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A nurse is teaching a patient with a concussion about the early signs oI increase intracranial pressure (ICP) which oI the II would she cite as an early sign oI increased ICP? a.Decreased systolic blood pressure b.Headache and vomiting c.Inability to wake the patient with noxious stimuli d.Dilated pupils that dont react to light d.Preparing him Ior
A nurse is teaching a patient with a concussion about the early signs oI increase intracranial pressure (ICP) which oI the II would she cite as an early sign oI increased ICP? a.Decreased systolic blood pressure b.Headache and vomiting c.Inability to wake the patient with noxious stimuli d.Dilated pupils that dont react to light d.Preparing him Ior
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A nurse is teaching a patient with a concussion about the early signs oI increase intracranial pressure (ICP) which oI the II would she cite as an early sign oI increased ICP? a.Decreased systolic blood pressure b.Headache and vomiting c.Inability to wake the patient with noxious stimuli d.Dilated pupils that dont react to light d.Preparing him Ior
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COMPREHENSIVE EXAM TEST 1 MEDICAL-SURGICAL NURSING
1. An elderly patient may have sustained a basilar skull Iracture
aIter slipping and Ialling on a slippery sidewalk. The nurse knows that basilar skull Iractures: a.are the least signiIicant type oI skull Iractures b.may cause cerebrospinal Iluid leaks Irom the nose or ears c.have no characteristic Iinding d.are always surgically repaired 2. The nurse is teaching Iamily members oI a patient with a concussion about the early signs oI increase intracranial pressure (ICP). Which oI the II would she cite as an early sign oI increased ICP? a.Decreased systolic blood pressure b.Headache and vomiting c.Inability to wake the patient with noxious stimuli d.Dilated pupils that don`t react to light 3.Gary V. is diagnosed with retinal detachment. Which intervention is the most important Ior this patient? a.Admitting him to the hospital on strict bed rest b.Patching both his eyes c.ReIerring him to an ophthalmologist d.Preparing him Ior surgery 4.Dr. Harry Marson, a chemist, sustained a chemical burn to one eye. Which intervention takes priority Ior a patient with a chemical burn oI the eye? a.Patch the aIIected eye and call the ophthalmologist b.Administer a cyclopegic agent to reduce ciliary spasm c.Immediately instill a topical anesthetic, then irrigate the eye with saline solution d.Administer antibiotics to reduce the risk oI inIection 5.The nurse is assessing a patient and notes Brudzinski`s sign and Kernig`s sign. These are two classic signs oI which oI the II disorders? a.Cerebrovascular Accident c. Seizure disorder b. Meningitis d. Parkinson`s Disease 6.The nurse should instruct the patient with Parkinson`s disease to avoid which oI the II? a.Walking in an indoor shopping mall b.Sitting on the deck on a cool summer evening c.Walking to the car on a cold morning d.Sitting on the beach in the sun on a summer day 7.Jasmine suIIered a cerebrovascular accident that leIt her unable to comprehend speech and unable to speak. This type oI aphasia is known as: a.Receptive b. Expressive c. Global d. Conduction 8.Cynthia complains that her headaches are occurring more Irequently despite taking medications. Patients with a history oI headaches should be taught to avoid: a.Freshly prepared meats c. Skim milk b.Citrus Iruits d. Chocolate 9.Immediately Iollowing cerebral aneurysm rupture, the patient usually complains oI: a.Photophobia c. Seizures b.Explosive headaches d. Hemiparesis 10. JenniIer suIIered a cervical Iracture requiring immobilization with halo traction. When caring Ior the patient in halo traction, the nurse must: a.Keep a wrench taped to the halo vest Ior quick removal iI cardiopulmonary resuscitation is necessary b.Remove the brace once a day to allow the patient to rest c.Encourage the patient to use a pillow under the ring d.Remove the brace so that the patient can shower Situation (11-15). Sheila is admitted to the hospital with a serum glucose level of 618 mg/dL. Shes awake and oriented, with hot, dry skin, a temperature of 38.1C, a heart rate of 166 beats/min., a BP of 108/70mmHg. 11. Based on Sheila`s assessment Iindings, which nursing diagnosis takes highest priority? a.Fluid volume deIicit related to osmotic diuresis b.Decrease cardiac output related to elevated heart rate c.Altered nutrition: less than body requirements related to insulin deIiciency d.IneIIective thermoregulation related to dehydration 12. The nurse should include which instruction when teaching Sheila about insulin administration? a.'Administer insulin aIter the Iirst meal oI the day. b. 'Administer insulin at a 45-degree angle into the deltoid muscle. c. 'Shake the vial oI insulin vigorously beIore witdrawing the medication. d.'Draw up clear insulin Iirst when mixing two types oI insulin in one syringe. 13. When teaching Sheila about insulin therapy, the nurse should instruct her to avoid which over-the-counter preparation that can interact with insulin? a.Antacids c. Vitamins with iron b.Acetaminophen d/ Salicylates 14. Sheila`s Iamily should be taught to recognize which signs & symptoms oI hypoglycemia? a.Polyuria, headache, Iatigue b.Polyphagia, Ilushed Iace, dry skin c.Polydipsia, pallor, irritability d.Nervousness, diaphoresis and conIusion 15. She is taught to prevent one oI the complications oI DM which is hyperosmolar hyperglycemic non-ketotic syndrome. Which statement by the patient indicates that she understands this complication and the preventive measure to control it? a.'I can avoid getting sick by not becoming dehydrated and by paying attention to my need to urinate, drink, or eat more than usual. b.'II I experience trembling, weakness and headache, I should drink a glass oI soda that contains sugar. c.'I`ll have to monitor my blood glucose level closely and notiIy the doctor iI it`s constantly elevated. d.'II I begin to Ieel especially hungry and thirsty, I`ll eat a snack high in carbohydrates. Situation (16-18). Barbara was admitted to the hospital to have a pituitary tumor removed. After surgery, she developed diabetes insipidus, a common complication of this surgery. 16. The nurse should expect to administer which drug to treat Barbara`s diabetes insipidus? a.Vasopressin c. Regular Insulin b.Furosemide (Lasix) d. Dextrose 10 in water 17. Which outcome indicates that treatment Ior Barbara`s diabetes insipidus has been eIIective? a.Fluid intake oI less than 2,500 ml in 24 hours b.Urine output oI more than 200ml/hour c.Blood pressure oI 90/50 mmHg d.Pulse rate oI 126beats/minute 18. A nursing diagnosis oI risk Ior Iluid volume excess related to aggressive Iluid resuscitation is appropriate Ior Barbara because she requires water replacement. When the nurse evaluates her response Ior water replacement, which signs and symptoms would indicate water intoxication? a.ConIusion and seizures b.Sunken eyeballs and spasticity c.Flaccidity and thirst d.Tetany and increase BUN levels Situation (19-21). Ruth, a 68yo patient who has been complaining of sleeping more and having anorexia, weakness, irritability, depression, bone pain and increased urination. Because of her pain, she rarely goes outdoors. 19. Based o these signs and symptoms, Ruth most likely has: a.Diabetes mellitus c. Hypoparathyroidism b.Diabetes insipidus d. Hyperparathyroidism 20. Ruth`s laboratory Iindings would include which Iinding? a.Hypocalcemia c. Hyperphosphatemia b.Hypercalcemia d. Hypophosphatemia 21. When instructing Ruth about her diet, the nurse should stress the importance oI: a.Restricting Iluids c. Forcing Iluids b.Restricting sodium d. Restricting potassium Situation (22-24). Jeanette, age 35 is admitted to the medical- surgical floor with fatigue, malaise, pallor, and oliguria. She has a 10yr history of systemic lupus erythematosus for which she receives Prednisone. 22. Because Jeanette is receiving prednisone, she should be assessed Ior: a.Hypotension c. Hypocalcemia b.Polyuria d. Hyperglycemia 23. The nurse enters the room and Iinds Jeanette crying. She states, 'My Iace is Iat and ugly. I can`t stand it anymore. The nurse`s best response would be: a.'You`ve been sick a long time. It must be very diIIicult. b.'You can`t stop taking prednisone abruptly because you`ll become quite ill. c.'Obviously, you`re experiencing an adverse eIIect oI prednisone, it will go away soon. d.'II you`d like your privacy now, I`ll leave. 24. Which oI the II could trigger an exacerbation oI Jeanette`s systemic lupus erythematosus? a.sun exposure c. dietary salt intake b.change in body temperature d. exercise Situation (25-29). James, a 32yo is admitted in vaso-occlusive sickle cell crisis. He complains of chest pain, shortness of breath, severe myalgia, and arthalgia. 25. Which oI the II may have triggered James` vaso-occlusive crisis? a.aspirin use c. jaundice b.recent chest cold d. spicy Ioods 26. During vaso-occlusive crisis, the nurse should encourage James to: a.Change his position Irequently b.Restrict his Iluid intake c.Decrease his protein intake d.Drink 3-5 liters oI Iluids each day 27. Unrelieved abdominal pain that occurs during vaso-occlusive crisis may indicate: a.Iecal impaction c. attention-seeking behavior b.mesenteric inIarction d. pancreatitis 28. James complains oI chest pain. The nurse should: a.NotiIy the doctor c. Massage the aIIected area b.OIIer emotional support d. Distract the patient 29. James complains oI priapism during vaso-occlusive crisis. The nurse suggests that: a.Taking a warm bath may alleviate the problem b.Taking Iolic acid supplement can prevent priapism c.He should stop thinking sexually-arousing thoughts d.He should stand to void Situation (30-33). Gary is admitted to the hospital with shaking chills and fever. His red blood cell count is abnormally low, causing the doctor to suspect aplastic anemia. 30. Gary is at greater risk Ior inIections with aplastic anemia because: a.A large amount oI immature RBCs are produced b.Granulocyte production is depressed c.An excessive amount oI thrombocytes are present d.Vit. B12 isn`t being absorbed by the stomach 31. Which oI the II should be included in Gary`s plan oI care? a.Avoiding IM injections b.Maintaining strict bed rest c.Measuring and recording hourly intake & output d.Checking pedal pulses every 4 hours 32. Which oI the II drugs that Gary has taken may be responsible Ior causing aplastic anemia? a.IbuproIen c. Levothyroxine b.Bactrim d. Heparin 33. Gary has severe granulocytopenia. The nurse should teach him to: a.Avoid raw Iruits and vegetables b.Take Vitamin C to ward oII common cold c.Observe Ior polydipsia and polyuria d.Restrict sodium in the diet Situation (34-37). William is admitted to the hospital with shortness of breath, chest pain, and numbness and tingling in his hands. His hemoglobin level is 6.4mg/dl and his hematocrit 19.2. A Schilling test is ordered to rule out the diagnosis of pernicious anemia. 34. When teaching William about a Schilling test, the nurse explains that: a.This test studies Vit. B 12 absorption Irom the stomach b.AIter an iron injection, he`ll need to produce a urine sample c.His urine will be collected Ior 24 hours to determine the Iolic acid content d.A blood sample will be taken Irom his arm, and his RBC distribution width will be measured 35. The nurse begins the 24-hour urine collection Ior the Schilling test at 7am. William is instructed: a.To collect all oI his urine Irom 7am today until 7am tomorrow b.To discard the Iirst voided specimen at 7am today and save all urine, including that Irom 7am the next day c.To discard the Iirst voided specimen today and tomorrow but save all urine in between d.That an indwelling urinary catheter will be inserted to ensure no urine is lost during the 24-hr period 36. William states, 'The doctor says iI I have pernicious anemia, I`ll need shots the rest oI my liIe. Why can`t I just take a pill? A nurse`s best response would be, 'When you have pernicious anemia: a.Vit. B 12 can`t be absorbed in your stomach because you lack the intrinsic Iactor needed Ior absorption b.The B vitamins are destroyed by the gastric mucosa beIore absorption. c.An overproduction oI erythropoietin inactivates Vit. B 12 in your stomach d.Your bone marrow is incapable oI producing RBCs 37. Anemia that results Irom Vit. B 12 deIiciency diIIers Irom other anemia because: a.Death Irom sepsis is likely with Vit B 12 deIiciency b.Neurologic dysIunction may result Irom Vit B 12 deIiciency c.Bruising, bleeding, and ecchymosis are common with Vit B 12 deIiciency d.Shortness oI breath and tachycardia result Irom Vit B 12
deIiciency Situation (38-39). Mary, age 72 came to the clinic at the request of her daughter. She has a history of type 2 DM and her BP is 172/94mmHg. 38. Diagnosis oI Mary`s hypertension is based on: a.Symptoms such as headache and visual changes b.Serial elevation oI diastolic blood pressure c.A Iamily history oI atherosclerosis d.A history oI renal disease 39. Mary is prescribed Captopril (Capoten) to treat her hypertension. This drug is classiIied as: a.An ACE inhibitor b.A beta-adrenergic blocker c.A calcium-channel blocker d.A vasodilator Situation (40-41). Robert, age 65, is standing at the bus stop with his daughter when he suddenly groans and collapses. 40. The nurse is walking down the street when she hears Robert`s daughter screaming Ior help. How should the nurse intervene? a.She should determine iI the victim is unresponsive, summon emergency medical services (EMS), and initiate cardiopulmonary resuscitation in the interim b.She should provide rescue eIIort Ior 1 minute, then activate the EMS system c.She should assess the victim`s pulse and breathing, open his airway and activate EMS d.She should open the victim`s airway, assess his breathing, provide rescue breathing, assess his pulse, then activate EMS 41. Which oI the II statements is true concerning endotracheal intubation Iollowing cardiac arrest? a.It shouldn`t be delayed so that ventilation can be delivered by another device. b.It increases the risk oI gastric content aspiration. c.It should only be perIormed by persons proIicient at the procedure. d.It should precede deIibrillation in patients with ventricular deIibrillation or pulseless ventricular tachycardia. Situation (42-45). Bill, a 74yo smoker with advanced coronary artery disease is scheduled for surgical revasculari:ation of the coronary arteries to bypass plaque obstructions. 42. Revascularization oI the coronary arteries is also known as: a.Percutaneous transluminal coronary angioplasty b.Coronary artery bypass graIt c.Percutaneous transluminal valvuloplasty d.Valvular annuloplasty 43. When giving discharge instructions to Bill Iollowing his coronary artery bypass graIt surgery, the nurse should include inIormation about all oI the II symptoms, the most common oI which is: a.ConIusion c. Ankle edema b.Syncope d. Depression 44. Which oI the II would be the most appropriate nursing diagnosis Ior a patient with coronary artery disease? a.IneIIective thermoregulation b.Impaired gas exchange c.Risk Ior injury d.Decreased cardiac output 45. Which oI the II would be the best expected outcome Ior a patient with decreased cardiac output? a.The patient will exhibit no evidence oI conIusion b.The patient will have normal blood urea nitrogen and creatinine level c.The patient`s BP and pulse will be within normal limits d.The patient will exhibit no evidence oI skin breakdown Situation (46-49). Bill, age 54 comes to the emergency department complaining of sharp, substernal chest pain that increases with deep inspiration. He had a myocardial infarction 2 months prior to admission. 46. Bill says the pain radiates to his neck, shoulders, back and arms & it decreases when he sits up and leans Iorward. Based on this assessment, you suspect that he has: a.Developed another MI c. Pericarditis b.Endocarditis d. Myocarditis 47. When auscultating Bill`s heart sounds, the nurse would expect to hear: a.A grating sound c. A loud snap b.A murmur d. A click 48. Bill begins showing signs oI heart Iailure (dyspnea, orthopnea and tachycardia) and complains oI generalized substernal chest pain and Iullness oI his chest. He`s at risk Ior developing which oI the II complications oI pericarditis? a.Neoplasms c. InIiltrates b.Cardiac Tamponade d. Myalgia 49. The nurse should prepare Bill Ior which oI the Iollowing emergency treatments Ior cardiac tamponade? a.Pericardiorrhaphy c. Pericardectomy b.Pericardiolysis d. Pericardiocentesis Situation (50-54). David, age 24, is admitted to the hospital following a motor vehicle accident. He wasnt wearing a seat belt. His BP is 82/46mmHg, his HR is 118beats/min., and RR is 32breaths/min. 50. David is restless and cyanotic. Based on this Iinding, the nurse should Iirst: a.PerIorm nasotracheal suctioning b.Inspect the patient`s back Ior lacerations c.Observe the patient`s chest Ior symmetry d.Palpate the patient`s abdomen Ior tenderness 51. While inspecting the patient`s chest, the nurse notes that the chest wall contracts on inspiration and bulge on expiration. From this assessment, she suspects: a.Hemothorax c. Pneumothorax b.Flail Chest d. Tension Pneumothorax 52. David`s arterial blood gas (ABG) analysis reveals a pH oI 7.20, a PaCO2 oI 65mmHg, a PaO2 oI 45mmHg, and HCo3 oI 22 mEq/L. These laboratory values indicate: a.Respiratory Acidosis c. Respiratory Alkalosis b.Metabolic Acidosis d. MetabolicAlkalosis 53. David`s respiratory status continues to deteriorate. The nurse should prepare to assist with: a.Chest decompression c. Pulmonary Iunction tests b.Chest tube insertion d. Endotracheal intubation Situation (54-56). Tomas, is a 19yo roofer who fell from a scaffold 20 feet to the ground. He was admitted to the emergency department with multiple abrasions, complaining of shortness of breath. 54. Tomas` chest Xray reveals a right pneunothorax. With this in mind, the nurse should Iirst: a.Help the patient turn, cough, and deep-breathe b.Prepare a chest drainage system c.Prepare the patient Ior CT scan oI the chest d.Administer a sedative. 55. As the nurse helps Tomas out oI bed, his chest tube becomes dislodged and Ialls to the Iloor. Which oI the II must be done Iirst: a.Positioning the patient on the side where the chest tube was placed b.Reinserting the chest tube c.Sealing oII the insertion site d.Having the patient perIorm valsalva maneuver 56. Assessment oI Tomas aIter chest tube insertion should include: a.Noting bubbling within the drainage chamber b.Measuring chest drainage every 24 hours c.Auscultating breath sounds every 4 hours as needed d.Percussing Ior subcutaneous emphysema every 8 hours Situation 57-60. Britney is admitted to the medical-surgical floor with a 2-week history of hemoptysis. The doctor suspects lung cancer and has ordered the appropriate diagnostic tests. 57. While preparing Britney Ior a diagnostic test, the nurse explains, 'The doctor will insert a tube down your throat to visualize your trachea and lung passages. The nurse has explained which oI the II diagnostic tests? a.Bronchoscopy c. Pulmonary Angiography b.Ventilation & PerIusion Scan d. Oral Endoscopy 58. The nurse is caring Ior Britney immediately Iollowing her bronchoscopy. Which oI the II nursing diagnoses should receive priority? a.Pain related to throat irritation b.Risk Ior aspiration related to gag reIlex suppression c.Risk Ior injury related to restraint use during the procedure d.Anxiety related to possible diagnosis 59. Britney undergoes a right pneumonectomy Ior lung cancer. Which oI the II positions should not be used when repositioning her immediately Iollowing the procedure? a.Semi-Iowler`s c. Right-side lying b.LeIt-side lying d. High-Iowler`s 60. Britney should be assessed closely Ior which oI the II complications oI a pneumonectomy? a.Pulmonary edema c. Pleurisy b.Transposition oI the great vessels d. Pericarditis Situation (61-66). The ff questions pertain to the GI system. 61. When caring Ior a patient with esophageal varices, the nurse knows that bleeding in this disorder usually stems Irom: a.Esophageal perIoration b.Pulmonary hypertension c.Portal Hypertension d.Peptic Ulcers 62. Jean is diagnosed with Hepatitis A. What special precautions should the nurse take when caring Ior this patient? a.Put on a mask and gown beIore entering the patient`s room b.Wear gloves and a gown when removing the patient`s bedpan c.Prevent the droplet spread oI the organism d.Use caution when bringing Iood to the patient 63. Discharge instructions Ior a patient who has been operated on Ior colorectal cancer include irrigating colostomy. The nurse knows her teaching is eIIective when the patient states he`ll contact the doctor iI: a.He experiences abdominal cramping while the irrigant is inIusing b.He has diIIiculty inserting the irrigation tube into the stoma c.He expels Ilatus while the return is running out d.He`s unable to complete the procedure in 1 hour 64. The nurse explains to the patient who has had an abdominal perineal resection that an indwelling urinary catheter must be kept in place Ior several days aIterward because: a.It prevents urinary tract inIection Iollowing surgery b.It prevents urine retention and resulting pressure on the perineal wound c.It minimizes the risk oI wound contamination by the urine d.It determines whether the surgery caused bladder trauma 65. The Iirst day aIter surgery the nurse Iinds no measurable Iecal drainage Irom a patient`s colostomy stoma. What is the most appropriate nursing interventions? a.Call the doctor immediately b.Obtain an order to irrigate the stoma c.Place the patient on bedrest and call the doctor d.Continue the current plan oI care 66. II a patient`s GI tract is Iunctioning but he is unable to take Ioods by mouth, the preIerred method oI Ieeding is: a.Total parenteral nutrition b.Peripheral parenteral nutrition c.Enteral nutrition d.Oral liquid supplements Situation (67-70). Dennis has bleeding gastric ulcer. Despite multiple blood transfusions, his hemoglobin is 7.6g/dl and hematocrit is 28. His doctor determines that surgical intervention is necessary. 67. Dennis goes to the operating room Ior a partial gastrectomy. Post-operative nursing care would include: a.Administering pain medications every 6 hours b.Withholding Iluids by mouth until the return oI peristalsis c.Positioning the patient in high-Iowler`s position d.Flushing the nasogastric tube with sterile water 68. Dennis doctor perIormed a partial gastrectomy with a vagotomy. What was the purpose oI perIorming the vagotomy? a.To increase gastric emptying b.To regenerate the gastric mucosa c.To stop stress-related reactions d.To reduce acid production 69. Post-operatively, Dennis should be assessed Ior dumping syndrome, a complication oI partial gastrectomy. Which oI the II are early signs and symptoms oI dumping syndrome? a.Diaphoresis and tachycardia b.Headache and constipation c.Hunger and decreased bowel sound d.Hypoglycemia and blurred vision 70. How should the nurse instruct Dennis to decrease the eIIects oI dumping syndrome? a.Tell the patient to drink plenty oI water with each meal b.Instruct the patient to eat three scheduled meals each day c.Tell the patient to sit in a semi-recumbent position during and immediately Iollowing meals d.Teach the patient the importance oI consuming a diet high in carbohydrates and low in proteins Situation (71-74). Samuel, age 64, has history of chronic renal failure. Hes admitted to the hospital with these findings. BP 190/110mmHg, pulse 122 bpm, respirations 32breaths/min, neck vein distention, and crackles auscultated in lung bases. 71. Which oI the II laboratory tests is the most accurate indicator oI Samuel`s renal Iunction? a.Blood urea nitrogen c. Serum Creatinine b.Creatinine Clearance d. Urinalysis 72. Which nursing diagnosis should receive highest priority when caring Ior Samuel? a.Fear c. Fluid Volume Excess b.Urinary Retention d. Toileting, SelI-Care DeIicit 73. Samuel develops hyperkalemia. Which Iinding indicates hyperkalemia? a.Crackles in the bases oI the lungs b.Fever c.Chvostek`s sign d.Muscle weakness and paresthesis 74. Samuel receives hemodialysis and his condition stabilizes. The doctor orders aluminum hydroxide (Amphojel) with each meal. This drug is given to: a.Remove protein wastes oI metabolism b.Bind phosphates in the GI tract c.Exchange sodium Ior potassium in the colon d.Inhibit development oI a stress ulcer Situation (75-80). Debbie returns from the operating room after a small-bowel resection. Her vital signs are stable and her urine output averages 30ml/hour. 75. Which nursing intervention would best prevent Debbie Irom developing acute renal Iailure in the post-op period? a.Having the patient deep breathe and cough every hour to prevent lung congestion b.Taking vital signs every 2 hours to identiIy impending hemorrhage and shock c.Turning the patient every 2 hours to prevent skin breakdown d.Monitoring IV Iluids every 4 hours to prevent Iluid overload 76. The nurse is reviewing Debbie`s Iluid intake and output record. What is the normal relationship between Iluid intake and urine output? a.Fluid intake should be double the urine output b.Fluid intake should approximately equal urine output c.Fluid intake should be halI the urine output d.Fluid intake should be inversely proportional to the urine output 77. The nurse documents that Debbie is oliguric. Oliguria is deIined as: a.Urine output oI greater than 1500 ml in 24 hours b.No urine output in 24 hours c.A urine output oI less than 75ml in 24 hours d.A urine output oI less than 500 ml in 24 hours 78. Debbie is in the oliguric phase oI acute renal Iailure. Which oI the II actions should the nurse take when caring Ior this patient? a.Encourage a low-carbohydrate diet b.Observe Ior signs and symptoms oI osteoporosis c.Help the patient maintain a Iluid restriction d.Encourage the patient to ambulate 79. When assessing Debbie, the nurse would expect her skin to be: a.Dry & cracked c. Pale & bruised b.Bruised & discolored d. Pale & pruritic 80. Debbie begins peritoneal dialysis. Which outcome should the nurse expect Irom this procedure? a.Decreased blood urea nitrogen (BUN) b.Stimulated urine Iormation Irom external kidney pressure c.Increased serum glucose concentration d.Removal oI excess serum parathyroid hormone Situation (81-90). The following questions pertain to musculo- skeletal system. 81. Which statement best describes the nurse`s assessment oI the client with rheumatoid arthritis? a.Assessment is done oI the musculoskeletal, cardiac, pulmonary and renal systems b.Pain is best assessed by monitoring the client`s Iacial expressions during exam and by observing limitations in the client`s own movement c.Vital signs are an adequate assessment oI the acuity oI the client`s level oI pain d.The client`s health history is not nearly as important as the nurse`s Iindings on physical examination 82. An adult is admitted to the medical unit with an acute exacerbation oI rheumatoid arthritis. Which oI the II will the nurse include on his nursing care plan? a.Administer analgesics Ior pain when systolic blood pressure increases 20mmHg or more or pulse increases 20 or more b.Develop plan with client to meet selI-care needs c.Instruct client to stop taking iron supplements that lead to constipation d.Schedule hygiene activities together in one block to provide longer rest periods beIore and aIter care 83. Which statement by an adult with osteoarthritis indicates to the nurse that she understands her therapeutic regimen? a.I will wait until my pain is very bad beIore I take my pain medication, or else Iurther on in my disease, the medication won`t help at all b.Jogging Ior short distance is better Ior my arthritis than walking Ior longer distances c.It would probably be a good idea Ior me to lose 30 pounds my doctor recommended I lose d.I should do all my house cleaning on one day, so I can rest Ior the remainder oI the week 84. In preparing a teaching plan Ior the client with osteoarthritis, the nurse would include which oI the II? a.Application oI cold packs to aIIected joints to decrease swelling b.Client education regarding selI-administration oI medications c.Progressively increasing activity to point muscle Iatigue to build muscle bulk and improve rate oI metabolism d.Teaching client that degenerative changes are progressive and that pain is a natural sequel oI age 85. An adult has a Iractured leIt radius, which has been casted. While perIorming an assessment oI this client, the nurse will correctly identiIy which oI these Iindings as emergent? a.Pain at the Iracture site b.Swelling oI Iingers oI leIt hand c.Diminished capillary reIill oI Iingers oI leIt hand d.Warm, dry Iingers oI leIt hand 86. Which intervention by emergency nurse is critical in caring Ior the client with a Iractured tibia and Iibula? a.Cutting away clothing on the injured leg b.Palpation oI the dorsalis pedis pulses c.Administration oI analgesic medications as ordered d.Initiating two, large-bore IV catheters and warmed normal saline at a Iast rate 87. A IireIighter Iell oII a rooI while Iighting a house Iire and Iractured his Iemur. Approximately 24 hours aIter the incident, the nurse Iinds him dyspneic, tachyneic, with scattered crackles in his lung Iields; he is coughing up large amounts oI thick, white sputum. The nurse correctly interpret this as: a.Respiratory compromise related to inhalation oI smoke b.Pneumonia related to prolonged bedrest c.Fat embolism syndrome related to Iemur Iracture d.Hypovolemic shock related to multiple trauma 88. An adult has a total hip replacement. The nurse understands that his operatie hip is kept on extension and abduction because this position a.Reduces the risk Ior the development oI thromboemboli b.Promotes circulation to the operative site, reducing the risk oI avascular necrosis c.Helps to prevent dislocation oI the hip prosthesis d.Facilitates the drainage oI blood and Iluids oI the operative site 89. An adult who has had a total right hip replacement asks the nurse about 'moving around in this bed. The nurse`s best response based on the knowledge that: a.The client should remain supine Ior 48 hours aIter surgery, with aIIected leg in a slightly inward-rotation position b.Although the client must remain supine, she can cross her legs to change position Ior comIort c.A side-lying position is undesirable but the head oI the bed can be elevated 60-70 to shiIt weight oII oI back and buttocks d.The client will be repositioned using an abductor pillow between the legs 90. Which oI the II Iindings would alert the nurse to notiIy the physician oI a serious complication Ior the client with a cast on his leg? a.Itching under the cast b.Poor capillary reIill oI the toes c.Ability oI client to move toes without diIIiculty d.Pain relieved by application oI ice bag to cast Situation (91-95). The ff questions will pertain to the Integumentary System. 91. The nurse is caring Ior a man admitted with severe burns sustained when his clothing caught on Iire while he was burning leaves. During the acute burn phase, the nurse explains to the nurse that his nursing care plan is directed toward all oI the II except: a.Strict aseptic technique b.Proper alignment oI all joints c.Maintenance oI Iluid & electrolyte balance d.Frequent and routine administration oI narcotics 92. The nurse is planning care Ior an adult man who is admitted with severe Ilame burns. Nursing care planning is based on the knowledge that the Iirst 24-48 hours post-burn are characterized by: a.An increase in the total volume oI intravascular plasma b.Excessive renal perIusion with dieresis c.Fluid shiIt Irom interstitial spaces to plasma d.Fluid shiIt Irom plasma to interstitial space 93. The nurse is caring Ior an adult who was admitted Iollowing severe burns sustained in a house Iire. The nurse understands that an acceptable range Ior an hourly urine output during the Iirst 2 days post burn is: a.20ml b. 30-50ml c. 100-150ml d. 150-200ml 94. A 23yo Iactory worker was burned severely in an industrial accident. He has second degree burns on his right leg and arm and on his back. He has third degree burns on his leIt arm. The triage nurse, using the rule oI nines, estimates the extent oI the client`s burns as: a.36 b. 45 c. 54 d. 60 95. ReIerring to question #94, the burn patient weighs 132 lbs.; based on this & his total body surIace area burned, compute the amount oI Iluid resuscitation needed by the patient in the Iirst 24 hours oI the emergent phase oI burn. Use the Parkland Iormula: a.11 liters b. 12 liters c. 13 liters d. 14 liters Situation 96-100). The ff question refer to the Sense Organs. 96. A client with sensironeural hearing loss should be assessed using which oI the Iollowing? a. Tympanocentesis b. Transillumination oI the sinuses c. Electronystagmography d. Weber and Rinne tests 97. A client reports ongoing problems with vertigo. The nurse should question the client about which oI the Iollowing accompanying maniIestations to determine whether the client has developed Meniere's disease? a. purulent discharge Irom the ear and pain b. headache and double vision c. nausea, vomiting, and headache d. tinnitus, hearing loss, and a sense oI Iullness in the ear 98.A client underwent cataract removal with an intraocular lens transplant. The nurse is giving the client discharge instructions. Which instructions should the nurse include? a. avoid liIting objects weighing more than 5 lb (2.2kg) b. lie on your abdomen when in bed c. keep rooms brightly lit d. avoid straining during bowel movements or bending at he waist 99. A client is blind in the right eye. From which direction should the nursing staII approach the client? a. Irom directly in Iront oI the client b. Irom the right side oI the client c. Irom the leIt side oI the client d. Irom directly behind the client 100. BeIore cataract surgery, the nurse is to instill several types oI eye drops into a client's right eye. The accepted abbreviation Ior the right eye is: a. OD b. OS c. QU d. RE