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AIIMS NOVEMBER 2010

ANATOMY

1. Which of the following attains adult size before birth:

a) Ear ossicles

b) Maxilla

c) Mastoid

d) Parietal bone

2. The following is true about scalenus anterior muscle:

a) It is attached to the tubercle of second rib

b) It is anterior to the transverse cervical artery

c) It is pierced by the phrenic nerve

d) It separates the subclavian vein from the subclavian artery

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3. All are derivati ves of septum transversum except:

a) Falciform ligament

b) Ligamentum teres

c) Coronary ligament

d) Mesentary of Lesser sac

4. The caecum is found to be placed below the stomach and in the midline. Which of the following abnormality must have taken place while rotation of the gut:

a) Mal rotation

b) Non rotation

c) Reverse rotation

d) Mixed rotation

5. All of the following are supplied by superior gluteal nerve except:

a) Gluteus maximus

b) Gluteus minimus

c) Gluteus medius

d) Tensor fascia lata

6. Which of the following is not a sphincter in the female urogenital tract:

a) Pubovaginalis

b) External urethral sphincter

c) Internal urethral sphincter

d) Bubospongiosus

7. All of them develop in the mesentery of stomach except

a) Liver

b) Spleen

c) Kidney

d) Pancreas

8. A person is able to abduct his arm, internally rotate it, place the back of hand on the lumbosacral joint, but is not able to lift it from back. What is the etiology:

a) Subscapularis tendon tear

b) Teres major tendon tear

c) Long head of biceps tendon tear

d) Acromioclavicular jt. dislocation

9. Tensor tympani is supplied by:

a) Trigeminal n

b) Facial n

c) Glassopharyngeal n

d) Vagus

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AIIMS NOVEMBER 2010

10. Caisson's disease is:

a) Gas embolism

b) Fat embolism

c) Amniotic fluid embolism

d) Tumor embolism

PHYSIOLOGY

11. Cyanosis in trauma is interpreted as:

a) Early sign of hypoxia

b) Late sign of Hypoxia

c) Absence of cyanosis indicates adequate airway/ventilation

d) Absence of cyanosis indicates good tissue oxygenation

12. True about Hyaline membrane disease :

a) FRC above the closing volume

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b) FRC below the closing volume

c) FRC is equal to closing volume

d) FRC doesn’t depend on closing volume

13. Vitamin K dependent clotting factor is :

a) Factor VII

b) Factor I

c) Factor XI

d) Factor XII

14. Which of the following is not permeable through the Blood Brain Barrier:

a) Water

b) Lipophilic drugs

c) Gas

d) Proteins

15. Which is wrongly matched pair about vasopressin receptor:

a) V1-Vascular smooth muscles

b) V2-collecting ducts

c) V3-anterior pituitary

d) V4-CNS

16. Gas used to measure diffusion in lung :

a) CO

b) NO

c) CO2

d) Nitrogen

17. Hypoxemia does not depend on:

a) PaCO2

b) Altitude

c) Hb

d) FiO 2

18. All of the following affect resting ventilation except:

a) Stretch receptors

b) J receptor

c) Oxygen

d) PCO 2

19. Spontaneous rhythmic respiration initiated in

a) Pre-Botzinger complex

b) Dorsal respiratory group

c) Pneumataxic centre

d) Apneustic centre

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AIIMS NOVEMBER 2010

20. Which of following is not absorbed in PCT:

a) Bicarbonate

b) Sodium

c) Phosphate

d) H+

21. Which hormone is secreted from stomach that control intake of food:

a) Orexin

b) Insulin like growth hormone

c) Cholecystokinin

d) Ghrelin

22. CO 2 diffuse more easily than O 2 because:

a) Less dense

b) More soluble in plasma

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c) Less molecular weight of CO 2

d) Less pCO 2 in the alveoli

23. Negative intrapleural pressure is due to :

a) Lymphatic drainage of pleura

b) Uniform distribution of surfactant over alveoli

c) Negative intraalveolar pressure

d) Presence of cartilage in upper airway

24. Prolonged administration of testosterone in a man causes :

a) Azoozpermia

b) Increased GnRH

c) Increased sperm mobility

d) Increased spermiogenesis

25. All are true about neuropeptide Y except;

a) Consist of 36 amino acids

b) Decreases thermogenesis

c) Decreased in starvation

d) Same effect like melanocorticotropin

26. Which of following prevent formation of ATP by blocking movement of ADP across mitochondrial membrane :

a) Atractyloside

b) Rotenone

c) Oligomycin

d) Ouabain

27. In Phenylketonuria the main aim for first line therapy is:

a) Limiting the substrate for deficient enzyme

b) Giving the missing amino acids by diet

c) Replacement of enzyme

d) To replace deficient product

28. Which of the following substance binds to acetyl CoA and condenses OAA, inhibiting the TCA cycle:

a) Arsenite

b) Fluoroacetate

c) Malonate

d) Fumararte

29. Which of the vitamin deficiency lead to lactic acidosis:

a) Riboflavin

b) Thiamine

c) Niacin

d) Pantothenic acid

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AIIMS NOVEMBER 2010

30. Which is non essential mineral:

a) Sodium

b) Manganese

c) Iron

d) Lead

31. A young boy who has difficulty in getting up from sitting position was diagnosed to have Duchene’s

muscular dystrophy. Which one is true regarding the mutation in the dystrophin gene in promoter region:

a) Initiation of transcription of the dystrophin gene would be affected

b) Capping of mRNA of dystrophin gene would be affected

c) Tailing of mRNA of dystrophin gene would be affected

d) Premature termination

32. Not used to introduce genome into the bacteria

a) Transfection

b) Site directed recombination

c) FISH

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d) Electroporation

33. Inclusions in oligodendrogliocytes is a feature of :

a) Creutzfeld –Jakob disease

b) CIDP

c) HSV

d) Progressive multifocal leukoencephalopathy

34. A 9 year old boy with elevated both PT and APTT. What is the diagnosis:

a) Defect in extrinsic pathway

b) Defect in Intrinsic pathway

c) Platelet function defect

d) Defect in common pathway

35. Onion bulb appearance on nerve biopsy is seen in:

a. Amyloid neuropathy

b. Diabetic neuropathy

c. CIDP

d. Leprous neutitis

36. Mediators of inflammation are all except :

a) TNF

b) IFN

c) Prostaglandins /Interleukins

d) Myeloperoxidase

37. Edema in nephrotic syndrome is due to:

a) Na and water restriction

b) Increased venous pressure

c) Hypoalbuminemia

d) Hyperlipidemia

38. HER-2/ neu receptor play a role in:

a) Predicting therapeutic response

b) Determining treatment for recurrence of tumor

c) Diagnosis of breast Ca

d) Screening of breast Ca

39. In wegners glomerulonephritis charcteirstic feature seen is :

a) Granulomas in the vessel wall

b) Focal Necrotizing Glomerulonephritis

c) Nodular Glomerulo Sclerosis

d) Interstitial Granuloma

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AIIMS NOVEMBER 2010

40. Which of the is not a channelopathy:

a) Cystic fibrosis

b) Liddles syndrome

c) Tay-sach’s disease

d) Hypokaelemic periodic paralysis

41. Endotoxin shock is initiated by :

a) Endothelial injury

b) Peripheral vasodilation

c) Increased vascular permeability

d) Cytokines action

42. Pale infarcts seen in A/E :

a) Kidney

b) Spleen

c) Heart

d) Lung

43. All are true about bacterial killing except :

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a) MPO helps in formation of OCl

b) Immune deficiency in Brutton's agammaglobinemia is not related to opsonization

c) Chediak-Higashi syndrome is due to failure of phagolysosome formation

d) NADPH oxidase helps in formation of superoxide anion

44. One of the following disorders is due to maternal disomy of chromosome 15 :

a) Prader -Willi syndrome

b) Angelman syndrome

c) Hydatidiform mole

d) Klinefelter's syndrome

45. Cause of nephrocalcinosis in granulomatous ds. :-

a) Increased absorption

b) Increased conversion to 1,25 OH

c) Dystrophic calcification

d) Mutation in calcium sensing receptor

46. A 24 year old male presented with retroperitoneal left necrotic mass near the hilum of kidney which showed heterogenous contrast enhancement on CECT. What is the probable diagnosis:

a) Metastatic transitional cell carcinoma

b) Metastatic melanoma

c) Metastatic germ cell tumour

d) Lymphoma

47. Congenital cause of hypercoagulable states are all except :

a) Protein C deficiency

b) Protein S deficiency

c) MTHFR mutation

d) Lupus anticoagulant

48. True about GIST are all except :

a) Most common site is duodenum

b) Well circumscribed

c) Ulceration and necrosis common

d) PET useful in predicting response to therapy

49. True about fibronectin nephropathy are all except-

a) Autosomal recessive inheritance

b) Gomerular enlargement and PAS+ trichrome messangial deposit

c) Glomerulus do not consistently stain for Ig and complement

d) Ultrastructural feature is presence of large electron messangial or subendothelial deposit

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AIIMS NOVEMBER 2010

50. Conventional cytogenetics are difficult in solid tumors especially in case of Ca Cx due to:

a) High mitotic rate

b) Bacterial contamination of the specimen

c) Good metaphase activity

d) Inadequate biopsy specimen

51. A 60 yr old female with H/O 8 blood transfusions in 2 years. Her

Hb-60g/L, TLC- 5800, platelet- 3.4

lakhs, MCV 60, RBC-2.1 lakhs/mm 3 . He is having hypochromic microcytic anemia. Which investigation is not needed:

a) Evaluation for pulmonary hemosiderosis

b) Urinary hemosiderin

c) Bone marrow examination

d) G I endoscopy

52. A Patient with microcytic hypochromic anemia, Hb- 9%,serum iron is

20 µ/dl, ferritin level 800 ng/ml,

53.

54.

55.

56.

57a.

transferrin percentage saturation is 64. What is possible diagnosis:

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a) Atransferrinemia

b) Iron defeciency anemia

c) DMT1 mutation

d) Sideroblastic anaemia

Hemorrhagic cystitis is caused by :

a) Busulphan

b) Cisplatin

c) Cyclophosphamide

d) Doxorubicin

All are true about Remelteon EXCEPT:

a) It acts on both MT1 and MT2 receptors

b) Metabolized by CYP-450

c) It has a high addiction potential

d) Recently approved for insomnia

SERM drug used in treatment of osteoporosis:

a) Raloxifene

b) Estrogen

c) Strontium

d) Alendroate

Large dose of EDTA are used in carbonic anhydrase enzyme inactivation. The mechanism by which EDTA act is:

a) It chelates with the metal ion of the enzyme

b) It combines with the substrate and forms a suicide inhibitor

c) Combines with the substrate and doesn't react with the enzyme

d) Enzyme-EDTA complex can not be attached to substrate

Which is used in overactive bladder (Q asked in exam):

a) Duloxetine

b) Darifinacin

c) Flavoxate

d) Oxybutynin

57b.

Which is used in overactive bladder except (If the Q is in this format):

a)

Duloxetin

b)

Darifinacin

c)

Flavoxate

d)

Oxybutynin

.

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AIIMS NOVEMBER 2010

58. A woman consumes several tabs of Amitryptiline(case of amitryptiline poisoning). All of the following can be done except :

a) Sodium bicarbonate infusion

b) Gastric lavage

c) Diazepam for seizure control

d) Atropine as antidote

59. A patient in the ICU having fever since 1 week. He empirically started on a ceftriaxone & amikacin, the pus sent for culture. After 48 hours blood culture report showed Klebsiella with ESBL, what is the next step:

a) Increasing the dose of the same antibiotics

b) Change Amikacin to quinolone

c) Change Cerftriaxone to Imipenem

d) Change ceftriaxone to ceftazidime

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60. Methotrexate resistance occurs by :

a) Depletion of folate

b) Overproduction of DHFR

c) Deficiency of thymidylate synthase

d) Deficiency of thiamine kinase

61. A Child has phocomelia.This is due to drug taken by mother :

a) Tetracycline

b) Thalidomide

c) Warfarin

d) Chloroquine

62. Abnormality to check if lithium is given to a pregnant female:

a) Cardiac anomaly

b) Neural tube defect

c) Facial defect

d) Urogenital defect

63. Drug used in estrogen dependent breast cancer:

a) Tamoxifen

b) Clomiphene citrate

c) Estrogen

d) Adriamycin

64. Characteristic of bacilus cereus food poisioning is:

a) Presence of Fever

b) Presence of Pain in abdomen

c) Abscence of Vomiting

d) Abscence of Diarrhoea

65. Amoebiasis is transmitted by all except :

a) Cockroach

b) Faeco oral

c) Vertical transmission

d) Oro-rectal

66. A boy with skin ulcer on leg, culture reveals beta hemolysis. Cultures from school children with sore throat some days back also revealed beta hemolysis. What is the similarity between both.

a) Mec A gene is related to it

b) M protein is same

c) C carbohydrate antigen is same

d) Strains causing both are same

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AIIMS NOVEMBER 2010

67. Malignant pustule is seen in :

a) Cutaneous anthrax

b) Carbuncle

c) Ulcerating melanoma

d) Infected rodent ulcer

68. Reassortment is seen in :

a) Astronovirus

b) Rotavirus

c) Hepadnavirus

d) Herpesvirus

69. In Plasma sterilization control used is:

a) Bacillus subtilis

b) Bacillus stearothermophilus

c) C. Perfringes

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d) C. tetani

70. True statement about ETEC:

a) Invades submucousa

b) Common cause of acute watery diarrhea in children in developing countries

c) Spread by fomite & person to person contact

d) Not a common cause of traveller's diarrhoea

71. False about Hemophilus influenzae is:

a) It needs facor X and V for growth in culture media

b) Protein capsule plays an important role in pathogenicity

c) It's a rare cause of meningitis in first two months of life

d) Most common invasive manifestation is meningitis

72. Which of the following is false about clostridium perfringes :

a) Food poisoning causing strains of cl. perfringes produce heat resistant spores

b) Show positive Naegler reaction

c) Most important toxin is hyaluronidase

d) Cl.perfringes is the most common cause of gas gangrene

73. What will happen if a bacteria acquires genes coding for restriction endonuclease

a) Bacterial will die as lacks methylase

b) It will damage the host cell

c) It will have capacity to divide & multiple many times

d) Enhances proof reading activity of that bacteria

74. Spanish windlass is practiced in Spain as a method of execution, It is a type of:

a) Bansdola

b) Mugging

c) Garrotting

d) Hanging

75. Widmark's formula is used in calculating:

a) Quantity of alcohol in body

b) Time since death

c) Infliction of injuries

d) Stature

76. A rickshaw tyre passed on a 8-year old children. Marking of tyre was found on body.It is an example of :

a) Percolated bruise

b) Contussion

c) Pattern bruises

d) Imprint abrasion

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AIIMS NOVEMBER 2010

77. Patient is having bronchodilatation, increased temperature, constipation & is:

a) Organophoshate poisoning

b) Cannabis/paracetamol

c) Atropine poisoning

d) Mushrom poisoning

tachycardia. The

diagnosis

78. False about aluminium phosphate poisoning:

a) Subendocardial infarct

b) Produce phosphine gas

c) Inhibit mitochondrial cytochrome oxidase

d) Oesophageal stricture

SPM

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79. Which of the following is the least likely cause of Neonatal mortality in India:

a) Prematurity

b) Infection

c) Birth Asphyxia

d) Congenital anomalies

80. In a certain population, there were 4050 births in the last one year. There were 50 still births. 50 infants died within 7 days where as 150 died within 28 days. What is the Neonatal mortality rate:

a) 50

b) 62.5

c) 12.5

d) 49.4

81. All the following diseases are spread by hard Tick except:

a) Relapsing fever

b) KFD

c) Tularemia

d) Indian Tick paralysis

82. Sputum can be disinfected by all EXCEPT:

a) Autoclaving

b) Boiling

c) Cresol

d) Chlorhexidine

83. Which is false regarding Spaulding's criteria:

a) Non critical items require only decontamination

b) Semicritical items are those which come in contact with mucous membranes or nonintact skin

c) Semicritical items need low level disinfection

d) Cardiac catheters are example of critical items

84. Bias can be eliminated by all except:

a) Matching

b) Blinding

c) Randomization

d) Multivariate analysis

85. Mass Chemoprophylaxis is not given for one of the following:

a) Lymphatic filariasis

b) Plague

c) Scabies

d) Vit A administration

86. True statement about Vi polysaccharide vaccine is :

a) Has many serious systemic adverse reaction

b) Has many serious local side effects

c) Has many contraindication

d) Can be administered with yellow fever & hepatitis A vaccine

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AIIMS NOVEMBER 2010

87. There is an outbreak of MRSA in the hospital wards. Which of the following is the appropriate mode of containing the spread of infection:

a) Vancomycin given empirically to all patients

b) Proper handwashing by all medical staff before & after attending patients

c) Hospital staff wear masks

d) Fumigating the ward frequently

88. Small pox eradication was not due to :

a) Highly effective vaccine

b) Cross-immunity with animal pox virus

c) Subclinical infection do not transmit the disease

d) Life long immunity

89. All of the following are true statement regarding clostridium tetani except:

a) The main reservoir is soil & intestine of animal and human

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OPHTHALOMOLGY

b) Herd immunity is not of much value

c) Seen commonly in winter & dry season

d) The main mode of transmission is through trauma & contaminated wound

90. A study on the incidence of carcinoma colon was carried out based on fat consumption of the people & data was obtained from various industries. The method used is:

a) Ecological study

b) Cross-sectional study

c) Case control study

d) Experimental study

91. Most commonly associated with heart disease:

a) HDL

b) LDL

c) VLDL

d) Chylomicron

92. A study revealed lesser incidence of carcinoma colon in pure vegetarians than non- vegetarians by which it was concluded that carotene is protective Vs cancer. This may not be true because the vegetarian subjects may be consuming high fiber diet which is protective Vs cancer. This is an example for:

a) Confounding factor

b) Multifactorial causation

c) Causal association

d) Common association

93. Not true about varicella infection

a) Only single stage of lesion is present at a time

b) Secondary attack rate is 90%

c) Lesions occurs in flexors

d) Reactivation occur in 10-30%

94. Retinitis pigmentosa is a feature of all except :

a) Refsum's disease

b) Hallervordrn Spatz syndrome

c) NARP

d) Abetaglobulinemia

95. A 25 year old male presents with painless sudden loss of vision, ocular and systemic examination is not contributory. What is probable diagnosis :

a) Retinal detachment

b) Eale’s disease

c) Glaucoma

d) Cataract

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AIIMS NOVEMBER 2010

96. Stocker’s line is seen in

a) Pinguencula

b) Ptetygium

c) Congenital Ocular Melanosis

d) Congenital epithelial melanosis

97. What is the treatment of threshold ROP:

a) Laser photocoagulation

b) Slow reduction in oxygen

c) Retinal reattachment

d) Antioxidants

98. A 60yr old man has both HTN and DM for 10years. There is reduced vision in one eye.

examination there is a central bleed and the fellow eye is normal. The diagnosis is:

a) Diabetic retinopathy

b) Retinal tear

c) Optic neuritis

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d) Hypertensive retinopathy

99. Loss of lacrimation is due to damage to

a) Greater petrosal nerve

b) Nasociliary nerve

c) Anterior ethmoidal nerve

d) Superior orbital nerve

100. Frontal Sinus can be best visualised by :

a) Towne's view

b) Caldwell's view

c) Water's view

d) Schuller's view

101. Intranasal approach is used for accessing all organs except :

a) Lacrimal gland

b) Pituitary gland

c) Optic nerve

d) Cerebellum

102. Regarding Cochlear implant, which of the following is true:

a) Not contraindicated in cochlear malformation

b) Contraindicated in < 5 yrs

c) Indicated in mild to moderate hearing loss

d) Implanted through oval window

103. False about retropharyngeal abscess :

a) Confined to one side of the midline

b) Can be palpable per orally by pressing the finger on posterior pharyngeal wall

c) Lies behind the prevertebral fascia

d) Presents with dysphagia & difficulty in breathing

104. Immediate treatment of CSF rhinorrhea is:

a) Pack with sterile petrollium jelly gauge

b) Wait for 7-10 days with antibiotics

c) Blow the nose repeatedly

d) Surgery

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AIIMS NOVEMBER 2010

MEDICINE

105. Bad prognosis in AML is indicated by:

a) Monosomy

b) Deletion of X or Y chromosome

c) T (8:21)

d) Nucleophosmin mutation

106. How will a staff nurse prepare normal saline from 10% Dextrose (per 100 ml) :

a) 20ml 10% D with 80ml NS

b) 60 ml10% D with 40mlNS

c) 60 ml 10% D with 40ml NS

d) 80 ml 10% D with 20ml NS

107. Which one of the pair is not correct regarding Hepatitis B management:

a) Supportive care - acute viral hepatitis B

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b) Antiviral drugs - chronic viral hepatitis B

c) Supportive care - chronic viral hepatitis B

d) Antiviral drugs - acute viral hepatitis B

108. All are true except :

a) LKM1 - Autoimmune hepatitis

b) LKM2 - Drug induced

c) LKM1 - chronic hepatitis C

d) LKM2 - chronic hepatitis D

109. Which is not a test for diabetes mellitus:

a) Fasting blood sampling

b) Random blood sampling

c) D-xylose

d) Oral glucose tolerance test

110. How much Pottassium is present in the Ringer Lactate solution:

a) 1 mEq/L

b) 4 mEq/L

c) 2 mEq/L

d) 6 mEq/l

111. Which one of the following is not included in Jone's Major criteria:

a) Pancarditis

b) Chorea

c) Subcutaneous nodule

d) High ESR

112. True about subendocardial hemorrhage are all except :

a) May be seen after head injury

b) Involves RV wall

c) Continuous pattern of sheet like

d) Flame shaped hemorrhages

113. Respiratory centre depression is caused by all except :

a) Opium

b) Strychnine

c) Barbiturates

d) Gelsemium

114. A man 25 yrs old presents with renal failure. His uncle died of renal failure 3 yrs ago. ON slit lamp examination, keratoconus is present. Diagnosis is :

a) ADPCKD

b) ARPCKD

c) Alport’s syndrome

d) Denysh-Drash syndrome

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AIIMS NOVEMBER 2010

115. Splenomegaly is least likely associated with :

a) CML

b) Polycythemia ruba vera

c) Idiopathic myelofibrosis

d) Primary thrombocytosis

116. All of the following are minor criteria for mutiple myeloma except.?

a) Plasmacytosis 20%

b) Multiple lyric lesion

c) 4.IgA<2.5 & IgG <3.5

d) Plasmacytoma on tissue biopsy

117. A 35 yr old lady with Normal PT and increased aPTT. 2 year back , she was operated for cholecystectomy & did not have any bleeding episode .What is next investigation for clinical diagnosis:

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a) Factor VIII assay

b) Anti viper venom assay

c) Platelet aggregation test

d) Ristocetin Cofactor assay

118. A patient presented with thunder clap headache followed by unconsciousness with progressive III cranial nerve plasy. Likely diagnosis is:

a) Extradural hemorrhage

b) Aneurysmal subarachnoid hemorrhage

c) Basilar migraine

d) Cluster headache

119. A patient with complaints of nephrocalcinosis for the past 10 yrs. The following steps can be taken for dietary management except:

a) Protein restriction

b) Calcium restriction

c) Salt restricted diet

d) Phosphate restriction

120. A 60 yr old man with c/o progressive dementia for the past 6 months with intermittent jerky movement involving whole body from 2 days. EEG showed sharp bipolar spikes. Diagnosis is

a) Alzheimer's

b) Creutzfeld Jackob disease

c) Lewy body dementia

d) Herpes simplex encephalitis

121. A pt has prosthetic valve replacement and he develops endocarditis 8 months later. Organism responsible

is:

a)

b)

c)

Staphylococcus aureus

Streptococcus viridans

Staphylococcus epidermidis

d) HACEK

122. All except one are true for hepatitis B:

a) Vertical transmission more important than horizontal

b) Age of onset determines prognosis

c) Period of communciability lasts several months

d) Virus can be found in blood 1 month before jaundice

123. Horner’s syndrome is seen in all except:

a) Carotid artery aneurysm

b) Medial medullary syndrome

c) Can occur following surgery for raynaud’s syndrome

d) Multiple sclerosis

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AIIMS NOVEMBER 2010

124. A 24 year old male patient with h/o primary

in the form of genital ulcer & mucocutaneous

lesions, presents with features suggestive of neurosyphilis in the form of meningitis for which appropriate

treatment was started . What will you do for monitoring of treatment:

a) Venereal Disease Research Laboratory test (VDRL)

b) TPI

c) FTS-AB

d) ELISA

syphilis

125. 10 year old boy which short stature presented with polyuria and polydipsia . Lab values are : pH 7.34, CO 2 -32 mm of Hg, HCO 3 – 16, Na 140, K-4.9 , Cl 112,BUN-140 & creatinine – 1.8. Likely acid-base picture will be:

a) Metabolic alkalosis

b) Non-aniongap metabolic acidosis

c) Aniongap metabolic acidosis

d) Respiratory acidosis

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126. Secondary hyperparathyroidism are seen in all except:

a) Rickets

b) Osteomalacia

c) Osteoporosis

d) Renal Failure

127. Which drug is not used to prevent contrast nephropathy :

a) Fenolodopam

b) N- acetylcysteine

c) Infusion of Half normal saline

d) Hemodialysis

128. A girl aged 20 yrs complains of headache while studying. Her vision is found to be normal. All of the following should be further evaluated except:

a) Family history of headache

b) Menstrual history

c) Self expectation

d) Her interest in studies

129. All are true about starting of β-Blocker therapy in a case of CHF except :

a) They should be started with optimal doses

b) They should be gradually increased over weeks

c) Special precautions should be taken in cases of NYHA class III and IV

d) Carvedilol and Metoprolol are the preferred drugs

130. Hyperkalemia without ECG changes may be treated with all except:

a) Calcium gluconate

b) Salbutamol

c) Na bicarbonate

d) Insulin with dextrose

131. All of the following can cause SLE like syndrome except

a) INH

b) Penicillin

c) Hydralazine

d) Sulphonamide

132. Murmur increasing with Valsalva manouvre :

a) VSD

b) HOCM

c) MS

d) AS

133. A 75 years female patient with fracture neck of femur 1 month back, presents with 2 days history of altered sensorium & decreased urine output. Urea is 140 mg/dl, creatinine is 2 mg/dl, Ca is 15.5 mg/dl. All of will be useful in immediate treatment except :

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AIIMS NOVEMBER 2010

a) Give NS

b) Furosemide

c) Hemodialysis

d) Bisphosphanates

SURGERY

134. A Child has recurrent abdominal pain & bilious vomiting. The condition was diagnosed by barium follow

& mesentric widening

through. Surgical procedure followed: Ladd’s band divided, appendecectomy done. Diagnosis is:

a) Caecal volvulus

b) Malrotation

c) Acute appendicitis

d) Duodenal web

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135. Renal stone resistant to ESWL is:

a) Cystine stone

b) Calcium oxalate

c) Uric acid

d) Calcium phosphate

136. Which is not included in charcoat’s triad :

a) Fever

b) Pain

c) Jaundice

d) Palpable bladder

137. Cock’s peculiar tumor is a

a) Basal cell CA

b) Squamous cell CA

c) Ulcerated Sebaceous cyst

d) Cylindroma

138. Fogarty catheter is used for –

a) Removal of fresh clot embolus in artery

b) Bladder irrigation

c) Urethral catheterization

d) For total parentral nutrition

139. Which is false about head trauma:

a) Raccoon's eye is caused by subgaleal haemorrhage

b) Closed skull fracture is mostly associated with brain injury

c) Post traumatic epilepsy occurs in 15% cases after depressed fracture

d) Cavernous-carotid fistula occurs in base of skull fracture

140. Brilliantly transillumination is not seen in:

a) Vaginal hydrocele

b) Cystic hygroma

c) Spinal meningocele

d) Lipoma

141. Tumour with perineural invasion :

a) Adenocarcinoma

b) Adenoid cystic Ca

c) Basal cell ca

d) Squamous cell ca

142. Organism associated with infected fish consumption, which also causes Ca Gall bladder :

a) Gnathostoma

b) Stronglyoides

c) Clonorchis sinensis

d) Ankylostoma

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AIIMS NOVEMBER 2010

143. A 45 yr businessman with a busy work schedule complaints of fresh bleeding during defaecation since 7days.Abdomen & chest examination is normal. Perrectal examination is normal. As attending general practioner what will you do in next step:

a) Do a proctoscopy

b) Do barium enema

c) Refer to gastroenterologist for colonoscopy

d) Refer to surgeon for sigmoidoscopy

144. In follow up of BPH, most important indication of surgery :

a) Prostate size > 75gm

b) B/L hydronephrosis

c) UTI single episode requiring 3 days antibiotics

d) Can not use medication due to hypertension

145. A 60 yr old man have poor stream of urine, post voidal residual vol 400ml,urea 90, creatinine 3.5, B/L hydronephrosis, prostate 70gm. Immediate treatment at this time would be :

OBSTETRICS & GYNAECOLOGY PUBLISHERS
OBSTETRICS & GYNAECOLOGY
PUBLISHERS

a) Bilateral percutaneous nephrostomy

b) Foley’s catheter insertion

c) TURP

d) CECT

146. Clue cell is seen in :

a) Bacterial vaginosis

b) Candidial vaginosis

c) Chlamydiasis

d) Trichomonas

147. The regimen used for expectant management of placenta praevia is:

a) Macaffe & Johnson regimen

b) Brandt Andrew method

c) Credes method

d) Mcdonald’s regimen

148. Which of the following is present normally in the urine of a pregnant women in the third trimester:

a) Glucose

b) Lactose

c) Galactose

d) Fructose

149. A 37-year old second gravid, previous LSCS at 37wks of pregnancy presents with blood pressure of 150/ 100, urine albumin++. On Pelvic examination cervix is found to be soft with 50% effacement, station is -3 ,

pelvis adequate and cervical os is closed. Most appropriate step at the moment would be:

a) Antihypertensive regime and then induce labour

b) Wait and watch for 10 days

c) Induce labour spontaneously

d) Do Caesarean section

150. Not used in emergency contraceptions:

a) LNG intra uterine device

b) Oral mifepristone

c) Oral levonorgesterol

d) Cu T intrauterine device

151. Which of the following is not seen in Corpus Cancer syndrome:

a) Diabetes Mellitus

b) Hypertension

c) Obesity

d) Mutiparity

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AIIMS NOVEMBER 2010

152. Which test differentiate maternal and fetal blood cells :

a) Apt test

b) Kleihauer-Betke test

c) Bubblin test

d) Osmotic fragility test

153. After a full term normal delivery patient went into shock. Most probable cause is:

a) Inversion of uterus

b) PPH

c) Amniotic fluid embolism

d) Eclapsia

154. All are risk factor for vaginal candidiasis EXCEPT

a) DM

b) HIV

c) Hypertension

d) Pregnancy

155. Classification for abruptio placenta is:

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a) Page’s classification

b) Jhonson regimen

c) Macafee regimen

d) Apt staging

156. In a study it is observed that the right ovary ovulates more than the left, all are possible explanations for the cause except?

a) Anatomical asymmetry

b) Difference in blood supply to both sides

c) Right handedness is more common in population

d) Some embryological basis

157. Best regimen for Ecclampsia is :

a) MgSO 4

b) Lytic cocktail

c) Phenytoin

d) Diazepam

158. A 20 year average weight old female complains of oligomenorrhea along with facial hair. Preliminary

investigations reveal raised free testosterone levels. Which of the folllowing could be likely etiology:

a) Idiopathic hursutism

b) PCOD

c) Adrenal hyperplasia

d) Testosterone secreting tumour

159. Endometrial cancer involving 50% of endometrium, extending to vagina, lymph nodes negative with positive peritoneal cytology is staged as

a) 3a

b) 3b

c) 3c1

d) 3c2

160. Treatment of Ca Cervix IIIB include:

a) Wertheims hysterectomy

b) Schauta’s hysterectomy

c) Chemotherapy

d) Intracavity brachytherapy followed by external beam radiotherapy

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AIIMS NOVEMBER 2010

161. A 19 year old patient came to the out patient department with complaints of Primary Amenorrhea. She had well developed breast and pubic hair. However there was abscence of vagina and uterus. Likely diagnosis is:

a) XYY

b) Mullerian agenesis

c) Gonadal dysgenesis

d) Kleinfelter's syndrome

162. A 32 yr old mother who has a Down's boy is now 9wks pregnant, she doesn't want another Down's. As her physician you should tell her.

a) USG at this stage will confirm presence or absence

b) Chorionic villous biopsy at this stage will confirm presence or absence

c) Triple test /maternal AFP at this stage will confirm presence or absence

d) Nothing need be done as there is minimal risk since her age is < 35 yr

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PAEDIATRICS
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163. A 30 week gestation mother delivered 1.2 kg baby with moderate respiratory distress. RR=70/min with grunting and chest retraction. Most logical next step is:

a) Warm humidified Oxygen via hood

b) Nasal CPAP

c) Surfactant and mechanical ventilation

d) Mechanical ventilation

164. A neonate is seen crying with eyes closed and moving all his limbs. What is the Neonatal Behavioral response Scale:

a) Scale 1

b) Scale 3

c) Scale 5

d) Scale 6

165. Pondreal index of baby with weight of 2000gm and height of 50 cm :

a) 1.6

b) 2.2

c) 2.6

d) 3.6

166. A 32 wk new born baby with RR-86/min, grunting present with no nasal flaring, abdomen behind in movement than chest, minimum intercostals retraction & no xiphysternal retraction. What is the Silverman scoring:

a) 1

b) 4

c) 3

d) 6

167. 8yr old child with BP 180/100mmhg,urea 90, creatinine 5.3,urinalaysis shows 15-20 pus cells, 1-2 RBC, protein 1+ & has no significant past h/o of similar complaint. Most likely diagnosis is:

a) Post infective glomerulonephritis

b) Accelerated hypertension with ARF

c) Idiopathic RPGN

d) Chronic interstitial nephritis with VUR

168. A 3 day child vomits everything he feeds, has a distended abdomen & diarrhoea. The urine is positive for benedicts test for reducing substance. The substance in urine is:

a) Sucrose

b) Glucose

c) Galactose

d) Fructose

18

AIIMS NOVEMBER 2010

169. Child with PDA will not have :

a) Bounding pulses

b) Pulmonary hemorrhage

c) Necrotising enterocolitis

d) CO 2 washout

170. Why is a child ables to breathe and suckle at the same time:

a) Short soft palate

b) Short tongue

c) High placed larynx

d) Small pharynx

171. A Neonate has ABO incompatibilty. Peripheral smear will show:

a) Microspherocytes

b) Elliptocytes

c) Fragmented RBCs

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ORTHOPAEDICS
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d) Polychromophilia

172. A new born child developed respiratory depression in neonatal ward. Which of the following drug is the cause:

a) Opioids

b) Barbiturates

c) Diazepam

d) Propofol

173. A 10 year old male child complaints of pain in left hypochondrium since 2 days Hb- 9.69%. His mother

gives history of passing black colored stools 7 days and 2-3 occasions since 2 yrs. During these episodes he had fatiguability while playing and was not able to play with his peers. Which of the following will maximally help to arrive at a clinical diagnosis:

a) Pallor

b) Jaundice

c) Palpable spleen

d) Free fluid in the abdomen

174. Which of the following will favour the diagnosis of RDS in new born:

a) Receipt of ante natal steroids

b) Air bronchogram in chest X- Ray

c) Manifests after 6 hrs

d) Occurs after term gestation

175. A Patient met with Road Traffic Accident with subsequent injury to the left knee. Dial test was positive.

What could be the cause:

a) Medial Collateral Ligament Injury

b) Medial Meniscal Injury

c) Lateral Meniscus Tear

d) Posterolateral Corner Injury

176. Rate of newly synthesized osteoid material can be best estimated by:

a) Tetracycline labeling

b) Alizarin red stain

c) Voncossa stain

d) Calcein stain

177. Gallows traction is used in fracture of:

a) Head of femur

b) Neck of femur

c) Shaft of femur

d) Humerus

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AIIMS NOVEMBER 2010

178.

179.

180.

181

182.

183.

184.

185.

186.

Site of hematogenous osteomyelitis is:

a) Epiphysis

b) Metaphysis

c) Diaphysis

d) Condyles

During reconstruction of an amputated limb, which of the following is done first:

a) Vein ligation

b) Artery ligation

c) Nerve ligation

d) Fixation of bone

A 2 yr old boy with Ewing’s sarcoma is having radiotherapy indicates poor prognosis:

a) β2 microglobulin

b) Fever

c) Thrombocytosis

& chemotherapy. Which of the

following

ANAESTHESIA PUBLISHERS
ANAESTHESIA
PUBLISHERS

d) Young age

A 35 yr old lady has chronic backache. On X ray she had a D12 collapse but Intervertebral disc space is maintained. All are possible cause except :

a) Multiple myeloma

b) Osteoporosis

c) Metastasis

d) Tuberculosis

A newborn child presents with inverted foot & dorsum of foot can not touch anterior tibia. The probable diagnosis is:

a) CTEV

b) Congenital vertical talus

most

c) Arthrogryposis Multiplex

d) Flat foot

A 70 kg old athlete was posted for surgery. Patient was admi nistered succinylcholine due unavailability of vecuronium. It was administered in intermittent dosing (toal 640 mg).During recovery patient was not able to respire spontaneously & move limbs. What is the explanation :

a) Pseudocholinesterase deficiency increasing action of succinylcholine block

b) Phase 2 blockade produced by succinylcholine

c) Undiagnosed muscular dystrophy and muscular weakness

d) Muscular weakness due to fasciculation produced by succinylcholine

Patient with mitral stenosis is having surgery tomorrow. There is some liver compromise. Which of the

following inhalational agent is preferred:

a) Halothane

b) Enflurane

c) Xenon

d) Sevoflurane

A 40 year old man who met with a motor vehicle catastrophe came to the casualty hospital in an hour with severe maxilla- facial trauma. His Pulse rate was 120/ min, BP was 100/70 mm Hg, SpO2 - 80% with oxygen. What would be the immediate management:

a) Nasotracheal intubation

b) Orotracheal intubation

c) Intravenous fluid

d) Tracheostomy

Which of the following anaesthetic agent causes adrenal suppression:

a) Etomidate

b) Thiopentone

c) Ketamine

d) Propofol

20

AIIMS NOVEMBER 2010

187. A patient after undergoing thoracotomy complains of severe pain. He can be managed by:

a) Intercostal cryoanalgesia

b) I.V fentanyl

c) Oral morphine

d) Oral brufen

SKIN

188. A teenager girl with moderate acne is also complaining of irregular menses. Drug of choice will be:

a) Oral isotretinoin

b) Oral acitretin

c) Oral minocycline

d) Cyproterone acetate

PSYCHIATRY PUBLISHERS
PSYCHIATRY
PUBLISHERS

189. Chemical peeling is done by all except:

a) Trichloroacetic acid

b) Phosphoric acid

c) Carbolic acid

d) Kojic acid

190. A Farmer have single warty lesion on leg. Which of the following could be most likely lesion:

a) Verruca vulgaris

b) Tuberculosis verrucosa cutis

c) Mycetoma

d) Lichen planus hypertrophicus

191. A Boy is having diarrhoea, rhinorrhoea, sweating & lacrimation. What is the most probable diagnosis:

a) Cocaine withdrawal

b) Heroin withdrawal

c) Alcohol withdrawal

d) LSD withdrawal

192. A 20 year old boy c/o hearing of voices, aggressive behavior since 2 days. He has fever since 2 days. When asked to his family, they says that he has been muttering to self and gesticulating. There is no h/o of psychiatric illness. Likely diagnosis is:

a) Dementia

b) Acute psychosis

c) Delirium

d) Delusional disorder

193. True about late onset schizophrenia:

a) Onset after 45 yrs

b) Onset between 25-30 yrs

c) Prognosis is poor

d) Olfactory hallucinations are common

194. A 30 year old lady c/o sudden onset breathlessness, anxiety, palpitation & feeling doom.Physical examination is normal. What is the diagnosis:

a) Panic attack

b) Anxiety disorder

c) Conversion disorder

d) Acute psychosis

195. Anterograde amnesia is seen in :

a) Head injury

b) Stroke

c) Spinal cord injury (Traumatic paraplegia)

d) Alzheimer’s disease

of impending

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AIIMS NOVEMBER 2010

RADIODIAGNOSIS

196. A Bone marrow transplant receipient patient developed chest infection. ON chest Xray Tree on Bud appearance is present . The cause of this is :

a) Klebsiella

b) Pneumocystis

c) TB

d) RSV

197. Most sensitive imaging for Ductal carcinoma in situ (DCIS) is:

a) Mammography

b) MRI

c) PET scan

d) Ultrasound

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PUBLISHERS

198. Radiation exposure is the least in the following procedure:

a) Micturating cystourethrogram

b) IVP

c) Bilateral nephrostogram

d) Spiral CT for stones

199. A 20 yr female come with a mass in the cavernous sinus & 6th cranial nerve palsy. In T2W MRI Hyperintense shadow is present which shows homogenous contrast enhancement. Diagnosis is :

a) Schwannoma

b) Meningioma

c) Astrocytoma

d) Cavernous sinus hemangioma

200. All are the features of adrenal adenoma on CT scan except:

a) Calcification rare

b) Low attenuation

c) Homogenous density & well defined borders

d) Contrast is taken up early & washed out slowly

22

AIIMS NOVEMBER 2010

ANSWERS

1.

A

2.

D

3.

B

4.

A

5.

A

6.

C

7.

C

8.

A

9.

A

10.

A

11.

B

12.

B

13.

A

14.

D

15.

D

16.

A

17.

C

18.

B>A

19.

A

20.

D

21.

D

22.

B

23.

A

24.

A

25.

C

26.

A

27.

A

28.

B

29.

B

30.

D

31.

A

32.

C

33.

D

34.

D

35.

C

36.

D

37.

C

38.

A>B

39.

B

40.

C

41.

A

42.

D

43.

B

44.

A

45.

B

46.

C

47.

D

48.

A

49.

A

50.

B>D

51.

B

52.

A

53.

C

54.

C

55.

A

56.

A

57.

(a) B>D

57.

(b) none>A

58.

D

59.

C

60. B

122.A

184.C>D

61. B

123.B

185.B>D

62. A

124.A

186.A

63. A

125.B

187.B

64. B

126.C

188.D

65. C

127.A>C

189.B

66. C

128.A

190.B

67. A

129.A

191.B

68. B

130.A

192.B

69. B

131.B

193.A

70. B

132.B

194.A

71. B

133.D

195.A

72. C

134.B

196.D

73. A

135.A

197.B

74. C 136.D 198.A 75. A 137.C 199.D 76. D 138.A 200.D 77. C 139.A
74. C
136.D
198.A
75. A
137.C
199.D
76. D
138.A
200.D
77. C
139.A
78. none>D
140.D
79. D
141.B
80. A
142.C
81. A
143.A
82. D
144.B
83. C
145.B
84. D
146.A
85. C
147.A
86. D
148.A
87. B
149.D
88. B
150.A
89. C
151.A
90. A
152.B>A
91. B
153.A
92. A
154.C
93. A
155.A
94. none>B
156.C
95. B
157.A
96. B
158.C
97. A
159.B
98. A>B
160.D
99. A
161.B
100.B
162.B
101.D
163.B
102.A
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164.D
103.C
165.A
104.B
166.B
105.A
167.D
106.D
168.C

107.D

169.D

108.D

170.C

109.C

171.A

110.B

172.A

111.D

173.C

112.B

174.B

113.B

175.D

114.C

176.A

115.D

177.C

116.D

178.B

117.B

179.D

118.B

180.B

119.B

181.D

120.B

182.A

121.C

183.B

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