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CELL BIOLOGY

Exam I
1. In the diagram , Column A could be labeled: a. yeast cells b. E coli cells c. mouse cells d. a or c e. a, b, or c

Characteristic

Column A

Column B

2. E. coli is a good model system for molecular biology studies because a. it has a small genome. b. it reproduces rapidly. c. mutants can easily be isolated from culture dishes. d. mutations can easily be induced e. all of the above 3. The unique properties of different membranes are primarily a function of their a. glycolipids. b. phospholipids. c. cholesterol molecules. d. proteins. 4. The reaction depicted on the right is a common way that cells manage activity of proteins. This reaction is catalyzed by a. Mg b. Fe c. phosphatase d. kinase e. proteinase

5. Under aerobic conditions, the end product of glycolysis is a. ethanol. b. lactate. c. phosphoenolpyruvate. d. pyruvate. e. ribose 6. In yeast, the citric acid cycle occurs in the a. cytosol. b. nucleus. c. mitochondria d. lysosomes e. endoplasmic reticulum

CELL BIOLOGY
Exam I
7. During formation of haploid eggs and sperm, one member of each chromosome pair is transmitted to each cell in a type of cell division called a. mitosis. b. meiosis. c. cytokinesis. d. gametogenesis. 8. Most animal cells are a. haploid. b. diploid. c. euploid. d. tetraploid. 9. A codon is a a. region of DNA coding for one protein. b. sequence of three nucleotides on a tRNA that binds to an mRNA. c. sequence of three nucleotides on an mRNA that binds to specific tRNAs. d. sequence of three nucleotides on the coding strand of DNA. 10. Reverse transcriptase is an enzyme that catalyzes _______ synthesis. a. DNA-dependent RNA b. RNA-dependent DNA c. DNA-dependent DNA d. RNA-dependent RNA 11. Restriction endonucleases are enzymes that a. act only in a single species of bacteria. b. act only on the ends of DNA strands. c. cleave DNA only at specific sequences. d. cleave only nuclear DNA. 12. When introduced into living cells, single-stranded antisense nucleic acids bind to a. complementary DNA sequences and block RNA synthesis. b. the sense strand of DNA and block RNA synthesis. c. complementary RNA sequences and block protein synthesis. d. Both a and c 13. Annealing or hybridization is a method that can be used to identify a. specific RNA b. specific DNA c. specific genes d. specific chromosomes e. all of the above 14. Molecules that capture high energy electrons during the Krebs cycle then transport these electrons to the electron transport chain, that molecule which yields the most ATP is a. FADH2 b. NADH c. NAD d. FADH e. FAD 15. In each cell there would be ______ centromeres. A. 23 B. 46 C. 69 D. 92 E. >200 16. In each cell there would be _____ telomeres. A. 23 B. 46 C. 69 D. 92 E. >200 17. A gene can be defined as a segment of DNA that codes for a. a protein. b. a functional product. c. messenger RNA. d. messenger RNA or ribosomal RNA. 18. Human mitochondrial DNA A. uses the standard genetic code B. encodes its own rRNAs C. contains introns like nuclear genes D. is larger than yeast mitochondrial DNA E. has no DNA 19. A transcriptionally active gene compared with a transcriptionally inactive gene would be expected to contain A. acetylated histones B. unacetylated histones 20. The sites of spindle fiber attachment to chromosomes during mitosis are proteins called A. nucleosome B. centromere C. kinetochore D. telomere E. open-reading frame

CELL BIOLOGY
Exam I
21. Introns in mRNA-coding genes are the transcribed sequences A. that code for proteins. B that do not code for proteins. C. that are removed by nucleases. D. between protein-coding sequences. E. at the 3 end of chromosomes 22. Introns constitute about what percentage of the average human gene? A. 10% B. 40% C. 60% D. 90% E. 30% 23. Synthesis of different isoproteins from the same gene is due to A. intron shuffling. B. exon shuffling. C. alternative splicing. D. exon splicing. E. isomerization 24. Introns are nonfunctional sequences between exons. A. true B. false 25. Replication of plasmid DNA is independent of a replication origin. A. true B. false 26. Which of the following statements is true of all known DNA polymerases? A. They synthesize DNA in the 5 to 3 direction, and they require a preformed primer hydrogenbonded to the template. B. They synthesize DNA in the 5 to 3 direction, and they possess primase activity. C. They require a preformed primer, and they possess helicase activity. D. They synthesize DNA in the 3 to 5 direction, and they possess exonuclease activity. 27. Which of the following statements concerning elongation of DNA at the replication fork is false? A. The leading strand is synthesized continuously in the direction of replication fork movement. B. Each lagging strand Okazaki fragment is synthesized backward from the overall direction of replication. C. The Okazaki fragments are joined by the action of DNA ligase. D. Both strands are synthesized continuously at the replication fork. 28. DNA polymerase requires a primer and cannot initiate synthesis de novo. What serves as a primer for DNA replication? A. Short fragments of DNA complementary to the template strand B. A protein with a free OH group C. Short fragments of RNA complementary to the template strand D. The DNA forms a loop resulting in the formation of double-stranded hairpins at the end of the DNA molecule and these hairpins serve as primers. 29. DNA polymerases can synthesize DNA A. de novo, by catalyzing the polymerization of free dNTPs. B. by adding dNTPs to complementary dNTPs on a single-stranded DNA. C. by adding dNTPs to a hydroxyl group on the end of a growing polynucleotide chain hydrogenbonded to a strand of RNA. D. by adding dNTPs to a hydroxyl group on the end of a growing polynucleotide chain hydrogen-bonded to a strand of DNA. 30. The proofreading property of DNA polymerase is due to its _______ activity. A. 3 to 5 exonuclease B. 5 to 3 exonuclease C. excision repair D. mismatch repair 31. The most common cause of skin cancer is damage to DNA by A. infrared light. B. ultraviolet light. C. particle radiation. D. chemical exposure. 32. When bidirectional replication forks from adjacent origins meet, a leading strand always runs into a lagging strand. A. true B. false 33. RNA polymerase differs from DNA polymerase in that it A. synthesizes new strands of RNA from 3 to 5 B. is a monomeric protein. C. can synthesize a complementary strand without the two strands of DNA being separated. D. does not require a primer to initiate synthesis of RNA.

CELL BIOLOGY
Exam I
34. Which one of the following statements about the newly synthesized strand of a human chromosome is correct? A. It was synthesized from a single origin solely by continuous DNA synthesis. B. It was synthesized from a single origin by a mixture of continuous & discontinuous DNA synthesis C. It was synthesized from multiple origins solely by discontinuous DNA synthesis. D. It was synthesized from multiple origins by a mixture of continuous and discontinuous DNA synthesis. E. It was synthesized from multiple origins by either continuous or discontinuous DNA synthesis, depending on which specific daughter chromosome is being examined. 35. The DNA sequence to which an RNA polymerase binds to initiate transcription of a gene is called a(n) a. enhancer. b. promoter. c. polymerase-binding element. d. origin of transcription. 36. A reporter gene is one that A. causes other genes to be expressed. B. can produce a product that is easily detected when expressed under the control of a regulatory sequence to which it has been ligated and cloned. C. is always on. D. is turned on by the products of other genes. 37. Activity of enhancers depends on neither their distance nor their orientation with respect to the transcription initiation site (e.g. upstream vs downstream). A. true B. false 38. Which of the following modifications IS NOT one made to a primary-mRNA molecule in eucaryotic cells to transform the RNA molecule into a mature, functional mRNA. A. CCA addition to one end B. n(AAAAA) addition to one end C. elimination of noncoding regions D. ligasing of exons E. there is no exception, all are normal modifications 39. Eukaryotic gene repressor proteins are thought to act by binding to A. DNA sites in competition with activating proteins. B. specific activating proteins, preventing their binding to DNA. C. basal transcription factors, inhibiting transcription. D. All of the above 40. Processing of RNA transcripts occurs A. only in eukaryotic cells. B. only with mRNA transcripts. C. only with rRNA and mRNA transcripts. D. with tRNA, rRNA, and mRNA transcripts. 41. The fact that a specific protein leaves a footprint on a DNA molecule is indicative of A. a lack of interaction between the specific protein and DNA B. protection from protease by the specific protein C. binding of the specific protein to all types of DNA D. binding of the specific protein to a specific sequence of DNA E. B and D 42. The amount of a protein in a cell is regulated by the rate of A. transcription of its gene. B. translation of its mRNA. C. degradation of the protein. D. All of the above 43. The wobble position is A. the 3rd position from the 3 end of tRNA anticodon B. the 3rd position from the 5 end of tRNA anticodon C. the 3rd position from the 3 end of mRNA codon D. the 3rd position from the 5 end of mRNA codon E. A and C 44. The first amino acid of eukaryotic polypeptides is A. the amino acid encoded by the 5 terminal codon. B. valine. C. N-formylmethionine. D. methionine. E. glutamine 45. Which of the following statements regarding tRNAs is false? A. tRNAS are approximately 7080 bases long and form a cloverleaf structure. B. All tRNAs have a CCA sequence at their 3 terminus. C. tRNAs differ in sequence only at the anticodon. D. There are several modified bases present in mature tRNAS. 46. In a major protein degradation pathway, a short polypeptide called _______ is attached to a protein to target it for destruction. A. glutathione B. ubiquinone C. ubiquitin D. KDEL

CELL BIOLOGY
Exam I
47. What happens to ubiquitin in proteosomes? A. It is degraded. B. It is released and recycled. C. It is phosphorylated. D. It has an AMP group added. 48. Cells contain 64 tRNAs, with one anticodon for each codon. A. true B. false 49. The membrane-bounded compartment where steroid hormone synthesis occurs is: a. mitochondia b. lysosome c. Golgi d. endoplasmic reticulum e. peroxisome 50. The membrane-bounded compartment in eukaryotic cells where newly synthesized proteins are modified is: a. mitochondia b. lysosome c. Golgi d. endoplasmic reticulum e. c and d 51. The membrane-bounded compartment in eukaryotic cells where breakdown of lipids and toxic molecules occurs is: a. mitochondia b. lysosome c. Golgi d. endoplasmic reticulum e. peroxisome 52. The nucleolus is the site of ribosomal subunit assembly. a.true b. false 53. Ribosomes leave the nucleus as a. intact 80S ribosomes. b. intact 70S ribosomes. c. 40S and 60S ribosomal subunits. d. 18S and 28S rRNAs e. 40S, 5S and 60S ribosomal subunits 54. Inactive, condensed chromatin is called heterochromatin. a. true b. false 55. The nuclear localization sequence in a nuclear protein a. is bound by cytoplasmic proteins that direct the protein to the nuclear pore. b. is a hydrophobic sequence that enables the protein to enter the nuclear memb c. aids protein unfolding in order for the protein to thread through nuclear pores. d. prevents the protein diffusing out the nucleus via nuclear pores. e. does not exist 56. Because the large ribosomal RNA complex is too large to pass through the nuclear pores, it is unfolded and bound to chaperones to mediate the process. a. true b. false 57. All of the following proteins play a role in vesicle formation or vesicle targeting except: a. rab proteins b. coat proteins c. v-SNARES d. t-SNARES e. G protein 58. The contractile ring a. is important for cell locomotion b. contains myosin c. is found in adult skeletal muscle cells d. is a permanent structure in eukaryotic cells e. b and d 59. The intermediate filament disassembly (nuclear laminea) in mitosis is triggered by a. hydrolysis of ATP bound to the subunits b. filament severing proteins c. binding of Ca++ to the subunits d. phosphorylation of the subunits e. dephosphorylation of the subunits 60. Which of the following statements about import of proteins into mitochondria are TRUE? a. The signal sequences on mitochondrial proteins are usually carboxyl terminal. b. The 1st stage of import is across the outer membrane into the intermembrane space. c. Most mitochondrial proteins are not imported from the cytosol but are synthesized inside mitochondria. d. Mitochondrial proteins are translocated across the inner and outer membranes simultaneously. e. Mitochondrial proteins cross the membrane in their native, folded state.

CELL BIOLOGY
Exam I
61. After isolating the rough endoplasmic reticulum from the rest of the cytoplasm, you purify the RNAs attached to it. Which of the following proteins do you NOT expect the RNA from the rough endoplasmic reticulum to encode? a. Soluble secreted proteins b. ER membrane proteins c. Peroxisomal proteins d. Plasma membrane proteins e. Lysosomal proteins 62. Assembly of the 4 chains of an antibody molecule into a functional antibody occur in a. cytoplasm b. Golgi c. nucleus d. ER e. endosome 63. Most small molecules are permeable across a. both mitochondrial membranes. b. the inner, but not the outer, mitochondrial membrane. c. the outer, but not the inner, mitochondrial membrane. d. neither mitochondrial membrane. 64. Mitochondria contain a. genes for mitochondrial proteins. b. genes for rRNAs. c. genes for tRNAs. d. all of the above e. no genes of their own. 65. Which of the following is not based on actin myosin interactions? a. Cell migration (crawling) over surfaces b. Mitosis c. Cytokinesis of animal cells d. Phagocytosis e. None of the above; all are based on actinmyosin interaction. 66. Tim and Tom are a. twin brothers with the same mitochondrial disease. b. chaperones. c. protein translocators in mitochondrial membranes. d. pores in the outer mitochondrial membrane. e. none of the above 67. Microtubules are not the basis for a. movement of chromosomes during mitosis. b. transport of membranous vesicles in the cytoplasm. c. cytokinesis of animal cells. d. movement of cilia and flagella. 68. The major microtubule-organizing center in most animal cells is the a. kinetochore. b. centriole. c. centrosome. d. centromere. 69. What cell components are kinesins able to transport along microtubules? a. Membranous vesicles and mitochondria b. Endoplasmic reticulum c. mRNAs d. All of the above 70. Which of the following IS NOT true about membrane lipids. a. They spontaneously flip-flop from one membrane leaflet to the other b. they move laterally within one membrane leaflet c. they aggregate with membrane proteins to form lipid rafts d. they are unequally distributed in the two membrane leaflets or the leaflets are asymmetrical 71. Cholesterol is taken up into most cells by a. phagocytosis. b. receptor-mediated endocytosis. c. simple diffusion. d. active transport. 72. What is the role of tight junctions in the transport of glucose across the intestinal epithelium? a. Tight junctions open and allow glucose to pass between the epithelial cells. b. Tight junctions keep the Na+-K+ pumps in the apical membrane only. c. Tight junctions keep the Na+-glucose cotransporter in the apical membrane and the glucose-facilitated transporter in the basolateral membrane. d. Tight junctions hold the epithelial cells together. 73. Coupled transport of glucose and Na+ into the intestinal epithelial cell is an example of a. facilitated diffusion. b. symport. c. antiport. d. transcytosis. 74. Which of the following describes the relative concentrations of ions in a typical mammalian cell? a. Na+ and Cl higher inside, K+ higher outside b. Na+ higher inside, K+ and Cl higher outside c. K+ higher inside, Na+ and Cl higher outside d. K+ and Cl higher inside, Na+ higher outside

CELL BIOLOGY
Exam I
75. Channels that open in response to neurotransmitters or other signal molecules are called _______ channels. a. voltage-gated b. ligand-gated c. signal-gated d. ion 76. The glucose-facilitated diffusion transporter can transport glucose a. into the cell only. b. out of the cell only. c. into or out of the cell. d. only in the presence of ATP. 77. Plasma membrane glycolipids are found a. exclusively in the inner leaflet. b. exclusively in the outer leaflet. c. equally distributed between the inner and outer leaflets. d. None of the above 78. Mammalian erythrocytes (red blood cells) are particularly useful for studies of the plasma membrane because a. they have few peripheral proteins. b. they have no membrane-bound cell organelles c. their plasma membrane is not associated with a cytoskeleton. d. All of the above 79. Integrins are a. transmembrane proteins. b. peripheral membrane proteins. c. components of the extracellular matrix. d. components of the desmosome. 80. Ras is a membrane-bound _______ when activated. a. monomeric protein that binds GTP b. dimeric protein that separates into and subunits c. trimeric protein that separates into and subunits d. trimeric protein that separates into and subunits 81. Most growth factor receptors are a. G protein-linked. b. protein-tyrosine kinases. c. serine-threonine protein kinases. d. intracellular receptors. 82. In an active state of a G protein a. the subunit binds to a target protein and the subunit remains bound to the receptor. b. the and subunits both can bind to target proteins. c. the and subunits both can bind to target proteins. d. the subunit can bind to a target protein and the subunit remains bound to the receptor. 83. In meiosis I, sister chromatids a. go to opposite poles. b. go to the same poles. c. have kinetochores facing in opposite directions. d. synapse with each other during the zygotene stage. 84. Transcription ceases as chromosome condensation occurs. a. true b. false 85. Chromosomes are attached to spindle microtubules by a. centromeres. b. kinetochores. c. centrioles. d. centrosomes. 86. Nuclear envelope breakdown the _______ of _______. a. beginning; prophase b. end; prophase c. end; prometaphase d. end; metaphase 87. Rb is a tumor suppressor gene. a. true b. false 88. Entry into mitosis occurs because a. cyclin is destroyed at the beginning of mitosis. b. cyclin is phosphorylated at the beginning of mitosis. c. sufficient cyclin-dependent kinase is synthesized to trigger mitosis. d. cyclin binds to a protein kinase and activates it. 89. The retinoblastoma protein (Rb) binds to and inhibits a. oncogenes. b. transcription factor E2F. c. cyclin-dependent kinase. d. p53.

occurs at

CELL BIOLOGY
Exam I

90. Cell cycles of early embryonic animal cells are unusual because they have a. no G1. b. no G 2. c. a very short S. d. All of the above 91. Skin fibroblasts arrested in G0 are stimulated near a wound to enter G1 by _______ growth factor. a. epidermal b. platelet-derived c. fibroblast d. keratinocyte 92. The G2 checkpoint prevents entry into _______ if _______. a. G2; DNA synthesis is not complete b. M; DNA synthesis is not complete c. M; if DNA is damaged. d. Both b and c 93. Cells are restricted to one round of DNA replication per cycle by origin of replication binding proteins called a. ATMs. b. Akts. c. Oris. d. MCMs. 94. After development, liver cells stop cycling and stay in G1. a. true b. false 95. The distinct series of changes that characterizes programmed cell death is called a. necrosis. b. sepsis. c. apoptosis. d. execution. 96. Which of the following events is not part of apoptosis? a. Fragmenting of chromosomal DNA (maybe) b. Fragmenting of the nucleus c. Fragmenting of the cell d. Lysis of cell fragments and release of their contents 97. During development, 50% of neurons die; those that survive are those that a. generated axons. b. received epithelial growth factor. c. made correct connections with their target cells. d. did not receive an extracellular cell death signal.

98. Apoptotic cells produce eat me signals, which include _______ of cell surface _______. a. loss; carbohydrates b. loss; phosphatidylserine c. gain; phosphatidylserine d. gain; phosphatidylethanolamine 99. Cells that die as the result of acute injury undergo a. lysis b. sepsis. c. apoptosis. d. execution. 100. Members of the Bcl-2 family of proteins are a. all caspases. b. all proapoptotic. c. all antiapoptotic. d. either antiapoptotic or proapoptotic.