Mock CAT - 8 Test Booklet Serial Number: 7 7 0 3 6 6

INSTRUCTIONS
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verify that all the pages are printed properly and are in order. Also that the Test form Number indicated on
the cover page and at the bottom of the inner pages is the same. If there is a problem with your Test Booklet,
immediately inform the invigilator/supervisor. You will be provided with a replacement.
How to answer:
1. This test has two sections which examine various abilities. These 2 sections have 75 questions in all with
Section I having 40 questions and Section II having 35 questions. You will be given two and half hours
to complete the test. In distributing the time over the three sections, please bear in mind that you need to
demonstrate your competence in all three sections.
2. Directions for answering the questions are given before some of the questions wherever necessary. Read
these directions carefully and answer the questions by darkening the appropriate circles on the Answer
Sheet. There is only one correct answer to each question.
3. All questions carry 4 marks each. Each wrong answer will attract a penalty of 1 mark. Each question
left unattempted will attract a penalty of 1/2 marks.
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After the Test:
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leave the hall until the invigilator announces. “You may leave now.” The invigilator will make the announcement
only after collecting the Answer Sheets from all the candidates in the room.
2. You may retain this Test Booklet with you.
Candidates giving assistance or seeking/receiving help from any source in answering questions or copying
in any manner in the test will have their Answer Sheets cancelled.

MCT-0012/08 Test Form Number: 008

Space for rough work
 SECTION – I

Number of Questions = 40

DIRECTIONS for Questions 1 to 5: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below.
There are ten boxes namely Box 1, Box 2, Box 3,….. Box 9 and Box 10 with Mr. Zero. Each of these ten
boxes is colored with one out of the four colors namely Black, White, Yellow and Pink. The number of coins
in each of these mentioned ten boxes is one of the five numbers 12, 15, 20, 25 and 30.The following
bar – graphs provides information about the number of boxes that are colored Black, White, Yellow and Pink
and also about the number of boxes that have different number of coins.
No two boxes that are colored with the same color have equal number of coins.

12
Pink 1 10

Number of Boxes
10
8
Yellow 2 8
Colors

6
6 5
White 2 4
4
Black 5 2
0
0 2 4 6 At least At most At least At least At most
Number of Boxes 12 coins 15 coins 20 coins 25 coins 25 coins

1. The number of boxes that have exactly 20 coins is

(1) 4 (2) 3 (3) 2 (4) 1 (5) Cannot be determined

2. What is the total number of coins in all the boxes that are colored black?
(1) 102 (2) 92 (3) 95 (4) 105 (5) Cannot be determined.

3. The total number of coins in all the ten boxes with Mr. Zero is at most
(1) 202 (2) 207 (3) 212 (4) 222 (5) 227

4. If the number of coins in the box that is colored pink is 30, then which of the following can be the total
number of coins in all the boxes that are colored white?
(1) 45 (2) 37 (3) 42
(4) Both (1) and (2) (5) (1), (2) and (3)

5. If the total number of coins in the boxes that are colored yellow is the maximum possible and the total
number coins in all the boxes is least, then what is the number of coins in the box that is colored pink?
(1) 25 (2) 30 (3) 15 (4) 12 (5) Cannot be determined.

008 1
DIRECTIONS for Questions 6 to 10: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below.
The following bar – graph provides information about the number of days on which it rained in India in each
of the six months viz. January, February, April, July, August and October of the year 2007.

30
25
25

Number of Days
19
20
15 13
10
10 7
5
5
0
January February April July August October
The following table provides information about the number of days on which it rained in five states in India in
each of the six mentioned months of the year 2007. Punjab and Haryana are in northern India. Kerala and
Karnataka are in southern India and Maharashtra is in western India. Assume that it rained only in the five
given states in the year 2007.
Punjab Kerala Karnataka Maharashtra Haryana
January 2 6 4 3 1
February 7 9 11 10 8
April 0 1 4 2 2
July 17 21 19 18 14
August 7 11 9 14 15
October 5 8 4 7 6
Additional Information for questions 6 and 7:
The maximum possible number of days on which it rained in exactly one state in southern India in January,
February, April, July, August and October is denoted by A, B, C, D, E and F respectively.

6. What is the value of D?

(1) 8 (2) 9 (3) 10 (4) 11 (5) 12

7. Out of the six mentioned letters, which letter has the maximum value?
(1) B (2) C (3) D (4) F (5) E

Additional Information for questions 8 and 9:

The number of days on which it rained in western India and did not rain in southern India in each of the
mentioned months of the year 2007 is maximum possible.
8. In July, on how many days it rained in both western and southern India?
(1) 18 (2) 17 (3) 16 (4) 15 (5) 14
9. In how many of the mentioned months the number of days on which it rained both in western and
southern India is zero?
(1) Four (2) Zero (3) Two (4) Four (5) One
10. In how many of the mentioned months there are atleast two days on which it rained not only in Punjab,
but also in exactly two more states?
(1) 1 (2) 3 (3) 4 (4) 2 (5) 0

2 008
11. Given that the cost price of 10 oranges is equal to the cost price of 1 kg of apples and the cost price of
12 apples is equal to the cost price of 1 kg of oranges. If the selling price of 15 oranges is equal to the
selling price of 1 kg of apples, then the selling price of 1 kg of oranges is equal to selling price of
(Assume that all the apples are identical and this holds true for the oranges as well.)
(1) 8 apples (2) 9 apples (3) 10 apples (4) 12 apples (5) 9 apples

12. A sheet in the form of an equilateral triangle of side 20 cm is cut only once from one of the corners to
form a trapezium. Two such identical trapeziums are placed on a table to form a parallelogram such that
the sides of trapezium touch each other. What is the perimeter of the parallelogram formed?
(1) 60 cm (2) 80 cm (3) 100 cm (4) 120 cm (5) Data Insufficient

13. There are 28 students in a class. The first student draws a line of length ‘a’ units on the black board of
the class. The second student draws a line of length ‘b’ units (a is not equal to b) on the black board of
the class. The third student draws a line whose length is the average of the lengths of the two lines that
are drawn by the first and second student on the black board. The fourth student draws a line whose
length is the average of the lengths of the lines that are drawn by the first, second and third student. This
process of drawing lines on the black board continues till the twenty-eighth student of the class. How
many students drew the line having the same length?
5 (a + b )
(1) (2) 28(a + b) (3) 26 (4) 14 (5) None of these
12

14. The age of the four friends namely Abhishek, Aman, Deepak and Dilshan is (x – 2), (3x + 3), (x – 5)
and (11 – x) respectively. The average age (in years) of the 4 mentioned friends is ‘y’. How many
integral values of ‘y’ are possible?
(1) Infinite (2) 1 (3) 3 (4) 4 (5) 6

15. Two numbers ‘p’ and ‘q’ are randomly chosen from the set S = (1, 3, 5, 6, 7, 9). What is the product of
 p
all the possible values of   ?
q
1 45 1
(1) 5670 (2) (3) (4) 1 (5)
5670 126 2

16. There are three natural numbers X, Y and Z such that the LCM of (X, 120) is 1320, LCM of (Y, 120) is
1680 and LCM of (Z, 120) is 1800. Which of the following statement is true?
(1) X, Y and Z all three can be perfect square.
(2) Only Y and Z can be perfect square.
(3) Only Y can be both perfect square and perfect cube.
(4) Z is definitely a perfect square.
(5) Z can be a perfect square.

17. If y = min(|x2 – 7x + 10|, 2), then what is the minimum possible value of ‘y’?
(Given that the function min (a, b) gives the minimum of ‘a’ and ‘b’)
9 1
(1) (2) 2 (3) 0 (4) 1 (5)
4 2

008 3
18. Tarun invited 750 persons to a party. Every person that came to the party, came by a car such that
exactly six persons came in each of the three different cars and exactly seven persons came in each of
the remaining cars. At the party, when every person including Tarun was seated in a group of eleven,
one group fell short by four persons. If maximum possible number of persons came to the party, then
out of the persons who were invited by Tarun, how many persons did not come to the party?
(1) 19 (2) 38 (3) 39 (4) 18 (5) 13

DIRECTIONS for Questions 19 to 23: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below.
In a tennis tournament eight different players namely A, B, C, D, E, F, G and H participated. Each player
played exactly one match against each of the remaining seven players. No match ended in a draw or tie.
In each match two out of the eight mentioned players contested and one player won whereas the other player
lost the match. Exactly five out of the eight different players won exactly five matches each.

Additional Information Given:

1. G lost his match against each of B, C, D and E.
2. F lost his match against A but won its match against G.

19. Find the total number of matches played in the tennis tournament.
(1) 24 (2) 28 (3) 32 (4) 36 (5) 40

20. How many players won exactly one match?

(1) One (2) Two (3) Three
(4) Either (1) or (3) (5) Either (1) or (2)

Additional Information for questions 21 to 23:

G won its match against H and A lost its match against both C and D.

21. How many matches were won by A in the tennis tournament?

(1) One (2) Two (3) Five (4) Three (5) Cannot be determined

22. How many matches were won by F in the tennis tournament?

(1) One (2) Five (3) Two (4) Three (5) Cannot be determined

23. If H won his match against B and C lost its match against F, then which of the following pairs of players
definitely won its match against E?
(1) A and C (2) C and D (3) F and E (4) A and F (5) Cannot be determined

24. A milk vendor has 2 ‘cans’ each having a capacity of 300 litres. The first ‘can’ contains 25% water
and the rest is pure milk. The second ‘can’ contains 50% pure milk and the rest is water. How much
quantity of milk solution should the milk vendor mix from the first and the second ‘can’ such that he
gets 180 litres of milk solution having the ratio of water to milk as 3:5?
(1) 90 litres, 90 litres (2) 72 litres, 108 litres (3) 45 litres, 135 litres
(4) 40 litres, 140 litres (5) None of these

25. ABCDEFGH is a regular octagon. The line segments AE and CF intersect at the point K. If AB = 1 unit,
then what is the length of the line segment CK?
3 2 +1 2 +1
(1) 3 − 1 units (2) units (3) units (4) units (5) 2 units
2 2 2

4 008
26. What is the remainder when 17 + 27 + 37 + ……..+ 1007 is divided by 202?
(1) 201 (2) 1 (3) 0 (4) 50 (5) 25

27. In the figure given below, ABCD is a concave quadilateral and the measure of ∠ BAD = 90°, BA = AD
= 6 cm and BC = CD = 5 cm. What is the length(in cm) of the line segment AC?
A

C
B D

(1) 3 2 (2) 3 2 – 5 (3) 3 2 – 7 (4) 2 2 − 3 (5) 2

28. If ‘a’ is an odd number and ‘b’ is an even number, then what is the total number of solutions of the
equation (ab + 2 = 2a + b + 600)?
(1) 16 (2) 12 (3) 5 (4) 6 (5) 8

29. The value of (222)X in base ‘X’ when converted to base 10 is ‘P’. The value of (222)Y in base ‘Y’
when converted to base 10 is Q. If (P – Q)10 = 28, then what is the value of (Q – X)10?
(1) 80 (2) 108 (3) 92 (4) 79 (5) Cannot be determined

DIRECTIONS for Questions 30 and 31: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below.
th
Mr. Nathulal sells only chemical ‘Y’. During the day he sells   of the total quantity of the chemical with
1
 11 
him in the morning. He observes that the total quantity of the chemical with him in the morning is 10% less
than the quantity of chemical with him on the previous night. This is because the chemical ‘Y’ evaporates
during the course of the night. Everyday he increases the selling price of the chemical by 10% with respect to
the selling price of the chemical on the previous day. The cost price of the chemical is Rs.8/litre whereas on
the first day he sells the chemical at Rs.10/litre.

30. If the total quantity of the chemical with him on the morning of the first day is 110000 litres, then what
is the total profit made by him after he has completely sold all the chemical with him?
(1) 4.54% (2) 9.09% (3) 10% (4) 11.11% (5) 13.63%

31. What is the total quantity of the chemical that has evaporated as a percentage of the total quantity of
chemical with him on the morning of the first day?
(1) 45% (2) 25% (3) 20% (4) 50% (5) Cannot be determined

008 5
DIRECTIONS for Questions 32 to 36: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below.
Pie – Chart I provides information about the number of female professors and number of male professors in
university A as a percentage of the total number of professors in university A.
Pie – Chart II, III and IV provides the above stated information for universities B, C and D respectively.

10%
30%

0%

70%

I II

20%

40%

60%

80%
III IV

M ale F e m ale

The number of female professors in the universities A, B, C and D is P, Q, R and S respectively. The following
bar-graph provides information about the values of P, Q, R and S.

7000 6100
6000
5000 4600
4000 3300
3000
2000
1000 500
0
P+Q+R Q+R+S Q-R P+S

32. What is the number of female professors in university C?

(1) 1600 (2) 2100 (3) 1800 (4) 2400 (5) 900

6 008
33. What is the absolute difference between the number of male professors in university A and the number
of female professors in university D?
(1) 6700 (2) 6300 (3) 5700 (4) 7100 (5) None of these

34. What is the ratio of the total number of professors in university D to the number of male professors in
university C?
(1) 16:15 (2) 3:5 (3) 3:4 (4) 4:3 (5) 15:16

Additional Information for questions 35 and 36:

2000 professors are transferred to the universities A, B, C and D in the ratio 4:3:2:1.

35. In which of the mentioned universities, the number of male professors as a percentage of the total
number of professors in that university is the maximum?
(1) D (2) B (3) C (4) A (5) Cannot be determined

36. If the total number of female professors that have been transferred is equal to the number of female
professors in university A after the transfer, then the total number of male professors that have been
transferred cannot be less than
(1) 200 (2) 300 (3) 400 (4) 800 (5) 1100

37. If Sn = 1 – 3 + 5 – 7 + 9 – 11+ .....upto ‘n’ terms, then what is the value of S1001 – S1002 + S1003 ?
(1) 1002 (2) 3004 (3) 3002 (4) 3006 (5) 3005

38. Thirty six numbers are filled in the cells of the matrix as shown in the figure given below. Six numbers
are chosen from the matrix such that no two numbers belong to the same row or the same column. In
how many ways the numbers can be chosen?

1 2 3 4 5 6
7 8 9 10 11 12
13 14 15 16 17 18
19 20 21 22 23 24
25 26 27 28 29 30
31 32 33 34 35 36

(1) (62 × 52 × 42 × 32 × 22 × 12) (2) 360 (3) 720

(4) (6 × 6 × 6 × 6 × 6 × 6) (5) None of these

39. The sum of the digits of the number (132 × 102000 – 56879 + 12345) is
(1) 15996 (2) 16896 (3) 19996 (4) 14896 (5) 17996

40. If f(x) = 2x2 + (ab2 + ac2 – 2abc)x + abc and the minimum value of f(x) is at x = –54, then the what is the
minimum value of (a + 2b – 2c)? (Given that a > b > c)
(1) 18 (2) 10 (3) 12 (4) 20 (5) – 20

008 7
 SECTION – II

Number of Questions = 35

DIRECTIONS for Questions 41 to 53: The questions present a sentence, part of which or all of which is
underlined. Beneath the sentence you will find five ways of phrasing the underlined part. The first of these
repeats the original; the other four are different. If you think the original is best, choose the first answer;
otherwise choose one of the others. This question tests correctness and effectiveness of expression. In choosing
your answer, follow the requirements of standard written English; that is, pay attention to grammar, choice of
words, and sentence construction. Choose the answer that produces the most effective sentence; this answer
should be clear and exact, without awkwardness, ambiguity, redundancy, or grammatical error.

41. Johnson, whom according to the local community is the twenty-first century Don Quixote, is fanatically
idealistic in his approach to righting modern society’s incorrigible wrongs that have corrupted human
hearts and minds.

(1) whom according to the local community is the twenty-first century Don Quixote, is fanatically
idealistic in his approach to righting modern society’s incorrigible wrongs that have corrupted
(2) who according to the local community is the twenty-first century Don Quixote, is fanatically idealistic
with his approach to righting modern society’s incorrigible wrongs that have infused corruption in
(3) whom according to the local community is the twenty-first century Don Quixote, is fanatically
idealistic in his approach to righting modern society’s incorrigible wrongs that has corrupted
(4) who according to the local community is the twenty-first century Don Quixote, is fanatically idealistic
in his approach to righting modern society’s incorrigible wrongs that have corrupted
(5) who according to the local community is the twenty-first century Don Quixote, is fanatically idealistic
through his approach to righting modern society’s incorrigible wrongs that has corrupted

42. Regardless of the issues discussed by the manager, the team conveniently went back to their old ways
and began arguing over irrelevant matters that were hindering the development of the project in the first
place.

(1) the team conveniently went back to their old ways and began arguing over irrelevant matters that
were hindering the development of the project in the first place.
(2) in the first place, the team conveniently went back to their old ways and begun to argue over
matters of minor relevance which were hindering the project’s development.
(3) the team went back conveniently to its old ways and began arguing over irrelevant matters that
were hindering the development of the project in the first place.
(4) irrelevant matters were discussed by the team which went back to its old ways that were hindering
the development of the project.
(5) the team conveniently went back to its old ways and began arguing over irrelevant matters that
were hindering the development of the project in the first place.

8 008
43. The insecurities of the suburbia is heightened at a time when economic crisis has gripped the western
world and it is this state of affairs that is compelling the western nations to witness the rise of financially
powerful and independent Asian countries.
(1) The insecurities of the suburbia is heightened at a time when economic crisis has gripped the
western world and it is this state of affairs that is compelling the western nations to witness
(2) The insecurities of the suburbia are heightened at a time when economic crises has gripped the
western world and it is this state of affairs that is compelling the western nations to witness
(3) The insecurities of the suburbia are heightened at a time when economic crisis has gripped the
western world and it is this state of affairs that is compelling the western nations to witness
(4) The insecurities of the suburbia is heightened at a time when economic crises is gripping the western
world and it is this state of affairs that is compelling the western nations to come together and
become a witness to
(5) The insecurities of the suburbia are heightened at a time when economic crisis have gripped the
western world and it is this state of affairs that is compelling the western nations to witness
44. Julia, whom with single minded determination to fight against all odds has showered upon her success,
fame and money, continues to impress and inspire every student who feels that his future is in jeopardy
due to his family’s unstable financial conditions.
(1) Julia, whom with single minded determination to fight against all odds has showered upon her
success, fame and money, continues to impress and inspire every student who feels that his future
is in jeopardy
(2) Julia, in whose single minded determination to fight against all odds has showered upon her success,
fame and money, continues to impress and inspire every student who feels that his future is in
jeopardy
(3) Julia, whose single minded determination to fight against all odds have showered upon her success,
fame and money, continue to impress and inspire every student who feels that his future is under
jeopardy
(4) Julia, whose single minded determination to fight against all odds has showered upon her success,
fame and money, continues to impress and inspire every student who feels that his future is in
jeopardy
(5) Julia, whose single minded determination to fight against all odds have showered upon her success,
fame and money, continues to impress and inspire every student who feels that his future is in
jeopardy
45. Primarily, encouraging children to learn by experience and experimenting; however, in special cases,
where the child is particularly shy and introvert, the role of the mentor become crucial in enabling the
child to feel comfortable, creative and confident while learning through games, activities and interaction.
(1) Primarily, encouraging children to learn by experience and experimenting; however, in special
cases, where the child is particularly shy and introvert, the role of the mentor become crucial in
enabling the child to feel comfortable, creative and confident
(2) Primarily, we encourage children to learn by experiencing and experimenting; however, in special
cases, where the child is particularly shy and introvert, the role of the mentor becomes crucial in
enabling the child to feel comfortable, creative and confident
(3) Primarily, we encourage children to learn by experience and experimenting; however, in special
cases, where the child is particularly shy and introvert, the role of the mentor becomes crucial to
enable the child to feel comfortable, creative and confident
(4) Primarily, we encourage children to learn by experiencing and experimenting; however, in special
cases, where about the child is particularly shy and introvert, the role of the mentor becomes crucial
in enabling the child to feel comfortable, creative and confident
(5) Primarily, we encourage children to learn by experience and experimenting; however, in special
cases, where the child is particularly shy and introvert, the role of the mentor become crucial to
enable the child to feel comfortable, creative and confident

008 9
46. The success rates of recent open offers seem to have gone up as the stock markets fell from their high
in January.

(1) seem to have gone up as the stock markets fell from their high in January.
(2) seem to have gone up as the stock markets fell from the high in January.
(3) seem to has gone up as the stock markets fell from their high in January.
(4) seem to have gone up as the stock markets fell from their high on January.
(5) seems to have gone up as the stock markets fell from their high in January.

47. Discarded human skin can be used to test new drugs and cosmetics, a researcher has found, sparing
animals much agony in test laboratories.

(1) a researcher has found, sparing animals much agony in test laboratories.
(2) a researcher had found, sparing animals much agony in test laboratories.
(3) sparing animals much agony in test laboratories, a researcher has found.
(4) researcher has found, sparing animals much agony in test laboratory.
(5) a researcher has found, spared animals much agony in test laboratories.

48. Scientists have developed a “virtual reality” treadmill which can trick people into believing that they
are moving more slowly than they actually are.

(1) which can trick people into believing that they are moving more slowly than they actually are.
(2) who can trick people into believing that they are moving more slowly than they actually are.
(3) which can trick people into believing that they are moving slowly than they actually are.
(4) which can trick people to believing that they are moving more slow than they actually are.
(5) which can trick people into believing that they are moving themselves more slowly than they
actually are.

49. Organizational motivation refers to the basic orientation of the organization towards creativity as well
as supports for creativity throughout the organization.

(1) Organizational motivation refers to the basic orientation of the organization towards
(2) Organizational motivation refers to the basic orientation for the organization towards
(3) Organizational motivation refers to the basics orientation of the organization towards
(4) The basic orientation of the organization towards organizational motivation refers to
(5) The basic orientation of the organizations towards organizational motivation refers to

50. The globalization that has swept across the world appear to have been buoyed by the power that is with
the youth of the planet.

(1) The globalization that has swept across the world appear to have
(2) The globalization that have swept across the world appears to have
(3) The globalization that has swept across the world appears to have
(4) The globalization that has swept across the world appeared to have
(5) The globalization that has sweep across the world appears to have

10 008
51. Women, who were quite constrained during the olden times, have always slumped as a means of
keeping normal under such frustrating circumstances.

(1) have always slumped as a means of keeping normal under such frustrating circumstances.
(2) have always slumped as a means of keeping normally under such frustrating circumstances.
(3) have always slumped as a means of keeping normal under such frustrated circumstances.
(4) have always slumped as a mean of keeping normal under such frustrating circumstances.
(5) has always slumped as a means of keeping normal under such a frustrating circumstances.

52. Most people in Delhi are fond of shopping in malls, eating out and like to watch movies.

(1) shopping in malls, eating out and like to watch movies.

(2) to shop in malls, eating out and like to watch movies.
(3) shopping in malls, eating out and watch movies.
(4) shopping in malls, eating out and watching movies.
(5) shopping in malls, eat out and like to watch movies.

53. Shalini will choose where they are going because either of the options works for Mona.

(1) going because either of the options works for Mona.

(2) going because either of the option works for Mona.
(3) going because either of the options works towards Mona.
(4) going because of either of the options works for Mona.
(5) going because either of the options work for Mona.

DIRECTIONS for Questions 54 to 66: Each of the three passages given below is followed by a set of
questions. Choose the best answer to each question.

PASSAGE – I

The Failure of Conservatism in Modern British Poetry appears to be organised chronologically. For example,
Chapter Four is called ‘Blowing Your Mind: Immediacy in the Sixties’ and Chapter Eight is called ‘An era of
rising property values: Conservatism 1979-97’. However, throughout Duncan’s book something curious is
happening with dates in the discussion. The first two chapters of the book sketch a post-war background and
contain 34 dates of which 67% are in the 1960s and 1970s. The last chapter of the book, ‘Poetry in the 1990s’,
contains 27 dates: 52% of them are in the 1960s and 1970s and only 30% of them are in the 1990s.

In some ways, this is perfectly understandable because what Eric Mottram called ‘The British Poetry Revival
1960-1975’ continues to function as the return of the repressed. For example, Neil Corcoran’s apparently
inclusive survey, English Poetry since 1940, devotes only one page to it. The dominance of books like
Corcoran’s means that any genuinely alert and representative account of post-war British poetry is obliged to
go on rewriting and re-righting literary history. Critical accounts of avant-garde poetry are therefore condemned
to mirror black, feminist or gay narratives, perpetually reinscribing the struggle to overcome being silenced,
to come to consciousness, to come out or to gain rights and recognition. Reinscription remains the paradigm
in what might be termed ‘identity narratives’ not only because they are ‘happy ever after’ stories but more
importantly because the priorities of the system in which such individual stories are constructed remain
unchanged. And, of course, because no-one can imagine what happens after recognition has been achieved.

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In other ways, Duncan’s focus on the 1960s and 1970s is less desirable because it is has a curious effect. It
shuts British poetry — modernist-derived or otherwise — into a kind of pastness. Consequently, it risks
imprisoning latter-day practitioners in an aftermath where, like nineteenth-century prisoners, they are obliged
to walk the treadmills and pick the oakum of old dissatisfactions and disputes. Revisiting the past also risks
allowing the priorities of the system in which those dissatisfactions and disputes occurred to continue to
dominate. Duncan raises the issue in his introduction — “If poetry is sold and publicised on the basis of what
was happening thirty years ago, what is there for new poets? What do they plug into?” — but he seems to
think that only what he terms the ‘pop-conservative mainstream’ is guilty of it.

54. The primary purpose of the passage is to

(1) explain the chronological layout of the work.
(2) explain the rise in conservatism.
(3) examine a post-war scenario.
(4) examine the allusion to the 1960s and the 1970s eras.
(5) explain the negligence of the 1990s.

55. Which one of the following best describes the organization of the passage?
(1) Two schools of thought are compared and contrasted, and one is deemed to be better than the other.
(2) One school of thought is presented as worse than another. Then evidence is offered to support that
claim.
(3) Two systems of poetry are analyzed, and one specific example is examined in detail.
(4) A set of examples is furnished. Then a conclusion is drawn from them.
(5) The inner workings of poetry are illustrated by using two systems.

56. Based on the information in the passage, it can be inferred that which one of the following would most
logically begin a paragraph immediately following the passage?
(1) that there should be the demand for recognizing a need for revival in poetry.
(2) that poetry remains a matter of what ‘ought to be’ because of its past.
(3) that poetry should emerge from the shadows of the 1960s and the 1970s.
(4) that we should alienate ourselves from World War based poetry.
(5) that modernism should integrate the perspective of the retro phase.

57. The author’s attitude towards the old school can best be described as:
(1) encouraged that it is moving forward in time.
(2) concerned that it does not allow new poetry to come up.
(3) pleased that the pre-modern era saw some fine poetry.
(4) hopeful that it will be replaced by the postmodern poetry.
(5) doubtful that it is the best form of poetry.

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 PASSAGE – II

ALL other previous attempts to solve the problems of dreams have concerned themselves directly with the
manifest dream-content as it is retained in the memory. They have sought to obtain an interpretation of the
dream from this content, or, if they dispensed with an interpretation, to base their conclusions concerning the
dream on the evidence provided by this content. We, however, are confronted by a different set of data; for us
a new psychic material interposes itself between the dream-content and the results of our investigations: the
latent dream-content, or dream-thoughts, which are obtained only by our method. We develop the solution of
the dream from this latent content, and not from the manifest dream-content.

We are thus confronted with a new problem, an entirely novel task- that of examining and tracing the relations
between the latent dream-thoughts and the manifest dream-content, and the processes by which the latter has
grown out of the former. The dream-thoughts and the dream-content present themselves as two descriptions
of the same content in two different languages; or, to put it more clearly, the dream-content appears to us as a
translation of the dream-thoughts into another mode of expression, whose symbols and laws of composition
we must learn by comparing the origin with the translation. The dream-thoughts we can understand without
further trouble the moment we have ascertained them. The dream-content is, as it were, presented in
hieroglyphics, whose symbols must be translated, one by one, into the language of the dream-thoughts.

It would of course, be incorrect to attempt to read these symbols in accordance with their values as pictures,
instead of in accordance with their meaning as symbols. For instance, I have before me a picture- puzzle
(rebus) - a house, upon whose roof there is a boat; then a single letter; then a running figure, whose head has
been omitted, and so on. As a critic I might be tempted to judge this composition and its elements to be
nonsensical. A boat is out of place on the roof of a house, and a headless man cannot run; the man, too, is
larger than the house, and if the whole thing is meant to represent a landscape the single letters have no right
in it, since they do not occur in nature. A correct judgment of the picture- puzzle is possible only if I make no
such objections to the whole and its parts, and if, on the contrary, I take the trouble to replace each image by
a syllable or word which it may represent by virtue of some allusion or relation. The words thus put together
are no longer meaningless, but might constitute the most beautiful and pregnant aphorism. Now a dream is
such a picture-puzzle, and our predecessors in the art of dream- interpretation have made the mistake of
judging the rebus as an artistic composition. As such, of course, it appears nonsensical and worthless.

58. Which of the following best expresses the main idea of the passage?
(1) All preceding attempts have been unsuccessful in unraveling the mystery of dreams.
(2) Manifest dream content is superior to latent dream content.
(3) Latent dream content is illusionary and hence not dependable for research.
(4) Latent dream content is being perceived as a possible source of solutions.
(5) Manifest dream content is seen as memory based and thus more viable.

59. Based on the passage, “the new problem” can best be described as:
(1) extrapolation of the processes by which the latter has grown out of the former.
(2) tracing the relationship between the latent dream-thoughts and the manifest dream-content.
(3) examination of dream-thoughts and dream-content and the course of the latter’s development from
the former.
(4) establishing linkages between dream-thoughts and manifest dream-content.
(5) instituting the theory of translating dream thoughts into dream content.

008 13
60. The author’s approach towards the dream thoughts can best be described as:
(1) Reproachful, as it helps to determine dreams only if they are visuals.
(2) Confused, as it is difficult to ascertain the meaning through dream content only.
(3) Promising, as dream thoughts can be evaluated effortlessly.
(4) Patronizing, as dream thoughts are very difficult to be analyzed by all.
(5) Optimistic, as there are possibilities of gathering critical data.

61. It can be inferred from the passage that dream-content is best analyzed:
(1) by being translated into dream thoughts.
(2) by interpreting the symbols in accordance with their values as pictures.
(3) in accordance with their meaning as symbols.
(4) by viewing it as an artistic composition, a rebus.
(5) by viewing icons as words and attributing them with symbols.

PASSAGE – III

Whether it is a “mom-and-pop” grocery anticipating next week’s demand for bologna, a multibillion-dollar
conglomerate determined to meet growing competition in the Common Market, or a social welfare agency
anticipating economic trends in its service area, every organization finds planning and formulation of strategy
necessary. It is obvious that a manager must plan his action before he takes it (and then observe the results).
But it is not obvious to many how planning – particularly corporate planning – has changed in the last two
decades or so as a result of changing economic, societal, and market forces.

Time was when almost every business concentrated on a single product or a group of related products or
services. Planning was essentially a matter of making sure that the products moved out of the factory, that the
demand for them was present (sometimes created, if not already present), and that the demand was met at a
profit. Long-term strategy often was confined to such questions as whether to extend the market territory west
of the Mississippi or whether to expand the product line to more fully meet the needs of customers. Usually,
the objectives of the organization were more or less fixed; its management carried on the planning process,
most often informally, to make sure that those objectives were being met.

Then came World War II. The decision it caused in operational and in managerial terms, coupled with the
economic boom that followed it, made the old way of conducting business hopelessly inadequate and obsolete.
New markets opened up, first in the United States, then elsewhere; competition stiffened as new rivals sprang
up and the imaginary limits of spheres of activity vanished; and the surging stock market set a premium on
performance translated into earnings per share. The informal, single-minded planning process had to adjust
accordingly. As Frank Gilmore wrote in his contribution to this section, the managers of business organizations
“recognized that.....…concern for short-term problems would have to shift to plans for capitalizing on long-
term opportunities; …sizing up the situation as a basis for a new course of action would have to give way to
reappraising existing strategy in the light of the changing environment; … sporadic diagnosis would have to
be replaced by constant surveillance; …concern for immediate profits and for adaptability to meet changes in
current conditions needed to shift to focusing on long-range ROI, growth, flexibility, and stability.

In the most progressive corporations – in the most progressive large non-business organizations too—planning
departments were established. As top executives increasingly became aware of the value of this function,
planners gained access to their offices. By 1970 a leader in the upgrading of this function, George A. Steiner,
was able to write in the Harvard Business Review, “As recently as 1965,, [the corporate planner] was viewed
in many corporations as, at best, a fad and, at worst, a necessary overhead… This view… is disappearing and
is not prevalent at all in the advanced larger companies.”

14 008
A principal task for the planner became scanning the external environment. Increasing government regulation
and surveillance of business, the more demanding and more strident voice of consumers, the accelerating
pace of technology, the increasing interdependence of national economies—these factors and many more
added greater complexity and difficulty to the task of strategic planning. The pricing of a product made by a
German subsidiary, for example, might depend to an extend on the valuation in inventory of its components,
and that value would hinge in part on the fluctuating worth of the Deutschmark against the dollar.

62. What major inference can be drawn from the first paragraph of the passage?
(1) Planning helps anticipate next week’s demand for bologna.
(2) Planning helps anticipate and forecast economic trends.
(3) Planning helps determine how to meet growing competition in a common market.
(4) Planning is at the core of all organizational systems and processes.
(5) While planning is important, it’s equally important to comprehend how planning-in particular
corporate planning-has changed in the last few decades.

63. The statement “the informal, single-minded planning process had to adjust accordingly” implies that
(1) Reappraising existing strategy in the light of the changing environment was warranted in order to
survive the dynamics of the economic, societal, and market forces.
(2) the objectives of the organizations could continue to be more or less fixed.
(3) Concern for short term objectives could enjoy precedence over long term opportunities
(4) Concentrating on a single product or a group of related products or services as opposed to a multi
product business emerged as the new way-out.
(5) Businesses could continue to reap profits, as the demand was more or less already present for all
kind of supplies.

64. According to Frank Gilmore an effective corporate plan has the following attributes.
(1) It is prepared in response to the changing business milieu.
(2) It’s a long term course of action aimed at capitalizing upon future positive developments.
(3) It lays emphasis upon long term growth, stability and viability of a system.
(4) It is a document that is prepared through continuous and systematic monitoring and analysis of
developments that go in and around an organization.
(5) All of the above.

65. What is the rationale and relevance of mentioning World War II in the context of the passage.
(1) WW II unleashed a plethora of changes converting businesses into warfare managing which required
a similar strategy.
(2) The War catapulted the US to the helm of global affairs.
(3) It led to the erosion of economic & political boundaries of the nation-states.
(4) The war led to scores of inventions and innovations that were later deployed to conduct businesses
as well.
(5) All of the above.

66. According to the passage what major changes came about in the organizational management processes
in the post war period and the subsequent duration?
(1) Managing workforce became central to achieving organizational goals.
(2) Controlling processes occupied the mainstay focus at the workplace.
(3) Planning departments were created in progressive organizations.
(4) Execution departments emerged as an apex decision-making body.
(5) Designing structures and systems became the core of all organizational activities.

008 15
DIRECTIONS for Questions 67 to 75: Read the arguments given below and answer the questions that
follow.

67. Illusions refer to propositions or set of propositions people judge to be true that in actuality are false.
From this point of view, illusions are always intellectual and inadvertent. Being blind to accuracy, we
unwittingly give illusions the status of truth and bestow on illusions all the respect and honor accorded
to truth and honesty. It is hard to unravel an illusion because the illusion is assumed to be true.

The above passage could be used to strengthen which of the following arguments?

(1) People do not deliberately seek illusions

(2) Some illusions are more worse than others.
(3) Although the ramifications of an illusion may be sweeping, an illusion does not affect every
judgement.
(4) The more we become curious, the more we are likely to suffer from illusions
(5) Our inaccurate assumptions make it difficult to unravel an illusion.

68. Many religious people as well have committed atrocities and similarly are to be found lacking in the
realm of morality and ethics. Religion can only do so much to establish morality, there comes a point
when inner strength, conscience or whatever else there is special about humans must provide for the
rest of a person’s moral development.

The above passage could be used to strengthen which of the following arguments?

(1) Gross violence and dishonesty have been perpetrated by many atheists throughout history,
(2) Religion does not guarantee complete moral development of an individual.
(3) Moral and ethical constructions existed in the minds of many people prior to their knowledge of
God.
(4) Without a religious basis, all activities can be considered moral.
(5) Religious institutions change in response to societal shifts of the moral and ethical sort.

69. It is unfortunate that many people doubt the credibility of the manager in giving a fair hearing to the
workers. His records show that in 60% of the registered grievances, he has judged in favour of the
worker.

The above argument is flawed as it ignores the possibility that

(1) a large number of grievances arose out of allegations against the manager.
(2) it is difficult for most managers to listen objectively to worker’s demands.
(3) The manager is biased against the workers when it comes to increasing the pay rates.
(4) The workers are conscientious and have explained only when they could not resolve the problem
on their own.
(5) The manager is more inclined towards improving his reputation in the company.

16 008
70. For education results to improve, teachers must show up at work and do their jobs well just as doctors
and nurses must do for people’s health to improve but these service providers are often trapped in a
system where incentives for doing their jobs well are weak, corruption is rife and political patronage is
a way of life.

Which of the following seriously challenges the assumption implicit in the above passage?

(1) doctors and teachers are paid as much in India as in other countries
(2) doctors and teachers are professionals who are motivated purely by their own desire to extend help.
(3) the health and education systems are in shambles because of their employees and not because of
their patrons.
(4) doctors and teachers work for incentives
(5) corruption and political patronage have permeated all aspects of life.

71. ‘The Hidden Eye’ magazine must have misquoted the remarks of the visiting diplomat from Pretzelstein
about our country. Since the dignitary has sued it for libel, the magazine must have had either planted
a deliberate falsehood to embarrass Pretzelstein or misquoted the diplomat’s remarks, and the good
relations ‘The Hidden Eye’ enjoys with Government of Pretzelstein are well known.

Which one of the following arguments exhibits a pattern of reasoning most similar to that in the argument
above?

(1) According to the company policy of ‘The Hidden Eye’, employees who are either frequently
absent without notice or who are habitually late receive an official warning. Since Suneeta has
never received such a warning, rumours that she is habitually late must be false.
(2) Any diplomat of Pretzelstein, who discusses a confidential state matter with a member of the press
will be either fired or removed from his assignment. But since no diplomat of Pretzelstein ever
discusses any confidential state matter with a member of the press, no diplomat of Pretzelstein will
ever be removed from his assignment.
(3) Anyone promoted to senior copy editor at ‘The Hidden Eye’ must have either worked in the copy
department for three years or have an influential sponsor. Raman, therefore, has an influential
sponsor, since he was promoted to senior copy editor after a year on the shop floor.
(4) To earn a merit salary increase, an advertising executive of ‘The Hidden Eye’ must either bring in
new clients or develop innovative supplements. No innovative supplements were developed at
‘The Hidden Eye’ this year, so advertising executives of ‘The Hidden Eye’ must have brought in
many new clients.
(5) Any diplomat of Pretzelstein who is either awarded the Order of the Pretzel or becomes a Minister
of State has to be recommended by a Member of the Cabinet. Since Von Sterling has been
recommended by a Member of the Cabinet and has become a Minister of State, he must not have
been awarded the Order of the Pretzel.

008 17
72. Bank depositors in the United States are all financially protected against bank failures because the
government insures all individuals’ bank deposits. An economist argues that this insurance is partly
responsible for the high rate of bank failures, since it removes from depositors any financial incentive
to find out whether the bank that holds their money is secure against failure. If depositors were more
inquisitive, then banks would need to be secure in order to compete for depositors’ money.
In the above passage, the two portions in boldface play which of the following roles?
(1) The first is evidence that the economist offers in support of a certain prediction; the second is that
position
(2) The first is a pattern of cause and effect that the economist predicts will hold under the present
circumstances. The second acknowledges a situation in which that pattern would not hold.
(3) The first is a generalization that the economist accepts as true; the second is presented as a consequence
that follows from the truth of that generalization
(4) The first is a pattern of cause and effect that the economist predicts will not hold in the case at issue;
the second offers a consideration in support of that prediction
(5) The first acknowledges a consideration that weighs against the main position that the economist
defends; the second is that position

73. Preventive Treatment for diabetes forestalls certain medical expenses by preventing strokes and heart
disease. Yet any money so saved amounts to only one-fourth of the expenditures required to treat the
diabetic population. Therefore, there is no economic justification for preventive treatment for diabetes.
The argument is most vulnerable to criticism on which one of the following grounds?
(1) It relies on the judgment of experts in a matter to which their expertise is irrelevant
(2) It presupposes what it seeks to establish
(3) It simply ignores the existence of potential counterevidence
(4) It seeks to arrive at a general conclusion based on evidence that may be insufficient in itself to
support that conclusion
(5) It generalizes from atypical occurrences

74 Division Manager: I want to replace the Semitron computers in my division with Vitanet computers
General Manager: Why?
Division Manager: It costs 28 percent less to train new staff on the Vitanet
General Manager: But that is not a good enough reason. The high cost of replacement parts make
Vitanet computers more expensive to maintain than Semitron computers
Which two of the following statements, taken together would most satisfactorily weaken the Division
Manager’s case for and strengthen the General Manager’s case against the replacement of computers?
A. Vitanet computers have a lower onetime purchase and installation cost than Semitron computers
and have a better record of runtime before replacement
B. The average cost of retraining the existing staff, currently using Semitron computers, on Vitanet
Computers is approximately 37 per cent higher than the average cost of training new staff on
Vitanet
C. Currently all employees in the company are required to attend workshops on how to use Semitron
computers in new applications
D. Experienced users of Semitron computers command much higher salaries than do prospective
employees who have no experience in the use of computers.
E. Studies have found the average productivity of a programmer using a Vitanet computer to be the
same or less than that of a programmer using a Semitron computer.
(1) AD (2) BE (3) BC (4) CE (5) DE

18 008
75. It is a sad fact that among a large cohort of artists and writers, almost all will struggle while a small
number will derive a disproportionate share of fame and attention. The same applies to the so-called
masterpieces that determine a canon: a few pieces displace others from the lists in a “winner-take-all”
effect–all the while the neglected pieces languish and disappear from our literary consciousness.

Which of the following can be correctly inferred from the above?

(1) Factors beyond those common to all artists or artistic creations may determine the success or failure
of artists or writers to strive to achieve greatness since only a few of them will succeed anyway
(2) For a neglected piece to become a masterpiece, it has to benefit from a ‘winner-take-all-effect’.
(3) There are some writers or artists who can achieve success without the benefit of a “winner-take-all’
effect
(4) It is pointless for all writers and artists to try for success because only a few will succeed anyway
(5) The potential success of any artist or an artistic creation is unpredictable because of the ‘winner-
take-all’ effect.

008 19
 Space for rough work

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Space for rough work
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