0 comments Email ThisBlogThis!Share to TwitterShare to Facebook Labels: CCNA Exploration 4.0 EWAN, CCNA Final

Saturday, June 5, 2010

CCNA Cisco Routing Protocols and Concepts Final Exam Practice
CCNA Exploration 4.0 Module 4 all chapters Answers

http://bluefiz.blogspot.com/2009/09/ccna-module-4-answers.html
1. What are two functions of a router? (Choose two.) It connects multiple IP networks. It controls the flow of data via the use of Layer 2 addresses. It determines the best path to send packets. It manages the VLAN database. It increases the size of the broadcast domain 2. When a router boots, what is the default order to locate the Cisco IOS if there is no boot system command?ROM, TFTP server, flash flash, TFTP server, ROM flash, NVRAM, TFTP server NVRAM, TFTP server, flash 3. Which router component is used to store the routing table? Flash NVRAM ROM SDRAM 4. Refer to the exhibit. How many routes are child routes?

1 3 4 6 5. Refer to the exhibit. Which statement is true concerning the routing configuration?Using dynamic routing instead of static routing would have required fewer configuration steps. The 10.1.1.0/24 and 10.1.2.0/24 routes have adjacent boundaries and should be summarized. Packets routed to the R2 Fast Ethernet interface require two routing table lookups. The static route will not work correctly

6. Refer to the exhibit. The network administrator issues the command no ip classless on Router1. What forwarding action will take place on a packet that is received by Router1 and is destined for host 192.168.0.26?

The packet will be dropped. The packet will be forwarded to the gateway of last resort. The packet will match the 192.168.0.0 network and be forwarded out Serial 0/0. The packet will most closely match the 192.168.0.8 subnet and be forwarded out Serial 0/1 7. Refer to the exhibit. Routers R1 and R3 use different routing protocols with default administrative distance values. All devices are properly configured and the destination network is advertised by both protocols. Which path will be used to transmit the data packets between PC1 and PC2? The packets will travel via R2-R1. The packets will travel via R2-R3. The traffic will be load-balanced between two paths via R2-R1 and via R2-R3. The packets will travel via R2-R3, and the other path via R2-R1 will be retained as the backup path 8. Refer to the exhibit. Router R1 is configured as shown in the exhibit. PC1 on 172.16.1.0/24 network can reach the default gateway on R1. The rest of the routers are configured with the correct IP addresses on the interfaces. Routers R2 and R3 do not have static or dynamic routing enabled. How far will PC1 be able to successfully ping?

router R1 Fa0/0 interface router R1 S0/0/0 interface router R2 S0/0/0 interface router R2 Fa0/0 and S0/0/1 interfaces router R3 Fa0/0 and S0/0/0 interfaces 9. Refer to the exhibit. All routers are properly configured to use the EIGRP routing protocol with default settings, and the network is fully converged. Which statement correctly describes the path that the traffic will use from the 10.1.1.0/24 network to the 10.1.2.0/24 network?

It will use the A-D path only. It will use the path A-D, and the paths A-C-D and A-B-D will be retained as the backup paths. It will use all the paths equally in a round-robin fashion. The traffic will be load-balanced between A-B-D and A-C-D. 10. Which two statements are true regarding link-state routing protocols? (Choose two.) They are aware of the complete network topology. They offer rapid convergence times in large networks. They do not include subnet masks in their routing updates. They rely on decreasing hop counts to determine the best path. They do not work well in networks that require special hierarchical designs. They pass their entire routing tables to their directly connected neighbors only

11. Refer to the exhibit. R1 knows two routes, Path A and Path B, to the Ethernet network attached to R3. R1 learned Path A to network 10.2.0.0/16 from a static route and Path B to network 10.2.0.0/16 from EIGRP. Which route will R1 install in its routing table?

Both routes are installed and load balancing occurs across both paths. The route via Path B is installed because the EIGRP route has the best metric to network 10.2.0.0/16. The route via Path A is installed because the static route has the best metric to network 10.2.0.0/16. The route via Path B is installed because the EIGRP route has the lowest administrative distance to network 10.2.0.0/16. The route via Path A is installed because the static route has the lowest administrative distance to network 10.2.0.0/16. 12. What two routing protocols use a hierarchal network topology? (Choose two.) IS-IS EIGRP OSPF RIPv1 RIPv2 13. Refer to the exhibit. Based on the output from the show running-config and debug ip rip commands, what are two of the routes that are added to the routing table of R1? (Choose two.)

R 192.168.1.0/24 [120/1] via 172.16.2.1, 00:00:24, Serial0/0/1 R 192.168.100.0/24 [120/1] via 172.16.1.1, 00:00:24, Serial0/0/0 S 192.168.1.0/24 [1/0] via FastEthernet0/0 R 192.168.9.0/24 [120/1] via 172.16.2.1, 00:00:24, Serial0/0/0 R 192.168.2.0/24 [120/1] via 172.16.1.2, 00:00:24, Serial0/0/0 14. Refer to the exhibit. The network has three connected routers: R1, R2 and R3. The routes of all three routers are displayed. What can be verified from the output?

R1 and R3 are connected to each other via the S0/0/0 interface. The IP address of the S0/0/0 interface of R1 is 10.1.1.2. The IP address of the S0/0/1 interface of R2 is 10.3.3.2. R2 is connected to the S0/0/1 interface of R3. 15. Refer to the exhibit. All router interfaces are configured with an IP address and are operational. If no routing protocols or static routes are configured, what information will be included in the show ip route command output for router A?

All of the 192.168.x.0 networks will be in the routing table. Routes to networks 192.168.1.0/24, 192.168.2.0/24, and 192.168.3.0/24 will be in the routing table. The routing table will be empty because routes and dynamic routes have not been configured. A default route is automatically installed in the routing table to allow connectivity between the networks.

16. Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator is accessing router R1 from the console port. Once the administrator is connected to the router, which password should the administrator enter at the R1> prompt to access the privileged EXEC mode?

Cisco001 Cisco123 Cisco789 Cisco901 17. Which of the following could describe the devices labeled ? in the graphic? (Choose three.)

DCE CSU/DSU LAN switch modem hub 18. Refer to the exhibit. Which router is advertising subnet 172.16.1.32/28?

Router1 Router2 Router3 Router4 19. Refer to the exhibit. The show cdp neighbors command was run at R1. Which two facts about the newly detected device can be determined from the output? (Choose two.)

ABCD is a router that is connected to R1. ABCD is a non-CISCO device that is connected to R1. The device is connected at the Serial0/0/1 interface of R1.

R1 is connected at the S0/0/1 interface of device ABCD. ABCD does not support switching capability. 20. A static route has been configured on a router. However, the destination network no longer exists. What should an administrator do to remove the static route from the routing table? Change the routing metric for that route. Nothing. The static route will go away on its own. Change the administrative distance for that route. Remove the route using the no ip route command. 21. Refer to the exhibit. A ping between host A and host B is successful, but pings from host A to operational hosts on the Internet fail. What is the reason for this problem?

The FastEthernet interface of R1 is disabled. One of the default routes is configured incorrectly. A routing protocol is not configured on both routers. The default gateway has not been configured on host A. 22. Refer to the exhibit. The network has three connected routers: R1, R2, and R3. The routes of all three routers are displayed. All routers are operational and pings are not blocked on this network. Which ping will fail?

from R1 to 172.16.1.1 from R1 to 192.168.3.1 from R2 to 192.168.1.1 from R2 to 192.168.3.1

23. Refer to the exhibit. What action will R2 take for a packet that is destined for 192.168.2.0? It will drop the packet.

It will forward the packet via the S0/0/0 interface. It will forward the packet via the Fa0/0 interface. It will forward the packet to R1 24. Refer to the exhibit. The users on the local network 172.16.1.0/24 complain that they are unable to connect to the Internet. What step should be taken to remedy the problem?

A new static route must be configured on R1 with the R3 serial interface as the next hop. A new default route must be configured on R1 with the R3 serial interface as the next hop. The default route on R2 should be configured with the R3 serial interface as the next hop. The default route on R2 must be replaced with a new static route and the next hop should be the R1 FastEthernet interface 25. Refer to the exhibit. What summary address can Router2 advertise to Router1 to reach the three networks on Routers 3, 4, and 5 without advertising any public address space or overlapping the networks on Router1?

172.16.0.0/8 172.16.0.0/10 172.16.0.0/13

172.16.0.0/20 172.16.0.0/24 26. Refer to the exhibit. Host A is unable to access the Internet, and troubleshooting has revealed that this is due to an addressing problem. What is incorrectly configured in this network?

the IP address of the Fa0/0 interface of R1 the subnet mask of the S0/0/0 interface of R1 the IP address of the S0/0/0 interface of R1 the subnet mask of the S0/0/0 interface of R2 27. Refer to the exhibit. A new PC was deployed in the Sales network. It was given the host address of 192.168.10.31 with a default gateway of 192.168.10.17. The PC is not communicating with the network properly. What is the cause?

The default gateway is incorrect. The address is in the wrong subnet. The host address and default gateway are swapped. 192.168.10.31 is the broadcast address for this subnet 28. Refer to the exhibit. The network administrator is planning IP addressing of a new network. What part of this addressing scheme must be changed to allow communication between host A and the server?

the IP address of the server the default gateway of host A the IP address of host A the default gateway of the server 29. Which network design feature requires the deployment of a classless routing protocol? private IP addressing advertising default routes variable length subnet masks summarization on major network boundaries 30. A network administrator needs to assign the very last usable IP address in the 172.24.64.0/18 network range to the router interface that serves this LAN. Which IP address should the administrator configure on the interface? 172.16.128.154/18 172.16.255.254/18 172.24.64.254/18 172.24.127.254/18

31. Refer to the exhibit. All routers are running RIPv1. The two networks 10.1.1.0/29 and 10.1.1.16/29 are unable to access each other. What can be the cause of this problem?

Because RIPv1 is a classless protocol, it does not support this access. RIPv1 does not support discontiguous networks. RIPv1 does not support load balancing. RIPv1 does not support automatic summarization. 32. Refer to the exhibit. What information can be determined from the highlighted output?

R1 is originating the route 172.30.200.32/28. Automatic summarization is disabled. The 172.30.200.16/28 network is one hop away from R1. A classful routing protocol is being used 33. What does RIP use to reduce convergence time in a larger network? It uses multicast instead of broadcast to send routing updates. It reduces the update timer to 15 seconds if there are more than 10 routes. It uses triggered updates to announce network changes if they happen in between the periodic updates. It uses random pings to detect if a pathway is down and therefore is preemptive on finding networks that are down 34. A network administrator has enabled RIP on routers B and C in the network diagram. Which of the following commands will prevent RIP updates from being sent to Router A?

A(config)# router rip A(config-router)# passive-interface S0/0 B(config)# router rip B(config-router)# network 192.168.25.48

B(config-router)# network 192.168.25.64 A(config)# router rip A(config-router)# no network 192.168.25.32 B(config)# router rip B(config-router)# passive-interface S0/0 A(config)# no router rip 35. Refer to the exhibit. Both routers are using the RIP protocol. Devices on the 192.168.1.1 network can ping the S0/0/0 interface on R2 but cannot ping devices on the 192.168.2.1 network.

What is a possible cause of this problem? The routers are configured with different versions of RIP. R2 is not forwarding the routing updates. The R1 configuration should include the no auto-summary command. The maximum path number has been exceeded. 36. Which two statements are correct about the split horizon with poison reverse method of routing loop prevention? (Choose two.) It is enabled by default on all Cisco IOS implementations. It assigns a value that represents an infinite metric to the poisoned route. It sends back the poisoned route update to the same interface from where it was received. It instructs routers to hold all changes that might affect routes, for a specified period of time. It limits the number of hops a packet can traverse through the network before it is discarded 37. Refer to exhibit. Given the topology shown in the exhibit, what three commands are needed to configure EIGRP on the Paris router? (Choose three.)

Paris(config)# router eigrp 100 Paris(config)# router eigrp Paris(config-router)# network 192.168.6.0 Paris(config-router)# network 192.168.7.0 Paris(config-router)# network 192.168.8.0 Paris(config-router)# network 192.168.9.0 38. A router has EIGRP configured as the only routing protocol. In what way might EIGRP respond if there is no feasible successor route to a destination network and the successor route fails? It broadcasts hello packets to all routers in the network to re-establish neighbor adjacencies. It sends queries to adjacent neighbors until a new successor route is found. It immediately sends its entire routing table to its neighbors. It will set the metric for the failed route to infinity. 39. Refer to the exhibit. Hosts on the BOS Fa0/0 LAN are able to ping the Fa0/1 interface on the JAX router and all interfaces on the BOS and ORL routers. Why would hosts from the 10.0.0.0/24 network not be able to ping hosts on the Fa0/0 LAN of the JAX router?

The JAX router has the wrong process ID. The JAX router needs the network 10.0.0.0 0.0.0.255 area 0 command. The JAX router needs the network 192.168.3.0 0.0.0.255 area 0 command. The BOS router needs the network 192.168.3.0 0.0.0.255 area 0 command 40. Which three statements describe the operation of routing with EIGRP? (Choose three.) As new neighbors are discovered, entries are placed in a neighbor table. If the feasible successor has a higher advertised cost than the current successor route, then it becomes the primary route. If hello packets are not received within the hold time, DUAL must recalculate the topology. The reported distance is the distance to a destination as advertised by a neighbor. EIGRP maintains full knowledge of the network topology in the topology table and exchanges full routing information with neighboring routers in every update. EIGRP builds one routing table that contains routes for all configured routed protocols. 41. Refer to the exhibit. What happens to a packet that has 172.16.0.0/16 as the best match in the routing table that is shown?

The packet is discarded. The packet is flooded out all interfaces. The packet is forwarded via Serial0/0/0. The packet is forwarded via FastEthernet0/0. 42. A network is configured with the IP, IPX, and AppleTalk protocols. Which routing protocol is recommended for this network? RIPv1 RIPv2 EIGRP OSPF 43. Refer to the exhibit. Which two statements are true based on the exhibited output? (Choose two.)

Automatic summarization is disabled. The EIGRP routing protocol is being used.

There is one feasible successor in the routing table. The serial interface S0/0/0 is administratively down. The router is originating the route to 172.16.1.0/24 via the S0/0/0 interface 44. Refer to the exhibit. Two routers are unable to establish an adjacency. What is the possible cause for this?

The two routers are connected on a multiaccess network. The hello and dead intervals are different on the two routers. They have different OSPF router IDs. They have different process IDs 45. What command would the network administrator apply to a router that is running OSPF to advertise the entire range of addresses included in 172.16.0.0/19 in area 0? R1(config-router)# network 172.16.0.0 0.0.0.255 area 0 R1(config-router)# network 172.16.0.0 0.0.3.255 area 0 R1(config-router)# network 172.16.0.0 0.0.15.255 area 0 R1(config-router)# network 172.16.0.0 0.0.31.255 area 0 46. What should be considered when troubleshooting a problem with the establishment of neighbor relationships between OSPF routers? (Choose two.) OSPF interval timers mismatch administrative distance mismatch interface network type mismatch no loopback interface configured gateway of last resort not redistributed 47. Which two components are used to determine the router ID in the configuration of the OSPF routing process? (Choose two.) the IP address of the first FastEthernet interface the highest IP address of any logical interface the highest IP address of any physical interface the default gateway IP address the priority value of 1 on any physical interface 48. What is the function of the OSPF LSR packet? It is used to confirm the receipt of LSUs. It is used to establish and maintain adjacency with other OSPF routers. It is used by the receiving routers to request more information about any entry in the DBD. It is used to check the database synchronization between routers. 49. Refer to the exhibit. All interfaces are configured with the correct IP addresses and subnet masks. OSPF has been configured as the routing protocol. During troubleshooting, it is determined that hosts on network B can ping the Lo0 interface on R1 but are unable to reach hosts on network A. What is the cause of the problem?

Routers R1 and R2 have incorrect router IDs configured. Router R1 is unable to form a neighbor relationship with router R2. Routers R1 and R2 have been configured in different OSPF areas. The configuration of router R1 fails to include network A in the OSPF routing process 50. Refer to the exhibit. The interface addresses and OSPF priorities are configured as shown. Because of the boot order of the routers, router A is currently the DR and router B is the BDR. If router A fails and is replaced the next day by a new router, router D, what OSPF protocol action or actions will happen?

Router D will be elected DR, and router C will become the BDR. Router D will be elected DR, and router B will remain the BDR. Router C will become the DR, and router B will become the BDR. Router B will remain the BDR, and OSPF will function on the segment via the use of only the BDR