Communicable Disease Nursing - Neil Jupiter E.

Villamor, RN, MAN (c)

Basic Concepts on CD 1. It is an illness due to a specific agent transmitted by an agent from a reservoir to a susceptible host through different modes of transmission: a. Communicable disease b. Infectious disease c. Contagious disease d. Iatrogenic disease 2. Presence of classical signs and symptoms that are highly specific to a certain disease is known as: a. Distinctive sign b. Homans sign c. Pathognomonic sign d. Peace sign c. All contagious diseases are infectious but not all infectious are contagious. d. Infectious diseases are contagious and also communicable. 8. An organism that is capable of invading and multiplying in the body of the host: a. causative agent b. reservoir c. bacteria d. carrier

9. Shigella species only requires 10 microorganisms to cause infection while Salmonella must have 1,000 bacteria to initiate a disease. This property of microorganism is known as: a. Toxigenecity b. Virulence c. Viability d. Invasiveness

3. When will you consider that an infection is acquired in the hospital and is called as nosocomial? a. When infection is validated by the laboratory of the hospital b. When infection occurred upon admission c. When infection is acquired before discharge d. When the patient is within 14 days of hospital stay 4. An infection that is completely manifested by signs and symptoms: a. b. c. d. true infection opportunistic infection communicable infection contagious infection

10. Beds in the hospital are arranged in such a way that droplet transmission of microorganism can be prevented. This is done by: a. Arranging the bed not facing the door or the window b. Letting a single bed occupy a single room c. Placing blinders on each patients space, if possible d. Positioning the bed one meter away from each other 11. Which of the following will most likely acquire an infectious disease? a. b. c. d. a healthy sexual worker a pregnant mother a 35 year old male who is alcoholic a patient who is just discharged from the hospital

5. The infection brought by normal microflora of the body with low degree of virulence but may take advantage when the body is immunocompromised: a. b. c. d. Nosocomial infection Opportunistic infection Parasitic infection True infection

12. Which of the following is a primary level of disease prevention? a. contact tracing b. prompt treatment c. handwashing d. mass screening

6. What is the difference between gonorrhea and influenza when taking into consideration being infectious and contagious? a. Both are contagious and infectious. b. Influenza is infectious and gonorrhea is contagious. c. Gonorrhea is infectious and influenza is contagious. d. Gonorrhea and influenza are not contagious but only infectious. 7. Which of the following statements is true? a. Communicable diseases are all contagious but not infectious. b. All communicable diseases are infectious and contagious.

13. What will the nurse do if a child developed convulsion within 24 hours after giving DPT vaccine? a. The child must begin with DT only on the second dose because the child reacted negatively and developed pertussis with the first dose. b. Give the child DTaP instead. c. Do not give the second dose of DPT. d. Give TSB and paracetamol, as ordered. 14. Which of the following is true about Tetanus Toxoid? a. It provides 99% immunity on the 3rd dose. b. It is given IM at deltoid region, 0.5 cc

c. Infant is protected from tetanus for 10 years if TT2 is given. d. It is given to mothers for two doses with one month interval with booster doses every next pregnancy. 15. A patient is removed from other persons because he is susceptible in acquiring a certain disease. This kind of isolation is called: a. Strict isolation b. Source isolation c. Contact isolation d. Reverse isolation

24. Which of the following signs and symptoms may prompt a patient to seek medical attention for suspecting tuberculosis? a. chest pain b. afternoon fever c. cough for two weeks d. shortness of breath

25. The standard diagnostic procedure for tuberculosis is: a. chest X-ray b. DSSM c. Mantoux test d. PPD

16. A patient with typhoid fever have several bouts of diarrheal stool. This prompts the nurse to use what kind of precaution? a. Enteric precaution c. Contact precaution b. Reverse isolation d. Drainage precaution 17. Tetanus toxoid provides what type of immunity? a. active, natural b. passive, artificial c. active, artificial d. passive, natural

26. Which of the following drug for TB is the only one in capsule form? a. Ethambutol b. Isoniazid c. Pyrazinamide d. Rifampicin

27. This refers to the formulation of anti-TB drugs that are prepared separately: a. b. c. d. Fixed-dose combination TB DOTS MDT paucibacillary Single-drug formulation

18. Tetanus immunoglobulin is considered to provide what type of immunity? a. active, natural b. passive, artificial c. active, artificial d. passive, natural

28. Which of the following is also used as a chemoprophylaxis for TB? a. Ethambutol b. Isoniazid c. Pyrazinamide d. Rifampicin

19. BCG vaccination given during birth provides what type of immunity? a. active, natural b. passive, artificial c. active, artificial d. passive, natural

29. The best method of prevention of TB and leprosy especially among children is: a. b. c. d. Taking INH for prophylaxis Healthy environment Good nutrition BCG immunization

20. The single most effective way of preventing transmission of microorganism from one person to another? a. sterile technique b. disinfection Tuberculosis 21. The patient is considered non-infective after: a. b. c. d. one week after multi-drug therapy two to four weeks after therapy after negative chest X-Ray after negative microscopic examination result c. medical mission d. handwashing

30. Patients taking Isoniazid primarily must: a. b. c. d. Take vitamin B6 Take medication with food Have kidney and liver function test Be assessed every 2 to 4 weeks for vision

Measles 31. The following are the clinical manifestations of measles, except: a. b. c. d. low-grade fever deep red macula-papular eruptions conjunctivitis with photophobia bright red spot with a blue-white spot at the center at the buccal mucosa

22. The tuberculosis-causing microorganism can be transmitted through the following means, except: a. feco-oral route b. coughing, sneezing, singing c. direct invasion through mucus membrane or break in the skin d. unpasteurized milk or dairy products 23. TB of the bones is also known as: a. Potts disease b. Extrapulmonary TB c. TB meningitis d. Miliary TB

32. The appearance of rashes of measles is characterized by all of the following, except: a. Desquamation occurs after the rashes. b. Appears at the trunk first (unifocal) c. Cephalocaudal appearance of the rashes is observed. d. Begins at the hairline and behind the ears

33. Measles vaccine is given with the following considerations, except: a. b. c. d. Introduced once at nine months 0.5 cc is introduced at the deltoid muscle, ID AMV can be given as early as six months Report experience of fever and mild rashes for three to four days

a. b. c. d.

breeds on a flowing water bites before sunrise and sunset bites at the lower extremities low-flying mosquito

43. The following manifestations of the client, according to WHO, may lead to definitive diagnosis of DHF, except: a. b. c. d. Fever lasting for 2-7 days Thrombocytopenia Abdominal pain, plus joint fever Positive tourniquet test, plus petechiae, ecchymoses, purpura

34. Possible complications of measles include, except: a. otitis media b. encephalitis c. pneumonia d. renal failure

35. Measles can be prevented by a vaccine known as MMR and is given during the: a. 9th month b. 12th month Rabies 36. The pathognomonic sign for rabies is: a. hydrophobia b. laryngospasm c. intense salivation d. bizarre behavior c. 15th month d. 18th month

44. Which of the following are the signs and symptoms of bleeding among clients with DHF? a. hemoptysis b. melena c. hematochezia d. hematemesis

45. Which of the following signs and symptoms would indicate that the client is in the late stage of dengue infection? a. vomiting of blood b. Hermans sign c. Hypotension, rapid weak pulse, narrow pulse pressure d. Abdominal pain with bone pain 46. A positive Rumpel Leads test indicates that: a. Decreased blood supply is observed in the arm with torniquet. b. 20 or more petechiae are present per 1 inch square. c. The client manifests general flushing of the skin. d. Melena is observed in the stool. 47. Which of the following laboratory results will the nurse consistently monitor to those patients with dengue? a. Liver enzymes b. Platelet count c. Troponin d. Viral count

37. The following factors determine treatment of rabies, except: a. b. c. d. animal species nature of contact amount of saliva present during the bite vaccination or clinical status of the animal

38. A dog can be vaccinated as early as: a. during birth b. 6 weeks c. 3 months d. one year

39. Management for the wound includes all of the following, except: a. b. c. d. running water and cleaning soap 70% alcohol antiseptic place blockage tie above the injury site suture site if wound is large to prevent excessive bleeding

48. Which of the following management are not included to patients with dengue? a. administer Vit K b. complete bed rest c. provide warmth to patients, if possible comforters d. do not give aspirin in cases of fever Varicella (Chicken Pox)

40. If a wild animal bit, even though unprovoked, the animal should be: a. b. c. d. killed at once observed for 10 days send to PAWS donated to Malabon Zoo

Dengue Hemorrhagic Fever 41. Dengue cases usually peak in months of: a. February to April c. January to March b. September to December d. July to November 42. Characteristics of dengue-causing mosquito includes all of the following, except: 49. The possible sequelae of chicken pox when reactivated during the later years of life is: a. cataract b. shingles c. peripheral neuropathy d. pneumonia

50. The appearance of rashes among clients with chicken pox starts from the trunk and it is initially characterized by what kind of lesion? a. Macule b. Papule c. Pustule d. Vesicle

a. 3 weeks b. 1 week

c. 4 weeks d. After the complete cycle

Water and Food-Borne Diseases 59. Which of the following food handling measures is said to be incorrect? a. Boil food approximately reaching 60 degrees C. b. Avoid tasting unusual or foods with peculiar odor. c. Sanitation is the process of disinfecting kitchen utensils. d. Wash hand before, during, and after food preparation. 60. According to WHO, the following are the keys on how to maintain safety of food, except: a. b. c. d. use hand sanitizer use safe water cook thoroughly separate raw and cooked

51. Penicillin is administered to patients with chicken pox because: a. Penicillin prevents other infection possibly accompanying chicken pox. b. Penicillin alleviates signs and symptoms of chicken pox. c. Penicillin inhibits the growth of microorganisms of chicken pox. d. Penicillin prevents prolonged exposure to virus. 52. Aspirin is not given for patients with chicken pox to prevent: a. b. c. d. Reyes syndrome Herpes Zoster Postherpetic neuralgia Creutzfeld-Jacob Syndrome

Hepatitis 61. It is considered to be the twin of AIDS, and the type of hepatitis that is also classified under sexually transmitted diseases: a. Hepatitis A b. Hepatitis B c. Hepatitis C d. Hepatitis D

53. Which of the following assessment procedures will diagnose chicken pox? a. b. c. d. Varicella Zoster Ig is more than 10 Fecalysis CSF analysis on the 2nd day Physical assessment

62. It is also known as post-infusion hepatitis: Leprosy 54. Paucibacillary is a non-infectious type of leprosy that is treated for how many months? a. 6 to 9 months b. 24 to 30 months c. 12 to 24 months d. 8 to 16 months a. Hepatitis A b. Hepatitis B c. Hepatitis C d. Hepatitis D

63. Transmission of Hepatitis E includes which of the following? a. feco-oral route b. blood, sexual contact c. transfusion d. semen

55. Leprosy can be transmitted through: 1. 2. 3. 4. blood prolonged skin-to-skin contact semen airborne/ droplet c. 2 and 4 only d. 4 only

64. Which of the following interventions is appropriate for Hepatitis A? a. Blood screening for blood donation b. Use of disposable equipment especially syringe and needles c. Avoid oro-anal intercourse d. No sharing of personal items which may cause break in the skin (e.g. razor) Red Tide Poisoning

a. all except 3 b. 2 only

56. Which of the following management can prevent leprosy? a. Leprosy vaccine c. Slit skin smear b. BCG vaccine d. Rifampicin 57. Which of the following manifestations is not considered a late sign of leprosy? a. Anhydrosis b. Lagopthalmos c. Gynecomastia d. Madarosis

65. Paralytic Shelfish Poisoning (PSP) is commonly known as: a. Red tide b. Sting ray c. Green algae poisoning d. Paragonomiasis

66. Which of the following facts about PSPs causative agent is not true? a. caused by dinoflagellates b. common term is plankton

58. A person is considered non-infectious after undergoing how many weeks of MDT?

c. less than 30 kinds of 2000 varieties can cause poisoning d. increases because of continuous high temperature and/or summer 67. The following mollusks are the common causes of PSP, except: a. Tahong b. Talaba c. Pamaypay d. Halaan

68. Which of the following is the easiest access for the causative agent to enter the body? a. GIT b. Respiratory c. GUT d. Skin

69. The pattern of disease occurrence that is in constant observation in the community: a. Endemic b. Sporadic c. Epidemic d. Pandemic

70. This pattern of disease occurrence is characterized by a population of 80% immune and 20% susceptible: a. Endemic b. Sporadic c. Epidemic d. Pandemic

Sexually Transmitted Diseases 71. The disease that is most common concern in the Philippines is: a. syphilis b. AIDS c. gonorrhea d. Hepatitis B

72. The leading mode of transmission of HIV and STI in the Philippines is: a. b. c. d. sharing needles for injecting drug sexual contact vertical transmission blood transfusion

73. What is the most effective means of preventing STI? a. abstinence b. contact tracing c. condom d. mass screening

74. The most common reportable STD in the Philippines is; a. gonorrhea b. AIDS c. syphilis d. chlamydia

75. The drug of choice for the treatment of gonorrhea: a. Tetracycline b. Chloramphenicol c. Metronidazole d. Penicillin - End -