Ai Iitjee Modeltest 01

IIT-JEE
Model Test - 01
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Take This test comprising 3 sections with a duration of 2 hours
each section.
Each section contains 50 questions. Observe the given weightage
to each question. 1/3 rd negative marking do exist for the wrong
answers. Maintaining the time limit of 2 hours for each section is
of atmost importance, while taking the test.
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How to answer ?
1. Download the test

2. If possible take a print of the test
3. Mark correct option on the test booklet or on a sheet of
paper
4. Login to the website open the relevant answer sheet of this
test.
5. Enter all your answers and submit the answer sheet online
to get Instant score analysis
Happy learning
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1
Paper - I : Physics - 1 to 50
Questions 1 - 5 are based on the following passage

A bimetallic strip is a simple device that capitalizes on the difference between the thermal expansion
properties of two metals. When the strip is heated, one metal expands more than the other, causing the
strip to bend.
An important application of the bimetallic strip is the ‘thermal switch’ usd in electrical circuits. some
kitchen toasters use a thermal switch as a timing device. Figure -1 shows a simplified version of a
toaster circuit, with the thermal switch labeled S”. the toaster is plugged into a wall outlet supplying
alternating current with Vms=120 volts.
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r
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R
Magnet
S
120 V
Figure - 1
Depressing the spring-loaded toaster handle lowers the toast tray and closes switch S, a mechanical
switch that is unaffected by temperature. The toast tray is held down against the opposing upward force
of the spring by an electromagnet, which creates a magnetic field varying linearly with current.
Meanwhile, the bread is being toasted by radiative heat transfer from the resistance R, a long wire that
runs back and forth on the sides of the toast tray. This resistor is made from a wire of high resistivity to
keep the current within acceptable limits. As the temperature within the toaster rises, the bimetallic
strip S’ starts to bend, and at a sufficiently high temperature, bending of the thermal switch is enough to
break the circuit, cutting off current to the electromagnet. The tray pops up and the toasting process is
ended.
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Alternatively, the function of the bimetallic strip as a timing device can be fulfilled by a capacitor
connected in series with the electromagnet. When the switch S is closed, the capacitor begins to charge
and the current in the electromagnet decreases, eventually dropping below the critical value necessary
to hold the handle assembly down magnet 120 V S R r S’
1. If the heating element of the simplified toaster in Figure-1 is a cylindrical wire of resistivity
ohm-meters, length 0.5 m and diameter 0.2 cm, the power dissipated by the resistor will be most nearly
equal to: www.aieeepage.com (3 mark)
a) 0.1/p b) 120/p
c) 500/p d) 14500/p
2
2. Each of the following changes to the capacitor-based toaster discussed in the passage would produce
darker toast EXCEPT. (3 mark)
a) Using a spring with a smaller spring constant in the toast tray.

b) Using a stronger electromagnet.
c) Using a capacitor with a smaller separation between the plates.
d) Using a higher resistance wire as the heating element.
3. It takes 10 J of energy to depress the handle of toaster 1 a given distance. If it takes 60 J of energy to the
handle. of toaster 2 twice this distance, then the ratio of the spring constant of Toaster 1 to that of
Toaster 2 is : (3 mark)
a) 1 : 6
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b) 6 : 1
c) 2 : 3
d) 3 : 2
4. Which of the following represents the magnitude of the maximum voltage supplied by the wall outlet
discussed in the passage ?
www.aieeepage.com (3 mark)
a) 120 2 V
b) 120 / 2 V
c) 120 V
d) 60 V
5. Rank the following combinations of resistors in order of DECREASING current supplied by a battery
connected between points x and y . (3 mark)
1) 2)
R R R R R
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R R
3) 4)
R
a) 1, 2, 3, 4 www.aieeepage.com
b) 1, 3, 2, 4
c) 3, 4, 2, 1 d) 3, 2, 4, 1
3
Questions 6 to 45 are independent Questions
6. A cylinder of length 76 cm, has two flexible diaphragms at its ends and one at its middle. The two parts
contain hydrogen and oxygen gas separately. The two end diaphragms are set into vibrations by the
same source. Determine the minimum frequency of the source, whic will render th middle diaphragm
motionless. Speed of sound in H2 and O2 are 1100ms-1 and 310 ms-1 respectively. (3 mark)
a) f= 568 Hz
b) f = 569 Hz
c) f = 570 Hz
d) f = 569 Hz
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Q
7. A charge Q is divided into two parts such that charge on each part is q and = 2 . The Coulombic
q
(3 mark)
force betwen the two charges q and q when placed some distance apart
1) is maximum irrespective of the medium in which they are placed
2) is minimum www.aieeepage.com
3) is equal in magnitude for both but opposite in direction
4) is dependent on the medium in which charges areplaced
Which of the given statement(s) match with the main statement.
a) 1, 2, 3
b) 1, 3, 4,
c) 2, 3, 4
d) None of these
8. A uniformly stretched string is made to vibrate in its fundamental mode. Maintaining the same funda-
mental frequency, the length (l) of the string is adjusted according to the tension (T). \the two are
plotted on a log-log scale, adopting length on the Y axis. The slope of the line will be : (3 mark)
a) 2
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b) 1/ 2
c) 1
d) 1/4
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4
9. In the circuit shown: (3 mark)
2Ω
3Ω
4Ω
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0.2 µ F
6 V 2.8Ω
1) a current of 0.9A flows through 2Ω resistor when steady state is reached

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2) a potential drop of 4.2 V appears across the resistance of 2.8 Ω
3) a potntial drop of 1.8 V appears across the capacitor C
4) a potential of 4.2 V appears across the capacitor C
Which of the above given statements are correct with reference to the figure.
a) 1, 2, 3
b) 1, 2, 4,
c) 2, 3, 4
d) None of these
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5
10. The emission spectrum of a black body at two different temperatures are shown by curves P and Q.
The ratio of the areas under the two curves P and Q will be: (3 mark)
Intensity
Q
P
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1987 2980
Wavelength (nm)
a) 1 : 16
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b) 4 : 9
c) 81 : 256
d) 16 : 81
11. A proton moving with a constant velocity passes through a region of space without any change in
velocity. If E and B represent electric and magnetic fields, respectively, the region of space may have
(6 mark)
1) E = 0; B = 0 2) E = 0; B ≠ 0
3) E ≠ 0; B = 0 4) E ≠ 0; B ≠ 0
a) 1, 2, 3
b) 2, 3, 4,
c) 1, 2, 4,
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d) None of these
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6
12. In a thermodynamic process the final volume and pressure of an ideal gas are same as the initial
volume and pressure. It ncessary follows that: (3 mark)
a) The net change in internal energy of the gas is zero

b) The net work done by the gas is zero
c) The net heat supplied to the gas is zero
d) None of the above
13. When photons of energy 4.25 eV strike the surface of a metal A, the ejected photoelectrons have
maximum kinetic energy, TA expressed in eV and de Broglie wavelength λ A . The maximum kinetic
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eenergy of photoelectrons liberaated from another metal B by photons of energy 4.70 eV is TB =
(TA - 1.50 eV). If the de Broglie wavelength of these photoelectrons is λB = 2λ A , Then (3 mark)
1) the work function of A is 2.25 eV 2) the work function of B is 4.20 eV

3) TA= 2.00 eV 4) TB = 2.75 eV
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a) 1, 2, 3
b) 2, 3, 4,
c) 1, 2, 4,
d) None of these
14. A steel drill making 180 revolutions per minute is used to drill a hole in a block of steel. \the mass of
the steel block and drill is 180 g. If the entire mechanical work is used up in producing heat and the
rate of rise of temperature of the block is 0.50C/s, then the torque required to drive the drill is: (Spe-
cific heat capacity of steel =0.1 cal/g-oC) (3 mark)
a) 0.5 N-m
b) 1 N-m
c) 1.5 N-m
d) 2 N-m
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15. To produce a minimum reflection of wavelengths near the middle of visible specctrum (550 nm) how
thick should a coating of MgF2 ( µ = 1.38). be vacuum - coated on a glass ssurface: (3 mark)
a) 10-7 m
b) 10-10 m www.aieeepage.com
c) 10 m
-9
d) 10-8m
7
16. One mole of an ideal gas is taken from state A to state B as shown in figure. The maximum tempera-
ture attained during the process is: (3 mark)
P
A
2P0
P0 B
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Vo 2Vo V
3 Pθ V0
a)
2 R
b)
9 Pθ V0
4 R
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2Pθ V0
c)
R
Pθ V0
d)
2R
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8
17. A small conducting sphere of radius a mounted on an insulating haandle and having a positive charge
q is inserted through a hole in the walls of a hollow conducting sphere of inner radius b and outer
radius c. The hollow sphere is supported on an insulating stand and is initially uncharged and the small
sphere is placed at the centre of the hollow sphere. Neglect any effect of hole. Which of the following
statements will be true for this system?
1) The electric field at a point in the region between the spheres at a distance r from the centre is
equal to ( q / 4πε 0 r 2 )
2) The electric field at a point outside the hollow sphere at a distance r from the centre is equal to
( q / 4πε 0 r 2 )
3) No work will be done in carrying a small charge from the inner conductor to the outer conductor
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q 1 1
4) The potential of the inner sphere with respect to the outer sphere is given by: Vab =  − 
4πε 0  a b 
(6 mark)
a) 1, 2, 4
b) 1, 2, 3 www.aieeepage.com
c) 1, 2
d) 2, 3, 4
18. A liquid rises to a height h in a long vertical capillary tube, when immersed in it. If the liquid be made
to rise in a capillary of length nh (n < 1) projecting out, the angle between the capillary surface and the
free meniscus at the point of contact will be : (Assume the liquid to completely wet the tube) (3 mark)
a) cos −1 (1 − n)
b) cos −1 (n)
c) cos −1 (2n)
d) cos −1 (1 − 2n)
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9
r
19. A particle of charge -q and mass m enters in a uniform magnetic field B (perpendicular to paper
inwards) at P with a velocity V0 at an angle α and leaves the field at Q with velocity v at angle β as
shown in figure. Then (6 mark)
x v0 x B
P x x x
V x x x
β
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x x x
Q
x x x
1) α = β
2) v = v0 www.aieeepage.com
2mv0 sin α
3) PQ=
Bq
2m(π − α )
4) particle remains in the field for time t =
Bq
Which of the above given statements are correct with reference to the figure.
a) 1, 2, 3, 4
b) 1, 2, 3
c) 1, 2
d) None of these
20. A beaker containing water with a total mass of 10 kg is placed on the pan of a balance ‘A’. A solid body
of mass 5 kg and density 50 g/cc suspended from a spring balance B is gently lowered in the water
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contained in the beaker, so that it gets fully immersed without any contact with the baker. The readings
shown by the balance A and B will be respectively as: (3 mark)
a) 10 kg and 5 kg
b) 9 kg and 6 kg
c) 11 kg and 4 kg
d) 10.1 kg and 4.9 kg www.aieeepage.com
10
21. As the position of an object (u) from a concave mirror is varied, the position of the image (v) also
varis. By letting u change from 0 to + ∞ the graph between v and u will be: (3 mark)
v
a) f u
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v
b) f u
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v
c) f u
v
f u
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d)
22. A block is resting on a piston which executes simple harmonic motion with a period of 2.0 s. The
maximum velocity of the piston, at an amplitude just sufficient for the block to separate from the
piston is:
a) 1.57 ms-1 b) 3.12 ms-1

c) 2.0 ms d) 6.42 ms-1
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23. A conducting sphere of radius R has a charge. Then: (3 mark)
1) the charge is uniformly distributed over its surface, if thre is no external electric field
2) distribution of charge over its surface will be non-uniform, if an external electric field exists in
the space
3) the electric field strength inside the sphere will be equal to zero only when no external electric
field exists
4) potential at every point of the spehere must be same
a) 2, 3,
b) 1, 2
c) 1,3
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d) None of these
24. A unform thin ring of mass M1 and radius R is kept with its plane horizontal, vertially above a uniform
solid sphere of mass M2 and radius R. The centre to centre distance between them is 2 2 R . The
gravitational force acting between them is: (3 mark)
a)
2 GM1M 2 www.aieeepage.com
9R2
2 2 GM1M 2
b)
27 R 2
GM1M 2
c)
16 R 2
2 2 GM1M 2
d)
9R2
25. In a household electric circuit: (3 mark)
1) all electric appliances drwing power are joined in parallel

2) a switch may be either in series or in parallel with the appliance which it controls
3) if a switch is in parallel with an appliance, it will draw power when the switch is in the off
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position (open)
4) if a switch is in parallel with an appliance, the fuse will blow (burn out) when the switch is put
on (closed)
a) 1, 3, 4
b) 1, 2, 3 www.aieeepage.com
c) 1, 2
d) None of these
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26. A uniform rod AB rests on a smooth floor leaning against a smooth wall. The rod AB is released when
θ is small. The instantaneous centre of rotation always lies in the: (3 mark)
a) First quadrant
b) Second quadrant
c) Third quadrant
d) Fourth quadrant
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27. Which of the following statements are correct? (3 mark)
1) A mirror cannot give rise to chromatic aberration

2) A lens gives risee to chromatic aberration
3) A lens gives rise to spherical aberration
4) A mirror can give rise to spherical aberration
a) 1, 2, 3, 4
b) 1, 2, 3
c) 1, 2, 4
d) None of these
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28. A hollow conical vesel is filled with water at a constant rate.The rate at which the centre of mass of
water in the cone rises is plotted against the height of water in the cone on a log - log scale, by taking
them on Y and X-axis respetiely. The slope of the line will be : (3 mark)
a) -1
b) -2
c) -3 www.aieeepage.com
3
d) -
2
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29. In the ccircuit shown in the figure, switch S is closed at time t=0. Select the correct statements:
(6 mark)
C 2R
2C R
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E S
1) rate of increase of charge is same in both the capacitors

2) ratio of charge stored in capacitors C and 2C at any time t would be 1 : 2
3) time constants of both the capacitors are equal
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4) steady state charge in capacitors C and 2C are in the ratio of 1: 2
a) 2, 3, 4,
b) 1,2,3
c) 2, 1
d) None of these
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30. Two identical balls A and B lie on a smooth horizontal surface, which gradually merges int a curve to
a height 3.2 m. Ball A is given a velocity of 10 m/s, to collide headon with ball B, which then takes up
the curved path. The mnimum coefficient of restitution e for the collision between A and B, in order
that ball B reaches the highest point C of the curve is (g = 10 m/s2): (3 mark)
3.2 m
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A B
O O
1
a)
4 www.aieeepage.com
3
b)
5
1
c)
2
3
d)
4
1
31. A small ball of radius r and specific gravity floats on water in a large tank. The work done in
2
pressing the ball down, in order that, the ball just gets immersed in water is : ( ρ = density of water)
(6 mark)
2 4
a) π r ρ g
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3
1 4
b) πr ρg
3
5
c) π r4ρ g
12
7 4
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d) π r ρ g
8
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32. Two identical double convex lenses each of focal length f are made of glass of µ = 1.5. If R is the
radius of ccurvature of each of the four faces: (3 mark)
1) the focal length of combination is half the radius of curvature of any of the four faces
2) the focal length of combination increases if the lenses are separated by a distance f and the new
focal leength is twice is focal length when the lenses are in contact
3) the focal length of combination decreases when the lenses are separated by a distance f and the
new focal length is half of the focal length when the lenses are in contact.
4) none of the
a) 1, 2
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b) 1, 4
c) 3, 2
d) None of these
33. A train p runs along the direction east to west and another train Q runs from west to east along parallel
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tracks placed at the equator. If both the trains move with the same speed and the thrust offered by the
two trains on their respective tracks be T1 and T29 then (3 mark)
a) T1 = T2
b) T1 < T2
c) T1 > T2
d) The given information is not enough to establish any relation between T1 and T2.
34. ABCD is a square of side a metres and is made of wires of resistance x ohm per metre. Similar wires
are connected across the diagonals AC and BD. The effective resistance between the corners A and C
will be (3 mark)
12
A B
11
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D C
a) (2 − 2)ax
b) 6ax
c) 3ax www.aieeepage.com
d) (3 − 2)ax
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35. A particle of mass 500 gm moves with an intial velocity of (5iˆ + 2 Jˆ ) m/s on X - Y plane. A force
 1 
F=  iˆ − Jˆ 
 8 
N acts on the particle. If the initial position of the particle be (2m, 3m) then the position at the instant
(3 mark)
when the particle is moving purely along X - axis is:
a) (38 m, 7 m)
b) (2 m, 8 m)
c) (72 m, -2 m)
d) (6 m, 39 m)
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36. The electric field at the centre of a uniformly charged ring is zero. What is the electric field at the
centre of a half ring if the charge on it be Q and its radius be R? (3 mark)
1 Q
a) 4πε π R 2
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0
1 Q
b) 4πε R 2
0
1 2Q
c) 4πε π R 2
0
1 2Q
d) 4πε R 2
0
37. A ball strikes the horizontal X - Y plane with a velocity of (10iˆ + 30 Jˆ − 2okˆ ) m/s, and rebounds
(3 mark)
elastically. Its velocity after t = 2 sec will be:
a) 10iˆ + 30 Jˆ + 2okˆ
b) 10iˆ + 30 Jˆ
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c) 10iˆ + 30 Jˆ − 2okˆ
d) −10iˆ − 30 Jˆ + 2okˆ
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38. An equilateral triangular loop ADC having some resistance is pulled with a constant velocity v out of
a uniform magnetic field directed into the paper. At time t = 0, side DC of the loop is at the edge of the
magnetic field. The induced current (I) versus time (t) graph will be as: (3 mark)
A
x x x x
x x x x
x x x x
xD x x Cx
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v
a)
t
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I
b)
t
c)
t
d)
t
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39. A projectile is projected at an angle θ . When the projectile reaches to a height three-fourth that of
maximum height, the angle made by the velocity with the horizontal is complimentary to the angle of
projection. The value of θ is (3 mark)
a) cot -1 ( 2)
-1
 3
b) tan  2 
 
-1
 1
c) sin  
 2
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-1
 1
d) cos  3 
 
40. www.aieeepage.com
In the circuit shown in the figure, if both the bulbs B1 and B2 are identical: (3 mark)
B1
L=10mH B2
220v, 50 Hz
1) their brightness will be the same

2) B2 will be brighter than B1
3) as frequency of supply voltage is increased, brightness
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of B1 will increase and that of B2 will decrease
4) only B2 will glow because the capacitor has infinite impedance
a) 2,3
b) 2,4
c) 1,2 www.aieeepage.com
d) None of these
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41. Two particles P and Q are projected from two different points simultaneously as shown in figure 5.63.
(3 mark)
The instant when they will be minimum distance apart is: (g = 10 m/s2)
10 2 m / s
20 2 m
20 2 m / s
450
a)
b)
1
2
1
3
sec
sec
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4
c) sec
5
d) 1 sec
(3 mark)
42. Whenever a hydrogen atom emits a photon in the Balmer series:
1) it may emit another photon in the Balmer series
2) it must emit another photon in the Lyman series
3) the second photon, if emitted, will have a wavelength of about 122 nm
4) it may emit a second photon, but the wavelength of this photon cannot be predicted.
a) 2, 3
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b) 2, 4
c) 1, 2
d) None of these
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43. Suppose the frequency of emitted photon is f0 when electron of a stationary hydrogen atom jumps
from a higher state m to a lower state n. If the atom is moving with a velocity v(<< c) and emits a
photon of frequency f during the same transition, then which of the following statements are possible?
(3 mark)
1) f may be equal to f0 2) f may be greater than f0
3) f may be less than f0 4) f cannot be equal to f0
a) 1, 2, 4
b) 1, 3, 4
c) 1, 2, 3
d) None of these
44.
a) East
b) West
r r
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Given that the force (Lorentz force) F experienced by a particle havig a charge q and velocity vr in a
r r
magnetic field B is given by F = q (v × B) . What is the direction of force acting on electrons falling
vertically, at a place where the earth’s magnetic field is horizontal pointing towards notht?
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(3 mark)
c) South
d) Vertically up
45. The threshold wavelength for photoelectric emission from a material is 5200Å. Photoelectrons will be
emitted when this material is illuminated with nonochromatic radiation from a: (3 mark)
1) 50 watt infrared lamp 2) 1 watt infrared lamp

3) 50 watt ultraviolet 4) 1 watt ultraviolet lamp
a) 1,2
b) 3, 4
c) 1, 3
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d) 1, 4
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21
The compound pulley is a machine used to lift a heavy object (load); its essential components are
shown in Figure - 1
Pulley 2
Pulley 1
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Applied force, F
Load
Figure 1 Compound pulley
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A rope, which supports the load,is attached to the ceiling, passes around pulley 1, and is then redirected
by pulley 2 so that a downward tension force, F, can be applied as shown. When this force acts, pulley
I moves up with the load, it is referred to as a moveable pulley. Pulley 2, on the other hand, is a fixed
pulley. It remains stationary.
The mechanical advantage, MA, of a pulley system is the ratio of the force produced on the load to the
force applied to the main rope:
force on load
MA =
applied force
In this system, the theoretical mechanical advantage is 2.

By adding additional moveable pulleys, the reqired force can be further diminished. While an ideal
compound pulley reduces the force needed to lift an object, it does not reduce the work. this is because
the reduced force must be applied over a correpondingly greater distance. In reality, the work done on
the load is somewhat less than the work done by the applied force. The difference arises because soem
energy is lost to friction, both in the contacts between rope and pulley and in the internal bearings of the
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pulleys themselves. The magnitude of this effect is represented by the efficiency of the system, which
is defined as the ratio of work output to work input.
Work output
efficiency =
Work input
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For any real pulley system, the efficiency is less tan one, and the mechanical advantage is less than it
would be in an idealized system.
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46. The upper limit on mechanical advantage for the pulley system shown below is : (3 mark)
a) 3
b) 5
c) 6
d) 7
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47. In a particular compound pulley system, 20% of the energy is dissipated as heat. The ratio of the
distance over which the force is applied to the distance the load moves is 6. What force would be
required to move a load weighing 1000 Newtons? (3 mark)
1000 (0.8)
a) N
6
1000
b) (0.8) 6 N
(0.8) 6
c) N
1000
(0.8)
d) 1000 (6) N
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48. The absolute value of the work done by the normal force on a perosn in an elevator moving downward
over a fixed distance with decreasing speed is: (3 mark)
a) greater than the work done by gravity because the normal force is larger than the gravity force.
b) zero because the normal force is always perpendicular and therefore can do no work
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c) less than the work done by gravity because the normal force is less than the gravity force.
d) less than the work done by gravity because the elevator is moving down.
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49. A compound pulley composed of one moveable pulley and one fixed pulley is used to lower a load. The
applied force necessary to keep the load from accelerating as it moves downwards : (3 mark)
a) must be more than the applied force necessary to keep the same load moving upwrds at a constant
speed.
b) must be less than the applied force necessary to keep the same load moving upwards at a constant
speed.
c) must be equal to the applied force necessary to keep the same load moving upwards at a constant
speed.
d) could be either more, less, or equal to the applied force necessary to keep the same load moving
upwards at a constant speed.
PAGE
50. A pulley mounted at the top of a flagpole enables a person standing at the bottom to raise and lower the
flag. The mechanical advantage of this system, assuring friction, is : (3 mark)
a) 0
b) 1
c) - 1 www.aieeepage.com
d) 1/2
PAGE
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24
Paper - II : Mathematics - 51 to 100
Questions 51 to 52 are based on the following passage
A player ‘A’ plays a game against a machine. At each rooud he deposits one rupeee in a slot and
then flips a coin which has a probability p of showing a head. If a head shows, he gets back the
rupee he deposited and one more rupee from the machine. If a tail shows, he loses his rupee. Let
A starts with 10 rupee and q = 1 -p
51. The probability that he is left with no money by the tenth round or earlier is (3 mark)
a) q10
PAGE
10
b) ∑ 10 C r p r q10+ r
r =1
c) pq 9
d) 1 - p10
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52. The probability that he is left with no money by the 14th round or earlier is (3 mark)
a) q10 (1 + 10pq + 45p2 q 2 )
b) q14 (p 2 q + 36pq + 7)
c) q12 + 3pq13 + 3p13q + p12
d) 1 −10 C1 pq11 −10 C 2 p 2 q12
Questions 53 to 97 are independent questions
53. Let PM be the perpendicular from the point P(1, 2, 3) to x - y plane. If OP makes an angle θ with the
positive direction of the z-axis and OM makes an angle φ with the positive direction of x-axis, where
O is the origin then (θ and φ are acute angles) (6 mark)
PAGE
Which of the following is statement(s) are correct ?
5 2
1) tan θ = 2) sin θ sin φ =
3 14
1
3) tan φ = 2 4) cos θ cos φ =
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14
a) 1, 2, 3 b) 2, 3, 4
c) 1, 4 d) none
25
2
 dy  dy
54. The solution of   + 2 y cot x = y2 is
(3 mark)
 dx  dx
c c
1) y − =0 2) y=
1 + cos x 1− cos x
−1 c c
3) x = 2 sin 2 y 4) x = 2 cos −1
2y
Which of the above statement(s) are correct ?

a) 1, 2, 3
PAGE
b) 1, 3, 4
c) 1, 2, 3, 4
d) none
55. Let

f : 0,

π
2 
→R www.aieeepage.com
1
be such that f(0) = 3 and f ' ( x) =
1 + cos x
π
. If a < f   < b, then a and b can be
2
(3 mark)
π
a) ,π
2
b) 3, 4
π π
c) 3 + , 3 +
4 2
π 3π
d) 3 + , 3 +
2 4
(3 mark)
56. For the curve y = be x | a
1) the subtangent is of constant length
2) the subnormal is of constant length
PAGE
3) the subnormal varies as the square of ordinate
4) the subtangent varies as the radius vector
Which of the above statement(s) match with the main statements.
a) 1, 3
b) 1, 2
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c) 1, 4
d) none
26
− 3n + (−1) n (3 mark)
57. If n is an integer, lim is
n →∞ 4 n − (−1) n
3
1) − 2) 0 if n is even
4
3
3) − if n is odd 4) None of these
4

a) 1, 3
b) 2, 1
PAGE
c) 1, 4
d) none
58. If (5, 12) and (24, 7) are the foci of a conic passing through the origin then the eccentricity of conic is
(3 mark)
386 386 386

1)
12
2)
38 www.aieeepage.com
3)
25
4) 2

a) 1, 3
b) 1, 2
c) 1, 4
d) none
59. If θ is the angle subtended by the circle S ≡ x 2 + y 2 + 2 gx + 2 fy + c = 0 at the point P( x1 , y1 ) and

(3 mark)
S1 ≡ x12 + y12 + 2gx1 + 2 fy1 + c, = 0 then
2 S1 θ 1 S
1) cot θ = 2) cot 2 = 2 2
g2 + f 2 − c g + f −c
PAGE
g2 + f 2 −c S1 + c − g 2 − f 2
3) θ = 2 tan −1 4) cos θ =
S1 S1 − c + g 2 + f 2

a) 2, 3, 4
b) 1, 2, 3
c) 1, 2
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d) none
27
60. If the sides a, b, c of a triangle A B C form successive terms of G.P. with common ratio r ( >1), then
which of the following statements is/are not correct (3 mark)
5 +1 π
1) r > 2) A< B<
2 3
π π
3) B > 4) C >
3 3
a) 1, 2, 3
b) 1, 2, 4
c) 1, 2
PAGE
d) none
61. In a triangle A B C (6 mark)
3 3 9
1) sin A sin B sin C ≤ 2) sin 2 A + sin 2 B + sin 2 C ≤
8
www.aieeepage.com 4
3) sin A sin B sin C is always positive 4) sin 2 A + sin 2 B = 1 + cos C

a) 1, 2, 3, 4
b) 1, 2, 3
c) 1, 2, 4
d) 2, 3, 4
62. Let P (X = r) = pq r and P(Y = r) = pq r , where r = 1, 2,...............,0 < p < 1, q = 1 - p. Suppose X and Y
are independent. Let Z = max (X, Y). Then (3 mark)
1) P(Z ≤ m) = (1 − q m ) 2 2) P(Z = m) = 2pq m −1 - p(1 + q)q 2m-2
1
3) m∑≥1 P(Z = m) = p 4) P(X ≤ m) = 1 − q m
PAGE
a) 1, 2, 3
b) 1, 2, 4
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c) 2, 3, 4
d) none
28
63. Which of the following is correct ? (6 mark)
1) (101)100 > (100)101 2) (26)25 < (25) 26
3) (300)299 < (299) 300 4) (199)198 = (198)199

a) 1, 2
b) 2, 3
c) 1, 4
d) none
PAGE
64. Complex numbers whose real and imaginary parts, x and y are integers and satisfy the equation
3x 2 − | xy | −2 y 2 + 7 = 0 (3 mark)
1) do not exist 2) exist and have equal modulus

3) form two conjugate pairs
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4) do not form conjugate pairs
a) 1, 2, 3
b) 1, 2, 4
c) 2, 3, 4
d) none
65. Consider the quadratic equation x 2 − 2 px + p 2 − 1 = 0 where p is parameter, then (6 mark)
1) Both are roots of the equation are less than 4 if p ∈ (−∞, 3)

2) Both the roots of the equation are greater than -2 if p ∈ (−∞, − 1)
3) Exactly one root of the equation lies in the interval (-2, 4) if p ∈ (−1, 3)
4) 1 lies between the roots of the equation if p ∈ (0, 2)
PAGE
a) 1, 3
b) 1, 4
c) 2, 3
d) 2, 4 www.aieeepage.com
29
66. If the absolute value of the difference of roots of the equation x 2 + px + 1 = 0 exceeds 3 p , then
(3 mark)
a) p < -1 or p > 4
b) p > 4
c) −1 < p < 4
d) 0 ≤ p < 4
67. There are m points on one straight line AB and n points on another straight line AC, none of them
being A. The number of triangles formed with these points as verticies (3 mark)
PAGE
mn(m + n)
a)
2
mn(m + n − 1)
b)
2
mn(m + n − 2)
c)
2 www.aieeepage.com
d) none of these
13 + 3 2 5 5
∆ = 15 + 25 5 10 (3 mark)
68. is
3 + 65 15 5
a) real rational
b) real irrational
c) complex and rational
d) complex and irrational
π tan x2
PAGE
69. If 0 < x1 < x2 < , then tan x is (3 mark)
2 1
a) > x1 x2
2x
b) > x
1
x
1
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c) > x
2
d) none of these
30
1
The graph of f ( x) = | x | − n − n lies in the (where n > 0).
(3 mark)
70.
a) Ist and IIIrd quadrant

b) IInd and IIIrd quadrant
c) IIIrd and IVth quadrant
d) Ist and IInd quadrant
x ex
71. If ∫ 1+ ex
dx = 2( x − 2) f ( x) − 2 log g ( x) + c, then (3 mark)
PAGE
1+ex -1
a) f ( x) = 1+ e and g(x) =
x
1+ex +1
1+ ex +1
b) f ( x) = 1 + e x , g ( x) =
1 + e x −1
x 1+ ex +1
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c) f ( x) = 1 − e , g ( x) =
1+ ex −1
d) none of these
72. The area of the region bounded by the curve a 4 y 2 = (2a − x ) x 5 is to that of the circle whose radius
is a, is given by the ratio (3 mark)
a) 4 : 5
b) 5 : 8
c) 2 : 3
d) 3 : 2
73. If A, B, C are acute positive angles such that A + B + C = π and cot A cot B cot C = K, then
PAGE
(3 mark)
1
a) K ≤
3 3
1
b) K ≥
3 3
c) K <
1 www.aieeepage.com
9
1
d) K >
3
31
(3 mark)
74. The general values of θ satisfying the equation 2sin 2θ - 3sinθ - 2 = 0 is
7π
a) n π +
6
π
b) nπ + (-1) n
2
n 5π
c) nπ + (-1)
6
n 7π
d) nπ + (-1)
6
PAGE
r
75. The vectors ar, b , cr, are of the same length and the angle between any two of them is the same. If
r r
a = iˆ + ˆj , b = ˆj + kˆ, then cr is (3 mark)
1 r r r r r
1) − (i − 4 j + k ) 2) i + k
3
1 r r r
( −i + 4 j + k )
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r r r
3) 4) (i + 2 j + 3k )
3

a) 1, 3
b) 1, 2
c) 1, 4
d) none
π/4
If I n = ∫
(3 mark)
76. tan n x dx, then
0
I I
1) I n + I n − 2 = 2) I n −1 + I n +1 =
n −1 n
PAGE
I n
3) I n +1 < 2 I n < 4) I n = I n−2
n −1 n−2

a) 1, 2, 3
b) 2, 3, 4
c) 1, 4 www.aieeepage.com
d) none
32
 xe ax : x≤0
77. Let f ( x ) = 
 x + ax 2 − x 3 : x > 0
where a is positive constant. The interval in which f’(x) is increasing is (3 mark)
a) (−∞, ∞)
 −2 a 
b)  − ∞, a  ∪  3 , ∞ 
   
c) a > 5
d) −∞ < a < ∞
PAGE
(3 mark)
78. If F ( x) = f ( x) g ( x) and f ' (x)g' (x) = c, then
f g F " f " g " 2c

1) F ' = c  f ' + g '  2) F
=
f
+ +
g fg
 
F"' f"' g"

= +
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3) 4) none of these
F f g
a) 1, 2, 3
b) 1, 3, 4
c) 1, 2, 3, 4
d) none
 4 2 (3 mark)
79. Let R = {( x, y) : x, y ∈ R. x 2 + y 2 ≤ 25} and R' = ( x, y ) ; x, y ∈ R, y ≥ 9 x  then is
 
1) dom R ∩ R' = [−3, 3] 2) Range R ∩ R'⊃ [0, 4]

3) Range R ∩ R'= [0, 5] 4) R ∩ R' defines a function
PAGE
a) 1, 2, 3
b) 1, 3, 4
c) 1, 2, 3, 4
d) none www.aieeepage.com
33
80. Consider the parabola y 2 = 4ax and x 2 = 4by . The straight line b1/ 3 y + a1/ 3 x + a2/ 3 b2/ 3 = 0 , (3 mark)
1) touches y 2 = 4ax 2) Touches x 2 = 4by

3) Intersects both parabolas in real points 4) Touches first and intersects other
a) 1, 3
b) 1, 2
c) 1, 4
d) none
81.
a)
8
− sin α
3
π
6
PAGE
If θ1 and θ 2 be the angles which the lines (x2 + y2 ) (cos2 θ sin2α + sin2θ) = (x tanα-y sin θ)2 make with the
axis of x, and θ = , then tan θ1 + tan θ 2 is equal to
www.aieeepage.com
(3 mark)
8
b) − cos ec 2α
3
c) − 8 3 cos ec 2α
d) −4 cos ec 2α
82. The coordinates of the points A and B are respectively (-3, 2) and (2, 3). P and Q are points on the line
joining A and B such that AP = PQ = QB. A square PQRS is constructed on PQ as one side, the
coordinates of R can be (6 mark)
 4 7  13  1 8 2 
1)  − 3 , 3  2)  0, 3  3)  3 , 3  4)  3 , 1
       
PAGE
a) 2, 4
b) 1, 2
c) 1, 3
d) none
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34
83. If tan −1 y = 4 tan −1 x, then y is not finite if (3 mark)
1) x 2 = 3 + 2 2 2) x2 = 3 − 2 2
3) x 4 = 6 x 2 − 1 4) x 4 = 6x 2 + 1
a) 1, 2, 4
b) 1, 2
c) 1, 2, 3
d) none
PAGE
ex sin x 1
∆ = cos x log e (1 + x 2 ) 1 = a + bx + cx 2 (3 mark)
84. If then the value of b is
x x2 1
1) a = 0 2) a = 1 3) b = -1 4) b = -2
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a) 1, 2
b) 1, 3
c) 1, 4
d) none
85. If 10 ! = 2 p 3q 5r 7s , then (3 mark)
1) P = 7 2) q = 4 3) r = 2 4) s = 2
a) 2, 3
b) 1, 2
c) 1, 3
PAGE
d) 3, 4
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35
86. If x, y, z are positive numbers in AP., then (3 mark)
x+ y y+z
1) y 2 ≥ xz 2) xy + yz ≥ 2xz 3) + ≥4 4) None of these
2y − x 2y − z

a) 1, 2, 3
b) 1, 2, 4
c) 2, 3, 4
d) none
PAGE
2 9
= ( k −1) 7 , (3 mark)
87. If | k − 1 |log 3 k − 2 log k then which of the following is/are correct ?
π −1 π
1) 0 < sin −1 k + cos −1 (k − 1) < 2) 0 < tan k <
4 6
−1
3) 0 < cot k <
π
6 www.aieeepage.com
4)
π
4
< tan k <
π
2
−1
Which of the given statement(s) match the main question

a) 3, 4
b) 1, 2
c) 1, 3
d) none
88. If a complex number z is satisfying the relation | z - 8 - 6i | + | z - 14 - 6i| = 10, then maximum value
of arg (z) is (3 mark)
33 − 609
a) tan −1
48
33 + 609
b) tan −1
PAGE
48
−1 33
c) tan
48
d) none of these
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36
89. The sum of three consecutive terms in a G.P. is 14. If 1 is added to the first and the second term and 1
is subtracted from the third, the resulting new terms are in A.P. The the lowest of the original terms is
(3 mark)
a) 1
b) 2
c) 4
d) 8
90. In the expansion of (3− x / 4 + 35 x / 4 ) n , the sum of the binomial co-efficients is 64 and the term with the
greatest binomial co-effecient exceeds the thrid by (n, -1), then the value of x must be (3 mark)
PAGE
a) 1
b) 2
c) 0
d) -1
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91. If ‘head’ means one and ‘tail’ means two, then coefficient of quadratic equation ax 2 + bx + c = 0 are
chosen by tossing three fair coins. The probability that roots of the equations are imaginary is
(3 mark)
a) 5/8
b) 3/8
c) 7/8
d) 1/8
1/ 2 1/ 2
 a   a  x2
92. If x is very small in magnitude compared with a such that   +  = 2 + k. then the
a+ x a−x a2 '
value of k is (3 mark)
1
a)
4
PAGE
1
b)
2
3
c)
4
d) 1
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37
93. For any quadratic function px 2 + qx + r over [a, a+h], the value of c ∈ (a, a + h) in Lagrange’s Mean
(3 mark)
Value Theorem is
a) dependent on p, q, r
b) independent of p but depends upon q, r
c) independent of p, q but depends upon r
d) independent of p, q, r
a
dx
94. Let f(x) be a continuous function such that f(a - x) + f (x) = 0 for all x ∈ [0, a]. Then ∫ 1 + e f ( x ) is
PAGE
0
(3 mark)
equal to
a) a
a
b)
2
c) f (a)
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1
d) f (a)
2
dy
95. Solution of the differential equation = sin( x + y ) + cos( x + y ) is (3 mark)
dx
 x+ y
a) log 1 + tan 2  = y + c
 
 x+ y
b) log 2 + sec 2  = x + c
 
c) log 1 + tan( x + y ) = y + c
d) none of these
PAGE
r r rr r
96. The position vectors of the vertices A, B, C of a tetrahedron ABCD are i + j + k, i and 3i respectively,
the altitude from vertex D to the opposite face ABC at a point E, If length of the side AD is 4 and
2 2
volume of the tetrahdron is , then AE 2 is equal to (3 mark)
3
a) 6
b) 9
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c) 12
d) none of these
38
97. The value of the determinant (3 mark)
 x  y z
log a   log z   log a  
 y  z  x
 y z x
log b   log b   log b   is
 z  
x  y
z  x  y
log c   log c   log c  
x
  y
  z
a) 1
b) -16
PAGE
c) log z xyz
d) none of these

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A system of circles is said to be coaxal when every pair of the cirlces has the same radical axis. It
follows from this
definition that
1. The centres of all circles of a coaxal system lie in one straight line, which is perpendicular
to the common radical axis
2. Circles passing through two fixed points from a coaxal system with line joining the points
as common radical axis
3. The equation to coaxal system of which two members are S1 = 0 and S2 = 0, is S1 +λS2 = 0 , λ
is parameter. If we choose the line of centres as x-axis and the common radical axis as y-
axis, then the simplest form of equation of coaxal circles is
x 2 + y 2 + 2 gx + c = 0 ....(1)
where c is fixed and g is variable
If g = ± c , then the radius g 2 − c vanishes and the circles become point circles. The points (± c ,0)
PAGE
are called the limiting points of the system fo coaxal circles given by (1).
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39
98. If origin be a limiting point of a coaxal system one of whose member is x2 + y2 − 2αx- 2 βy + c = 0, then
the other limiting point is (3 mark)
 cα cβ 
a)  α 2 + β 2 ,− α 2 + β 2 
 
 cα cβ 
b)  α 2 + β 2 , α 2 + β 2 
 
 αβ cα 
c)  α 2 + β 2 , α 2 + β 2 
 
PAGE
 cβ cα 
d)  − α 2 + β 2 , α 2 + β 2 
 
99. The equation of the radical axis to the system of coaxal circles (3 mark)
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x 2 + y 2 + 2ax + 2by + c + 2λ(ax - by + 1) = 0 is
a) ax - by + 1 = 0
b) bx + ay - 1 = 0
c) 2(ax + by ) + 1 = 0
d) 2(bx - ay) + 1 = 0
100. The equation of the lines of centres of the system given in previous problem is (3 mark)
a) ax - by + 1 = 0
b) bx + ay + ab = 0
c) bx + ay + 2ab = 0
d) bx + ay + a 2 + b 2 = 0
PAGE
www.aieeepage.com
40
Paper - III : Chemistry - 101 to 150
Questions 101 to 104 are independent Questions

101. Which of the following is (are) true for the above nuclear stability graph? (3 mark)
160
140
120
Number of neutrons
100
80
60
40
20
PAGE
0 20 40 60 80 100 120
Number of protons
a) Isotopes that fall to the left or right of the stability curve have unstable nuclei and are referred to
as being radioactive.
b) All isotopes with atomic number higher than 83 are radioactive.
c) The curve indicates that the lighter, stabler nuclei tend to have equal numbers of protons and
neutrons. www.aieeepage.com
d) All of the above.
102. An aqueous solution of a substance gives a white ppt. on treatment with dilute hydrochloric acid
which dissolves on heating. When hydrogen sulfide is passed through the hot acidic solution, a black
ppt. is obtained. The substance is a (3 mark)
a) Hg2++salt
b) Cu++ salt
c) Ag+ salt
d) Pb++ salt
103. A sample of hydrazine sulphate ( N 2 H 6SO 4 ) was dissolved in 100 ml of water , 10 ml of this solution
was reacted with excess of ferric chloride solution and warmed to complete the reaction .Ferrous ion
formed was estimated and it required 20 ml .of M/50 potassium permanganate solution .Estimate the
(3 mark)
amount of hydrazine sulphate in one litre of the solution
PAGE
Reaction
4Fe3+ + N 2 H 4 → N 2 +4Fe 2+ +4H +

MnO-4 +5FE 2+ +8H + → MN 2 +5FE3+ 4H 2 O
a) 6. 5 g
b) .65 g www.aieeepage.com
c) 0.065 g
d) .0065 g
41
104. On treatment of [Ni(NH3)4]2+ with concentrated HCI , two compunds I and II having the same formula.
Ni(NH3)2Cl2 are obtained. I can be converted into II by boiling with dilute HCI. A solution of I reacts
with oxalic acid to form [Ni(NH3)2(C2O4) whereas II does not react. Point out the correct statement of
the following (3 mark)
a) I cis, II trans; both tetrahedral

b) I cis, II trans; both square planar
c) I trans, II cis; both tetrahedral
d) I trans, II cis; both squar planar
PAGE
Alcohols can be prepared by reacting alkyl halide with hydroxid ions. However, this reaction is not
always synthetically useful because of competing elimination reactions. This problem can be overcome
by choosing a less basic nucleophile. Figure 1 illustrates the formation of butanol through as S N 2
reaction of sodium ethanoate with 1-broobutane, followed by ester hydrolysis. Ester hydrolysis can
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benefit from the presence of an acid. The acid functions in two ways: First, it protonates the carbonyl
oxygen, activating eh carbonyl group to nucleophilic attack; second, it may protonate the leaving
group (in this case the alcohol), promoting its leaving group ability.
Step 1 : O
+ −
Na CH 3COO
Br O C CH 3
DMF
Step 2 : O
H 2 O,H +
O C CH 3 OH
Ester hydrolysis can also be promoted by strong bases. Base-promoted ester hydrolysis proceeds
through the nucleophilic addition of hydroxide to the carbonyl group followed by elimination. This
reaction is shown in Figure 2.
PAGE
Step 2 : (alternate) :
O
NaOH, H 2 O
O C CH 3 OH
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42
105. The IUPAC name for the ester formed in Step 1 is : (3 mark)
a) butyl ethanoate
b) ethyl butanoate
c) ethyl acetate
d) butane carboxylate
106. Acid-catalyzed ester hydrolysis leads to the formation of an alcohol. The other product (not shown) of
the reaction is : (3 mark)
a) ethanol
b) diethyl ether
PAGE
c) acetic acid
d) sodium acetate
107. DMF, the solvent used in Step 1, is the abbreviation for N, N-dimethylformamide. Its structure and
that of another related compound are shown below . (3 mark)
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O O
HCN(CH 3 ) 2 HCNH(CH 3 )
N,N-dimethylformamide N − dimethylformamide
If N-mthylformamide is used as the solvent instead of DMF, the rate of Step 1 will be :
a) somwhat increased.
b) significantly decreased
c) remain the same
d) Cannot be determined
108. Which of the following would be the most useful synthesis of an alcohol from a tertiary halide?
(3 mark)
+ -
Na CH3COO H+/H2O
a) Br DMF OH
PAGE
H2O/2
b)
Br OH
Mg H+/H2O
c)
Br OH
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NaOH
d) Br H2O OH
43
109. If the isotopically labeled ester shown below were subjected to base-promoted hydrolysis in aqueous
NaOH, the expercted product(s) would be (3 mark)
H3C O18
NaOH
H2O
PAGE
18
OH O
a) +
NaO CH3
OH O
b) + www.aieeepage.com
NaO CH3
18
OH 18
O O
c) + 18
NaO CH3 Na O CH3
OH 18
O O
d) + 18
NaO CH3 Na O CH3
Q. 110 to 145 are independent Questions

110. Which of the follwing statements is / are coreect ? (3 mark)
1) Anhydrous ferric chloride can be obtained by heating hydrated ferric chloride.
PAGE
2) A solution of ferric oxalate in dilute H2SO4 will decolorise KMnO4.
3) Ferric salts are more stable than ferrous salts.
4) The Mohr’s salt is resistant to oxidation by atmospheric oxygen.
a) 1 , 2 , 4
b) 1 , 3 , 4 www.aieeepage.com
c) 1 , 2
d) 2 , 3 , 4
44
111. According to Bhor’s theory , the electronic energy of hydrogen atom in the Bhor’s orbit is given by
- 21.76 × 10-19
En = J Calculate the longest wavelength of light that will be needed to remove an
n2
electron from the third Bhor orbit of the He + ion. (3 mark)
a) 2055Å
b) 1855Å
c) 2055 ×10−20 m
d) 1855 ×10−20 m
PAGE
112. Match the following mixtures with the respective solution used for their separation : (3 mark)
a) N2 & CO (i) Water

b) N2 & O2 (ii) H2So4
c) N2 & NH3 (iii) Ammonical Cuprous chloride
d) PH3 & NH3 www.aieeepage.com
(iv) Pyrogallol
a) A - iv, B - iii, C - II, D - i
b) A - iii, B - iv, C - ii, D - i
c) A - iii, B - iv, C - i, D - ii
d) A - iii, B - ii, C - iv, D - i
(3 mark)
113. Which of the following electropilic aromatic substitution (s) is (are) correct?
SO3H X
(1) (3)
H2SO4 X2
X=C1,Br
FeX 3
O R
C O NO2
(2) (4)
HNO3
PAGE
RC-C1
A1 C1 3
a) (1) and (3) only

b) (2) and (4) only
c) (1) , (2) and (3) only
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d) All of the aboive. (1) , (2), (3) and (4)
45
114. The dipole moment of KCl is 3.336 × 10-29 Coulomb meters which indicates that it is a highly polar
molecule . The interatomic distance between K + and Cl- in this molecule is 2.6 × 10-10 m . Calculate
the dipole moment of KCl molecule if there were opposite charges of one fundamental unit located at
each nucleus .Calculate the percentage ionic character of KCl . (3 mark)
a) 80.09%
b) 80.08%
c) 80.07%
d) 80.06 %
PAGE
115. The solubility of hydroxides, fluorides or oxalates of the metals of Group II A (3 mark)
a) increases down the group

b) decreases down the group
c) varies randomly
d) is constant
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116. Of the following elements, which possesses the highest electron affinity ? (3 mark)
a) As
b) O
c) S
d) Se
117. At room temperature ,ammonia gas at 1 atm pressure and hydrogen chloride gas at P atm pressure are
allowed to effuse through identical pin holes from opposite ends of a glass tube of one metre length
and of uniform cross -section . Ammonium chloride is first formed at a distance of 60 cm from the end
through which HCl gas is sent in . What is the value of P ? (3 mark)
a) 2.197 atm
b) 1.023 atm
PAGE
c) 0.976 atm
d) 0.454 atm
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46
118. Match the following : (3 mark)
1) Smelting i) Copper Glance

2) Self reduction ii) Malachite
3) Electrolytic reduction iii) Haematite
4) Hydrometallurgy iv) Bauxite
a) (1) - (iii), (2) - (i), (3) 0 (iv), (4) - (ii)
b) (1) - (ii), (2) - (i), (3) - (iii), (4) - (iv)
c) (1) - (iii), (2) - (i), (3) - (ii), (4) - (iv)
d) (1) - (iii), (2) - (iv), (3) - (ii), (4) - (i)
PAGE
119. Positive beilistein test for halogens shows that (3 mark)
a) a halogen is definitely present

b) a halogen may be present
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c) a halogen is absent
d) none of these.
120. At a certain temperature equilibrium constant ( Kc ) is 16 for the reaction (3 mark)
SO 2 (g) + NO 2 (g) SO3 (g) + NO(g)
If we take one mole each of all the four gases in a one litre container ,what whould be the equilibrium
concentrations of NO (g ) and NO 2 (g) ?
a) 1.6 moles , 0.4 moles

b) 0.2 moles , 0.8 moles
c) 1.4 moles , 1.6 moles
d) 0.8 moles , 0.2 moles
O
H 2SO 4 (3 mark)
121. Following reaction is an example of R − C − OH + HN 3  → R − NH 2
PAGE
a) Hofmann reaction
b) Curtius reaction
c) Schmidt reaction
d) Lossen reaction
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47
122. When a hydrophilic sol like gelatin is subjected to electric field, the sol particles move (3 mark)
a) towards cathode at pH less than the iso-electric point

b) towards anode at pH greater than the iso-electric point
c) in both directions at iso-electric pH
d) in neither direction at iso-electric pH
123. The standard molar enthalpies of formation of cycloheane ( l ) and benzene ( l ) at 25°C are -156 and
+49 kJ mol-1 respectively . The standrd enthalpy of hydrogenation of cyclohexene ( l ) at 25°C is
- 119 kJ mol-1 . Use these data to estimate the magnitude of the resonance energy of benzene (3 mark)
PAGE
a) - 152 kJ mol-1
b) - 148 kJ mol-1
c) - 205 kJ mol-1
d) - 357 kJ mol-1
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124. In a Born-Haber cycle, the total energy involved in the preceding hypothetical preparation of NaCI is
equal to the experiment tally determined heat of formation (Q) of the compound from its elements.
Which of the following thermochemical values is not used to calculate the total energy of formation of
NaCI? (3 mark)
1) Heat of fusion and vaporization (S)

2) Dissociation energy of molecular chlorine (D)
3) Ionization energy of sodium atom (I)
4) Electron affinity of chlorine atom (E)
5) Lattice energy of NaCI (U)
a) (1) and (2)

b) (2), (3) and (5)
PAGE
c) (1), (2), (3) and (4)
d) All of the above
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48
125. A monobasic acid is dissociated in o.1 M solution. When 200ml of the acid solution is neutralized by
0.1 M NaOH, heat evolved is 244 cal. If the heat of neutralization of a strong acid with a strong base
is - 13. 7 kcal, the molar heat of dissociation of the acid is (3 mark)
a) 2.20 k cal mol-1

b) 1.50 k cal mol -1
c) -1.50 k cal mol -1
d) 2.0 k cal mol -1
126. The molar volume of liquid benzene ( ( density = 0.877 g mL -1 ) increase by a factor of 2750 as it
PAGE
vaporises at 20°C and that of liquid toluene ( density = 0.867 g mL -1 ) increase by a factor of 7720 at
20°C . A solution of benzene and toluene at 20°C has a vapour pressure of 46.0 Torr . Find the mole
fraction of benzene in the vapour above the solution (6 mark)
a) 0. 27
b) 0.46
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c) 0.73
d) none of these
127. Select the rate law that conforms to the following data for the reaction : A+B Products → Products
Exp No. [A] (mol L-1) [B](mol L-1) Initital rate(mol L-1s-1) (3 mark)
1 0.0012 0.0035 1 x 10-4

2. 0.024 0.070 8 x 10-3
3. 0.024 0.035 1x10-3
4. 0.012 0.070 8 x 10-3
d [ A]
a) − = k[ A][ B]2
PAGE
dt
d [ A]
b) − = k[ A]2 [ B]
dt
d [ A]
c) − = k[ A][ B]3
dt
d [ A]
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d) − = k[ B]3
dt
49
128. At certain temperature, a compund AB2 dissociates as : 2AB2(g) → 2AB(g) + B2(g) with a degree of
dissociation α , which is very small compared to unity. The expression of Kp in terms of α and total
pressure p is (6 mark)
α2P
a)
2
α2P
b)
3
α 3P
c)
3
PAGE
α 3P
d)
2
234 206
129. TH90 disintegrates to give Pb82 as the final product .How many alpha and beta particals are emitted
during this process ?
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(3 mark)
a) 14 , 12
b) 12 , 14
c) 7 , 6
d) 6 , 7
130. The enthalpies associated with the reaction A + B + C → D + E + F is shown above. The fact that the
enthalpy of D + E + F is higher than that of A + B + C tells us that (3 mark)
Activated
complex
D+E+F
Enthalpy
A+B+C
Reaction coordinate
PAGE
a) the reaction is exothermic
b) the reaction is endothermic
c) the activation energy required for the reverse reaction is higher than for the forward reaction
d) a catalyst for the reaction is unnecessary
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50
131. Pick up the correct statement(s) (3 mark)
(i) A reaction catalyzed by an enzyme always gives an optically active product

(ii) When an achiral molecule is conveted to a chiral molecule, the product is always racemic
(iii) Racemization of an enantiomer can only occur by breaking of at least one bond to the chiral
center
(iv) Conversion of an erythro to threo stereioisomer always occurs by inversion at one chiral carbon
(v) A D enantiomer rottes the plane of polarized light to the right and an L enantiomer to the left
a) (i), (ii), (iii) and (v)
b) (iii) and (iv)
PAGE
c) (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv)
d) all of these
132. The density of mercury is 13.6 g / ml . Calculate approximately the diameter of an atom mercury
assuming that each atom is occupying a cube of edge length equal to the diameter of the mercury atom ?
a) 2.44× 10-23
b) 24.4 ×10-23 cc
c) 2.905×10-9cm
d) 2.91 Å cm
133. The increasing order of Ag+ ion concentration in (3 mark)
I. Saturated solution of AgCl II. Saturated solution of Agl

III. l M Ag(NH3) +2 in 0.1 MNH3 IV. l M Ag (CN) −2 in 0.1 MKCN
Given
K sp of AgCl = 1.0 × 10 −10 K sp of Agl = 1.0 × 10 −16
PAGE
K d of Ag ( NH 3 ) 2+ = 1.0 × 10 −8 K d of Ag (CN ) −2 = 1.0 × 10 −21
a) I < II < III < IV

b) IV < III < II < I
c) IV < II < III < I
d) IV < II < I < III
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51
134. During the discharge of a lead storage battery the density of sulphuric acid fell from 1.294 to
1.139 g / ml .Sulphuric acid of density 1.294 g/ml is 39% by weight and that of 1.139 g /ml is 20%
H 2SO 4 by weight .The battery holds 3.5 litres of the acid and the volume remained practically constant
during the discharge .
Calculate the number of ampere- hours for which the battery must have been used .The charging and
discharging reactions are Pb + SO 2-4 = PbSO 4 +2e - (charging) (6 mark)
PbO 2 +4H + + SO 42- + 2e − = PbSO 4 +2H 2 O(discharging)
a) 265.02
b) 265.01
PAGE
c) 265.04
d) 265.03
135 Which of th e following cells give the cell potentials to be their standard values ? (3 mark)
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1) Zn( s ) | Zn(2aq+ ) (0.01M ) || H 3O(+aq ) (0.1M ) | H 2( g ) (1atm) , pt
2+ +
2) Cu (s) |Cu (aq) (0.25M) || Ag (aq) (0.5M) |
2+
3) Cd (s) | Cd(aq) (0.01M) || pH = 1| H 2(g) (1 atm) , Pt
2+
4) Zn (s) | Zn (aq) (0.1M) || pH = 1| H 2(g) (1 atm) , Pt
Which of the above statement(s) are correct
a) 1, 2, 4
b) 1,2,3
c) 2, 3, 4
d) None
(3 mark)
136. O.5 g sample of oxalate salt required 30 ml of 0.05 M KMnO 4 in acidic medium for complete
PAGE
oxidation . The precent of oxalate ion in the sampl is
a) 33 %
b) 50%
c) 66%
d)13.2%
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52
137 A metal complex having composition Cr(NH 3 ) 4 Cl2 Br has been isolated in two forms ( A ) and ( B ) . The
form (A) reacts with AgNO3 to give a white precipitate readily soluble in dilute aqueous ammonia (3 mark)
,whereas ( B ) gives a pale yellow precipitate soluble in concentrated ammonia .Calculate their magnetic
moments ( spin - only value )
a) 3.87 BM
b) 3.86 BM
c) 3.85 BM
d) 3.84 BM
(6 mark)
PAGE
138 Predict the possible number of alkenes and the main alkene in the following reaction .
(i) excess CH 1 heat

   
3
→ [ ] 
→ Product
(ii) Ag2O
NHCH2CH3
a) 2 and
b) 2 and
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c) 3 and H 2 C = CH 2
d) 2 and H 2 C = CH 2
(3 mark)
139. A solid dissolves in water exothermically .If its sturated solution at 20°Cis cooled to 0°C,then
a) some solid seperates out
b) some ice separates out
c) both the solid and ice separate
d) neither the solid nor the ice separates out
0 0 (3 mark)
140. The radius ratio of Cs + to Cl- is is 0.90 A .If the radius of Cl- ion is 1.80 A ,the false statement regarding
PAGE
the CsClstructure is
0
a) the distance between the centres of Cl- ion is greater than 3.60 A
0
b) the distance between the centres of two Cl- ion is 3.60 A
0
c) the distance between Cs + ion and Cl- is 3.24 A
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53
0
d) the distance between two Cs + ions is greater than 3.24 A
(3 mark)
141. The correct order for the basic character of the compounds I to IV should be
N
N H
CH 3CN
I II
PAGE
a) IV < III < I < II
b) IV < I < III < II
c) IV < II < III < I
d) IV < III < II < I
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CH 3 CH 3 Br (3 mark)
| | |
142. CH3CH 2 CHCH 2CH=CH 2 HBr → CH3CH 2 CHCH 2 CHCH3
(R) - 4 - Methyl - 1 - hexene X
a) A mixture of two enantiomers in 50 : 50 ratio

b) A mixture of two enantiomers in non - 50 : 50 ratio
c) A mixture of two diastereomers in 50 : 50 ratio
d) A mixture of two diastereomers in non - 50 : 50 ratio
(3 mark)
143. Which of the following ions does not involve pπ - dπ bonding ?
a) SO32-
PAGE
b) PO3-4
c) NO3-
d) XeOF4
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54
Cl
Cl
144. Predict the product ,if any for the following reaction aq.OH -

→ (3 mark)
Cl
OH
CI
a)
PAGE
CI
CI
OH
b)
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CI
CI
CI
c)
OH
d) No reaction
145. Photoelectric work function of a metal is 1 e V .If a light of wavelength 300 Å falls on the metal ,the
velocity of the photoelectron ejected will be (3 mark)
PAGE
a) 10ms -1
b) 103 ms -1
c) 10 4 ms -1
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d) 10 6 ms -1
55
Permanent hair dye products may be divided into two classes: progressive and oxidation hair dyes.
Oxidation hair dyes involve organic chemistry, but progressive hair dyes can be analyzed from a
general chemistry perspective. The active ingredient in progressive hair dye products can be either
lead acetate or bismuth citrate. Both of these chemicals react with the sulfur in hair keratin to change
hair from a light color to near black. These reactions are shown in Equations 1 and 2
Pb(CH 3COO) 2 (aq) + S2 − aq) → Pb(s) + 2CH 3COO − (aq) (Equation -1)
2Bi(HOC(CH 2CO 2 H) 2 + 3S2 - (aq) → Bi 2S3 (s) + 3 HOC(CH 2 ) (Equation -2)
PAGE
Many commercial hair dye products also contain detergents, molecules that sequester hard metal
ions such as calcium and magnesium
146. Equation 1 is best characterized as (3 mark)
a) a Lewis acid-base reaction, because the electron pair on the sulfur ion attacks the positively
charged lead ion.
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b) an Arrhenius acid-base reaction, because the electron pair on the sulfur ion attacks the positively
charged lead ion.
c) an oxidation - reduction reaction, because the sulfur changes oxidation state from - 2 to +2
d) a neutralization reaction, because the acetate ion will be converted to acetic acid in the aqueous
solution used to apply the hair dye.
147. Why might calcium and magnesium ions interfere with progressive hair dyes? (3 mark)
a) Hard metal ions react with acetate and citrate ions, making them unavailable for dyeing.
b) Hard metal ions react with sulfide in the hair, making it unavailable for dyeing
c) the presence of additional ions in solution decreases the effectiveness of the dye because it
reduces the number of collisions between dyeing agents and sulfide ions
d) Calcium and magnesium precipitate in elemental form to leave a whitish residue
PAGE
(3 mark)
148. Why does bismuth adopt a + 3 oxidation state instead of a+5 oxidation state?
a) Bismuth is transition metal, so it can adopt either state, but losing more electrons brings it closer
to a noble gas configuration
b) Bismuth is a metalloid, so it prefers to keep some of its valence electrons in order to maintain a
stable half-full subshell
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c) Bismuth loses all of its valence p electrons, but these electrons are in a much lower energy state,
so the ion is more stable without losing them
d) Bismuth can a dopt the noble gas configuration of radon by gaining three electrons
56
149. What will be the effect of adding sodium acetate to the aqueous hair dye solution in Equation 1 ?
(3 mark)
a) Decreased dye effectiveness, because the equilibrium will be shifted to the right
b) Increased dye effectiveness, because the equilibrium will be shifted to the right
c) Increased dye effectiveness, because the equilibrium will be shifted to the left.
d) Decreasd dye effectiveness, because the equilibrium will be shifted to the left
150. What is the equilibrium expression for Equation2? (3 mark)
[HOC(CH 2 CO 2 H) 2 CO 2 − ]3
a) Bi(HOC(CH CO H) CO ) ]2 [S2- ]3
2 2 2 2 3
PAGE
3[HOC(CH 2 CO 2 H) 2 CO 2 − ]
b) 2[Bi (HOC(CH CO H ) CO ) ] 3 [S2- ]
2 2 2 2 3
[Bi 2 S3 ] [HOC(CH 2 CO 2 H ) 2 CO 2 − ]3
c) [Bi (HOC(CH CO H ) CO ) ]2 [S 2- ]3
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2 2 2 2 3
[HOC(CH 2 CO 2 H) 2 CO 2 − ]
d) [Bi (HOC (CH CO H ) CO ) ] [S 2- ]
2 2 2 2 3
PAGE
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57

Ai Iitjee Modeltest 01

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IIT-JEE

1. Download the test

Questions 1 - 5 are based on the following passage

a) Using a spring with a smaller spring constant in the toast tray.

1) a current of 0.9A flows through 2Ω resistor when steady state is reached

a) The net change in internal energy of the gas is zero

1) the work function of A is 2.25 eV 2) the work function of B is 4.20 eV

a) 1.57 ms-1 b) 3.12 ms-1

1) all electric appliances drwing power are joined in parallel

27. Which of the following statements are correct? (3 mark)

1) A mirror cannot give rise to chromatic aberration

1) rate of increase of charge is same in both the capacitors

1) their brightness will be the same

1) 50 watt infrared lamp 2) 1 watt infrared lamp

Figure 1 Compound pulley

In this system, the theoretical mechanical advantage is 2.

Questions 51 to 52 are based on the following passage

a) q10 (1 + 10pq + 45p2 q 2 )

c) q12 + 3pq13 + 3p13q + p12

d) 1 −10 C1 pq11 −10 C 2 p 2 q12

Questions 53 to 97 are independent questions

Which of the above statement(s) are correct ?

Which of the above statement(s) match with the main statements.

386 386 386

Which of the above statement(s) match with the main statements.

59. If θ is the angle subtended by the circle S ≡ x 2 + y 2 + 2 gx + 2 fy + c = 0 at the point P( x1 , y1 ) and

Which of the above statement(s) match with the main statements.

61. In a triangle A B C (6 mark)

3) sin A sin B sin C is always positive 4) sin 2 A + sin 2 B = 1 + cos C

1) P(Z ≤ m) = (1 − q m ) 2 2) P(Z = m) = 2pq m −1 - p(1 + q)q 2m-2

1) (101)100 > (100)101 2) (26)25 < (25) 26

3) (300)299 < (299) 300 4) (199)198 = (198)199

1) do not exist 2) exist and have equal modulus

65. Consider the quadratic equation x 2 − 2 px + p 2 − 1 = 0 where p is parameter, then (6 mark)

1) Both are roots of the equation are less than 4 if p ∈ (−∞, 3)

a) Ist and IIIrd quadrant

Which of the above statement(s) are correct ?

Which of the above statement(s) are correct ?

where a is positive constant. The interval in which f’(x) is increasing is (3 mark)

f g F " f " g " 2c

F"' f"' g"

1) dom R ∩ R' = [−3, 3] 2) Range R ∩ R'⊃ [0, 4]

1) touches y 2 = 4ax 2) Touches x 2 = 4by

axis of x, and θ = , then tan θ1 + tan θ 2 is equal to

Which of the above statement(s) match with the main statements.

85. If 10 ! = 2 p 3q 5r 7s , then (3 mark)

Which of the above statement(s) match with the main statements.

Which of the given statement(s) match the main question

Questions 98 to 100 are based on the following passage

Questions 101 to 104 are independent Questions

4Fe3+ + N 2 H 4 → N 2 +4Fe 2+ +4H +

a) I cis, II trans; both tetrahedral

Q. 110 to 145 are independent Questions

1) Anhydrous ferric chloride can be obtained by heating hydrated ferric chloride.

a) N2 & CO (i) Water

a) (1) and (3) only

a) increases down the group

1) Smelting i) Copper Glance

a) a halogen is definitely present

120. At a certain temperature equilibrium constant ( Kc ) is 16 for the reaction (3 mark)

SO 2 (g) + NO 2 (g) SO3 (g) + NO(g)

a) 1.6 moles , 0.4 moles

a) towards cathode at pH less than the iso-electric point