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1 When connectionless protocols are implemented at the lower layers of the OSI model, what is usually used to acknowledge

that the data was received and to request the retransmission of missing data? a. IP b. UDP c. Ethernet d. a connectionless acknowledgement e. an upper-layer, connection-oriented protocol or service 2

Refer to the exhibit. Each media link is labeled. What type of cable should be used to connect the different devices? a. Connection 1 - rollover cable Connection 2 - straight-through cable Connection 3 - crossover cable b. Connection 1 - crossover cable Connection 2 - rollover cable Connection 3 - crossover cable c. Connection 1 - straight-through cable Connection 2 - crossover cable Connection 3 - crossover cable d. Connection 1 - straight-through cable Connection 2 - crossover cable Connection 3 - straight-through cable 3 Which OSI layer does IP rely on to determine whether packets have been lost and to request retransmission? a. application b. presentation c. session d. transport 4 What is true regarding network layer addressing? (Choose three.) a. uses a flat structure b. prevent broadcasts c. heirarchical d. uniquely identifies each host e. 48 bits in length

f. contains a network portion

5 A PC can not connect to any remote websites, ping its default gateway, or ping a printer that is functioning properly on the local network segment. Which action will verify that the TCP/IP stack is functioning correctly on this PC? a. Use the ipconfig /all command at the hosts command prompt. b. Use the ping command at the command prompt. c. Use the traceroute command at the command prompt to identify any failures on the path to the gateway. d. Use FTP to check for connectivity to remote sites. e. Download a troubleshooting tool from the PC manufacturer's website. 6 Which type of media is immune to EMI and RFI? (Choose two.) a. 10 Base-T b. 10 Base-2 c. 10 Base-5 d. 100 Base-FX e. 100 Base TX f. 1000 Base LX 7

Refer to the exhibit. The command that is shown was issued on a PC. What does the IP address represent? a. IP address of the host b. default gateway of the host c. IP address of the homepage for the host d. primary domain name server for the host e. IP address of the website resolver1.mooki.local

Refer to the exhibit. The diagram represents the process of sending email between clients. Select the list below that correctly identifies the component or protocol used at each numbered stage of the diagram. a. 1.MUA 2.MDA 3.MTA 4.SMTP 5.MTA 6.POP 7.MDA 8.MUA b. 1.MUA 2.POP 3.MDA 4.SMTP 5.MTA 6.MDA 7.SMTP 8.MUA c. 1.MUA 2.POP 3.SMTP 4.MDA 5.MTA 6.SMTP 7.POP 8.MUA d. 1.MDA 2.SMTP 3.MTA 4.SMTP 5.MTA 6.MUA 7.POP 8.MDA e. 1.MUA 2.SMTP 3.MTA 4.SMTP 5.MTA 6.MDA 7.POP 8.MUA 9 Which three statements characterize the transport layer protocols? (Choose three.) a. TCP and UDP port numbers are used by application layer protocols. b. TCP uses port numbers to provide reliable transportation of IP packets. c. UDP uses windowing and acknowledgments for reliable transfer of data. d. TCP uses windowing and sequencing to provide reliable transfer of data. e. TCP is a connection-oriented protocol. UDP is a connectionless protocol. 10 Which OSI layers offers reliable, connection -oriented data communication services? a. application b. presentation c. session d. transport e. network


Examine the graphic with current configurations. Host A in the Clerical office failed and was replaced. Although ping to was successful, the replacement computer cannot access the company network. With proxy ARP disabled on the Fa0/0 interface of the New York router, what is the likely cause of the problem? 12 a. network card failure b. network cables unplugged c. IP address incorrectly entered d. subnet mask incorrectly entered

Refer to the exhibit. A network technician is trying to determine the correct IP address configuration for Host What is a valid configuration for Host A? a. IP address:; Subnet Mask:; Default Gateway: b. IP address:; Subnet Mask:; Default Gateway: c. IP address:; Subnet Mask:; Default Gateway: d. IP address:; Subnet Mask:; Default Gateway: e. IP address:; Subnet Mask:; Default Gateway: f. IP address:; Subnet Mask:; Default Gateway:

13 As network administrator, what is the subnet mask that allows 510 hosts given the IP address a. b. c. d. e. f. 14 What are three characteristics of CSMA/CD? (Choose three.) a. Devices can be configured with a higher transmission priority. b. A jam signal indicates that the collision has cleared and the media is not busy. c. A device listens and waits until the media is not busy before transmitting. d. The device with the electronic token is the only one that can transmit after a collision. e. All of the devices on a segment see data that passes on the network medium. f. After detecting a collision, hosts can attempt to resume transmission after a random time delay has expired. 15 Which of the following are the address ranges of the private IP addresses? (Choose three.) a. to b. to c. to d. to e. to f. to 16 Which combination of network id and subnet mask correctly identifies all IP addresses from through a. b. c. d. e.

17 Which password is automatically encrypted when it is created? a. vty b. aux c. console d. enable secret e. enable password 18 Due to a security violation, the router passwords must be changed. What information can be learned from the following configuration entries? (Choose two.) Router(config)# line vty 0 3 Router(config-line)# password c13c0 Router(config-line)# login

a. The entries specify three Telnet lines for remote access. b. The entries specify four Telnet lines for remote access. c. The entries set the console and Telnet password to "c13c0". d. Telnet access will be denied because the Telnet configuration is incomplete. e. Access will be permitted for Telnet using "c13c0" as the password. 19 When must a router serial interface be configured with the clock rate command? a. when the interface is functioning as a DTE device b. when the interface timers have been cleared c. when the connected DTE device is shut down d. when the interface is functioning as a DCE device 20 Which two functions of the OSI model occur at layer two? (Choose two.) a. physical addressing b. encoding c. routing d. cabling e. media access control 21 A routing issue has occurred in you internetwork. Which of the following type of devices should be examined to isolate this error? a. access point b. host c. hub d. router

e. switch 22

Refer to the exhibit. With the router running NAT, what IP addresses can be applied to the computer to allow access to the Internet? (Choose three.) 23 a. b. c. d. e. f.

Refer to the exhibit. What two facts can be determined from the information that is given? (Choose two.) a. This exchange is part of the three -way handshake. b. The source port indicates that a Telnet session has been initiated. c. The data is flowing from server to client. d. The destination port indicates that an HTTP session has been initiated. e. The data listed is associated with the transport layer. f. The source port does not support communication with the destination port that is listed.


Refer to the exhibit. Host A attempts to establish a TCP/IP session with host C. During this attempt, a frame was captured with the source MAC address 0050.7320.D632 and the destination MAC address 0030.8517.44C4. The packet inside the captured frame has an IP source address, and the destination IP address is At which point in the network was this packet captured? 25 a. leaving host A b. leaving ATL c. leaving Dallas d. leaving NYC

Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator remotely accesses the CLI of RouterB from PC1 using Telnet. Which statement is true about this connection? a. The data is automatically encrypted. b. A Telnet server process is running on PC1. c. The connection is made through a VTY session on the router.

d. A GET request was sent to RouterB to retrieve data during this session. 26 You are setting up a VLAN in your company. You only have one VLAN. Do you require VLAN Trunking Protocol? a. Yes b. No 27 What is required for full-duplex Ethernet


a. A point-to-point connection between only two nodes b. A dedicated switch port for each node c. A full-duplex compatible NIC and switch port d. All of the above

Layer 2 devices such as switches break up broadcast domains 30 The NAT terminology "outside local" refers to... 31 Protocol Data Units of Layer 4 are called? a. Packets b. Bits c. Segments d. Packets a. Name of inside source address before translation b. Name of destination host before translation c. Name of inside host after translation d. Name of outside destination host after translation a. True b. False 29 What is the structure of the MAC address? a. 32 bit network ID + 32 bit host ID b. 14 bit vendor code + 6 bit serial number c. 24 bit vendor code + 24 bit serial number d. Network + Host

32 What happens if a packet does not match any of the ACL statements? a. Nothing b. It is rejected c. It is allowed 33 In a network segment only one device can communicate at a time


a. True b. False 34 PPP can be used with...? a. Synchronous serial links b. Asynchronous serial links c. Both synchronous and asynchronous links

According to the EIA/TIA, what is the standard type of connector for Ethernet media? 36 What is the dotted decimal format of the loop back address? a. b. c. d. 37 What command would you use to erase the startup config of a router? a. erase nvram b. erase flash c. delete startup d. erase startup a. RJ-11 b. RJ-45 c. AUI d. X.35 e. BNC

e. delete run 38 What keyword should you use to tell the router not to discard a static route even if it is not routable? a. copy run start b. permanent c. Router saves every route. d. auto e. ip route 39 What protocol range would you use for extended IPX in ACLs? a. 1-99 b. 100-199 c. 800-899 d. 900-999 40 What does the Spanning Tree Protocol achieve? a. Determines a loop free topology b. Sets up a meshed switched topology c. Creates bridge loops and broadcast storms d. Disseminates VLAN topology 41 What does R represent in conjunction with ISDN reference points?

a. References points between non-ISDN device and TA b. References points that connect into NT2 (Inbound) c. References Outbound connections from NT2 into ISDN network or NT1 d. References connection between NT1 and ISDN network (North America only) 42 What IOS command displays the IP routing table? a. show route\r\n\r\n b. show ip route c. show ip table route d. show ipx route 43

What command would you use to copy an existing IOS file from a TFTP server to your router? a. copy flash tftp b. copy ios tftp c. install tftp flash d. copy tftp flash 44 Is Novell IPX RIP compatible with IP RIP? a. Yes b. No 45 By default all Cisco routers are... a. DTE devices b. DCE devices 46 The purpose of Hold down is to hold a route in the routing table until it comes back up? a. True b. False 47 By default is CDP enabled or disabled on compatible devices? 48 What is the maximum length of a fiber-optic cable on a 802.3 10Base-FL network? a. 100 m b. 300 m c. 150 m d. 2000 m e. 1500 m 49 What IP address will test the internal loopback of a node? a. b. c. a. Enabled b. Disabled


d. e.

Which protocol is used to determine the IP address if the MAC address is already known? 51 IP and IPv6 and IPX are examples of... 52 What network medium is not susceptible to electromagnetic interference whatsoever? 53 What does the trace response U mean? 54 You need to connect a switch to another switch/hub. What type of Ethernet cable should you use? 55 a. Straight-through cable b. Crossover cable c. Rolled cable a. Network unreachable b. Not forwarded due to ACL restriction c. Protocol unreachable d. Port could not be reached a. fiber-optic cable b. copper twisted-pair c. UTP a. Routing protocols b. Routed protocols a. ARP b. RARP c. IP d. IPX e. TCP

What classless proprietary Cisco routing protocol supports routing protocols like IP, IPX, AppleTalk and IPv6 by maintaining separate routing tables? 56 You need to connect your PC directly to a router. What type of Ethernet cable should you use? 57 Where would you place extended access lists? 58 What IOS command would you issue in privileged-mode to change the router configuration stored on TFTP? a. config t b. config mem c. config net d. config tftp 59 Which switching mode has the highest degree of error checking? a. Fragment-Free b. Fast-Forward c. Cut-Through d. Store-and-Forward e. FIFO 60 What does the ping response C mean? a. unreachable a. As close to the destination as possible b. As close to the source as possible a. Straight-through cable b. Crossover cable c. Rolled cable a. IGRP b. RIP c. EIGRP d. OSPF


b. congestion c. user interrupt d. unknown packet type e. lifetime exceeded

What is responsible for ensuring a router is functional and the interfaces are present on booting? 62 Given the following status message, determine the most likely cause. Router#show interface s0/0/0 Serial0/0 is down, line protocol is down a. Clock rate is not set or keepalives don't match b. Cable or interface problem c. The interface is shutdown 63 Store and forward switching method is best described by which of the following? a. The entire frame is received before forwarding is commenced b. Forwards frame after receiving destination address c. Filters out collision packets by waiting for the first 64 bytes of data 64 Protocol Data Units of the Network layer are called? 65 What Cisco IOS enhanced editing command end the configuration mode and returns to EXEC? a. Ctrl+Z b. Ctrl+W a. Frames b. Bits c. Segments d. Packets a. Bootstrap b. POST c. ROM monitor d. NVRAM e. Configuration register


c. Ctrl+F d. Esc+F e. Tab

A CIDR value of /30 equates to what subnet mask? 67 When you connect to a remote router "out-of-band", via what port would you connect with? 68 Which layer of the Cisco Hierarchical model controls workgroup and user access to the internetwork? 69 What is used to identify Application layer services? 70 What WLAN standard operates in the 2.4GHz band with a data rate of up to 54Mbps? a. 802.11a b. 802.11b a. Encryption b. Well-known ports c. CRC d. Protocol Data Units a. Core layer b. Distribution layer c. Access layer a. Console port b. Auxiliary port c. Ethernet port d. Serial port a. b. c. d.


c. 802.11g d. 802.11h e. 802.11n

The Transport layer is... 72 What is the Protocol Data Unit (PDU) of the Data Link layer called? 73 Which of the following commands would correctly add a message of the day banner? 74 A connection that uses a three-way handshake is considered a... a. Connection-oriented connection b. Connectionless connection 75 Connecting multiple nodes to a switch port using a hub is...? a. Not possible b. Not supported by all switches c. Not recommended a. Router (config)#banner # b. Router(config)#banner motd # c. Router#banner motd # d. Router#banner # a. Bits b. Segment c. Packet d. Frame a. Connectionless b. Connection-oriented c. Both