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A compilation of questions from various sources .

For bank po preparation

A. Bank of Baroda Sample Question Paper For Marketing And Bank Entrance Exams
1. A prospect means a) any customer who walks into the bank b) an employee of the bank c) a customer who is likely to be interested in bank's product or service d) a depositor of the bank' e) a borrower of the bank 2. A lead means a) a prospect who is more likely to avail of the Bank's product b) a political leader c) a religious leader d) a bank chairman e) None of these 3. Innovation means a) Compensation b) inspiration c) additional perquisites d) implementing new ideas or new methods e) None of these 4. A Call means a) calling on friends b) calling on bank employees c) calling on prospective customers d) to make telephone calls e) calling on relatives 5. The Traditional Marketing style involves a) Telemarketing b) Digital Marketing c) Indirect Marketing d) Direct Marketing e) All of these 6. Modern Method of Marketing include a) Publicity on the net b) Advertisement on the net c) Soliciting business through e-mails d) Tele marketing e) All of these 7. A true marketing requires a) Command and other mindset b) Control Mindset c) Passive mindset d) Active mindset e) None of these 8. Which of the following sentences is true? a) Marketing is not required in a Buyers' Market b) Marketing is not required in a Sellers's market c) Marketing is not required due to competition d) Marketing is not required due to liberalization e) Marketing is not required due to globalisation

9. For effective marketing the salesmen should have which of these qualities? a) Creativity b) Team spirit c) Motivation d) Effective communication skills e) All of these 10. Market information means a) Knowledge of shops and bazaars b) Knowledge of shopping malls c) Knowledge of customer profile and product mix d) knowledge of various languages e) None of these 11. Market Research is needed for a) checking the market area b) checking the right product to be sold c) making proper marketing decisions d) deciding right time to sell e) All of these 12. Which of the following statement is true a) Marketing makes the company to go into loss due to higher expenses b) Marketing is not required in profit making companies c) Marketing sharpens the minds of the employees d) Marketing is a time bound seasonal function e) Marketing is a waste of time 13. Marketing plan helps in a) better lead generation b) better systems c) better results d) improved balance sheet e) better customer service 14. If Marketing is done effectively which of the following is not required? a) Advertisement b) Publicity c) Market Research d) Market Segmentation e) None of these 15. Motivation means a) Inspiring employees to perform better b) Better communication skills c) Sales Coaching d) Market Research e) None of these 16. In a Selling Process in today's world? a) Only standard products are sold b) No customization required c) the seller need not have product knowledge d) the seller should aim at customer satisfaction e) only quantum of sales matters 17. Find the true statement a) Marketing is a waste of the employees' time b) Marketing is not required in India due to its vast population c) Marketing involves additional work d) Marketing involves team work e) Marketing is not required today due to IT advancement

18. A Target market is a) entire country b) entire city c) entire globe d) that which consists of customers who need the identified product e) all of these 19. Sales forecasting involves a) Sales Planning b) Sales Pricing c) Distribution Channels d) Consumer tastes e) All of these 20. Which of the following product is being sold under the brand name ZODIAC a) Shirts b) Ties c) Both A and B d) Liberty 21. SWIFT - cars are being manufactured by a) DCM b) Maruti c) Premier Automobiles d) Hyundai 22. With you all the way is the slogan of a) Vodafone b) SBI c) ICICI d) Raymonds 23. Which company used the slogan "The complete Man" a) DCM b) GRASIM c) RAYMONDS d) VIMAL 24. Which brand uses the slogan "Made for each other" for its cigarettes? a) Cavenders b) Four Square c) Red & White d) Wills 25. Cross Selling means a) Identifying customer needs b) matching the products to customer needs c) convincing the customers of product benefits d) responding to questions and objections of customers e) all of these

ANSWERS

1 (c) 6 (e) 11 (e) 16 (d) 21 (b)

2 (a) 7 (d) 12 (c) 17 (d) 22 (b)

3 (d) 8 (b) 13 ( c) 18 (d) 23 (c)

4 ( c) 9 (e) 14 (b) 19 (e) 24 (d)

5 (d) 10 (c ) 15 (a) 20 (c) 25 (e)

B. BANK OF BARODA PO EXAM SOLVED QUESTION PAPER


Bank of Baroda Probationary Officers Exam., 2008 (Held on 5-10-2008) General Socio-Economic & Banking Awareness: Solved Paper 1. RBIs open market operation transactions are carried out with a view to regulate (A) Liquidity in the economy (B) Prices of essential commodities (C) Inflation (D) Borrowing power of the banks (E) All the above 2. When more than one banks are allowing credit facilities to one party in coordination with each other under a formal arrangement, the arrangement is generally known as (A) Participation (B) Consortium (C) Syndication (D) Multiple banking (E) None of these 3. Open market operations, one of the measures taken by RBI in order to control credit expansion in the economy means (A) Sale or purchase of Govt. securities (B) Issuance of different types of bonds (C) Auction of gold (D) To make available direct finance to borrowers (E) None of these 4. The bank rate means (A) Rate of interest charged by commercial banks from borrowers (B) Rate of interest at which commercial banks discounted bills of their borrowers (C) Rate of interest allowed by commercial banks on their deposits (D) Rate at which RBI purchases or rediscounts bills of exchange of commercial banks (E) None of these 5. What is an Indian Depository Receipt ? (A) A deposit account with a Public Sector Bank (B) A depository account with any of Depositories in India (C) An instrument in the form of depository receipt created by an Indian depository against underlying equity shares of the issuing company (D) An instrument in the form of deposit receipt issued by Indian depositories (E) None of these 6. An instrument that derives its value from a specified underlying (currency, gold, stocks etc.) is known as (A) Derivative (B) Securitisation Receipts (C) Hedge Fund (D) Factoring (E) Venture Capital Funding 7. Fiscal deficit is (A) total income less Govt. borrowing (B) total payments less total receipts (C) total payments less capital receipts (D) total expenditure less total receipts excluding borrowing (E) None of these

8. In the Capital Market, the term arbitrage is used with reference to (A) purchase of securities to cover the sale (B) sale of securities to reduce the loss on purchase (C) simultaneous purchase and sale of securities to make profits from price (D) variation in different markets (E) Any of the above 9. Reverse repo means (A) Injecting liquidity by the Central Bank of a country through purchase of Govt. securities (B) Absorption of liquidity from the market by sale of Govt. securities (C) Balancing liquidity with a view to enhancing economic growth rate (D) Improving the position of availability of the securities in the market (E) Any of the above 10. The stance of RBI monetary policy is (A) inflation control with adequate liquidity for growth (B) improving credit quality of the Banks (C) strengthening credit delivery mechanism (D) supporting investment demand in the economy (E) Any of the above 11. Currency Swap is an instrument to manage (A) Currency risk (B) interest rate risk (C) currency and interest rate risk (D) cash flows in different currencies (E) All of the above 12. Sub-prime refers to (A) lending done by banks at rates below PLR (B) funds raised by the banks at sub-Libor rates (C) Group of banks which are not rated as prime banks as per Bankers Almanac (D) lending done by financing institutions including banks to customers not meeting with normally required credit appraisal standards (E) All of the above 13. Euro Bond is an instrument (A) issued in the European market (B) issued in Euro Currency (C) issued in a country other than the country of the currency of the Bond (D) All of the above (E) None of these 14. Money Laundering normally involves (A) placement of funds (B) layering of funds (C) integration of funds (D) All of (A), (B) and (C) (E) None of (A), (B) and (C) 15. The IMF and the World Bank were conceived as institutions to (A) strengthen international economic co-operation and to help create a more stable and prosperous global economy (B) IMF promotes international monetary cooperation (C) The World Bank promotes long term economic development and poverty reduction (D) All of (A), (B) and (C) (E) None of (A), (B) and (C) 16. Capital Market Regulator is (A) RBI (B) IRDA (C) NSE

(D) BSE (E) SEBI 17. In the term BRIC, R stands for (A) Romania (B) Rajithan (C) Russia (D) Regulation (E) None of these 18. FDI refers to (A) Fixed Deposit Interest (B) Fixed Deposit Investment (C) Foreign Direct Investment (D) Future Derivative Investment (E) None of these 19. What is Call Money ? (A) Money borrowed or lent for a day or over night (B) Money borrowed for more than one day but upto 3 days (C) Money borrowed for more than one day but upto 7 days (D) Money borrowed for more than one day but upto 14 days (E) None of these 20. Which is the first Indian company to be listed in NASDAQ ? (A) Reliance (B) TCS (C) HCL (D) Infosys (E) None of these 21. Which of the following is the Regulator of the credit rating agencies in India ? (A) RBI (B) SBI (C) SIDBI (D) SEBI (E) None of these 22. Who is Brand Endorsing Personality of Bank of Baroda ? (A) Juhi Chawla (B) Kiran Bedi (C) Amitabh Bachchan (D) Kapil Dev (E) None of these 23. The branding line of Bank of Baroda is (A) International Bank of India (B) Indias International Bank (C) Indias Multinational Bank (D) Worlds local Bank (E) None of these 24. The logo of Bank of Baroda is known as (A) Sun of Bank of Baroda (B) Baroda Sun (C) Bank of Barodas Rays (D) Sunlight of Bank of Baroda (E) None of these 25. Which of the following statements(s) is/are True about the exports of China which is a close competitor of India ? (i) Chinas economic success is basically on the fact that it exports cheaper goods to rich nations like the USA, etc.

(ii) In the year 2007 Chinas exports became almost 40% of its GDP. (iii) When compared to India Chinas share in the World Exports is more than 30% whereas Indias share is mere 6% of the global exports. (A) Only (i) (B) Only (ii) (C) Both (i) and (ii) (D) All (i), (ii) and (iii) (E) None of these 26. One of the major challenges banking industry is facing these days is money laundering. Which of the following acts/norms are launched by the banks to prevent money laundering in general ? (A) Know Your Customer Norms (B) Banking Regulation Act (C) Negotiable Instrument Act (D) Narcotics and Psychotropic Substance Act (E) None of these 27. Lot of Banks in India these days are offering M-Banking Facility to their customers. What is the full form of M in M-Banking ? (A) Money (B) Marginal (C) Message (D) Mutual Fund (E) Mobile Phone 28. Which of the following is/are true about the Sub-Prime Crisis ? (The term was very much in news recently.) (i) It is a mortgage crisis referring to credit default by the borrowers. (ii) Sub-Prime borrowers were those borrowers who were rated low and were high risk borrowers. (iii) This crisis originated because of negligence in credit rating of the borrowers. (A) Only (i) (B) Only (ii) (C) Only (iii) (D) All (i), (ii) and (iii) (E) None of these 29. Which of the following is not the part of the structure of the Financial System in India ? (A) Industrial Finance (B) Agricultural Finance (C) Government Finance (D) Development Finance (E) Personal Finance 30. Which of the following is not the part of the scheduled banking structure in India ? (A) Money Lenders (B) Public Sector Banks (C) Private Sector Banks (D) Regional Rural Banks (E) State Co-operative Banks 31. As we all know Govt. of India collects tax revenue on various activities in the country. Which of the following is a part of the tax revenue of the Govt. ? (i) Tax on Income (ii) Tax on Expenditure (iii) Tax on Property or Capital Asset (iv) Tax on Goods and Services (A) Both (i) and (iii) only (B) Both (ii) and (iv) only (C) All (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv)

(D) Only (ii), (iii) and (iv) (E) None of these 32. We very frequently read about Special Economic Zones (SEZs) in newspapers. These SEZs were established with which of the following objectives ? (i) To attract foreign investment directly. (ii) To protect domestic market from direct competition from multinationals. (iii) To provide more capital to agricultural and allied activities. (A) Only (i) (B) Only (ii) (C) Only (iii) (D) All (i), (ii) and (iii) (E) None of these 33. Which of the following groups of countries has almost 50% share in global emission of carbon every year ? (A) US, China, India, South Africa (B) India, China, Russia, Britain (C) South Africa, Nepal, Myanmar (D) US, Russia, China & India (E) None of these 34. Which of the following correctly describes the concept of Nuclear Bank floated by International Atomic Energy Agency ? (i) It is a nuclear fuel bank to be shared by all the nations jointly. (ii) It is a facility to help nations in enrichment of uranium. (iii) It is an agency which will keep a close vigil on the nuclear programme of all the nations. (A) Only (i) (B) Only (ii) (C) Both (i) and (iii) only (D) Only (iii) (E) Both (i) and (ii) only 35. Many times we read about Future Trading in newspapers. What is Future Trading ? (i) It is nothing but a trade between any two stock exchanges wherein it is decided to purchase the stocks of each other on a fixed price throughout the year. (ii) It is an agreement between two parties to buy or sell an underlying asset in the future at a predetermined price. (iii) It is an agreement between stock exchanges that they will not trade the stocks of each other under any circumstances in future or for a given period of time. (A) Only (i) (B) Only (ii) (C) Only (iii) (D) All (i), (ii) and (iii) (E) None of these 36. Inflation in India is measured on which of the following indexes/indicators ? (A) Cost of Living Index (COLI) (B) Consumer Price Index (CPI) (C) Gross Domestic Product (D) Wholesale Price Index (WPI) (E) None of these 37. As per the reports published in the newspapers a section of society staged a demonstration at the venue of the G-8 Summit recently. What was/were the issues towards which these demonstrators were trying to draw the attention of G-8 leaders ? (i) Food shortage which has taken 50 million people in its grip. (ii) Inflation which has gone up substantially across the Globe. (iii) USAs consistent presence in Iraq.

(A) Only (i) (B) Only (ii) (C) Only (iii) (D) Both (i) and (ii) only (E) None of these 38. Hillary Clinton formally suspended her campaign to ensure election of who amongst the following for the next President of USA ? (A) George Bush (B) Barack Obama (C) John McCain (D) Bill Clinton (E) None of these 39. Hugo Chavez whose name was recently in news is the (A) President of Congo (B) Prime Minister of Uganda (C) President of Venezuela (D) Prime Minister of Brazil (E) None of these 40. The Govt. of India has raised the amount of the Loan Waiver to the farmers by 20%. Now the amount is nearly (A) Rs. 60,000 crore (B) Rs. 65,000 crore (C) Rs. 72,000 crore (D) Rs. 76,000 crore (E) Rs. 80,000 crore 41. Delimitation Commission has made a recommendation that next Census should be Panchayat-wise. When is the next Census due ? (A) 2010 (B) 2011 (C) 2012 (D) 2013 (E) 2015 42. The World Health Organisation has urged that advertisements of which of the following should be banned to protect youth from bad effects of the same ? (A) Tobacco (B) Alcoholic drinks (C) Junk Food (D) Soft drinks with chemical preservatives (E) None of these 43. Which of the following countries has allocated a huge amount of US $ 10 billion to provide relief to its earthquake victims ? (A) Japan (B) South Korea (C) China (D) South Africa (E) None of these 44. India and Nepal have many agreements on sharing of the water of various rivers. Which of the following rivers is not covered under these agreements ? (A) Kosi (B) Gandak (C) Ganga (D) Mahakali (E) All these rivers are covered

45. Which of the following names is not closely associated with space programme of India or any other country ? (A) CARTOSAT (B) NLS 5 (C) RUBIN 8 (D) GSLV (E) SCOPE 46. Vijay Hazare Trophy is associated with the game of (A) Hockey (B) Cricket (C) Badminton (D) Football (E) Golf 47. Which of the following was the theme of the Olympic Torch ? (A) Journey of Harmony (B) Green World Clean World (C) Journey of Peace (D) Journey for Hunger-free World (E) None of these 48. Which of the following schemes is not a social development Scheme ? (A) Indira Awas Yojana (B) Mid Day Meal (C) Bharat Nirman Yojana (D) Sarva Shiksha Abhiyan (E) All are social schemes 49. Which of the following is not a member of the ASEAN ? (A) Malaysia (B) Indonesia (C) Vietnam (D) Britain (E) Singapore 50. Which of the following Awards are given for excellence in the field of Sports ? (A) Kalinga Prize (B) Shanti Swarup Bhatnagar Award (C) Arjun Award (D) Pulitzer Prize (E) None of these Answers : 1. (E) 2. (B) 3. (A) 4. (D) 5. (C) 6. (C) 7. (D) 8. (C) 9. (A) 10. (E) 11. (D) 12. (D) 13. (C) 14. (D) 15. (D) 16. (E) 17. (C) 18. (C) 19. (A) 20. (D) 21. (D) 22. (E) 23. (B) 24. (B) 25. (C) 26. (E) 27. (E) 28. (D) 29. (E) 30. (A) 31. (C) 32. (A) 33. (D) 34. (B) 35. (B) 36. (D) 37. (B) 38. (B) 39. (C) 40. (A) 41. (B) 42. (A) 43. (C) 44. (C) 45. (E) 46. (B) 47. (A) 48. (C) 49. (D) 50. (C

C.

Directions (Q 15): In each of the letter series, find the missing letters.

1. a c c a b c a b c b c c 1. b a c c 2. b c c a 3. c b c a 4. c c b a 5. c a b c 2. b b c b c a b b a b c a 1. b c a b 2. a c b b 3. a b c b 4. c a b b 5. a d b c 3. x x y x x x x y x x x x y x 1. y x y y 2. y x x x 3. x y x x 4. x y y y 5. x x x y 4. a a c a b c a b c a a b 1. c a a b 2. a a c b 3. b a a c 4. b a c a 5. None of these 5. c c b c b a c c a c b a 1. b c a c 2. a b c c 3. c c b a 4. a c b c 5. None of these 6. A is Bs sister, C is Bs mother, D is Cs father and E is Ds mother. What is the relationship of A with E? 1. Daughter 2. Grand daughter 3. Grandson 4. Grandmother 5. Sister 7. If yesterdays tomorrow was Wednesday, then yesterdays day-after-tomorrow will be 1. Wednesday 2. Thursday 3. Friday 4. Saturday 5. Sunday 8. Which of the following groups of letters is different from the other groups of letters? 1. FETE 2. GAME 3. HUGE 4. LOVE 5. SMALL 9. Which of the following series is without any law/pattern? 1. FHKOT 2. CEHLP 3. IKNRW

4. LNQUZ 5. INTKR 10. In a row of the six members sitting, P is sitting to the left of Q but to the right of Y. R is sitting to the right of X but to the left of Q who is to the left of Z. The members sitting in the middle are 1. PR 2. RQ 3. XQ 4. PS 5. None of these 11. Select an item from those given in alternatives that has the same property as the one in question 697, 888, 945 1. 146 2. 934 3. 879 4. 555 5. 584 12. Find the missing term in the series BYAZ, ? , DWCX, EVDW 1. AXBY 2. CXBY 3. AZDW 4. CYBX 5. CDBY 13. Find the missing term in the series CEHLQ, FHKOT, ?, LNQUZ 1. GILPU 2. JLOSX 3. IKMQV 4. IKNRW 5. LKMST 14. A boat is going against the stream in a river and it first turns to exact right and then again a second time exactly to the right to its direction of motion. Assuming that the boat is propelled at constant velocity from the start, how will the speed be effected now? 1. Will increase or decrease 2. Will remain the same 3. Will increase 4. Will decrease 5. None of these 15. Select an item from those given as alternatives that has the same property as the one in question. 914, 703, 813 1. 611 2. 789 3. 870 4. 120 5. 154 Directions (Q 1623): Find out the next term in the given series: 16. 9, 12, 21, 48, ? 1. 69 2. 84 3. 102 4. 129 5. 125 17. 95, 115.5, 138, ? 1. 162.5 2. 163.5 3. 164.5

4. 167.5 5. 125.5 18. 7, 11, 13, 17, 19, ? 1. 21 2. 23 3. 25 4. 29 5. 24 19. 563, 647, 479, 815, ? 1. 143 2. 279 3. 386 4. 672 5. 786 20. 79, 68, 57, 46, ? 1. 17 2. 27 3. 35 4. 66 5. 65 21. 5, 1/5, 17, 1/17, 29, 1/29, ? 1. 34 2. 39 3. 41 4. 49 5. 40 22. 18, 27, 6, 9, 2, 3, ? 1. 1 2. 1/3 3. 2/3 4. 1/2 5. 1/4 23. 4, 2, 8, 4, 24, 12, 96, ? 1. 24 2. 36 3. 40 4. 48 5. 50 Directions (Q 2430): Which one is different from others? 24. Calf, Colt, Puppy, Cat, Cub 1. Calf 2. Colt 3. Puppy 4. Cat 5. Cub 25. Ox, Peacock, Lion, Hen, Tiger 1. Lion 2. Ox 3. Peacock 4. Hen 5. Tiger 26. Copper, Diamond, Silver, Gold, Platinum 1. Diamond 2. Gold

3. Silver 4. Copper 5. Platinum 27. Diet, Died, Tied, Tide, Fried 1. Tide 2. Diet 3. Tied 4. Died 5. Fried 28. 16, 22, 30, 45, 52, 66 1. 30 2. 45 3. 52 4. 66 5. 16 29. 8754, 9786, 7986, 3243, 1245 1. 8754 2. 9786 3. 7986 4. 3243 5. 1245 30. 1622, 2540, 3840, 5786, 5453 1. 5786 2. 3840 3. 2540 4. 1622 5. 5453

Answers
1. 2, 2. 3, 3. 4, 4. 3, 5. 4, 6. 2, 7. 2, 8. 1, 9. 2, 10. 4 11. 2, 12. 2, 13. 4, 14. 3, 15. 1, 16. 4, 17. 1, 18. 2, 19. 1, 20. 3 21. 3, 22. 3, 23. 4, 24. 4, 25. 4, 26. 1, 27. 1, 28. 2, 29. 3, 30. 1

D.

Study Notes : Computer Awareness : Quick Revision Notes

(For Union Bank of India, Andhra Bank, Dena Bank, Andhra Bank, Bank of Baroda, State Bank of India etc.) Questions on Computer Awareness have recently been introduced in most Bank Recruitment exams. To help you prepare better for the Bank exams we present to you the revision notes on Computer Awareness. 1. The earlier computers, which were massive in size, were based onvacuum tubes. 2. Early computing machines, like the ENIAC, were actually meant to assist the armed forces. 3. The printers in pre-1950s were punch cards. 4. An improvement on the ENIAC, which pioneered 'stored program', was made possible with the help of the mathematician John von Neumann. 5. Before the 1950s, computers were mostly owned by universities and research labs. 6. The B-programming language was developed by Ken Thompson. 7. Famous people, associated with the ENIAC, EDVAC, UNIVAC computers are Eckert & Mauchly. 8. The 1st commercially produced and sold computer (1951) was UNIVAC. 9. IBM was provided software for PCs by Microsoft. 10. Time-sharing, teletyping, were associated with mainframe computers. 11. The transformation from heavy computers to PCs was made possible using microprocessors. 12. The first microprocessor was developed in 1971 by Intel. 13. The term 'micro' (extremely small) denotes 10-6m. 14. The Harvard student, who chose to write computer programs and dropped studies was Bill Gates. 15. A pentium 4 (P-4) employs roughly 40 million transistors. 16. Mark-1, Apple-1, and collossus were initial desktop computers. 17. Binary digits are briefed as bit. 18. A collection of bits is called byte. 19. C++, is a computer language. 20. The process of eliminating programming faults is called debugging. 21. Starting up on operating system is called booting. 22. A program used to browse the web is called browser. 23. An error in software designing which can even cause a computer to crash is called bug. 24. Click and double-click are achieved using the mouse. 25. Java, C, ForTran, Pascal and BASIC are computer programming languages. 26. The device which sends computer data using a phone line is called MODEM. 27. 'Worm' and 'virus' are actually programs. 28. A 'file' is a unit of information. 29. A megabyte has 106(million) bytes. 30. A small, single-site network is called LAN. 31. A processor that collects several data and sends them over a single line is called bridge. 32. 'Nano' stands for one billionth part. 33. The number of bit patterns using an n-bit code is 2n. 34. The part of a computer that works with the data/programs is called CPU. 35. To convert a binary number to a decimal, we have to express it in power of 2. 36. www stands for world wide web. 37. Mathematics employed in computers is called Boolean algebra. 38. A collection of 8 bits is called byte. 39. The first home computer (1977), which was sold in millions of units was Apple II. 40. 'PARAM' is a supercomputer. 41. A website containing periodic posts is called blog. 42. While cutting and pasting, the cutitem is temporarily stored in the clipboard. 43. http stands for hyper text transfer protocol. 44. The unwanted or non-requested emails are called "spam". 45. A computer framed to give various network services is called server.

E. Syllabus : Syllabus for Bank Probationary Officer (PO) Exams 1. Test of Reasoning/Mental Ability/Aptitude: This section usually tries to test the reasoning abilities and mental aptitude of the candidate. Questions are asked mainly from the following categories. VERBAL Number Series Alphabet Series Test of Direction Sense Coding-Decoding Number Ranking Arithmetical Reasoning Problem on Age Calculation Blood Relations Analogy Decision Making etc.

y y y y y y y y y y

NON-VERBAL Non Verbal Series Mirror Images Cubes and Dice Grouping Identical Figures Embedded Figures etc

y y y y y

2. Quantitative Aptitude: This section tests the quantitative and mathematical skills of the candidate. Questions are asked mainly from the following categories. Number System HCF, LCM Simplification Decimal Fractions Ratio and Proportions Unitary Method Percentage Time and Distance Time and Work Profit and Loss Average Simple and Compound Interest Mensuration (2D and 3D) Algebra Data Interpretation

y y y y y y y y y y y y y y y

3. English: This section is designed to test the language abilities and understanding of English grammar. Questions are asked mainly from the following categories. Verb Adverb Subject Verb Agreement Error Correction

y y y y

y y y y y y y y

Tenses Sentence Rearrangement Fill in the Blanks with Modals, Articles etc Comprehension Answering questions based on Unseen Passages Vocabulary Synonyms Antonyms

4. General Awareness: This section is checks whether the candidate keep himself/herself up to date with the world around them. Questions are asked mainly from the following categories. Current Affairs (National and International) Major Financial/Economic News Budget and Five Year Plans Whos Who Sports Books and Authors Awards and Honours Science - Inventions and Discoveries Abbreviations Important Days International and National Organisations

y y y y y y y y y y y

F.

Facts of Banking System in India


The first, the oldest, the largest, the biggest, get all such types of information about Banking in India in this section.

The first bank in India to be given an ISO Certification -Canara Bank The first bank in Northern India to get ISO 9002 certification for their selected branches -Punjab and Sind Bank The first Indian bank to have been started solely with Indian capital -Punjab National Bank The first among the private sector banks in Kerala to become a scheduled bank in 1946 under the RBI Act -South Indian Bank India's oldest, largest and most successful commercial bank, offering the widest possible range of domestic, international and NRI products and services, through its vast network in India and overseas -State Bank of India India's second largest private sector bank and is now the largest scheduled commercial bank in India -The Federal Bank Limited Bank which started as private shareholders banks, mostly Europeans shareholders -Imperial Bank of India The first Indian bank to open a branch outside India in London in 1946 and the first to open a branch in continental Europe at Paris in 1974 -Bank of India, founded in 1906 in Mumbai The oldest Public Sector Bank in India having branches all over India and serving the customers for the last 132 years -Allahabad Bank The first Indian commercial bank which was wholly owned and managed by Indians -Central Bank of India Bank of India was founded in 1906 in Mumbai. It became the first Indian bank to open a branch outside India in London in 1946 and the first to open a branch in continental Europe at Paris in 1974. The following are the list of Public Sector Banks in India

y y y y y y y y y y y y y y y y

Allahabad Bank Andhra Bank Bank of Baroda Bank of India Bank of Maharashtra Canara Bank Central Bank of India Corporation Bank Dena Bank Indian Bank Indian Overseas Bank Oriental Bank of Commerce Punjab & Sind Bank Punjab National Bank Syndicate Bank UCO Bank

y y y y y y y y y y y y y y y y y y y y y y y y y y y y y y y y y y y

Union Bank of India United Bank of India Vijaya Bank Bank of Punjab Bank of Rajasthan Catholic Syrian Bank Centurion Bank City Union Bank Dhanalakshmi Bank Development Credit Bank Federal Bank HDFC Bank ICICI Bank IDBI Bank IndusInd Bank ING Vysya Bank Jammu & Kashmir Bank Karnataka Bank Karur Vysya Bank Laxmi Vilas Bank South Indian Bank United Western Bank UTI Bank ABN-AMRO Bank Abu Dhabi Commercial Bank Bank of Ceylon BNP Paribas Bank Citi Bank China Trust Commercial Bank Deutsche Bank HSBC JPMorgan Chase Bank Standard Chartered Bank Scotia Bank Taib Bank

List of Private Banks in India

List of Foreign Banks in India

Upcoming Foreign Banks In India By 2009 few more names is going to be added in the list of foreign banks in India. This is as an aftermath of the sudden interest shown by Reserve Bank of India paving roadmap for foreign banks in India greater freedom in India. Among them is the world's best private bank by EuroMoney magazine, Switzerland's UBS. The following are the list of foreign banks going to set up business in India: Royal Bank of Scotland Switzerland's UBS US-based GE Capital Credit Suisse Group Industrial and Commercial Bank of China Merrill Lynch is having a joint venture in Indian investment banking space -- DSP Merrill Lynch. Goldman Sachs holds stakes in Kotak Mahindra arms. GE Capital is also having a wide presence in consumer finance through GE Capital India. India's GDP is seen growing at a robust pace of around 7% over the next few years, throwing up opportunities for the banking sector to profit from

G.

Marketing Aptitude Questions for Banking & PSC Exams

Posted by Admin on September 27, 2010

These Marketing Aptitude Questions are helpful in upcoming Bank, Railways, SSC & State PSC exams. Enjoy Reading

1. The Indian Economy will grow as per the estimates given by the Asian Development Bank (ADB) at which of the following rates in 2008 ? (A) 6.7% (B) 7.5% (C) 8.5% (D) 8% Ans (D)

2. Government has notified the hike in Foreign Direct Investment (FDI) limit for Public Sector Undertakings refineries. The new FDI limit is (A) 26% (B) 49% (C) 51% (D) 75% Ans: (B)

3. As per the report on State of Forest released on February 13, 2008, what is the percentage coverage of forest area in the total geographical area of the country ? (A) 22.20% (B) 21.30% (C) 20.60% (D) 19.90% Ans: (C)

4. 13th Finance Commission has been constituted under the Chairmanship of (A) Y. S. P. Thorat (B) Vijai L. Kelkar (C) T. S. Vijayan (D) Laxmi Narayan Ans: (B)

5. SEBI is a (A) Statutory body (B) Advisory body (C) Constitutional body (D) Non-statutory body Ans: (A)

6. 15th SAARC Summit is scheduled to be held in July-August 2008. The changed venue of the summit is (A) New Delhi (B) Sri Lanka (C) Maldives (D) Bangladesh Ans: (B)

7. When was the SAARC established ? (A) On December 8, 1984 (B) On January 1, 1984 (C) On December 8, 1985 (D) On January 1, 1985 Ans: (C)

8. What is the present number of member countries of European Economic Community ? (A) 15 (B) 12 (C) 25 (D) 20 Ans: (B)

9. Which Committee recommended abolition of tax rebates under section 88 ? (A) Chelliah Committee (B) Kelkar Committee (C) Shome Committee (D) None of the above Ans: (B)

10. Which of the following countries is not the members of European Union ? (A) Switzerland (B) Malta

(C) The Czeck Republic (D) Poland Ans: (A)

11. Pradhanmantri Bharat Jodo Pariyojna is related to (A) Communication (B) Social Integration (C) Linking of Rivers (D) Development of Highways Ans: (D)

12. Sagarmala is a name associated with (A) A drilling vessel (B) A project of port development (C) Oil well in Indian Ocean (D) None of the above Ans: (B)

13. Tarapore Committee submitted its report on Full Convertibility on Rupee in (A) Current account (B) Capital account (C) Both in current as well as in capital account (D) Special Drawing Rights (SDR) Ans: (B)

14. The new President of FICCI (Federation of Indian Chambers of Commerce and Industry) is (A) K. C. Raina (B) V. P. Shetty (C) Rajiv Chandrashekhar (D) Som Mittal Ans: (C)

15. As per Revised Estimates for 2006-07 released by CSO, the growth rate for Indian economy has been estimated to be (A) 9.0% (B) 9.2% (C) 9.4%

(D) 9.6% Ans: (D)

16. CENVAT is related to (A) Sales Tax (B) Excise Duty (C) Custom Duty (D) Service Tax Ans: (B)

17. Aam Admi Bima Yojana provides social security to (A) All labours in rural areas (B) All landless labours living below poverty line in rural areas (C) All labours in urban areas (D) All labours in both rural as well as urban areas Ans: (B)

18. According to 2001 census urbanrural population ratio is about (A) 35 : 65 (B) 32 : 68 (C) 28 : 72 (D) 25 : 75 Ans: (C)

19. As per the final estimates of Ministry of Agriculture, the rice production for 2006-07 is estimated at (A) 80.11 MT (B) 90.0 MT (C) 93.4 MT (D) 101.60 MT Ans: (C)

20. According to 2001 census the state having highest urban population is (A) U.P. (B) Maharashtra (C) Tamil Nadu (D) Kerala Ans: (B)

21. The growth rate of construction sector for the year 2006-07 has been estimated at the level (A) 9.2% (B) 8.5% (C) 11.0% (D) 12.0% Ans: (D)

22. International Finance Corporation (IFC) has decided to fund an Ultra Mega Power Project in Gujarat. This project belongs to (A) Reliance Group (B) Tata Group (C) Birla Group (D) NTPC Ans: (B)

23. Which states ranks first and last respectively in Education Development Index (EDI) prepared to track the progress of states towards providing universal elementary education ? (A) Kerala and Orissa respectively (B) Kerala and Bihar repectively (C) Andhra Pradesh and Orissa respectively (D) Karnataka and Bihar respectively Ans: (B)

24. Targeted power capacity addition for 11th plan period is (A) 41110 MW (B) 66463 MW (C) 68963 MW (D) 86283 MW Ans: (B)

25. During 2006-07 which sector has shown the highest growth rate ? (A) Service Sector (B) Manufacturing Sector (C) Transport and communication (D) Agriculture Sector Ans: (C)

26. The Ex-officio Secretary of NDC is (A) Secretary of Finance Ministry (B) General Secretary of Lok Sabha (C) Secretary of Planning Commission (D) Vice Chairman of Planning Commission Ans: (C)

27. 15th SAARC Summit was held in JulyAugust 2008. The venue of the summit was (A) New Delhi (B) Sri Lanka (C) Maldives (D) Bangladesh Ans: (B)

28. In National Mineral Policy (1993) which mineral was allowed for having investment from private sector (A) Coal (B) Iron (C) Gold (D) Platinum Ans: (A)

29. The share of road transport in total transport of the country is (A) 20% (B) 40% (C) 60% (D) 80% Ans: (D)

30. 11th National Conference on e-governance was held on 78 February, 2008 at (A) Gurgaon (Haryana) (B) Chandigarh (C) Mohali (Punjab) (D) Panchkula (Haryana) Ans: (D)

31. Which percentage of Central Taxes have been recommended by the 12th Finance Commission to be transferred to States ? (A) 28.5%

(B) 29.5% (C) 30.5% (D) 31.5% Ans: (C)

32. Which state possesses the maximum percentage of SC population ? (A) U.P. (B) M.P. (C) Kerala (D) Punjab Ans: (D)

33. Government has decided to cover all districts of the country in National Rural Employment Guarantee Programme (NREGP) (A) Upto January 1, 2008 (B) Upto March 31, 2008 (C) w.e.f April 1, 2008 (D) w.e.f. April 1, 2009 Ans: (B)

34. What is NIKKEI ? (A) Share Price Index of Tokyo Share Market (B) Name of Japanese Central Bank (C) Japanese name of Countrys Planning Commission (D) Foreign Exchange Market of Japan Ans: (A)

35. Which statement is correct for Indian Planning Commission ? (A) It is not defined in Indian Constitution (B) Members and vice-chairman of it do not have fixed working duration (C) Members do not require any minimum education (D) All of these Ans: (D)

36. Which State of the following has adopted VAT (Value Added Tax) w.e.f. January 1, 2007 ? (A) Tamil Nadu (B) Uttar Pradesh (C) Gujarat

(D) Goa Ans: (A)

37. Service Tax revenue collection for 200708 (Budget estimates) was proposed at Rs. 50,200 crore but the revised estimates remained at (A) Rs. 50,603 crore (B) Rs. 52,603 crore (C) Rs. 64,460 crore (D) Rs. 64,640 crore Ans: (A)

38. NABARD was established on the recommendation of (A) Public Account Committee (B) Shivaraman Committee (C) Narsimham Committee (D) None of these Ans: (B)

39. Sampurna Gramin Rojgar Yojana has been launched from (A) 1st April, 2001 (B) 25th Sept., 2001 (C) 30th Sept., 2001 (D) No scheme of such title has yet launched Ans: (B)

40. Which company is providing mobile service with name Cell one to the consumers ? (A) MTNL (B) BSNL (C) Reliance Infocom (D) Bharti Tele Ans: (B)

41. VAT is imposed (A) Directly on consumer (B) On final stage of production (C) On first stage of production (D) On all stages between production and final sale Ans: (D)

42. The newly elevated person as Joint ChairmancumManaging Director of National Aviation Company of India Ltd. (NACIL) is (A) S. Sridhar (B) Viswapati Trivedi (C) Rajiv Chandrashekhar (D) Venugopal Dhoot Ans: (B)

43. Kutir Jyoti scheme is associated with (A) Promoting cottage industry in villages (B) Promoting employment among rural unemployed youth (C) Providing electricity to rural families living below the poverty line (D) All of these Ans: (C)

44. Novelis has been acquired and merged with (A) Tata Steels (B) SAIL (C) HINDALCO (D) Jindal Steels Ans: (C)

45. OTCEI is (A) Atomic Submarine of China (B) Economic policy of USA (C) An Indian Share Market (D) A defence research organisation Ans: (C)

46. The New Chairman of SEBI (Securities and Exchange Board of India) is (A) M. Damodaran (B) C. B. Bhave (C) Venugopal Dhoot (D) Sunil K. Munjal Ans: (B)

47. Gross Budgetary Support (GBS) for 200809 as per document of 11th plan stands at Rs. 2,28,725 crore but in budget proposals for 200809 it has been raised to

(A) Rs. 2,23,386 crore (B) Rs. 2,43,386 crore (C) Rs. 2,63,386 crore (D) Rs. 28,456 crore Ans: (B)

48. The base of Consumer Price Index for Industrial Workers is being shifted from 1982 to (A) 1995 (B) 1998 (C) 2000 (D) 2001 Ans: (D)

49. In Budget proposals for 200809, which of the following gives 24% contribution in revenue collection of union government ? (A) Income Tax (B) Excise (C) Corporation Tax (D) Non-tax Revenue Ans: (C)

50. The base year of present Consumer Price Index (CPI) for Urban Non-Manual Employees (CPIUNME) is (A) 1980-81 (B) 1981-81 (C) 1982-83 (D) 1984-85 Ans: (D)

51. CAPART is related with (A) Assisting and evaluating rural welfare programmes (B) Computer hardware (C) Consultant service of export promotion (D) Controlling pollution in big industries Ans: (A)

52. Note issuing deptt. of RBI should always possess the minimum gold stock of worth (A) Rs. 85 crore (B) Rs. 115 crore

(C) Rs. 200 crore (D) None of these Ans: (B)

53. Which of the following does not grant any tax rebate ? (A) National Saving Certificate (B) Indira Vikas Patra (C) National Saving Scheme (D) Public Providend Fund Ans: (B)

54. Ad hoc Treasury Bill System of meeting budget deficit in India was abolished on (A) 31 March, 1997 (B) 31 March, 1996 (C) 1 April, 1992 (D) 1 April, 1995 Ans: (A)

55. SEBI was established in (A) 1993 (B) 1992 (C) 1988 (D) 1990 Ans: (C)

56. The working of SEBI includes (A) To regulate the dealings of share market (B) To check the foul dealings in share market (C) To control the inside trading of shares (D) All of these Ans: (D)

57. The Ad hoc Treasury Bill System of meeting budget deficit in India was replaced by Ways and Means Advances System which has come into force on (A) March 31, 1997 (B) April 1, 1996 (C) April 1, 1997

(D) None of these Ans: (C)

58. Fiscal deficit as a percentage of GDP was 40% in 200405 which sliped down in 200809 (Budget Estimates) to (A) 3.2% (B) 2.8% (C) 2.5% (D) 2.1% Ans: (C)

59. According to the Economic Survey 200708 during the period April 3, 2007 and February 6, 2008 Indian rupee appreciated against US dollar by (A) 5.6% (B) 6.8% (C) 8.9% (D) 9.3% Ans: (C)

60. Which statement of the following is true for IMF ? (A) It is not an agency of UNO (B) It can grant loan to any country of the world (C) It can grant loan to state Govt. of a country (D) It grants loan only to member nations Ans: (D)

61. For 2006-07, agriculture growth rate has been estimated at (A) 3.8% (B) 5.9% (C) 0.0% (D) 6.3% Ans: (A)

62. Which of the following is public sector organisation ? (1) FCI Food Corporation of India (2) FCI Fertilizer Corporation of India (3) Cotton Corporation of India (4) Jute Corporation of India

(A) Only 1 and 2 (B) Only 2, 3 (C) Only 3, 4 (D) All of these Ans: (D)

63. Which day has been declared as Balika Diwas (Girl Day) by the Ministry of Woman and Children Development ? (A) April 5, every year (B) July 9, every year (C) October 9, every year (D) December 9, every year Ans: (D)

64. For RIDF-XIII, allocation in Union Budget 2006-07 was (A) Rs. 4500 crore (B) Rs. 5500 crore (C) Rs. 10000 crore (D) Rs. 12000 crore Ans: (D)

65. The birth rate and death rate for the year 2006 have been estimated as (A) 26.2 and 8.1 per thousand respectively (B) 24.8 and 8.0 per thousand respectively (C) 23.8 and 7.6 per thousand respectively (D) 23.5 and 7.5 per thousand respectively Ans: (D)

66. Central Issue price of foodgrains under TPDS includes price for BPL and APL (below poverty line and above poverty line). What is the difference between the two ? (A) Price for APL is double of BPL price (B) Price for BPL is one-third of APL price (C) Difference of Rs. 500 per Qt. (D) Difference of Rs. 250 per Qt. Ans: (A)

67. What growth target government has estimated for the domestic crude production for the 11th Plan (200712) ? (A) 42% (B) 33%

(C) 29% (D) 26% Ans: (D)

68. Rural women can avail the benefit of Mahila Samriddhi Yojana if they open their account in (A) Rural Post Offices (B) Commercial Banks (C) Rural Development Bank (D) Any of the above Ans: (A)

69. Agriculture sector registered 6% growth in 2005-06 and it is estimated for year 2007-08 at (A) Again 6% (B) 4.3% (C) 3.3% (D) 2.6% Ans: (D)

70. As per the second advanced estimates of Agricultural Production for the year 2007-08 released by the Ministry of Agriculture, Kharif production has been estimated at (A) 110.52 Million Tonnes (B) 112.24 Million Tonnes (C) 114.42 Million Tonnes (D) 115.9 Million Tonnes Ans: (D)

71. Mistry Committee in its final report recommends full capital account convertibility by (A) 2008 end (B) 2009 end (C) 2010 end (D) 2011 end Ans: (A)

72. Which committee recommended tax on Agriculture Holdings ? (A) Bhootlingam Committee (B) Wanchoo Committee (C) Raj Committee

(D) None of these Ans: (D)

73. The Present Service Tax rate as proposed in Union Budget 2008-09 is (A) 8% (B) 9% (C) 10% (D) 12% Ans: (D)

74. The cause of deflation is (A) Lack of goods and services as compared to money supply (B) Lack of imports as compared to exports (C) Lack of money supply as compared to supply of goods and services (D) None of these Ans: (C)

75. Which of the following is a better measure of economic development ? (A) Employment (B) Size of exports (C) Rural consumption (D) National Income Ans: (D)

76. Which bank in India performs duties of Central Bank ? (A) Central Bank of India (B) State Bank of India (C) Reserve Bank of India (D) Above (A) and (B) Ans: (C)

77. Out of one Rupee expenditure, how much paise have been allotted for subsidy in 2008-09 budget proposals? (A) 12 Paise (B) 10 Paise (C) 8 Paise (D) 7 Paise Ans: (C)

78. India Brand Equity Fund was established in (A) 1996 (B) 1997 (C) 1995 (D) 1992 Ans: (A)

79. Mixed Economy means (A) Co-existence of small and large industries (B) Promoting both Agriculture and Industries in the economy (C) Co-existence of public and private sectors (D) Co-existence of rich and poor Ans: (C)

80. Ministry of HRD has announced to hike FDI limit in Education to (A) 65% (B) 70% (C) 75% (D) 100% Ans: (D)

81. Pure Banking, Nothing Else is a slogan raised by (A) ICICI Bank (B) HDFC Bank (C) SBI (D) UTI Bank Ans: (C)

82. During 2006-07, External debt to GDP ratio in India stood at (A) 16.4% (B) 17.4% (C) 17.8% (D) 15.8% Ans: (A)

83. Indian State having the lowest Infant Mortality Rate is (A) Maharashtra (B) Goa

(C) Gujarat (D) Kerala Ans: (D)

84. Smart Money is a term used for (A) Internet Banking (B) Credit Card (C) Cash with Bank (D) Cash with Public Ans: (B)

85. Which of the following has the maximum share in GSM Mobile Phone Service Market ? (A) Vodafone (earlier Hutch) (B) Airtel (C) BSNL (D) Reliance Ans: (B)

86. The main objective of TRYSEM was (A) To train rural youth for self employment (B) To train urban youth for self employment (C) Both of the above (D) None of these Ans: (A)

87. The establishment of IORARC (Indian Ocean Rim Association for Regional Co-operation) was officially declared on (A) March 5, 1996 (B) March 5, 1997 (C) April 1, 1997 (D) August 15, 1947 Ans: (B)

88. Inside Trading is related to (A) Share Market (B) Horse racing (C) Taxation

(D) Public Expenditure Ans: (A)

89. The largest source of National Income in India is (A) Service Sector (B) Agriculture (C) Industrial Sector (D) Trade Sector Ans: (A)

90. Public Sector means (A) Government ownership on commerce and trade (B) Capitalist ownership on commerce and trade (C) Private ownership on trade (D) None of these Ans: (A)

91. NABARD is (A) A bank (B) A board (C) A block (D) A department Ans: (A)

92. Indian Green Revolution is the most successful in (A) Wheat and Potato (B) Jwar and Oil Seeds (C) Wheat and Rice (D) Tea and Coffee Ans: (C)

93. The period of 10th plan in India was (A) 2000-2005 (B) 2001-2006 (C) 2002-2007 (D) 2003-2008 Ans: (C)

94. Economic Planning is in (A) Union list (B) State list (C) Concurrent list (D) Not any specified list Ans: (C)

95. Presently (from April 29, 2003) bank rate in India is (A) 7.0% (B) 6.75% (C) 6.25% (D) 6.0% Ans: (D)

96. Gross domestic savings as a proportion of GDP has been improving. What is the average percentage of gross domestic savings during the 10th plan ? (A) 26.4% (B) 31.4% (C) 34.8% (D) 35.2% Ans: (B)

97. 12th Finance Commission has recommended to merge and determine one single interest rate on various outstanding central loans to states having different interest rates. What is this recommended interest rate ? (A) 7.0% (B) 7.5% (C) 8.0% (D) 8.5% Ans: (B)

98. MRTP is related to (A) Monopoly and trade restrictions (B) Inflation control (C) Transport control (D) Foreign Exchange Regulations Ans: (A)

99. Interest Rate Policy is a part of (A) Fiscal Policy (B) Industrial Policy (C) Monetary Policy (D) None of these Ans: (C)

100. The basis of determining dearness allowance to employees in India is (A) National Income (B) Consumer Price Index (C) Standard of Living (D) Per Capita Income Ans: (B)

H. Books & Authors related Quiz for All Exams


Posted by Admin on December 21, 2010 These Books & Authors related Quiz can be helpful in various competitive exams. so enjoy reading

1. Who is the author of The Kalam effect: My years with the president? (a) P.M.Nayar (b) Sonia Gandhi (c) L.K.Adwani (d) Arun Shaurie ANS (a)

2. Who is the author of the book Superstar India : From Incredible to Unstopable? (a) L.K.Adwani (b) Arundhati Roy (c) Shobha De (d) Vikram Seth ANS (c)

3. The Sanskrit poet called as the Indian Shakespeare? (a) Kalidasa (b) Thulasidas (c) Sudraka (d) Kautilya ANS (a)

4. Mulk Raj Anand is the author of (a) The Post Office (b) Gora (c) India Wins Freedom (d) Coolie ANS (Try Yourself)

5. Who is the author of the book My other two daughters? (a) Lalu Prasad Yadav (b) Surjit Singh Barnala

(c) E.M. Forster (d) Paul Kennedy ANS (b)

6. Who is known as the Father of Detective Story (a) Arthur Conan Doyle (b) Bram Stoker (c) Edgar Allen Poe (d) None of the above ANS (c)

7. Man-The Maker of His Own Destiny book was written by (a) V.S. Naipaul (b) Mahatma Gandhi (c) Guenter Grass (d) Swami Vivekananda ANS (d)

8. Find out the odd one (a) Louis Fischer (b) Ibsen(c) William Shakespeare (d) Sherlock HolmesANS (d) Others are writers. Sherlock Holmes is a character 9.One among the following is not written by Kalidasa (a) Saakunthalam (b) Raghu Vamsam (c) Rith Samharam (d) Kaavyadooth ANS (d)

10. Sonia, a Biography was written by (a) Sonia Gandhi (b) Arundhathi Roy (c) Rasheed Kidvai (d) V.K. Madhavan Kutty ANS (c)

11. One among the following is not a Harry Potter story (a) Chamber of secrets (b) The philosophers stone (c) Half blood prince (d) Naked Truth ANS (d)

12. Jules Verne, a French science fiction writer wrote a book, which carried a more or less accurate prediction of the launching of Apollo-8. Which is the book (a) From the Earth to the moon (b) All under Heaven (c) A Midsummer Nights Dream (d) Past and Present ANS (a)

13. Who is the author of A Passage to England? (a) E.M. Forster (b) Nirad C. Chaudhari (c) G.B. Shaw (d) Winston Churchill ANS (b)

14. Does IT matter is a book written by (a) Bill Gates (b) N. R. Narayanan (c) Nicholas Carr (d) Thomas D. Harris (e) None of these ANS (c)

15. Beyond time is the book written by (a) Namita Gokhale (b) Ruskin Bond (c) William Balrymple (d) Josef Korbel (e) None of these ANS (e)

16. The famous book Anandmath has been authorised by (a) Rabindranath Tagore (b) Bankim Chandra Chattopadhyaya (c) Sarojini Naidu (d) Sri Aurobindo ANS (b)

17.Who wrote a book describing the theory of economic drain of India during British rule? (a) Dadabhai Naoroji (b) Lala Lajpat Rai (c) Mahatma Gandhi (d) Jawaharlal Nehru ANS (a)

18. The author of the book Waiting for Godot is: (a) Ruth Harring (b) Susan Sontag (c) Samuel Beckett (d) Ben Jonson ANS (c) Waiting for the Mahatma R. K. Narayanan Waiting to Exhale Terry Mc Millan

19. The Vedas contain all the truth, was interpreted by: (a) Swami Vivekananda (b) Swami Dayanand (c) Swami Shraddhanand (d) S. Radhakrishnan ANS (b)

20. Sirr-i-Akbar was the Persian translation of fifty-two Upanishads by which son of shah Jahan? ANS Dara Shikoh

21.In The Travels of Gulliver, what is the first things two Lilliputians discuss when they meet in the morning? ANS The health of the sun

22.The man who knew infinity is the biography of (a) Rene Descartes (b) Stephen Hawking (c) Albert Einstein (d) S. Ramanujan ANS (d)

23.What was the original name of Alice in Wonderland when Lewis Carroll first showed it to novelist Henry Kingsley in 1863? ANS Alices Adventures Underground

24. The author of the book Waiting for the Mahatma is (a) R.K Narayan (b) N.A Palkhiwala (c) Amrita Pritam (d) M. Malgonkar ANS (a)

25. Under the patronage of which ruler of the Javanese house of Mataram, was the epic poem Arjuna vivaha written? ANS King Airlangga

26. To whom, in his own words, did Rudyard Kipling dedicate his collection, Plain Tales From the Hills? ANS To the wittiest woman in India

27. Beyond the Last Blue Mountain is R.M Lalas biography of which Indian? ANS J. R. D. Tata

28. Which of Agatha Christies books was the first to be serialised in the Evening News under the title Anna the Adventure? ANS The Man In The Brown Suit

29. Who has authored the book A Brief History of Time? (a) Carl Sagan (b) Issac Asimov (c) John Gribbin (d) Stephen Hawking ANS (d)

30. The book Living with Honour is written by (a) Arundhati Roy (b) Shiv Khera

(c) Pramod Batra (d) Vikram Seth ANS (b)

31. The book Cricket My Style is written by (a) Sunil Gavaskar (b) Sachin Tendulkar (c) Kapil Dev (d) Mohinder Amarnath ANS (c)

32. Who wrote the book The Book of Indian Birds ANS Dr. Salim Ali

33. Economic History of India was written by ANS R. C. Dutt

34.The oldest of the vedic literature is (a) Sama Veda (b) Yajur Veda (c) Rig Veda (d) Atharva Veda ANS (c)

35. Leelavathi the famous sanskrit grantha is a book on ANS Mathematics

36. Who is the author of An Equal Music (1999) ANS Vikram Seth

37. Who wrote the poem Passage to India in 1871 ANS Walt Whitman (American Poet)

38. Who is the author of the book The Canterbury Tales ANS Geoffrey Chaucer

39. Who is the author of the book Anna Karenin ANS Leo Tolstoy

40.Who is the author of the book The Adventures of Tom Sawyer ANS Mark Twain

41. Who is the author of the book The Adventures of Sherlock Holmes? ANS Sir Arthur Conan Doyle

42.Who is the author of the book The Comedy of Errors? ANS William Shakespeare

43. Who is the author of the book Animal Farm ANS George Orwell

44. Who is the author of the book The Rime of the Ancient Mariner? ANS Samuel Taylor Coleridge

45. Who is the author of the book, Through the Looking-Glass? ANS Lewis Carroll

46. Who is the author of the book, Alls Well That Ends Well? ANS William Shakespeare

47. Who is the author of the book Akbar-nama ANS Abul Fazl

48. Who is the author of the book The Adventures of Huckleberry Finn? ANS Mark Twain

49. Who is the author of the book Antony and Cleopatra? ANS William Shakespeare

50. Who is the author of the book , Philosophiae Naturalis Principia Mathematica (Mathematical Principles of Natural Philosophy, 1687) ANS Sir Isaac

51. Who is the author of the book Jyoti Punj? (a) L.K.Adwani (b) Atal Bihari Vajpeyi (c) Narendra Modi (d) Vikram Seth ANS (c)

I. Solved Bank Question Paper


By dimple  August 31, 2009  Post a comment 1) An athlete runs 200 metres race in 24 seconds.His speed (in km/hr) is

(1) 20

(2) 24

(3) 28.5

(4) 30

Ans (4)

2)A train passes two bridges of lengths 800 m and 400 m in 100 seconds and 60 seconds respectively The length of the train is

A 80m B.90m

C. 200 m 0. 150m

Ans (3)

3) Find the least multiple of 23, which when divided by18, 21 and 24 leaves the remainder 7, 10 and 13 respectively

1 3013

2.3024

3. 3002

4. 3036

Ans 1

4)Find the greatest number of five digits which when divided by 3, 5, 8, 12 have 2 as remainder

1 99999

2.99958

3. 99960

4. 99962

Ans (4)

5. If 324 x 150= 54, 251 x 402 = 48 and 523 x 246= 120, then 651 x 345 =?

1. 120

2. 85

3. 144

4. 60

Ans (3)

6. Some equations are solved on the basis of certain system. Find out the correct answer for the unsolved equation on that basis.

If 12 x 7 =408 and 9 x 8 =207, then 13 x 7 =?

1. 190

2. 91

3. 901

4. 109

ans (4)

7. If NOIDA is written as STNIF, how MEERUT can be written in that code?

1. QIIVYX

2. RJJWZV

3. RJJWZY

4. RIIVYX

ans (3)

J. SAMPLE PAPER Bank Probationary Officer Recruitment Exam


SAMPLE PAPER - Bank Probationary Officer Recruitment Exam (Practice Questions for SBI, Corporation Bank, Allahabad Bank, Bank of Baroda Exam) REASONING - MENTAL ABILITY - APTITUDE 1. Captain' is related to a Team' in the same way as Director' is related to (1) Supervisor (2) Employee (3) Organisation (4) Union (5) Customer 2. Find the odd one out of the following options (1) Aunt (2) Child (3) Father (4) Niece (5) Relation 3. Pointing to a photograph of Mahesh, Ram said. "The father of his sister is the husband of my wife's mother". How is Ram related to Mahesh? (1) Brother (2) Brother-in-law (3) Father-in-law (4) Data not sufficient (5) None of these 4. If fork' is called plate', plate' is called 'knife', knife' is called jug', jug' is called glass', glass' is called cup' and cup' is called fork', by what do we cut fruit? (1) spoon (2) jug (3) glass (4) saucer (5) none of these 5. If a' is substituted by 26,'B' by 25 and so on up to Z' which is substituted by 1, what will be the sum of the numbers substituted for the word XRAY'? (1) 33 (2) 40 (3) 37 (4) 73 (5) None of these 6. In a certain code COIMBATORE is written as DPJNCBUPSF. How is INDORE written in that code? (1) JOENQF (2) JMCPQD (3) JOEPSF (4) HMCNQD (5) None of these 7. Geeta is elder to Seeta but not to Deepa. Gayatri is younger than Deepa. No one is elder to Fatima. Who is youngest of them all? (1) Seeta (2) Geeta (3) Gayatri (4) Data not sufficient (5) None of these 8. Raman is sitting to the immediate left of Harry but not next to Kamal. Mahesh is sitting to the right of Kamal. If the four friends are sitting in a circle who is sitting to the immediate right of Harry? (1) Mahesh (2) Kamal (3) Raman (4) Harry (5) Cannot be determined 9. How many three letter meaningful English words can be formed from the word NOTE beginning with T' and without repeating any letter? (1) Three (2) One (3) Two (4) None (5) None of these Directions (11-15): Answer question 11 to 15 based on the following sequence: A $ B # 9 G 3D K M ? C Q 2 X 7 P 5 U 8 I 4 Y J 11. How many elements in the above arrangement are both immediately preceded and immediately followed by a number? (1) One (2) Two (3) Three (4) Five (5) None of these 12. Which of the following will be the fifteenth element from the left end if all the numbers are arranged in descending order from left to right, keeping the position of the other elements in arrangement un-changed? (1) 5 (2) 4 (3) 7 (4) 8 (5) None of these 13. How many letters in the above arrangement are immediately followed by a symbol? (1) Two (2) Five (3) Four (4) Three (5) None of these 14. Which of the following will be eighth to the left of the twelfth from the left end of the arrangement? (1) # (2) 7

(3) U (4) 9 (5) None of these 15. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way based on their position in the above arrangement and so form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that group? (1) G$M (2) K9Q (3) ?D7 (4) 2MU (5) PCI 16. In a certain code language' In ba pe' means he has won','le ki ba' means she has lost' and in se pe' means he always won'. Which word in that language means he'? (1) in (2) pe (3) se (4) Data not sufficient (5) None of these 17. X is Y's brother. S is T's mother and X's aunt. How is T related to X? (1) Sister (2) Cousin (3) Aunt (4) Cannot be determined (5) None of these 18. If the letters of the word OBSERVANT are interchanged, such that the first becomes ninth, second becomes eighth, and so on, and the position of the fifth letter remains unchanged then what will be the new arrangement of letters? (1) TNAVERSBO (2) TNVARESBO (3) NTAVERSBO (4) VANTRESBO (5) None of these 19. If 1 is coded as , 5 is coded as %, 6 is coded as , 3 is coded as +, 7 is coded as # and 4 is coded as ? What will be the correct form of the number 435671? (1) ? + % # (2) ? + % # (3) ? + % # (4) # % + ? (5) None of these 20. Which of the following have the same relationship as BREAD:DBARE? (1) SWORN: NSOWR (2) FUNDS: FSDUN (3) GLAZE : EGZAL (4) LOWER: RLEWO (5) None of these Directions (21-25): Read the following information and attempt the given questions: Six executive Aman, Bindu, Deepa, Jitu, Kamal and Priyanka have to advertise four products i.e. soap, watches, computers and chocolates on 3 different channels, i.e. Go, Come and Fun either alone or in pairs. An executive can visit only one channel and advertise only one product. No more than two executives can advertise on a channel. (i) Bindu and Jitu both visit the same channel but advertise different products. (ii) Aman who visits Go' advertises neither soap nor computers. (iii) Kamal does not advertise chocolates. (iv) No girl advertises soap. (v) The two executives who advertise chocolates visit Spice (vi) 21. Who advertises watches? (1) Deepa (2) Kamal (3) Aman (4) Priyanka (5) None of these 22. Which of the following Channel-product pairs in definitely incorrect? (1) Go-watch (2) Come-computer (3) Go-soap (4) Come-soap (5) Come-watch 23. Which channel does Kamal visit? (1) Go (2) Fun (3) Come (4) Cannot be determined (5) None of these 24. If Bipasha advertises computers which of the following must be true? (1) Jitu advertises soap (2) Jitu advertises watches (3) Kamal advertises computers (4) Kamal works for Fun (5) None of these 25. What will Jitu advertise? (1) Chocolates (2) Watches (3) Computers or watches (4) Cannot be determined (5) None of these 26. Swaroop and Simple want to attend a seminar together between 9 a.m. to 5 p.m. on Friday. Simple cannot leave till after her lunch break which begins at 1.30 p.m. Swaroop is free after her meeting which ends at noon. For how many hours can the two of them attend the seminar? (1) 3 hours (2) 2 hours

(3) 4 hours (4) Cannot be determined (5) None of these 27. How many pairs of letters are there in the word ANSWER each of which has as many letters between them in the word as there are in the English language? (1) One (2) Two (3) Four (4) Three (5) None of these 28. Find the odd one out (1) 2 (2) 7 (3) 11 (4) 13 (5) 9 29. If all the letters in the word MERCIFUL are rearranged in alphabetical order and substituted by the alphabet preceding them in the English alphabet what will be the new arrangement of letters? (1) BDHEKLQT (2) BDEHKLQT (3) BDEHLKQT (4) BDEJMLQT (5) None of these 30. Out of 38 families in a housing society 5 subscribe to Hindi news-papers alone, 12 subscribe to both Hindi and Marathi newspapers. Find the number of Maranthi news-paper subscribers. (1) 9 (2) 21 (3) 17 (4) Cannot be determined (5) None of these Directions (31-35): Below are given letters and their numeric codes. Below that are given some conditions to be followed while codifying the given letter groups in each question. Study them and find out the correct numeric coded form of the given letter group in each question. If none of the coded forms is correct, your answer will be (5) i.e. None of these'.

Letters M Numeric 2 Codes

Q 5

I 3

N 7

E 1

Y 8

U 4

G 6

R 9

Conditions: (i) If the first and last letters are vowels both are to be coded as . (ii) If the second letter is a vowel and the third letter is a consonant a single code is to be used and both are to be coded jointly as %. (iii) If the first letter is a consonant and the last letter is a vowel both are to be coded as? 31. ENIMY (1) 1%28 (2) ?732? (3) 17328 (4) ?7328 (5) None of these 32. GENIR (1) ?173? (2) 6%39 (3) 6%79 (4) 61739 (5) None of these 33. QUERI (1) 5%93 (2) ?413? (3) ?4139 (4) ?419? (5) None of these 34. EINUM (1) 1%72 (2) 0%42 (3) 1374? (4) 1%43 (5) None of these 35. UNGRE (1) 769 (2) 4769 (3) 47691 (4) 7691 (5) None of these Directions (36-40): In each question below are two statements followed by two conclusions numbered I and II. You have to take the two given statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance from commonly known facts and then decide which of the given conclusions logically follows from the two statements disregarding commonly known facts. Give answer (1) if only conclusion I follows. Give answer (2) if only conclusion II follows. Give answer (3) if either conclusion I or II follows. Give answer (4) if neither conclusion I nor II follows. Give answer (5) if both conclusions I or II follow. 36. Statements: Some pencils are lead. All lead are ink Conclusions: I. Some ink are pencils.

II. All ink are lead. 37. Statements: Some ovens are refrigerator. Some refrigerators are ACs. Conclusions: I. Some ACs are ovens. II. No. AC is oven. 38. Statements: All planes are birds. All birds are clouds. Conclusions: I. Some planes are clouds. II. Some clouds are birds. 39. Statements: Some sweets are salt. No salt in spice. Conclusions: I.. Some sweets are spice. II. No spice is salt. 40. Statements: Some papers are plastics. All papers are clothes. Conclusions: I. Some plastics are clothes. II. Some plastics are papers. Directions (41-45): Each of the following questions below consists a question and two statements numbered I and II given below it. You have to decide if the data provided in the statements are sufficient to answer the question. Read both statements and: Give answer (1) if the data in statements I alone is sufficient to answer the question while the data in statement II is not sufficient to answer the question. Give answer (2) if the data in statement II alone is sufficient to answer the question, while the data in statement I alone is not sufficient to answer the question. Give answer (3) if the data either in statement I alone or in statement II alone is sufficient to answer the question. Give answer (4) if the data in both the statements I and II are not sufficient to answer the question. Give answer (5) if the data in both the statements I and II together are necessary to answer the question. 41. How is cricket' written in a code language? I. Dinesh play cricket' is written as do si ha'. II. play cricket now' is written as ha si ma'. 42. Who is the oldest among L, M, N, O,P? I. P is older than M and N but not O. II. L is older than O. 43. When is Rahul's birthday? I. Rahul and Shivani are twins. II. Rahul was born on the last day of February in a leap year. 44. What is the strength of the class? I. Shekhar stood 28 ranks below the top ranker and Mahesh who stood 5 ranks below him stood last. II. Jayesh was 9 ranks below Ramesh who stood 27th from the top. 45. How far does Shruti live from the school? I. Shruti has to cycle 3 kms. To her friend Mina's house which is 4 kms. From thee school. II. Gitanjali lives exactly opposite the school and walks 2 kms. to reach Shruti's house. Directions (46-50): The following questions are based on the five three digit numbers given below: 972 526 487 359 251 46. If the positions of the firs and second digits are interchanged which of the following will be third if they are arranged in ascending order? (1) 359 (2) 972 (3) 526 (4) 487 (5) 251 47. If 2 is added to the sum of the digits of each of the above numbers how many will be multiples of 5? (1) None (2) One (3) Two (4) Three (5) None of these 48. If 1 is subtracted from the last digit of each of the above numbers the sum of the digits of how many of them are prime numbers? (1) None (2) Two (3) One (4) Three (5) All five 49. If the digits in each of the above numbers are written in reverse order which will be the second highest number? (1) 251 (2) 359 (3) 487 (4) 526 (5) 972 50. If the positions of the digits of each of the numbers are interchanged such that the first becomes second, second becomes third and third becomes firs, which, of the following will be the highest? (1) 972 (2) 526 (3) 487 (4) 251 (5) 359

Answer Key for Mental Aptitude Reasoning

1. (3) 6. (3) 11. (4) 16. (4) 21. (3) 26. (1) 31. (3) 36. (1) 41. (4) 46. (1)

2. (5) 7. (4) 12. (3) 17. (2) 22. (4) 27. (2) 32. (2) 37. (3) 42. (5) 47. (4)

3. (2) 8. (2) 13. (2) 18. (5) 23. (1) 28. (5) 33. (4) 38. (5) 43. (2) 48. (3)

4. (2) 9. (1) 14. (1) 19. (1) 24. (2) 29. (2) 34. (5) 39. (2) 44. (1) 49. (3)

5. (2) 10. (1) 15. (5) 20. (5) 25. (3) 30. (5) 35. (1) 40. (5) 45. (3) 50. (5)

K. Bank of Baroda PO Exam Paper Computer General Awareness 2010


By Soni Raj on January 31st, 2011 1. In a survey of more than 500 companies and government agencies, ____________ percent detected computer security breaches. A. 20 B. 75 C. 85 D. 99 Answer: C 2. The survey showed that these businesses lost more than ____________ due to security breaches. A. $100,000 each B. $377 million C. five employees each D. $1 million Answer: B 3. The typical computer criminal is a(n): A. young hacker. B. trusted employee with no criminal record. C. trusted employee with a long, but unknown criminal record. D. overseas young cracker. Answer: B 4. The majority of computer crimes are committed by: A. hackers. B. insiders. C. overseas criminals. D. young teenage computer geniuses. Answer: B 5. The common name for the crime of stealing passwords is: A. spooling. B. identity theft. C. spoofing. D. hacking. Answer: C Reference: Theft by Computer 6. Collecting personal information and effectively posing as another individual is known as the crime of: A. spooling. B. identity theft. C. spoofing.

D. hacking. Answer: B 7. Malicious software is known as: A. badware. B. malware. C. maliciousware. D. illegalware. Answer: B 8. A program that performs a useful task while simultaneously allowing destructive acts is a: A. worm. B. Trojan horse. C. virus. D. macro virus. Answer: B Moderate 9. An intentionally disruptive program that spreads from program to program or from disk to disk is known as a: A. Trojan horse. B. virus. C. time bomb. D. time-related bomb sequence. Answer: B 10. In 1999, the Melissa virus was a widely publicized: A. e-mail virus. B. macro virus. C. Trojan horse. D. Time bomb. Answer: A 11. What type of virus uses computer hosts to reproduce itself? A. Time bomb B. Worm C. Melissa virus D. Macro virus Answer: B 12. The thing that eventually terminates a worm virus is a lack of: A. memory or disk space. B. time. C. CD drive space. D. CD-RW. Answer: A 13. When a logic bomb is activated by a time-related event, it is known as a: A. time-related bomb sequence. B. virus. C. time bomb. D. Trojan horse. Answer: C 14. A logic bomb that was created to erupt on Michelangelos birthday is an example of a: A. time-related bomb sequence. B. virus. C. time bomb. D. Trojan horse. Answer: C 15. What is the name of an application program that gathers user information and sends it to someone through the Internet? A. A virus B. Spybot C. Logic bomb D. Security patch Answer: B 16. Standardization of Microsoft programs and the Windows operating system has made the spread of

viruses: A. more complicated. B. more difficult. C. easier. D. slower. Answer: C 17. HTML viruses infect: A. your computer. B. a Web page in the HTML code. C. both a Web page and the computer that is viewing it. D. No 18. Software programs that close potential security breaches in an operating system are known as: A. security breach fixes. B. refresh patches. C. security repairs. D. security patches. Answer: D 19. When customers of a Web site are unable to access it due to a bombardment of fake traffic, it is known as: A. a virus. B. a Trojan horse. C. cracking. D. a denial of service attack. Answer: D 20. ___________ is the measurement of things such as fingerprints and retinal scans used for security access. A. Biometrics B. Biomeasurement C. Computer security D. Smart weapon machinery Answer: A 21. What is the most common tool used to restrict access to a computer system? A. User logins B. Passwords C. Computer keys D. Access-control software Answer: B 22. The most common passwords in the U.S. or Britain include all EXCEPT: A. love. B. Fred. C. God. D. 123. Answer: D 23. Hardware or software designed to guard against unauthorized access to a computer network is known as a(n): A. hacker-proof program. B. firewall. C. hacker-resistant server. D. encryption safe wall. Answer: B 24. The scrambling of code is known as: A. encryption. B. a firewall. C. scrambling. D. password-proofing. Answer: A 25. If you want to secure a message, use a(n): A. cryptology source. B. encryption key.

C. encryption software package. D. cryptosystem. Answer: D Reference: How It Works: 10.2 Cryptography 26. To prevent the loss of data during power failures, use a(n): A. encryption program. B. surge protector. C. firewall. D. UPS. Answer: D 27. A(n) ____________ can shield electronic equipment from power spikes. A. encryption program B. surge protector C. firewall D. UPS Answer: B 28. All of these are suggestions for safe computing EXCEPT: A. dont borrow disks from other people. B. open all e-mail messages but open them slowly. C. download shareware and freeware with caution. D. disinfect your system. Answer: B 29. Freeware ___________ encrypts data. A. encryption B. firewall software C. PGP D. private and public keys Answer: C 30. ____________ is defined as any crime completed through the use of computer technology. A. Computer forensics B. Computer crime C. Hacking D. Cracking Answer: B 31. Most computer systems rely solely on ___________ for authentication. A. logins B. passwords C. encryption D. lock and key Answer: B 32. Creating strong computer security to prevent computer crime usually simultaneously helps protect : A. privacy rights. B. personal ethics. C. the number of cookies downloaded to your personal computer. D. personal space. Answer: A 33. Over ___________ was spent by businesses and government to repair problems in regard to Y2K. A. 20 million dollars B. 100 million dollars C. 1 billion dollars D. 100 billion dollars Answer: D 34. What is a complex system that takes on nearly complete responsibility for a task eliminating the need for people, verification, or decision making? A. Autonomous system B. Missile defense auto-system C. Smart weapon D. Independent system Answer: D

35. Security procedures can: A. will eliminate all computer security risk. B. reduce but not eliminate risks. C. are prohibitively expensive. D. are inaccessible for the average home user. Answer: B Fill in the Blank: 36. The field of computer ____________ uses special software to scan hard drives of potential criminal suspects. Answer: forensics Reference: Online Outlaws: Computer Crime Difficulty: Challenging 37. Computer ____________ often goes unreported because businesses fear negative publicity. Answer: crime 38. ____________ connections are the most frequent point of attack for Internet commerce. Answer: Internet 39. ____________ is the most common form of computer crime. Answer: Theft 40. A survey by eMarketer.com found that ____________ are the most often cited online fraud cases. Answer: online auctions Reference: Identity Theft 41. Theft of computers is most common for PDAs and ____________ computers. Answer: notebook 42. When you use a disk in several different computers within the same day, you are taking the chance of contracting a(n) ____________. Answer: virus Reference: Viruses Difficulty: Easy 43. A(n) ____________ attaches itself to documents that contain embedded programs that automate tasks. Answer: macro virus 44. Both viruses and ____________ use computer hosts to replicate. Answer: worms 45. ____________ programs search for and eliminate viruses. Answer: Antivirus 46. A security patch is a software program that closes possible security breaches in the operating system. The cost to the consumer is ____________. Answer: nothing or free 47. ____________ was once the word used for malicious computer wizardry. Answer: Hackers or hacking 48. ____________ refers to electronic trespassing or criminal hacking. Answer: Cracking 49. DoS stands for ___________. Answer: denial of service 50. DDoS stands for ___________. Answer: distributed denial of service 51. ____________ hijack Web pages and redirect users to other sites. Answer: Webjackers 52. ___________ software monitors and records computer transactions. Answer: Audit-control 53. Each individual who uses a public key cryptosystem has ___________ keys. Answer: two Reference: How It Works: 10.2 Cryptography 54. PGP stands for ___________. Answer: Pretty Good Privacy 55. Most operating systems, including Windows XP, assign each user a unique ___________. Answer: user identifier or user ID 56. It should now be common knowledge that users should not open ___________ from e-mail recipients that the user does not know. Answer: attachments

L.

Here is a Sample Paper for Corporation Bank Probationary Officer Exam. Its is based on the question paper set in the year 2007 for General Awareness on Socio-Economic Developments section of the question paper. We hope you will find it helpful.

1. Mr. Gordon Brown has taken over as the Prime Minister of (a) Italy (b) Canada (c) France (d) South Africa (e) Britain 2. Justice A.R.Lakshmanans name was recently in news as he has taken over as the(a) Chief Justice of India (b) Chairman of the 18th Law Commission (c) Chief Justice of Allahabad High Court (d) Chairman of the Union Public Service Commission (e) None of these 3. Which of the following was the name of the space shuttle which brought Sunita Williams and few others on the earth recently? (a) California (b) Mir Space (c) Boston Marathon (d) Edwards (e) Atlantis 4. The Government of India recently announced a special Rashtriya Krishi Vikas Yojana so that States can better their Agricultural output and performance. The size of the package is around (a) Rs. 20,000 crore (b) Rs. 25,000 crore (c) Rs. 30,000 crore (d) Rs. 35,000 crore (e) Rs. 40,000 crore 5. Which of the following organizations/agencies has recently floated a Private Equity (PE) Fund with an initial corpus of Rs. 100 crore to help its client to further expand their business activities? (a) NABARD (b) SIDBI (c) ECGC (d) IDBI Bank (e) None of these 6. Which of the following Software Companies recently launched its educational portal Unlimited Potential in India? (a) Microsoft (b) Infosys (c) Wipro (d) TCS (e) None of these 7. Which of the following monuments of India is now one of the Seven New Wonders of the World? (a) Mughal Garden of the Rashtrapati Bhawan (b) Dal Lake of Srinagar (c) Gol Gumbaj of Bijapur (d) Victoria Memorial of Kolkata (e) Taj Mahal 8. The Indian Navy recently commissioned its new Warship INS Jalashwa. The ship is acquired from(a) France (b) Russia (c) Britain (d) Germany (e) U.S.A 9. Which of the following activities does not form a part of the functions of a well established Banking Company? (a) Liquidity Management (b) Forex Management

(c) Outsourcing Back room operators (d) Enhancing/Forecasting/Monitoring cash flow (e) Frequency Modulation of Delivery channels 10. A steeprise in the share prices of which of the following Group of Companies recently has made its Chairman Indias first only trillionire? (a) Aditya Birla Group of Companies (b) Reliance Industries (c) Tata Group of Companies (d) Wipro (e) None of these 11. Which of the following events is not associated with the game of Tennis? (a) French Open (b) Australian Open (c) US Open (d) Formula Renault V-6 (e) Wimbledon 12. Which of the following organizations has celebrated recently its silver jublie? (a) ECGC (b) State Bank of India (c) SIDBI (d) SEBI (e) NABARD 13. Who among the following cricketers completed 15,000 runs in ODIs? (a) Rahul Dravid (b) Ricky Ponting (c) Brian Lara (d) Sachin Tendulkar (e) Sourav Ganguly 14. Which of the following State Governments has set up a committee to consider the claim of the Gujjar community to be included in the list of scheduled tribes? (a) Punjab (b) Madhya Pradesh (c) Bihar (d) Haryana (e) Rajasthan 15. With the purpose of raising capital in the share market, the first public issue of share of the company to the investors is called.. (a) Initial public proposal (b) Inclusive proposal (c) Mutual fund (d) Haze fund (e) None of these 16. Who among the following chess players won the GM Open Championship, organized recently in Luxembourg? (a) Vishwanath Anand (b) Koneru Humpy (c) K.Shashikaran (d) P.Harikrishna (e) None of these 17. Which of the following events took place on July 21, 1969, which termed as universal wonder in the human history? (a) Landing of Appolo-II on moon (b) Invention of atom bomb (c) Invention of Super computer (d) Heart transplant (e) None of these 18. Which of the following pairs of countries is the largest arms as per data issued by the Stockholm International Peace Research Institute, Sweden? (a) India-China

(b) China-Pakistan (c) India-Pakistan (d) Iran-China (e) None of these 19. Recently, Francisco Totty of Italy announced his retirement from international matches. Francisco Totty is a famous player of .. (a) Lawn Tennis (b) Football (c) Badminton (d) Cricket (e) Golf 20. Finance Minister of India, recently, expressed his concern over the falt in production of food grains in India. What has been the approximate quantity of food production during the last few years? (a) 100 million tonnes (b) 150 million tonnes (c) 200 million tonnes (d) 250 million tonnes (e) 300 million tonnes 21. What approximate amount of help has Mayawati sought from the Center to expedite the development of backward areas of Uttar Pradesh? (a) Rs. 50,000 crore (b) Rs. 60,000 crore (c) Rs. 70,000 crore (d) Rs. 80,000 crore (e) Rs. 1,00,000 crore 22. Charges of corruption against the Chief Justice were dismissed and termination of his service was cancelled by the Supreme Court of which of the following countries/ (a) Bangladesh (b) Nepal (c) Pakistan (d) Iran (e) None of these 23. What percentage of rural income is obtained from agricultural activities of the country as per data given to press by the Union Finance Minister in an interview? (a) 20% (b) 25% (c) 35% (d) 43% (e) 53% 24. In which of the following States, the Government of India is planning to set up a National Institute of Handloom Technology? (a) Tamil Nadu (b) Kerala (c) Andhra Pradesh (d) Orissa (e) None of these 25. Novartis a Swiss based firm is operating in India in big way- Novartis has its business in which of the following sectors in India? (a) Textile (b) Diamond Mining (c) Pharma (d) Paper Newsprint (e) Steel and Iron ANSWERS: 1. (e), 2. (b), 3. (e), 4. (b), 5. (b), 6. (a), 7. (e), 8. (e), 9. (e), 10. (b) 11. (d), 12. (e), 13. (d), 14. (e), 15. (a), 16. (b), 17. (a), 18. (a), 19. (b), 20. (c) 21. (d), 22. (c), 23. (a), 24. (e), 25. (c)

M. Idioms and Phrases for Competitive Exams English Sample Paper


Buzz up!2 votes Lets prepare for the English Language Today. Idioms are Phrases are an important part of the English Language test in almost all Entrance Exams like Bank PO, SSC, LIC, NDA, CDS, B Ed, etc. Idioms and phrases are similar to "muhavare" that we have in Hindi. Lets see how you perform. Directions: In each of the following questions part of sentence is in bold. Four alternative meanings of the highlited part of the sentence are given below the sentence. Mark as your answer that alternative meaning which you think is correct. If none of the first four is correct, mark (5) i.e. none of these as your answer. 1. In the last few years India has advanced by leaps and bounds in the industrial sector. 1. Very rapidly 2. Very competently 3. Very slowly 4. Very pathetically 5. None of these 2. The authorities turned a deaf ear to the demands of the employees. 1. Immediately implemented 2. Agreed to listen to 3. Misrepresented 4. Whole-heartedly agreed to 5. None of these 3. He was in doldrums after the quarrel he had with his brother. 1. He was jubilant 2. He was in low spirits 3. He was in a financial difficulty 4. He left the house 5. None of these 4. If you pass this difficult examination it will be a feather in you cap 1. Your parents will be very happy 2. You will get a scholarship for higher studies 3. You will feel proud of it 4. You will get a very good job 5. None of these 5. Tell me plainly who broke the mirror, do not beat about the bush. 1. Pretend to be unaware of the matter 2. Try to impress me with your arguments 3. Put any blame on others 4. Approach the matter in a round about way 5. None of these 6. Some people have a habit of wearing their heart on their sleeve. 1. saying something which is not to be taken seriously 2. exposing their innermost feelings to others 3. avoiding being friendly with others 4. always trying to gain advantage over others 5. wasting their time on unnecessary details 7. I raked my brains to solve this difficult problem. 1. I read number of books 2. I consulted several people 3. I used my commonsense 4. I subjected my mind to hard thinking 5. I brainwashed several experts 8. He was a king who ruled his subjects with a high hand. 1. sympathetically 2. kindly 3. democratically 4. conveniently 5. oppressively 9. It is a matter of gratification for me that he has turned a new leaf. 1. begun a different mode of life 2. proved to be a worthy person on his job 3. decided to use a different strategy to solve the problem 4. accepted the new job that was offered to him 5. started using his intelligence 10. He is a plain, simple and sincere man, he will always call a spade a spade. 1. be outspoken

2. help needy person 3. stand by his friends and relatives 4. sacrifice his life for others 5. put up a simple dress 11. It was such a strange affair that I could not make head or tail of it. 1. tolerate it 2. face it 3. remember it 4. believe it 5. understand it 12. He is temporarily in charge of the company and is trying to feather his nest. 1. bring order and discipline in the company 2. raise the image of the company 3. act for his own future benefits 4. diversify the product of the company 5. practice his own brand of management philosophy 13. Those who make no bones about such actions face a tough oppostion. 1. do without hesitation 2. make no plan 3. waste no time 4. invite no comments 5. None of these 14. Mrs B is known as a shoplifter in a Mumbai commercial center. 1. smuggler 2. a thief in the guise of a customer 3. buyer of all new things 4. daily visitor 5. None of these 15. The people in north India are known for keeping open house. 1. never locking it 2. not worrying about its security 3. offering hospitality to everyone 4. keeping it well ventilated 5. None of these Directions (Q 16-20): In each of the following questions an idiomatic expression and its four possible meaning are given. Find out the correct meaning of the idiomatic expression and mark the number of that meanings as your answer on the answer sheet. If you do not find any correct answer, mark 5', i.e. none of these as your answer. 16. To make clean breast of 1. to gain prominence 2. to praise oneself 3. to confess without reserve 4. to destroy before it blooms 5. None of these 17. To end in smoke 1. to make completely understand 2. to ruin oneself 3. to excite great applause 4. to overcome some one 5. None of these 18. To leave someone in the lurch. 1. to come to compromise with someone 2. constant source of annoyance to someone 3. to put someone at ease 4. to desert someone in his difficulties 5. None of these 19. To cry wolf 1. to listen eagerly 2. to give false alarm 3. to turn pale 4. to keep off starvation 5. None of these 20. A man of straw 1. a man of no substance 2. a very active person

3. a worthy fellow 4. an unreasonable person 5. None of these CLASSIC PHRASE: 01 1-5: 15234 6-10: 24511 11-15: 53323 16-20: 32421

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Gk

Here are some very important questions on Current GK. This covers some events for January 2011. You may know that we provide Current GK notes with Hundreds of such questions every month. Contact us for complete study material. 1. Who was appointed as the new Director of the country's external intelligence agency, the Research and Analysis Wing (RAW) recently? a) Vikram Sood b) Ashok Chaturvedi c) P.K. Hormis Tharakan d) C. D. Sahay e) Sanjeev Tripathi* Answer 1: Sanjeev Tripathi, who heads the Aviation Research Centre (ARC), was on December 30, 2010 appointed new Director of the country's external intelligence agency, the Research and Analysis Wing (RAW) for a two year term. He takes over from the present Director, K. C. Verma, who has expressed his desire to quit a month ahead of his tenure ending on January 31, 2011. 2. Who was appointed as the new president of the Editors Guild of India recently? a) T.N. Ninan* b) Commi Kapoor c) Shekhar Gupta d) Suresh Bafna e) Arnab Goswami Answer 2: The Chairman and Editorial Director of Business Standard, T.N. Ninan was elected President of the Editors Guild of India at the annual general body organised in Delhi on December 31, 2010. Commi Kapoor of Indian Express was retained as general secretary while Suresh Bafna of Nai Duniya was elected treasurer. Ninan succeeds Rajdeep Sardesai of CNN-IBN, while Bafna takes over from senior editor Rohit Bansal. In its continuing campaign against paid news, the Guild decided to post on its website from February 1 the names of those members who sign affidavits pledging against indulging in this pernicious practice. 3. Sudhir Chandra was appointed to which of the following positions recently? a) Chairman, Securities Appellate Tribunal b) Chairman, Finance Commission c) Director General of Foreign Trade d) Chairman, Central Board of Direct Taxes e) Chairman, SEBI Answer 3: The CBDT will have a new Chairman in Sudhir Chandra, who has been Member (Investigation) since February 2009. Chandra, a 1973-batch Indian Revenue Services officer, assumed charge as CBDT chairman on December 31, 2010. 4. Which of the following statements about the agreement on Indo-Russian Fifth Generation Fighter Aircraft (FGFA) project signed during the visit of Russian President Dmitry Medvedev recently, is/are correct? I. Hindustan Aeronautics Ltd is the Indian company in the project II. United Aircraft Corporation (MiG) is the Russian company in the project III. The production of FGFA will be the biggest defence programme ever in the history of India a) I only b) I and II only c) II only d) I and III only* e) I, II and III only Answer 4: President of Russia, Dmitry Medvedev visited India on 21-22 December 2010 for the 10th Annual Summit meeting under the India Russia Strategic Partnership. A Contract for Preliminary Design of the Indo-Russian Fifth Generation Fighter Aircraft (FGFA) was signed between Hindustan Aeronautics Limited (HAL), Rosoboronexport and Sukhoi on December 21, 2010. The broad scope of bilateral cooperation during the joint project covers the design & development of the PMF (Perspective Multi-role Fighter), its production and joint marketing to the friendly third countries. The total cost including options and the value of production aircraft will make this the biggest Defence programme ever in the history of India involving production of over 200-250 aircraft.

5. Which states Tourism department organised the annual Pinjore Heritage Festival recently? a) Himachal Pradesh b) Rajasthan c) Madhya Pradesh d) Bihar e) Haryana* Answer 5: Pinjore Heritage Festival was organised by Haryana tourism at Yadavindra Gardens, Pinjore, from December 17 to 19, 2010. 6. Which of the following statements is are correct about the Crime and Criminal Tracking Network System (CCTNS)? I. It will facilitate real-time access of classified criminal data to law enforcement authorities II. National Crime Records Bureau (NCRB) is the nodal central agency mandated to implement the network in all the states III. It became operational recently a) I only b) I and II only* c) II only d) I and III only e) III only Answer 6: The government will roll out its crime-tracking network by September 2011 to help enforcement and police officials speed up probe and facilitate real-time access of classified criminal data. The Crime and Criminal Tracking Network System (CCTNS) will benefit collection, storage, retrieval, analysis, transfer and sharing of data and information between police stations, state HQs and central police organizations. The National Crime Records Bureau (NCRB) is the nodal central agency mandated to implement the network in all the states in collaboration with other enforcement agencies like the IB, the CBI, the ED and customs. The CCTNS will enhance transparency and would enable realtime analysis of criminals and crime incidents. We are putting in place the hardware and software at police stations and control rooms so that the initial data can be fed onto the systems and individual database of police agencies and others is uploaded, NCRB director general N. K. Tripathi said in December 2010. 7. The U.N. General Assembly has proclaimed 2011 as the International Year of _______. a) Forests* b) Water Resources c) Biodiversity d) Marine life e) Indigenous Tribes Answer 7: The United Nations General Assembly declared 2011 as the International Year of Forests to raise awareness on sustainable management, conservation and sustainable development of all types of forests. 8. Which of the following was observed on January 15, 2011? a) Army Day* b) Navy Day c) Air Force Day d) Coast Guard Day e) None of the above Answer 8: The 63rd Indian Army Day was celebrated on January 15, 2011. The Indian Army Day is celebrated Jan 15 every year in recognition of Lieutenant General - and later the Field Marshal - late K.M. Cariappa taking over as the first Commander-in-Chief of the Indian Army from General Sir Francis Butcher, the last British Commander, in 1949. 9. Which of the following statements is/are correct about Indias external debt as on September 30, 2010? I. Commercial borrowings accounted for the highest share of Indias external debt II. Short-term debt accounted for less than one-fourth of Indias total external debt III. Indias external debt on Sept end 2010 showed an increase over the figure in March end 2010 a) I only b) I and II only c) II only d) I and III only e) I, II and III only* Answer 9: At end-September 2010, Indias external debt was US$ 295.8 billion reflecting an increase of 12.8 per cent over the level of US$ 262.3 billion at end-March 2010. The long-term debt increased by 9.5 per cent to US$ 229.8 billion, while short-term debt showed an increase of 25.8 per cent to US$ 66.0 billion. Short-term debt accounted for 22.3 per cent of Indias total external debt while the rest 77.7 per cent was long-term debt. Component-wise, the share of commercial borrowings stood highest at 27.8 per cent followed by NRI deposits (16.9 per cent) and multilateral debt (15.8 per cent). Government (Sovereign) external debt was US$ 72.3 billion (24.4 per cent of total external debt) at endSeptember 2010 as against US$ 67.1 billion (25.6 per cent) at end-March 2010. The ratio of short-term external debt to foreign exchange reserves was 22.5 per cent at end-September 2010 as compared to 18.8 per cent at end-March 2010.

10. The Union Ministry of Finance has decided to phase out the circulation of coins of denomination of below _____ with effect from June 30, 2011. a) 5 Rupee b) 2 Rupee c) 1 Rupee d) 50 paise* e) 25 paise Answer 10: The Union Ministry of Finance has notified on December 20, 2010 to phase out the circulation of coins of denomination of below 50 paise with effect from June 30, 2011. From this date, these coins shall cease to be a legal tender for payment as well as on account. The procedure for call in shall be notified separately by the Reserve Bank of India. Consequently, from June 30, 2011 onwards these coins will not be accepted in transactions. The minimum denomination coin acceptable for transaction will be 50 paise from that date.

General awareness sample paper

This is in series of the past year Question Papers for SSC (Commercial Audit) Examination. We have divided the Question Paper in four sections. In Part I we will coverGeneral Knowledge. Please read this carefully. Part I : General Awareness 1. Article 17 of the constitution of India provides for (a) equality before law. (b) equality of opportunity in matters of public employment. (c) abolition of titles. (d) abolition of untouchability 2. Article 370 of the constitution of India provides for (a) temporary provisions for Jammu & Kashmir. (b) special provisions in respect of Nagaland. (c) special provisions in respect of Manipur. (d) provisions in respect of financial emergency 3. How many permanent members are there in Security Council? (a) Three (b) Five (c) Six (d) Four 4. The United Kingdom is a classic example of a/an (a) aristocracy (b) absolute monarchy (c) constitutional monarchy (d) polity. 5. Social Contract Theory was advocated by (a) Hobbes, Locke and Rousseau. (b) Plato, Aristotle and Hegel. (c) Mill, Bentham and Plato. (d) Locke, Mill and Hegel. 6. The Speaker of the Lok Sabha is elected by the (a) President (b) Prime Minister. (c) Members of both Houses of the Parliament. (d) Members of the Lok Sabha. 7. Who is called the Father of History'? (a) Plutarch (b) Herodotus (c) Justin (d) Pliny 8. The Vedas are known as (a) Smriti. (b) Sruti. (c) Jnana. (d) Siksha. 9. The members of Estimate Committee are (a) elected from the Lok Sabha only. (b) elected from the Rajya Sabha only.

(c) elected from both the Lok Sabha and the Rajya Sabha. (d) nominated by the Speaker of the Lok Sabha. 10. Who is the chief advisor to the Governor? (a) Chief Justice of the Supreme Court. (b) Chief Minister. (c) Speaker of the Lok Sabha. (d) President. 11. Foreign currency which has a tendency of quick migration is called (a) Scarce currency. (b) Soft currency. (c) Gold currency. (d) Hot currency. 12. Which of the following is a better measurement of Economic Development? (a) GDP (b) Disposable income (c) NNP (d) Per capita income 13. In India, disguised unemployment is generally observed in (a) the agriculture sector. (b) the factory sector. (c) the service sector. (d) All these sectors. 14. If the commodities manufactured in Surat are sold in Mumbai or Delhi then it is (a) Territorial trade. (b) Internal trade. (c) International trade. (d) Free trade. 15. The famous slogan "GARIBI HATAO" (Remove Poverty) was launched during the (a) First Five-Year Plan (1951-56) (b) Third Five-Year Plan (1961-66) (c) Fourth Five-Year Plan (1969-74) (d) Fifth Five-Year Plan (1974-79) 16. Bank Rate refers to the interest rate at which (a) Commercial banks receive deposits from the public. (b) Central bank gives loans to Commercial banks. (c) Government loans are floated. (d) Commercial banks grant loans to their customers. 17. All the goods which are scare and limited in supply are called (a) Luxury goods. (b) Expensive goods. (c) Capital goods. (d) Economic goods. 18. The theory of monopolistic competition is developed by (a) E.H.Chamberlin (b) P.A.Samuelson (c) J.Robinson (d) A.Marshall 19. Smoke is formed due to (a) solid dispersed in gas. (b) solid dispersed in liquid. (c) gas dispersed in solid. (d) gas dispersed in gas. 20. Which of the following chemical is used in photography? (a) Aluminum hydroxide (b) Silver bromide (c) Potassium nitrate (d) Sodium chloride. 21. Gober gas (Biogas) mainly contains (a) Methane. (b) Ethane and butane. (c) propane and butane. (d) methane, ethane, propane and propylene. 22. Preparation of Dalda or Vanaspati' ghee from vegetable oil utilises the following process (a) Hydrolysis

(b) Oxidation (c) Hydrogenation (d) Ozonoloysis 23. Which colour is the complementary colour of yellow? (a) Blue (b) Green (c) Orange (d) Red 24. During washing of cloths, we use indigo due to its (a) better cleaning action. (b) proper pigmental composition. (c) high glorious nature. (d) very low cost. 25. Of the following Indian satellites, which one is intended for long distance telecommunication and for transmitting TV programmes? (a) INSAT-A (b) Aryabhata (c) Bhaskara (d) Rohini 26. What is the full form of AM' regarding radio broadcasting? (a) Amplitude Movement (b) Anywhere Movement (c) Amplitude Matching (d) Amplitude Modulation. 27. Who is the author of Gandhi's favorite Bhajan Vaishnava jana to tene kahiye? (a) Purandar Das (b) Shyamal Bhatt (c) Narsi Mehta (d) Sant Gyaneshwar 28. Which one of the following is not a mosquito borne disease? (a) Dengu fever (b) Filariasis (c) Sleeping sickness (d) Malaria 29. What is the principal ore of aluminium? (a) Dolomite (b) Copper (c) Lignite (d) Bauxite 30. Which country is the facilitator for peace talks between the LTTE and the Sri Lankan Government? (a) The US (b) Norway (c) India (d) The UK 31. The highest body which approves the Five-Year Plan in India is the (a) Planning Commission (b) National Development Council (c) The Union Cabinet (d) Finance Ministry 32. Ceteris Paribus is Latin for (a) " all other things variable " (b) "other things increasing" (c) "other things being equal" (d) "all other things decreasing" 33. Who has been conferred the Dada Saheb Phalke Award (Ratna) for the year 2007? (a) Dev Anand (b) Rekha (c) Dilip Kumar (d) Shabana Azmi 34. Purchasing Power Parity theory is related with (a) Interest Rate. (b) Bank Rate. (c) Wage Rate. (d) Exchange Rate.

35. India's biggest enterprise today is (a) the Indian Railways. (b) the Indian Commercial Banking System. (c) the India Power Sector. (d) the India Telecommunication System. 36. The official agency responsible for estimating National Income in India is (a) Indian Statistical Institute. (b) Reserve Bank of India. (c) Central Statistical Organisation. (d) National Council for Applied Economics and Research. 37. Which of the following has the sole right of issuing currency (except one rupee coins and notes) in India? (a) The Governor of India (b) The Planning Commission (c) The State Bank of India (d) The Reserve Bank of India 38. In the budget figures of the Government of India the difference between total expenditure and total receipt is called. (a) Fiscal deficit (b) Budget deficit (c) Revenue deficit (d) Current deficit 39. Excise duty on a commodity is payable with reference to its (a) production. (b) production and sale. (c) Production and transportation. (d) Production, transportation and sale. 40. In the US, the President is elected by (a) The Senate. (b) Universal Adult Franchise. (c) The House of Representatives. (d) The Congress. 41. Fascism believes in (a) Peaceful change (b) Force (c) Tolerance (d) Basic Rights for the individual 42. Which is the most essential function of an entrepreneur? (a) Supervision (b) Management (c) Marketing (d) Risk bearing 43. Knowledge, technical skill, education etc.' in economics, are regarded as (a) social-overhead capital. (b) human capital. (c) tangible physical capital. (d) working capital. 44. What is the range of Agni III, the long-range ballistic missile, test-fired by India recently? (a) 2,250 km (b) 3,500 km (c) 5,000 km (d) 1,000 km 45. Nathu Laa, a place where India-China border trade has been resumed after 44 years, is located on the Indian border in (a) Sikkim. (b) Arunachal Pradesh. (c) Himachal Pradesh (d) Jammu and Kashmir. 46. M. Damodaran is the (a) Chairman, Unit Trust of India. (b) Deputy Governor of Reserve Bank of India. (c) Chairman, Securities and Exchange Board of India. (d) Chairman, Life Insurance Corporation of India. 47. What is the name of the Light Combat Aircraft developed by India indigenously? (a) BrahMos (b) Chetak

(c) Astra (d) Tejas 48. Who is the Prime Minister of Great Britain? (a) Tony Blair (b) Jack Straw (c) Robin Cook (d) Gordon Brown. 49. The 2010 World Cup Football Tournament will be held in (a) France. (b) China. (c) Germany. (d) South Africa. 50. Who is the present Chief Election Commissioner of India? (a) Navin Chawla (b) N.Gopalswamy (c) T.S.krishnamoorty (d) B.B.Tandon 51. The title of the book recently written by Jaswant Singh, former Minister of External Affair, is (a) A call of Honour - In the Service of Emergent Inida (b) Whither Secular India? (c) Ayodhya and Aftermath (d) Shining India and BJP. 52. What was the original name of "Nurjahan"? (a) Jabunnisa (b) Fatima Begum (c) Mehrunnisa (d) Jahanara 53. Which of the following pairs is not correctly matched ? (a) Lord Dallhousie- Doctrine of Lapse (b) Lord Minto- Indian Councils Act, 1909 (c) Lord Wellesley- Subsidiary Alliance (d) Lord Curzon- Vernacular Press Act, 1878 54. The province of Bengal was partitioned into two parts in 1905 by (a) Lord Lytton. (b) Lord Ripon. (c) Lord Dufferin. (d) Lord Curzon. 55. The essential features of the Indus Valley Civilization was (a) worship of forces of nature. (b) organized city life. (c) pastoral farming. (d) caste society. 56. Name the capital of Pallavas. (a) Kanchi. (b) Vattapi. (c) Trichnapalli. (d) Mahabalipuram. 57. The Home Rule League was started by (a) M.K.Gandhi (b) B.G.Tilak (c) Ranade (d) K.T.Telang 58. The Simon Commission was boycotted by the Indians because (a) it sought tocurb civil liberties. (b) it proposed to partition India. (c) it was an all-white commission Indian representation. (d) it proposed measures for nationalism. 59. Storm of gases are visible in the chamber of the Sun during (a) Cyclones (b) Anti-cyclones (c) Lunar-eclipse (d) Solar eclipse. 60. The Indian Councils Act of 1990 is associated with (a) The Montagu Decleration.

(b) The Montagu- Chelmsford Reforms. (c) The Morley-Minto Reforms. (d) The Rowlatt Act. 61. The age of tree can be determined more or less accurately by (a) counting the number of branches. (b) measuring the height ,of the tree. (c) measuring the diameter of the trunk. (d) counting the number of rings in the trunk. 62. Of all micro-organisms, the most adaptable and versatile are (a) Viruses (b) Bacteria (c) Algae d) Fungi 63. What is an endoscope? (a) It is an optical instrument used to see inside the alimentary canal (b) it is device which is fitted on the chest of the patient to regularize the irregular heart beats (c) It is an instrument used for examining ear disorders (d) It is an instrument for recording electrical signals produced by the human muscles. 64. The disease in which the sugar level increase is known as (a) Diabetes mellitus (b) Diabetes insipidus (c) Diabetes imperfectus (d) Diabetes sugarensis 65. The President of India is elected by (a) members of both Houses of the Parliament. (b) members of both houses of Parliament of State Legislatures. (c) members of both Houses of the State Legislative Assemblies. (d) Elected members of both Houses of the Parliament and members of Legislative Assemblies. 66. The nitrogen present in the atmosphere is (a) of no use to plants. (b) injurious of plants. (c) directly utilized by plants. (d) utilized through micro-organisms. 67. Diamond and Graphite are (a) allotropes (b) isomorphous (c) isomers (d) isobars 68. Kayak is kind of (a) tribal tool. (b) boat. (c) ship. (d) weapon. 69. Which of the following has the highest calorific value? (a) Carbohydrates (b) fats (c) Proteins (d) Vitamins. 70. Rotation of crops means (a) growing of different crops in succession to maintain soil fertility. (b) some crops are growing again and again. (c) two or more crops are grown simultaneously to increase productivity. (d) None of these. 71. Suez Canal connects (a) Pacific Ocean and Atlantic Ocean. (b) Mediterranean Sea and Red Sea. (c) Lake Huron and Lake Erie. (d) Lake Erie and Lake Ontario. 72. Which of the following ports has the largest hinterland? (a) Kandla (b) Kochi (c) Mumbai (d) Vishkhapatnam. 73. "Slash and Burn agriculture" is the name given to (a) method of potato cultivation.

(b) process of deforestation. (c) mixed framing. (d) shifting cultivation. 74. The main reason for deforestation in Asia is (a) excessive fuel wood collection. (b) excessive soil erosion. (c) floods. (d) construction of roads. 75. Recharging of water table depends on (a) amount of rainfall. (b) relief of the area. (c) vegetation of the area. (d) amount of percolation. Answers Part - I

1. (d) 6. (d) 11. (d) 16. (b) 21. (a) 26. (d) 31. (c) 36. (d) 41. (d) 46. (c) 51. (c) 56. (b) 61. (a) 66. (a) 71. (b)

2. (a) 7. (b) 12. (a) 17. (d) 22. (b) 27. (c) 32. (c) 37. (d) 42. (a) 47. (d) 52. (d) 57. (c) 62. (a) 67. (b) 72. (d)

3. (b) 8. (b) 13. (a) 18. (a) 23. (b) 28. (d) 33. (c) 38. (a) 43. (b) 48. (d) 53. (d) 58. (d) 63. (a) 68. (b) 73. (a)

4. (c) 9. (a) 14. (b) 19. (a) 24. (a) 29. (d) 34. (a) 39. (a) 44. (a) 49. (b) 54. (b) 59. (c) 64. (a) 69. (a) 74. (d)

5. (a) 10. (b) 15. (c) 20. (b) 25. (a) 30. (a) 35. (c) 40. (b) 45. (c) 50. (a) 55. (a) 60. (d) 65. (d) 70. (a) 75. (a)

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Test paper

SAMPLE PAPER - Bank Probationary Officer Recruitment Exam (Practice Questions for SBI, Corporation Bank, Allahabad Bank, Bank of Baroda Exam) REASONING - MENTAL ABILITY - APTITUDE 1. Captain' is related to a Team' in the same way as Director' is related to (1) Supervisor (2) Employee (3) Organisation (4) Union (5) Customer 2. Find the odd one out of the following options (1) Aunt (2) Child (3) Father (4) Niece (5) Relation 3. Pointing to a photograph of Mahesh, Ram said. "The father of his sister is the husband of my wife's mother". How is Ram related to Mahesh? (1) Brother (2) Brother-in-law (3) Father-in-law (4) Data not sufficient (5) None of these

4. If fork' is called plate', plate' is called 'knife', knife' is called jug', jug' is called glass', glass' is called cup' and cup' is called fork', by what do we cut fruit? (1) spoon (2) jug (3) glass (4) saucer (5) none of these 5. If a' is substituted by 26,'B' by 25 and so on up to Z' which is substituted by 1, what will be the sum of the numbers substituted for the word XRAY'? (1) 33 (2) 40 (3) 37 (4) 73 (5) None of these 6. In a certain code COIMBATORE is written as DPJNCBUPSF. How is INDORE written in that code? (1) JOENQF (2) JMCPQD (3) JOEPSF (4) HMCNQD (5) None of these 7. Geeta is elder to Seeta but not to Deepa. Gayatri is younger than Deepa. No one is elder to Fatima. Who is youngest of them all? (1) Seeta (2) Geeta (3) Gayatri (4) Data not sufficient (5) None of these 8. Raman is sitting to the immediate left of Harry but not next to Kamal. Mahesh is sitting to the right of Kamal. If the four friends are sitting in a circle who is sitting to the immediate right of Harry? (1) Mahesh (2) Kamal (3) Raman (4) Harry (5) Cannot be determined 9. How many three letter meaningful English words can be formed from the word NOTE beginning with T' and without repeating any letter? (1) Three (2) One (3) Two (4) None (5) None of these Directions (11-15): Answer question 11 to 15 based on the following sequence: A $ B # 9 G 3D K M ? C Q 2 X 7 P 5 U 8 I 4 Y J 11. How many elements in the above arrangement are both immediately preceded and immediately followed by a number? (1) One (2) Two (3) Three (4) Five (5) None of these 12. Which of the following will be the fifteenth element from the left end if all the numbers are arranged in descending order from left to right, keeping the position of the other elements in arrangement un-changed? (1) 5 (2) 4 (3) 7 (4) 8 (5) None of these 13. How many letters in the above arrangement are immediately followed by a symbol? (1) Two (2) Five (3) Four (4) Three (5) None of these 14. Which of the following will be eighth to the left of the twelfth from the left end of the arrangement? (1) # (2) 7 (3) U (4) 9 (5) None of these 15. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way based on their position in the above arrangement and so form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that group? (1) G$M (2) K9Q (3) ?D7 (4) 2MU (5) PCI 16. In a certain code language' In ba pe' means he has won','le ki ba' means she has lost' and in se pe' means he always won'. Which word in that language means he'? (1) in (2) pe (3) se (4) Data not sufficient (5) None of these 17. X is Y's brother. S is T's mother and X's aunt. How is T related to X? (1) Sister (2) Cousin (3) Aunt (4) Cannot be determined (5) None of these 18. If the letters of the word OBSERVANT are interchanged, such that the first becomes ninth, second becomes eighth, and so on, and the position of the fifth letter remains unchanged then what will be the new arrangement of letters? (1) TNAVERSBO (2) TNVARESBO (3) NTAVERSBO (4) VANTRESBO

(5) None of these 19. If 1 is coded as , 5 is coded as %, 6 is coded as , 3 is coded as +, 7 is coded as # and 4 is coded as ? What will be the correct form of the number 435671? (1) ? + % # (2) ? + % # (3) ? + % # (4) # % + ? (5) None of these 20. Which of the following have the same relationship as BREAD:DBARE? (1) SWORN: NSOWR (2) FUNDS: FSDUN (3) GLAZE : EGZAL (4) LOWER: RLEWO (5) None of these Directions (21-25): Read the following information and attempt the given questions: Six executive Aman, Bindu, Deepa, Jitu, Kamal and Priyanka have to advertise four products i.e. soap, watches, computers and chocolates on 3 different channels, i.e. Go, Come and Fun either alone or in pairs. An executive can visit only one channel and advertise only one product. No more than two executives can advertise on a channel. (i) Bindu and Jitu both visit the same channel but advertise different products. (ii) Aman who visits Go' advertises neither soap nor computers. (iii) Kamal does not advertise chocolates. (iv) No girl advertises soap. (v) The two executives who advertise chocolates visit Spice (vi) 21. Who advertises watches? (1) Deepa (2) Kamal (3) Aman (4) Priyanka (5) None of these 22. Which of the following Channel-product pairs in definitely incorrect? (1) Go-watch (2) Come-computer (3) Go-soap (4) Come-soap (5) Come-watch 23. Which channel does Kamal visit? (1) Go (2) Fun (3) Come (4) Cannot be determined (5) None of these 24. If Bipasha advertises computers which of the following must be true? (1) Jitu advertises soap (2) Jitu advertises watches (3) Kamal advertises computers (4) Kamal works for Fun (5) None of these 25. What will Jitu advertise? (1) Chocolates (2) Watches (3) Computers or watches (4) Cannot be determined (5) None of these 26. Swaroop and Simple want to attend a seminar together between 9 a.m. to 5 p.m. on Friday. Simple cannot leave till after her lunch break which begins at 1.30 p.m. Swaroop is free after her meeting which ends at noon. For how many hours can the two of them attend the seminar? (1) 3 hours (2) 2 hours (3) 4 hours (4) Cannot be determined (5) None of these 27. How many pairs of letters are there in the word ANSWER each of which has as many letters between them in the word as there are in the English language? (1) One (2) Two (3) Four (4) Three (5) None of these 28. Find the odd one out (1) 2 (2) 7 (3) 11 (4) 13 (5) 9 29. If all the letters in the word MERCIFUL are rearranged in alphabetical order and substituted by the alphabet preceding them in the English alphabet what will be the new arrangement of letters? (1) BDHEKLQT (2) BDEHKLQT (3) BDEHLKQT (4) BDEJMLQT (5) None of these 30. Out of 38 families in a housing society 5 subscribe to Hindi news-papers alone, 12 subscribe to both Hindi and Marathi newspapers. Find the number of Maranthi news-paper subscribers. (1) 9 (2) 21 (3) 17 (4) Cannot be determined

(5) None of these Directions (31-35): Below are given letters and their numeric codes. Below that are given some conditions to be followed while codifying the given letter groups in each question. Study them and find out the correct numeric coded form of the given letter group in each question. If none of the coded forms is correct, your answer will be (5) i.e. None of these'.

Letters M Numeric 2 Codes

Q 5

I 3

N 7

E 1

Y 8

U 4

G 6

R 9

Conditions: (i) If the first and last letters are vowels both are to be coded as . (ii) If the second letter is a vowel and the third letter is a consonant a single code is to be used and both are to be coded jointly as %. (iii) If the first letter is a consonant and the last letter is a vowel both are to be coded as? 31. ENIMY (1) 1%28 (2) ?732? (3) 17328 (4) ?7328 (5) None of these 32. GENIR (1) ?173? (2) 6%39 (3) 6%79 (4) 61739 (5) None of these 33. QUERI (1) 5%93 (2) ?413? (3) ?4139 (4) ?419? (5) None of these 34. EINUM (1) 1%72 (2) 0%42 (3) 1374? (4) 1%43 (5) None of these 35. UNGRE (1) 769 (2) 4769 (3) 47691 (4) 7691 (5) None of these Directions (36-40): In each question below are two statements followed by two conclusions numbered I and II. You have to take the two given statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance from commonly known facts and then decide which of the given conclusions logically follows from the two statements disregarding commonly known facts. Give answer (1) if only conclusion I follows. Give answer (2) if only conclusion II follows. Give answer (3) if either conclusion I or II follows. Give answer (4) if neither conclusion I nor II follows. Give answer (5) if both conclusions I or II follow. 36. Statements: Some pencils are lead. All lead are ink Conclusions: I. Some ink are pencils. II. All ink are lead. 37. Statements: Some ovens are refrigerator. Some refrigerators are ACs. Conclusions: I. Some ACs are ovens. II. No. AC is oven. 38. Statements: All planes are birds. All birds are clouds. Conclusions: I. Some planes are clouds. II. Some clouds are birds. 39. Statements: Some sweets are salt. No salt in spice. Conclusions: I.. Some sweets are spice. II. No spice is salt. 40. Statements: Some papers are plastics. All papers are clothes. Conclusions: I. Some plastics are clothes. II. Some plastics are papers. Directions (41-45): Each of the following questions below consists a question and two statements numbered I and II given below it. You have to decide if the data provided in the statements are sufficient to answer the question. Read both statements and:

Give answer (1) if the data in statements I alone is sufficient to answer the question while the data in statement II is not sufficient to answer the question. Give answer (2) if the data in statement II alone is sufficient to answer the question, while the data in statement I alone is not sufficient to answer the question. Give answer (3) if the data either in statement I alone or in statement II alone is sufficient to answer the question. Give answer (4) if the data in both the statements I and II are not sufficient to answer the question. Give answer (5) if the data in both the statements I and II together are necessary to answer the question. 41. How is cricket' written in a code language? I. Dinesh play cricket' is written as do si ha'. II. play cricket now' is written as ha si ma'. 42. Who is the oldest among L, M, N, O,P? I. P is older than M and N but not O. II. L is older than O. 43. When is Rahul's birthday? I. Rahul and Shivani are twins. II. Rahul was born on the last day of February in a leap year. 44. What is the strength of the class? I. Shekhar stood 28 ranks below the top ranker and Mahesh who stood 5 ranks below him stood last. II. Jayesh was 9 ranks below Ramesh who stood 27th from the top. 45. How far does Shruti live from the school? I. Shruti has to cycle 3 kms. To her friend Mina's house which is 4 kms. From thee school. II. Gitanjali lives exactly opposite the school and walks 2 kms. to reach Shruti's house. Directions (46-50): The following questions are based on the five three digit numbers given below: 972 526 487 359 251 46. If the positions of the firs and second digits are interchanged which of the following will be third if they are arranged in ascending order? (1) 359 (2) 972 (3) 526 (4) 487 (5) 251 47. If 2 is added to the sum of the digits of each of the above numbers how many will be multiples of 5? (1) None (2) One (3) Two (4) Three (5) None of these 48. If 1 is subtracted from the last digit of each of the above numbers the sum of the digits of how many of them are prime numbers? (1) None (2) Two (3) One (4) Three (5) All five 49. If the digits in each of the above numbers are written in reverse order which will be the second highest number? (1) 251 (2) 359 (3) 487 (4) 526 (5) 972 50. If the positions of the digits of each of the numbers are interchanged such that the first becomes second, second becomes third and third becomes firs, which, of the following will be the highest? (1) 972 (2) 526 (3) 487 (4) 251 (5) 359 Answer Key for Mental Aptitude Reasoning

1. (3) 6. (3) 11. (4) 16. (4) 21. (3) 26. (1) 31. (3) 36. (1) 41. (4) 46. (1)

2. (5) 7. (4) 12. (3) 17. (2) 22. (4) 27. (2) 32. (2) 37. (3) 42. (5) 47. (4)

3. (2) 8. (2) 13. (2) 18. (5) 23. (1) 28. (5) 33. (4) 38. (5) 43. (2) 48. (3)

4. (2) 9. (1) 14. (1) 19. (1) 24. (2) 29. (2) 34. (5) 39. (2) 44. (1) 49. (3)

5. (2) 10. (1) 15. (5) 20. (5) 25. (3) 30. (5) 35. (1) 40. (5) 45. (3) 50. (5)

Test paper

Almost exams like Bank PO, Clerical, CDS, NDA, B. Ed., ETT comprise of questions from Reasoning (also known as Mental Ability or Aptitude). Here we provide a set of fifty Solved Sample Questions. The first fourty Questions are from verbal reasoningand last ten from non-verbal reasoning. 1. In a certain code ROPE is written as $3%6 and RITE is written as $4#6. How is PORT written in that code? (1) %4$# (2) $3%# (3) $64% (4) %3$# (5) None of these 2. How many such pairs of letters are there in the word KNIGHT, each of which has as many letters between them in the word as they have in the English alphabet? (1) None (2) One (3) Two (4) Three (5) More than three 3. Pointing to a photograph Nikita said She is the only grad daughter of my grandmother's daughter'. How is the girl in photograph related to Nikita? (1) Sister (2) Niece/ daughter (3) Aunt (4) Cannot be determined (5) None of these 4. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and so form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to the group? (1) Pineapple (2) Guava (3) Grapes (4) Papaya (5) Pear 5. If the word STABLE all the consonants are replaced by the previous letter and all the vowels are replaced by the next letter which letter will be third from the left end? (1) S (2) B (3) A (4) K (5) None of these 6. In a certain code HOUSE is written as FTVPI, how is CHAIR written in that code? (1) DIBJS (2) SBJID (3) SHBGD (4) SJBID (5) None of these 7. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and so form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to the group? (1) FH (2) KM (3) PR (4) CE (5) JM 8. If P Q' means P is wife of Q', P+Q' means P is father of Q' and P Q' means P is sister of Q' then in G H +R D, how is G related to D? (1) Cannot be determined (2) Mother (3) Niece (4) Aunt (5) None of these 9. If the digits of the number 5726489 are arranged in ascending order, how many digits will remain at the same position? (1) None (2) One (3) Two (4) Three (5) More than three 10. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and so form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to the group? (1) 17

(2) 19 (3) 23 (4) 29 (5) 27 11. How many meaningful words can be made from the letters AEHT, using each letter only once? (1) None (2) One (3) Two (4) Three (5) More than three ' means x', $ means +', # means ' and ' means - then what is the value ofm12. If 360 # 24$ 56 5 48? (1) 253 (2) 242 (3) 247 (4) 285 (5) None of these 13. If blue means pink, pink means green, green means yellow, yellow means red and red means white then what is the colour of turmeric? (1) green (2) yellow (3) red (4) pink (5) None of these 14. If it is possible to make a meaningful word from the second, the third, the tenth and the eleventh letters of the word PASSIONATELY using each letter only once, second letter of that word is your answer. If no such word can be formed your answer is X and if more than one word can be formed your answer is Y. (1) A (2) E (3) L (4) X (5) Y 15. In a row of children facing north Manish is fourth to the left of Suresh who is tenth from the left end. Nisha is second to the right of Suresh and eighth from the right end of the row. Total how many children are there in the row? (1) 19 (2) 20 (3) 21 (4) 18 (5) None of these Directions (16-20): In these questions symbols , #, , $ and @ are used with different meanings as follows: A B' means A is smaller than B' A # B' means A is either smaller than or equal to B' A B' means A is greater than B' A $ B' means A is either greater than or equal to B' A @ B' means A is neither smaller than nor greater than B' In each of the following questions assuming the given statements to be true, find out which of the two conclusions I and II given below them is/ are definitely true Give answer (1) if only conclusion I is true. Give answer (2) if only conclusion II is true. Give answer (3) if either conclusion I or conclusion II is true. Give answer (4) if neither conclusion I nor conclusion II is true. Give answer (5) if both conclusions I and II are true. 16. Statements: V#S, SL, LJ Conclusions: I. V L II. S J 17. Statements: M#R, RJ, J#H Conclusions: I. M #H II. R H 18. Statements: H$F, F@G, G M Conclusions: I. H M II. H G 19. Statements: RJ, J T,,T # L Conclusions: I. R @ T II. J @ l 20. Statements: W@T, T$K, K F

Conclusions: I. W $ K II. W @ K Directions (21-25): In each question below there are three statements followed by two conclusions numbered I and II. You have to take the three given statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance from commonly known facts and then decide which of the given conclusions logically follows from the three given statements disregarding commonly known facts. Then decide which of the answers (1), (2), (3), (4) and (5) is the correct answer and indicate it on the answer sheet. Give answer (1) if only conclusion I is follows. Give answer (2) if only conclusion II is follows Give answer (3) if either conclusion I or II follows. Give answer (4) if neither I nor II is follows. Give answer (5) if both I and II follow. 21. Statements: Some pens are books. All books are pencils. All pencils are jars. Conclusions: I. All books are jars. II. Some pens are pencils. 22. Statements: Some bowls are spoons Some spoons are forks All forks are plates. Conclusions: I. Some bowls are forks. II. Some spoons are plates. 23. Statements: Some bottles are jars. All jars are buckets. All buckets are tanks. Conclusions: I. All jars are tanks. II. Some buckets are tanks. 24. Statements: Some phones are mobiles. Some mobiles are computers. Some computers are keys. Conclusions: I. Some phones are keys. II. Some computes are phones. 25. Statements: All papers are files. Some files are folders. All folders are bags. Conclusions: I. Some files are bags. II. Some papers are folders. Directions (26-30): Each of the questions below consists of a question and two statements numbered I and II are given below it. You have to decide whether the data provided in the statements are sufficient to answer the question. Read both the statements and Give answer (1) if the data is Statement I alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in Statement II alone are not sufficient to answer the question. Give answer (2) if the data in Statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in Statement I alone are not sufficient to answer the question. Give answer (3) if the data in Statement I alone or in Statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question. Give answer (4) if the data in both the Statement I and II are not sufficient to answer the question. Give answer (5) if the data in both the Statement I and II together are necessary to answer the question. 26. Lalita is in which direction with respect to Sangita? I. Lalita is to the East of Prabha who is to the South of Sangita. II. Vinita is to the North of Lalita who is to the East of Sangita. 27. What is the code for Play' in the code language? I. In the code language play and dance' is written as ka to pe' II. In the code language enjoy the dance' is written as pe jo ra'. 28. How many children are there in the class? I. Vandana's rank in the class is five ranks below Nandini who is twenty fifth from the bottom. II. Nandini's rank is seventeenth from the top.

29. Who is tallest among Neeta, Sudha, Radha, Maya and Geeta? I. Radha is shorter than Neeta and Sudha but not shorter than Maya and Geeta. II. Neeta is not the tallest. 30. How many sons does Ramesh have? I. F is sister of H who is son of Ramesh. II. R is brother of H. Directions (31-35): These questions are based on the following letter / number/ symbol arrangement . Study it carefully and answer the questions that follow: 5DGE 79$F16R%LIAJ3B#4@KP8UM2 31. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way on the basis of their positions in the above arrangement and so form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to the group? (1) $9F (2) R6% (3) 8PU (4) #B4 (5) 3BJ 32. If all the symbols are removed from the above arrangement which element will be third to the left of thirteenth from the left? (1) L (2) R (3) 6 (4) I (5) None of these 33. What will come in place of the question mark (?) in the following series based on the above arrangement? EDH 9 7 I$F ? (1) 6RI (2) %R6 (3) R16 (4) %6R (5) None of these 34. Which element will be fifth to the right of ninth from the right end if all the numbers are removed from the above arrangement? (1) K (2) @ (3) P (4) # (5) None of these 35. How many such numbers are there in the above arrangement each of which is immediately followed by a consonant but not immediately preceded by a vowel? (1) None (2) One (3) Two (4) Three (5) More than three Directions (36-40): These questions are based on the basis of following information. Study it carefully and answer the questions. Eight executives J, K, L, M, N, O, P, and Q are sitting around a circular table for a meeting. J is second to the right of P who is third to the right of K. M is second to the left of O who sits between P and J, L is not a neighbour of K or N. 36. Who is to the immediate left of L? (1) Q (2) O (3) K (4) N (5) None of these 37. Who is to the immediate left of K? (1) N (2) J (3) Q (4) Cannot be determined (5) None of these 38. Which of the following is the correct position of N? (1) Second to the right of K (2) To the immediate left of K (3) To the immediate right of M (4) To the immediate right of K (5) None of these 39. Who is third to the right of P?

(1) L (2) J (3) Q (4) N (5) None of these 40. Which of the following groups of persons have the first person sitting between the other two? (1) PJO (2) OPJ (3) OPM (4) MPO (5) None of these Directions (41-50): In each of the questions given below which one of the five answer figures on the right should come after the problem figures on the left, if the sequence were continued?

Answers for Reasoning (Mental Aptitude) Solved Sample Question Paper:

1. (4), 2. (3), 3. (2), 4. (3), 5. (2), 6. (4), 7. (5), 8. (2), 9. (4), 10. (5), 11. (3), 12. (3), 13. (3), 14. (5), 15. (1), 16. (5), 17. (2), 18. (1), 19. (4), 20. (1), 21. (5), 22. (2), 23. (5), 24. (4), 25. (1), 26. (3), 27. (4), 28. (5), 29. (5), 30. (5), 31. (5), 32. (2), 33. (4), 34. (1), 35. (2), 36. (5), 37. (3), 38. (4), 39. (1), 40. (2), 41. (3), 42. (4), 43. (1), 44. (5), 45. (1), 46. (4), 47. (5), 48. (1), 49. (2), 50. (3)

Test paper

Directions (Q 1-10): Pick out the synonym of the lead word in each case. 1. ANODYNE 1. annihilated 2. soothing 3. eidolon 4. not necessary 2. AMBROSIA 1. poison 2. plentiful 3. scarcity 4. elixir 3. AMULET 1. symbol 2. charm 3. hole 4. none of these 4. ASSUAGE 1. scare 2. allay 3. enhance 4. surrender 5. ACCLIVITY 1. declivity 2. proclivity 3. upwards 4. slanting 6. APHASIA 1. garrulity 2. loquacity 3. reticence 4. remembrance 7. ANNUL 1. encourage 2. commiserate 3. mummify 4. rescind 8. APOTHECARY 1. doctor 2. hunter 3. vagabond 4. pharmacist 9. AU REVOIR 1. welcome 2. appellation 3. good-bye 4. superb 10. APLOMB 1. poise 2. diffidence 3. circuitous 4. tumult Directions (Q 11-20):Pick out the antonym of the lead word in each case. 11. AMELIORATE 1. enervate 2. deteriorate 3. stultify 4. none of these 12. ASININE 1. brilliant 2. vulpine 3. feline 4. leonine 13. APPARITION 1. real 2. unreal 3. joint 4. enhancement 14. SANGUINE 1. red 2. morose 3. suffering 4. approaching 15. SAGGY 1. taut 2. sagacious 3. delinquent 4. developing 16. SURLY 1. curly 2. amazon 3. bilious 4. pugilist 17. SOPHISTRY 1. polemics 2. urbanity 3. pertinence 4. didactics 18. SOBRIQUET 1. snout 2. cognomen 3. genuine 4. bouquet 19. SUFFRAGE 1. suffering 2. celibacy 3. forestry 4. franchise 20. SATED 1. suave 2. inadept 3. contented 4. ruffled up Directions (Q 21-25): Pick out the best analogy in each case. 21. ASSORTED: SEBACEOUS 1. firm: supple 2. sultry: azure 3. subaltern: hoi polloi 4. stratified: layered 22. ANACONDA: SERPENTINE 1. ape: simian 2. cat: asinine 3. milk: cutaneous 4. amen: amenine 23. SALACIOUS: SCANDALOUS 1. piquant: bland 2. sylvan: urban 3. sham: veracious 4. sultry: humid 24. SENTENTIOUS: SUMMARY 1. senile: dotage 2. abrasive: praise 3. ablutions: dirt 4. avaricious: truthful 25. AVUNCULAR: UNCLE 1. salubrious: climate 2. annotation: anthology 3. screech: scrub 4. stately: king Directions (Q 26-30): Pick out the word with incorrect spellings in each case. 26. 1. apotheosize 2. abjure 3. appelate 4. apiary 27. 1. sanctimionious 2. sepulchral 3. spectre 4. Samaritan

28. 1. alveolar 2. apnea 3. autoarchy 4. anarchy 29. 1. silviculture 2. Socratic 3. somnambulism 4. sinuous 30. 1. suffused 2. sandwitched 3. sayonara 4. surmise Directions (Q 31-40): Mentally unjumble the following words so as to arrange them in the right order and tell which letter comes at the last of the word so formed 31. N I M A N R E S V O I N A D 32. T S I E Y A B R 33. E I M Y T S 34. E C I P S S U O 35. S U O I M S B A E T 36. O A T R I D 37. G A I N R R A 38. S H I U Q U A E M 39. B A R L A E 40. D A M U D E N D Directions (Q 41-50): Fill in the blanks with suitable choices out of those given after each word. 41. The article written by the philosopher was so ______ that I could not get a thing out of it. 1. avuncular 2. adroit 3. apposite 4. abstruse 42. The language used by you must be easily understandable by all if you wish to reach out to the common man, it must not be ______ . 1. stultified 2. stilted 3. supplicate 4. surly 43. Nobody expected him to win, yet he scraped through, it must have been some ______ on his part. 1. artifice 2. arroyo 3. attenuation 4. avarice 44. Her ______ manners in the face of difficulty impressed me most of all. 1. sacrilegious 2. sangfroid 3. supernumerary 4. surrogate 45. Such legal ______ is pretty common, in when the truth is shown as the utmost wrong and vice-versa. 1. skepticism 2. surreptitiousness 3. skullduggery 4. acme 46. He was a teetotaller and strictly believed in observing _____ 1. sanguinary 2. sentry 3. sobriety 4. succulence 47. The child looked very ______ and its innocent pranks endeared it to everyone in the house. 1. seraphic 2. sedulous 3. specious 4. staunch 48. Indira Gandhi was the most ______ speaker I had ever heard until I came to know Atal Behari Vajpayee. 1. artless 2. arcane 3. articulate 4. accoutred 49. Such an ______ meeting I never expected to take place. 1. adventitious 2. audacious 3. serene 4. supernal 50. It does not look ______ if you do not go there on such a solemn occasion. 1. sabbatical 2. salubrious 3. senile 4. seemly Directions (Q 51-60): Pick out the synonym of the lead word in each case. 51. ARTLESS 1. lacking art 2. boring 3. dexterous 4. innocent 52. SUPERNAL 1. superb 2. eternal 3. chimerical 4. trash 53. SUBTERFUGE 1. underground 2. legerdemain 3. joining 4. separation 54. SABBATICAL 1. clergy-related 2. study leave 3. ecumenical 4. narrow 55. ADMONISH 1. admire 2. take back 3. reprimand 4. encourage 56. ADVERT 1. insinuate 2. eulogize 3. scold 4. lucky 57. SUPERCILIOUS 1. haughty 2. modest 3. truthful 4. voracious 58. ACRID 1. aromatic 2. pungent 3. sonorous 4. pulchritudinous 59. SCOURGE 1. nemesis 2. secure 3. suffering 4. suffrage 60. ANNIHILATE 1. destroy 2. wither 3. tolerate 4. exterminate Directions (Q 61-70): Pick out the antonym of the lead word in each case. 61. SYBARITE 1. ascetic 2. conceited 3. chilling 4. sultry 62. SURMOUNT 1. overcome 2. surrender 3. get off 4. remonstrate 63. ACCENTUATE 1. extenuate 2. attenuate 3. supplicate 4. slanting

64. SQUEAMISH 1. cordial 2. juxtaposed 3. quixotic 4. queasy 65. ABSTEMIOUS 1. parsimonious 2. abstinent 3. Epicurean 4. Samaritan 66. SMUG 1. contented 2. discontented 3. cool 4. hot 67. AGNOSTIC 1. atheist 2. touching 3. unsure 4. sure 68. ARRAIGN 1. answer 2. exonerate 3. covet 4. demit 69. SALUBRIOUS 1. salutary 2. negative 3. stratified 4. wayward 70. SPORADIC 1. intermittent 2. weekly 3. continuous 4. contumacious Directions (Q 71-75): Pick out the best analogy in each case. 71. SOPHOMORE: ADEPT 1. sophisticated: clumsy 2. intern: veteran 3. apiary: aviary 4. inane: pertinent 72. SUBLIMINAL: ABSTRUSE 1. encomium: eclectic 2. recondite: reconnaissance 3. subconscious: arcane 4. none of these 73. SERENDIPITY: DESCRY 1. meticulous: plan 2. surrogate: suborn 3. deviancy: delinquency 4. veracity: plenty 74. SANGFROID: SURLY 1. abrogate: renounce 2. rescind: repeal 3. aromatic: acrid 4. adventitious s: lucky 75. SIMILE: SULLIED 1. halcyon: veracious 2. appellation: title 3. sensual: sensuous 4. subjugate: vanquish Directions (Q 76-90): Pick out the word with incorrect spellings in each case. 76. 1. adumberate 2. adduce 3. adulterate 4. adjudicator 77. 1. ancillary 2. anecedote 3. anguine 4. annuity 78. 1. annotate 2. annul 3. anneel 4. anoint 79. 1. squall 2. sputter 3. squailid 4. stallion 80. 1. suasion 2. subrogation 3. sucide 4. suite 81. 1. somersault 2. superfluous 3. supererogation 4. sovereignity 82. 1. syanagogue 2. synergism 3. strut 4. stubble 83. 1. stodgy 2. statueseque 3. stentorian 4. stereochiometry 84. 1. splurge 2. spitoon 3. spondylitis 4. spontaneity 85. 1. splutter 2. sepulchral 3. sphygmomanometre 4. spermatozoa 86. 1. adversary 2. aetiology 3. aeronautics 4. affronted 87. 1. assiduous 2. agnomen 3. anaemia 4. aservate 88. 1. animadevrt 2. anomaly 3. animous 4. antediluvian 89. 1. antithetical 2. anthropomorphism 3. antilope 4. antenatal 90. 1. aperception 2. apostasy 3. apprentice 4. apposition Directions (Q 91-95): Mentally unjumble the following words so as to arrange them in the right order and tell which letter comes at the last of the word so formed 91. P O R O S A P 92. P A P S R I E 93. C I D A S M P S O 94. X I H P S N 95. T E I P S Directions (Q 96-100): Fill in the blanks with suitable choices out of those given after each word. 96. His ______ tastes often led to his being dubbed as a maverick. 1. sovereign 2. sartorial 3. sobriquet 4. soporific 97. However sacred a person, may be, but he must not be ________ 1. sanctimonious 2. slithering 3. sickly 4. skittish 98. He was very scared of his father and therefore tried to ________ himself. 1. sire 2. soliloquize 3. shrug 4. skulk 99. The achievements made in the field of science during the last century were ________ indeed, not a fraction of this progress had been made in the 19 centuries preceding it. 1. Seminal 2. Semitic 3. Simian 4. seething 100. Most of the stories regarding the miracles performed by various religious prophets are________ , there is no historical evidence to support them. 1. apocalyptic 2. antediluvian 3. apocryphal 4. aphasic ANSWERS REVISING VOCAB -01 1. 24423 6. 34431

11. 21121 16. 31243 21. 21414 26. 3131 31. NEESS 36. TNHEM 41. 42123 46. 31314 51. 41223 56. 11234 61.12243 66. 24123 71. 23131 76. 12333 81. 41223 86. 14331 91. APROPOS, APPRISE, SPASMODIC, SPHINX, SPITE 96. 21313

1. The first-quarter group profit of Tata Steel ending on June 30 was a. ` 1,625 crore b. ` 1,725 crore c. ` 1,825 crore d. ` 1,925 crore

2. Name the telecom operator which has initiated the Braille Bill service in India. a. Vodafone b. Reliance c. Airtel d. Idea

3. NMDC has acquired the entire private land required for its proposed ` 15,000 crore steel plant at a. Jagdalpur b. Godda c. Dumka d. Samastipur

4. The organization to sign an agreement with the All India Football Federation (AIFF) to support the development of India Under-16 football team is a. Bharti Enterprises b. Mittal Group c. Tata d. Reliance ADA Group

5. Nestle will invest ` 350 crore to set up a manufacturing plant at to produce the Maggi range of food products. a. Maharashtra b. Karnataka c. West Bengal d. Gujarat

6. Vedanta Resources will take a majority stake of in Cairn India. a. $10 billion. b. $13.3 billion. c. $14.8 billion. d. $17 billion.

7. NMDC and Kobe Steel have signed a contract for acquiring stake in iron ore project in a. New Zealand b. Austria c. Australia d. New Guinea

8. Mahindra and Mahindra plans to acquire which Korean auto maker for an estimate of $400-450 million? a. Ssangyong b. Maruti c. Hundai d. Ford

9. Name Indias largest and only telecom operator offering nationwide CDMA and GSM mobile services. a. Tata Indicom b. Virgin mobiles c. Vodafone d. Reliance Communications

10. Tradus.in has launched an online book store at TradusBooks. in, offering book enthusiasts a wide assortment of titles, ease of shopping and free shipping of books across India. Tradus.in is a sister concern company of a. Ibibo Web Pvt Ltd b. Yahoo c. Times Shopping d. 160by2.com

11. German carmaker Mercedes Benz launched a new version of its E-Class sedan priced at a. ` 63 .4 lakh b. ` 64.5 lakh c. ` 65 lakh d. ` 65. 5 Lakh

12. Name the Indian software services fi rm which has won a New York court ruling to withhold taxes from a $70 million settlement payment to Britain-based Upaid Systems Ltd. a. Mahindra Satyam b. Infosys c. IBM d. HP

13. According to the Lakshmi Vilas Bank the total income of the bank for the fi rst quarter ended June 2010 has grown at 16.80 per cent to a. ` 174.99 crore. b. ` 274.99 crore. c. ` 374.99 crore. d. ` 474.99 crore.

14. What is the amount that Supertech is planning to invest to build an integrated township on Yamuna Expressway near Greater Noida? a. ` 1,100 crore b. ` 1,500 crore c. ` 1,750 crore d. ` 2,000 crore

15. Which fi rm is Malaysias state investor that controls 95 per cent of Singapore hospital operator Parkway Holdings? a. Khazanah b. Apollo Munich c. Max d. Bursa Malaysia

16. In tune with its ` 1,500-crore expansion plan, JK Paper signed an agreement with IT product maker to introduce a new range of high-end digital printing papers in India. a. Hewitt b. HP

c. Hewlett Packard d. Luxar

17. What is the amount that Future Groups unit Pantaloon Retail planning to raise from its IPO? a. ` 600 cr b. ` 650 cr c. ` 700 cr d. ` 750 cr

18. ASUS Technology is aiming to capture at least market share in the Window mobile smart phone segment in the next two years. a. 15 % b. 17.5 % c. 20 % d. 22%

19. German engineering major, Siemens bagged an order to supply an RH vacuum degassing plant to the Rourkela Steel plant from Steel Authority of India (SAIL). The deal is worth a. 7.5 million euro b. 10 million euro c. 15 million euro d. 17.5 million euro

20. HDFC Trustee Co Ltd acquired 2.44 per cent stake in which textiles and apparels maker company in August? a. Raymond b. Grasim c. Peter England d. Armani

21. State-owned oil fi rms incurred 4,745 crore annual losses on pre-revised rates, prompting the government to more than double the price of state administered natural gas to a. $3.2 per mmBtu b. $4.2 per mmBtu c. $5.2 per mmBtu d. $6.2 per mmBtu

22. Lanco Infratech reported a whopping 68 per cent jump in its profi t after taxes, at ` 194.7 crore for the quarter ended June 30. The company posted a profi t after tax of

a. ` 105.9 crore b. ` 115.9 crore c. ` 125.9 crore d. ` 135.9 crore

23. How many circles have been allotted to Vodafone for 3G Mobile services? a. 9 b. 11 c. 14 d. 17

24. Which Indian industrialist has been found guilty in the Bhopal Gas tragedy? a. Ratan Tata b. Keshub Mahindra c. Dheeru Bhai Ambani d. AAzim Premji

25. Spice Jet has been acquired by a. Reliance ADA Group b. Mahindra n Mahindra Group c. Sun Group d. Larsen & Tourbo

26. Who has been appointed as the new chief fi nancial offi cer (CFO) of Colgate Palmolive? a. Dilip Chenoy b. Keshub Mahindra c. Udai D. Raj d. Pauk Alton

27. According to CSO, Indias revised GDP growth rate for the fi scal year 2009-2010 is a. 7.2 % to 7.4% b. 7.4 % to 7.2% c. 4.7 % to 2.7% d. 2.7 % to 4.7%

28. CIL has joined hands with GAIL and RCF to set up a coal gasification project at which place? a. Talchar in Orissa

b. Puri in Orissa c. Cuttak in Orissa d. Udaigiri in Orissa

29. The total income of the Unitech Group has increased by percent during the April-June quarter. a. 33.87 per cent b. 43.87 per cent c. 53.87 per cent d. 63.87 per cent

30. The Tata Group has become the countrys wealthiest group, with a market value of about a. ` 3,00,000 crore b. ` 3,21,000 crore c. ` 3,71,000 crore d. ` 3,95,000 crore

31. Jos Alukkas, a leading gold and diamond trader in the country, registered a total business turnover of in 20102011. a. ` 550 crore b. ` 820 crore c. ` 1020 crore d. ` 1120 crore

32. Engineering fi rm Era Infra has bagged a highway project that involves four laning of a road stretch from Muzaffarnagar in UP to Haridwar in Uttrakhand. The worth of the project is a. ` 1,000 crore b. ` 1,010 crore c. ` 1,100 crore d. ` 1,110 crore QUESTION BANK

33. During the 2009 2010 fi scal, Indias cement export declined by 29 per cent to a. 2 million tonnes b. 2. 10 million tonnes c. 2. 27 million tonnes d. 2. 50 million tones

34. By which date has would India temporarily shut down BlackBerry services if New Delhis concerns about security are not addressed? a. 31st August b. 15th September c. 30th September d. 1st October

35. The net profi t of Bosch Ltd at the quarter ended on June 30, 2010 is a. ` 18.82 crore b. ` 20.97 crore c. ` 22. 82 crore d. ` 26 .97 crore

36. Niraj Cement Structurals signed a contract with the Public Works Department of Bastar Circle, Jagdalpur. The worth of the deal is a. ` 71.27 crore b. ` 71. 72 crore c. ` 72. 17 crore d. ` 72. 71 crore

37. Areva T&D India has signed a contract worth ` 110 crore with Power Grid Corporation of India Ltd to set up a 765 KV extra high voltage sub-station at a. Sasaram, Bihar b. Vaishali, Bihar c. Rajgir, Bihar d. Gaya, Bihar

38. AstraZeneca Plc will pay $198 million to settle claims against its anti psychotic drug a. Seroquel b. Olanzapine c. Clozapine d. Loxitane

39. Who has been appointed as the director on Hongkong and Shanghai Banking Corporation (HSBC) Asia-Pacifi c board? a. Shivani Lal b. Deepali Pruthi

c. Vikas Puniya d. Naina Lal Kidwai

40. The total number of registered subscribers at Tata Teleservices Ltd by the end of July 2010 was a. 71 million b. 73 million c. 75 million d. 79 million

41. Name the organisation that has received an order for 1,000 buses, worth around $26 million from the Peoples Leasing Company in Sri Lanka. a. Honda b. Ashok Leyland c. Tata Motors d. Bajaj

42. BHEL signed a contract worth 2,525 crore with Abhijeet Infra for setting up a 1,080 MW thermal power plant in which state? a. Jharkhand b. Uttaranchal c. Bihar d. Chhattisgarh

43. Who has been appointed as the Offi cer Employee Director on the Board of Directors of Andhra Bank? a. Vir Sanghvi b. N Rajagopal Reddy c. Rajeev Ranjan d. Narayan Murthy

44. Indiabulls Real Estate bought the National Textile Corporations 8.3 acres of prime mill land in Mumbai for a. ` 1,405 crore b. ` 1,055 crore c. ` 1,505 crore d. ` 1,005 crore

45. The local car sales in India rose to an annual percent of as on July 2010. a. 38% b. 36%

c. 35% d. 32%

46. Vascon Engineers has acquired 90 per cent of equity shares of GMP Technical Solutions Pvt Ltd worth how much? a. 62.62 crore b. 62.63 crore c. 63.62 crore d. 63.63 crore

47. Name the mobile application store which will be offering Reliance Communications its extensive catalog of over 65,000 free mobile applications. a. Navteq b. GetJar c. BlackBerry d. Google

48. The new poverty Index introduced by UNDP is a. Multi Dimensional Poverty Index b. Human Poverty Index c. BPL Index d. Social Poverty index

49. The symbol of Indian rupee has been designed by whom? a. Dewang Patel b. Harsha Madiraju c. Venkat Raman Kumar d. D.Udai Kumar QUESTION BANK

50. Which sector amongst the following contributes the maximum to Indias GDP? a. Shipping b. Services c. Mining d. Manufacturing

Answers:
1. c. Rs 1,825 crore 2. b. Reliance

3. a. Jagdalpur 4. a. Bharti Enterprises 5. b. Karnataka 6. a. $10 billion. 7. c. Australia 8. a. Ssangyong 9. d. Reliance Communications 10. a. Ibibo Web Pvt Ltd 11. b. Rs 64.5 lakh 12. a. Mahindra Satyam 13. b. Rs 274.99 crore 14. d. Rs 2,000 crore 15. a. Khazanah 16. c. Hewlett Packard 17. d. Rs 750 cr 18. c. 20% 19. b. 10-million euro 20. a. Raymond 21. b. $4.2 per mmBtu 22. b. Rs 115.9 crore 23. a. 9 24. b. Keshub Mahindra 25. c. Sun Group 26. d. Pauk Alton 27. a. 7.2 % to 7.4% 28. a. Talchar in Orissa 29. c. 53.87 per cent 30. c. Rs 3,71,000 crore 31. b. Rs 820 crore 32. c. Rs 1,100 crore 33. c. 2. 27 million tonnes 34. a. 31st August 35. b. Rs 20.97 crore 36. a. Rs 71.27 crore 37. a. Sasaram, Bihar 38. b. Seroquel

39. d. Naina Lal Kidwai 40. c. 75 million 41. b. Ashok Leylanda 42. a. Jharkhand 43. b. N Rajagopal Reddy 44. c. Rs 1,505 crore 45. a. 38% 46. b. Rs 62.63 crore 47. b. GetJar 48. a. Multi Dimensional Poverty Index 49. d. Udai Kumar 50. b. Services