1. "Groove sign" is seen in which of the following disease A) Gonorrhea B) Granuloma inguinale C) Lymphogranuloma venereum D) Syphilis 2.

Presence of gas shadow in the heart and great vessels suggestive of intrauterine death. This is called as A) Chadwick's sign B) Osiander's sign C) Robert's sign D) Spalding sign 3. The following statements are true regarding vulval carcinoma EXCEPT A) Associated with obesity, diabetes and hypertension B) Clitoris is the commonest site of the lesion C) Pruritis vulvae is a presenting symptom of the disease D) Squamous cell carcinoma is the commonest type 4. The following drugs are used in the medical management of fibroids EXCEPT A) Ethinyl estradiol B) Gn RH agonists C) Mifepristone D) Tranexamic acid 5. The following antihypertensives can be used in pregnancy EXCEPT A) Alpha Methyl DOPA B) Enalapril C) Labetalol D) Nifedipine 6. All the following in the Light's criteria are suggestive of exudative pleural effusion EXCEPT A) Pleural fluid protein : serum protein ratio > 0.5 B) Pleural fluid ADA < 16 C) Pleural fluid LDH : serum LDH ratio > 0.6 D) Pleural fluid LDH > two thirds of the upper limit of serum LDH 7. Cirrhosis of liver with portal hypertension is a complication of all of the following EXCEPT A) Wilson's disease B) Haemochromatosis C) Gilbert's syndrome D) Hepatitis C 8. Which of the following test is NOT a test for Helicobacter pylori infection ? A) Faecal antigen test B) Barium swallow C) Microbiological culture D) Rapid urease test 9. Beta thalassemia is characterized by the following defect in globin chain A) Gene deletion B) Point mutation

C) Alteration in the amino acid structure D) None of the above 10. Type 1 cryoglobulinemia is associated with all the following EXCEPT A) Hyperviscosity B) Monoclonal IgM paraprotein C) Normal complement D) Strongly positive rheumatoid factor 11. The following statements are TRUE regarding fetal circulation EXCEPT A) Umbilical vein carried deoxygenated blood B) 75% of blood from the umbilical vein is diverted into the left atrium C) Mean Cardiac output at term is about 255 ml / kg / minute D) After birth, umbilical veins become ligamentum teres 12. The amount of water retained during normal pregnancy at term is about A) 4.5 litres B) 6.5 litres C) 8.5 litres D) 10 litres 13. The following statements are true regarding fetal Hemoglobin EXCEPT A) Have greater affinity for oxygen than adult Hemoglobin B) Have life span of 120 days C) Have low concentrations of 2,3-Diphosphoglycerate D) Resistant to alkaline denaturation 14. The following parameters should be monitored when a patient is on Magnesium sulphate therapy EXCEPT A) Deep tendon reflexes B) Pulse rate C) Respiratory rate D) Urine output 15. The following structures form the ovarian pedicle EXCEPT A) Infundibulopelvic ligament B) Mesosalpinx C) Ovarian ligament D) Round ligament 16. A 65-years-old gentleman is having tremors, rigidity and reduced mobility. He is likely to be benefited by A) Bromocriptine B) Alpha Methyl Dopa C) Reserpine D) Acyclovir 17. A 39-years-old woman presents with a thickened, hyper-pigmented velvety lesion over the axillae. This condition is associated with A) Frequent wearing of velvet clothes B) SLE C) Tuberculosis D) Insulin resistance

18. A person on pilgrimage develops acute dysentery. Which one of the following confirms amoebic dysentery ? A) Presence of blood in the fresh stool sample B) Presence of plenty of WBCs in the fresh stool sample C) Presence of motile trophozoites containing RBCs in stool sample D) Barium enema showing ulcerative lesions in the colon 19. A pregnant woman is diagnosed to suffering from Grave's disease. The most appropriate therapy for her would be A) Radioiodine therapy B) Total thyroidectomy C) Carbimazole parenteral D) Propyl thiouracil oral 20. An young man previously diagnosed as a case of congenital heart disease-left to right shunt has a very loud pansystolic murmur at the left sternal edge without any haemodynamic disturbance. He is likely to be having A) Atrial septal defect B) Large ventricular septal defect C) Small ventricular septal defect D) Eisenmenger's syndrome 21. Bluish discolouration of the vagina seen in pregnancy is known as A) Chadwick's or Jacquemier's sign B) Goodell's sign C) Hegar's sign D) Palmer's sign 22. The uterine artery is a branch of A) Anterior division of the internal iliac artery B) Posterior division of the internal iliac artery C) External iliac artery D) Femoral artery 23. The following are risk factors for carcinoma endometrium EXCEPT A) Early menopause B) Endometrial hyperplasia C) Nulliparity D) Obesity 24. Twin peak sign on ultrasound is suggestive of A) Conjoint twin B) Dichorionic diamniotic twin C) Monochorionic diamniotic twin D) Monoamniotic twin 25. The most common site of endometriosis is A) Ovary B) Pouch of douglas C) Rectovaginal septum D) Sigmoid colon 26. Antiglomerular basement antibody is seen in

A) Membranous glomerulonephritis B) Goodpasture's syndrome C) Alport's syndrome D) Henoch schonlein purpura 27. Paradoxical splitting of Second heart sound is seen in A) RBBB B) ASD C) LBBB D) VSD 28. Most common organism implicated in the etiology of urinary tract infection in the community is A) E.coli B) Proteus C) Pseudomonas D) Streptococci 29. Active replication in Hepatitis B infection is indicated by A) HBeAg B) HBsAg C) HBcAg D) Anti HBsAg 30. Necrolytic migratory erythema is seen in A) Insulinoma B) Parathyroid adenoma C) Somatostatinoma D) Glucagonoma 31. The following are steps of Fothergill's operation EXCEPT A) Preliminary Dilatation and Curettage (D and C) B) Amputation of the cervix C) Plication of the uterosacral ligaments in front of the cervix D) Anterior colporrhapy 32. Triple Bubble' sign during fetal ultrasonography is seen in A) Diaphragmatic hernia B) Duodenal atresia C) Jejunal atresia D) Hydrops fetalis 33. Cryptomenorrhea can be found in all of the following EXCEPT A) Atresia of upper third of vagina B) Imperforate hymen C) Meyer Rokitansky syndrome D) Transverse vaginal septum 34. Advantage of anastrozole over the other aromatase inhibitors is A) Causes less gastro-intestinal side effects B) Causes less osteoporosis C) Has more anti-estrogenic activity D) Has more anti-progestonic activity

35. HELLP syndrome involves all of the following EXCEPT A) Elevated liver enzymes B) Hemolysis C) High erythrocyte sedimentation rate D) Low platelet 36. All the following are the adverse effects of Isoniazid EXCEPT A) Peripheral neuropathy B) Thrombocytopenia C) Seizures D) Psychosis 37. Complement deficiency predisposes to infection with A) Pseudomonas aeruginosa B) Cytomegalovirus C) Neisseria meningitidis D) Giardia lamblia 38. All the following can cause thrombocytopenia EXCEPT A) Disseminated intravascular coagulation B) Hypersplenism C) Thiazide therapy D) Gastrointestinal bleeding 39. Prothrombin time is prolonged in A) Factor XII deficiency B) Factor IX deficiency C) Factor II deficiency D) Lupus anticoagulant 40. Anti-endomysial antibody is used in the diagnosis of A) Tropical sprue B) Whipples disease C) Coeliac sprue D) Ulcerative colitis 41. Which of the following statement is true about anterior fontanelle ? A) Size of anterior fontanelle is about 2.5 mm x 2.5 mm B) It normally closes at birth C) It must be measured across the borders D) Early closure is seen in rickets 42. Developmental mile stone attained at 9 months of age is A) Knows full name and gender B) Monosyllables C) Stands with support D) Builds tower of 2 blocks 43. The antiinfective substance in breast milk that protects the baby from malaria is A) Lactobacillus Bifidus factor B) Lactoferrin C) PABA D) Bile salt stimulated lipase

44. Tuberculin test is said to be positive when there is A) Induration B) Erythema C) Erythema, induration D) Induration with blistering 45. Liver biopsy shows fatty change in A) Marasmus B) Marasmic Kwashiorker C) Nutritional Dwarfism D) Kwashiorker 46. Menopausal hot flushes occur due to A) FSH secretion B) Decrease in estrogen C) LH surge D) Increase in progesterone 47. Glucose and amino acids are reabsorbed from PCT or absorbed from intestinal lumen by A) Symport B) Antiport C) Uniport D) Primary active transport 48. In osteogenesis imperfecta, which of the following is defective ? A) Phospate deposition in trabecular bone B) Osteoblasts C) Osteoclasts D) Bone collagen 49. Acetylcholine acting on nicotinic receptors produces A) Contraction of skeletal muscle B) Secretion of saliva C) Bradycardia D) Pupillary constriction 50. Synaptic conduction is mostly orthodromic because A) Dendrites cannot be depolarized B) Once repolarized, an area cannot be depolarized C) The strength of antidromic impulse is less D) Chemical mediator is located only in the pre-synaptic terminal 51. During neonatal resuscitation, the chest compression to ventilation ratio is A) 3:1 B) 5:1 C) 10:1 D) 15:1 52. Which amongst the following is X linked recessive disorder ? A) Duchenne muscular dystrophy B) Achondroplasia C) Marfan's syndrome D) Sickle cell disease

53. 2 months old child, born prematurely is brought with respiratory distress. Cardiac examination revealed increased pulse pressure and a pansystolic murmur best heard in 2nd left intercostal space. The most probable diagnosis would be A) Atrial septal defect B) Ventricular septal defect C) Patent ductus arteriosus D) Tetralogy of Fallot's 54. Sodium content in mmol/L in WHO oral rehydration solution is A) 20 B) 80 C) 90 D) 111 55. Which of the following is a clinical feature of rickets ? A) Early closure of anterior fontanelle B) Craniotabes C) Pseudoparalysis of the lower extremities D) Decrease in upper segment to lower segment ratio 56. Which of the following is the action of the lateral pterygoid muscle on the temporomandibular joint ? A) Elevation B) Depression C) Adduction D) Abduction 57. Arterial supply of the duodenum is by A) Superior mesenteric artery B) Celiac artery C) Inferior mesenteric artery D) Both superior mesenteric and celiac arteries 58. The surface marking of the arch of aorta is as follows A) Behind the manubrium sterni B) 2nd intercostal space C) 3rd intercostal space D) Left 2nd costal cartilage 59. Which of the following is NOT a content of femoral sheath ? A) Femoral vein B) Femoral artery C) Femoral nerve D) Deep lymph nodes 60. Urachus is the remnant of A) Allantois B) Meckel's diverticulum C) Umbilical artery D) Left umbilical vein 61. This type of psoriasis is commonly seen in children and may follow a streptococcal sore throat

A) Guttate B) Stable plaque C) Pustular D) Arthropathic 62. This phase in hair cycle determines the length to which hair in different body areas can grow A) Anagen B) Catagen C) Telogen D) Kenogen 63. This condition occurs due to an inherited generalized absence of pigment in the skin A) Vitiligo B) Albinism C) Piebaldism D) Leukoderma 64. Nasal stuffiness, epistaxis and pedal edema may be the first clinical manifestation in A) Indeterminate leprosy B) Tuberculoid leprosy C) Borderline leprosy D) Lepromatous leprosy 65. Drug of choice in Dermatitis herpetiformis is A) Corticosteroids B) Psoralens C) Methotrexate D) Dapsone 66. The specific antidote to treat warfarin overdose is A) vit. K, B) protamine sulfate C) epsilon amino - caproic acid D) tranexamic acid 67. The wrong statement about metronidazole is that it A) is useful in pseudomembranous enterocolitis B) is active against aerobic bacteria C) is secreted in saliva D) can cause disulfiram like intolerance to alcohol 68. The statement NOT true of ipratropium bromide is that it A) is administered orally B) is useful in psychogenic asthma C) acts primarily in the larger airways D) is an anticholinergic 69. All the following are used topically in glaucoma EXCEPT A) dipivefrine B) pilocarpine C) acetazolamide D) timolol

70. All the following statements are true of halothane EXCEPT that it A) is a good analgesic B) is a potent anaesthetic C) depresses myocardial contractility D) causes dilatation of bronchi 71. Which of the following is TRUE about psychiatric complications of child birth ? A) Postpartum blues require medical management B) Up to 30% of women develop postpartum depression C) Manic or depressive psychosis is the usual form of puerperal psychosis D) The life time risk of developing psychosis in a lady with puerperal psychosis is minimal since it is a condition associated with child birth 72. In bipolar affective disorder the term "rapid cycling" is used for patients who have at least episodes of depression or mania in a year. A) 2 B) 4 C) 6 D) 8 73. Which of the following symptoms are characteristic of Korsakoff's syndrome ? A) Hyperphagia B) Sleep attacks C) Confabulation D) Ideas of reference 74. Which of the following is an example of a tricyclic antidepressant ? A) Duloxetine B) Mirtazepine C) Nortryptiline D) Trazodone 75. Flooding is used in the treatment of A) Phobias B) Obsessions C) Hyperactivity D) Panic Disorder 76. In a human genome project, scientist notices that one strand of the DNA molecule contains 20 thymine (T), 25 cytosine (C), 30 guanine (G) and 22 adenine (A) residues. How many of each of the bases are found in the complete double-stranded molecule ? A) T = 44, C = 60, G = 50, A = 40 B) T = 22, C = 30, G = 25, A = 20 C) T = 40, C = 50, G = 60, A = 44 D) T = 42, C = 55, G = 55, A = 42 77. Which of the following enzyme does NOT take part in the conversion of lactate to phosphoenolpyruvate ? A) Lactate dehydrogenase B) Pyruvate kinase C) Pyruvate carboxylase D) Phosphoenolpyruvate carboxykinase

78. Tangiers disease is characterized by A) Low or absence of HDL B) Deficiency of LPL C) Low LDL concentration D) Raised chylomicrons 79. De-branching enzyme in glycogenolysis hydrolyses which one of the following bonds to release free glucose ? A) a (1-4) B) a (1 -6) C) p (1 -4) D) (3(1-6) 80. Most commonly occurring amino acid in the collagen structure is A) Serine B) Glycine C) Hydroxy proline D) Proline 81. Which thyroid malignancy can present with diarrhea ? A) Papillary carcinoma B) Follicular carcinoma C) Medullary carcinoma D) Hurthle cell carcinoma 82. TRUE regarding carcinoid of appendix is A) Most commonly occurs at the base of the appendix B) Most common neoplasm of the appendix C) Most cases require right hemicloectomy D) Metastases are quite common 83. The fascia separating rectum from coccyx is called A) Scarpa's fascia B) Waldeyer's fascis C) Denonvillier's fascia D) Colle's fascia 84. Which of the following is NOT included in Ranson's score for acute pancreatitis ? A) Age B) WBC count C) Blood glucose D) Serum amylase 85. Which of the following is the most common urethral injury ? A) Rupture of bulbar urethra B) Rupture of penile urethra C) Rupture of prostatic urethra D) Rupture of membranous urethra 86. A 25 years old woman presented with primary amenorrhea, short stature, webbed neck, broad chest and widely spaced pages . Examination showed weak pulses in lower extremity and streak ovaries. Which of the following karyotype is most likely to be present ? A) 45,X/46,XX

B) 47XXY C) 47 XXX D) 47 XXY/48 XXXY 87. All the following receptors play a role in phagocytosis EXCEPT A) Mannose B) Scavenger C) G protein coupled receptor D) Receptors for opsonins 88. "Wire loop lesions" in kidney are pathognomonic of which of the following conditions ? A) Amyloidosis B) Systemic lupus erythematosis C) Good pasture syndrome D) Diabetic nephropathy 89. Alport's syndrome is due to defective A) Collagen B) Elastin C) Fibrillin D) Proteoglycan 90. Xanthomas are intracellular accumulation of A) Carbohydrate B) Protein C) Amyloid D) Cholesterol 91. Features common to eosinophilic granuloma and Hand-Schuller-Christian disease are all EXCEPT A) Sharply defined osteolyic lesion(s) in mandible with "floating teeth" B) Vertebra plana (collapsed vertebra) that usually regains normal height C) Uniformly fatal outcome, usually within 2 years of age D) Geographic skull 92. All of the following are features of malignant gastric ulcer on barium meal EXCEPT A) Hampton's line B) Irregular nodular radiating folds C) No extension beyond the gastric wall D) Irregular ulcer margins 93. While assessing the cardiac shadow on PA view of chest radiograph which among the following statement is FALSE ? A) Lateral prominence of right heart border indicates right atrial enlargement B) Cardiac apex is displaced inferiorly and laterally in case of left ventricular enlargement C) Apex is displaced medially and superiorly in right ventricular enlargement D) Double right border is seen in left atrial enlargement 94. Which among the following is NOT a cause of calcification in anterior mediastinal mass ? A) Lymphoma after radiotherapy B) Aneurysm of ascending aorta C) Germ cell tumor D) Leiomyoma of oesophagus

95. Tension pneumothorax on radiograph is diagnosed with confidence when you see A) Ipsilateral mediastinal shift B) Contralateral mediastinal shift C) No mediastinal shift D) Contralateral mediastinal shift with ipsilateral diaphragmatic depression 96. The following antimicrobial produces its action primarily by inhibiting cell wall synthesis A) Ciprofloxacin B) Nystatin C) Sulfamethoxazole D) Cycloserine 97. All the following are Selective Estrogen Receptor Modulators (SERMs) EXCEPT A) Clomiphene citrate B) Tamoxifen citrate C) Raloxifene D) Ormeloxifene [snip]. All the following are nonsystemic antacids EXCEPT A) calcium carbonate B) magnesium trisilicate C) sodium bicarbonate D) aluminium hydroxide 99. The antagonism between adrenaline and histamine on the bronchial smooth muscle is A) physiological B) chemical C) receptor D) physical 100. The H, antihistaminic that is highly sedative is A) fexofenadine B) diphenhydramine C) chlorpheniramine D) cyclizine 101. Minimum nitrogen required for an adult with dynamic tissue turnover to maintain a positive nitrogen balance is A) 3.5-4.5 g B) 5.5-6.5 g C) 7.5-8.5 g D) 9.5-10.5 g 102. Frey's procedure is done for A) Meckel's diverticula B) Auriculotemporal neuropathy C) Ulcerative colitis D) Chronic pancreatitis 103. Hippocrates facies is seen in A) Peritonitis B) Pancreatitis C) Facial nerve injury

D) Marginal mandibular nerve injury 104. Which of the following is an absorbable suture material ? A) Polyamide B) Polydiaxone C) Polypropelene D) Silk 105. False about Peutz-Jegher's syndrome is A) Benign B) Familial C) Malignant D) Melanosis of lip 106. A 36 years male presented with complain of productive cough and fever for last 2 months. He has undergone kidney transplantation 2 years back. His sputum examination revealed many gram positive filamentous bacteria that showed acid fastness with modified Ziehl-Neelsen staining (1% H2S04). The most likely etiological agent is A) Actinomyces israelii B) Nocardia asteroides C) Blastomyces dermatitidis D) Cryptosporidium parvum 107. EAC rosette formation is the property of one of the following type of immune cells A) T cells B) B cells C) Macrophages D) All of the above 108. A 4 years old child presents with acute watery diarrhoea and abdominal cramps. Stool microscopy reveals trophozoites with falling leaf motility. The etiological agent is A) Entamoeba histolytica B) Giardia lamblia C) Trichomonas tenax D) Balantidium coli 109. An adolescent male developed vomiting and diarrhoea 1 hour after having food from a restaurant. The most likely pathogen is A) Clostridium perfringens B) Vibrio parahaemolyticus C) Staphylococcus aureus D) Salmonella typhimurium 110. Which of the following antigen is found within the nuclei of infected hepatocytes and NOT usually in the peripheral circulation in Hepatitis B infection ? A) HBe Ag B) HBc Ag C) Anti-HBc D) HBs Ag 111. Shelf life of CPD blood is A) 3 weeks B) 6 weeks

C) 9 weeks D) 12 weeks 112. Which of the following is NOT a component of Saint's triad ? A) Oesophageal diverticula B) Hiatus hernia C) Gall stones D) Colonic diverticula 113. All the following are true regarding metabolic acidosis EXCEPT A) Alkaline urine B) Cheyne-Stokes respiration C) Trousseau's sign D) Association with hyperkalemia 114. Upper dose limit of plain lignocaine in a 70 kg adult is A) 100 mg B) 150 mg C) 200 mg D) 250 mg 115. Composition of which of the following intravenous fluids has the closest resemblance to plasma ? A) Isotonic saline B) 1/5 isotonic saline C) 4.3% dextrose D) Ringer's lactate 116. C-MYC translocation is seen in which of the following tumours ? A) Burkitt lymphoma B) Neuroblastoma C) Malignant melanoma D) Breast cancer 117. Raised serum iron is seen in A) Iron deficiency anemia B) Megaloblastic anemia C) Thalassemia D) Thrombocytopenia 118. The type of breast carcinoma characterized by a pushing border A) Invasive ductal B) Invasive lobular C) Mucinous D) Medullary 119. An example for non-dividing/permanent cell is A) Hepatocyte B) Lymphocyte C) Respiratory epithelium D) Neuron 120. Which of the following forms of pneumoconiosis is associated with an increased susceptibility to tuberculosis ?

A) Asbestosis B) Silicosis C) Coal workers pneumoconiosis D) Stannosis 121. Bishop-Koop operation done for A) Meconium ileus B) Hirschprung's disease C) Duodenal atresia D) Meckel's diverticulum 122. Gene responsible for FAP is located at A) Chromosome 5 B) Chromosome 8 C) Chromosome 15 D) Chromosome X 123. Serum marker used after surgery for differentiated thyroid cancer is A) T4 B) Thyroglobulin C) Calcitonin D) PTH 124. Medical treatment of gall stone is contraindicated in A) Radio-opaque stone B) Functioning gall bladder C) Small stone D) Radiolucent stone 125. Laugier's hernia is a type of A) Inguinal hernia B) Femoral hernia C) Incisional hernia D) Obstructed hernia 126. Which one of the following tests is NOT used to detect the presence of primer metal components on the hands of an individual who fired the firearm ? A) Atomic Absorption Spectroscopy B) Dermal nitrate test C) Harrison and Gilroy test D) Neutron activation analysis 127. "Posthumous child" is one who A) Does not belong to the women claiming to be its mother B) Has been abandoned by its parents C) Is born after the death of its father D) Is illegitimate 128. The chemical used for qualitative and quantitative assessment of alcohol in the expired air is A) Aniline B) Diphenylamine C) Potassium ferrocyanide

D) Potassium dichromate 129. Which Indian law describes dying declaration ? A) Sec. 39Cr.P.C. B) Sec. 278 Cr.P.C. C) Sec. 32 IEA D) Sec. 118 IEA 130. The test based on lung weight useful in the diagnosis of live birth is A) Hydrostatic test B) Static test C) Wredin's test D) Breslau's second life test 131. The most common tumour of the mediastinum is A) Neurogenic B) Terato-dermoids C) Lymphoma D) Thymoma 132. The most reliable test in the diagnosis of phaeochromocytoma is A) 24 hour urinary metanephrine B) Urinary catecholamines C) Urinary vanillyl mandilic acid D) Basal plasma catecholamines 133. A report of "lead-pipe" appearance of the colon barium enema would be diagnostic of * A) Amoebiasis B) Ulcerative colitis C) Tuberculosis of the colon D) Agranulomatous polyposis 134. String sign of cantor is seen in A) Ulcerative colitis B) Crohn's disease C) TB ileum D) Sigmoid volvulus 135. Anal fissures in the lateral wall are due to all the following EXCEPT A) Crohn's disease B) Ulcerative colitis C) Tuberculosis D) Lymphogranuloma venerium 136. Toxin production by Corynebacterium diphtheriae is due to A) Chromosomal mutation B) Presence of Plasmid C) Lysogenic conversion D) Transformation 137. A woman who pricked her finger while pruning some rose bushes develops a local pustule that progressed to an ulcer. Several nodules then developed along the local lymphatic drainage. The most likely etiological agent would be A) Aspergillus fumigatus

B) Candida albicans C) Histoplasma capsulatum D) Sporothrix schenckii 138. Job's syndrome is the following type of immunodeficiency disease A) Humoral immunodeficiency B) Cellular immunodeficiency C) Disorder of complement D) Disorder of phagocytosis 139. Primary site of infection in cryptococcosis is A) Adrenal B) Bone C) Central nervous system D) Lung 140. Which of the following helminth produces bile stained eggs ? A) Ancylostoma duodenale B) Taenia solium C) Enterobius vermicularis D) Necator americanus 141. The salivary gland neoplasm which characteristically spreads perineurally along the cranial nerves is A) Pleomorphic adenoma B) Acinic cell carcinoma C) Mucoepidermoid carcinoma D) Adenoid cystic carcinoma 142. The recommended fluid for initial fluid challenge in a trauma victim in shock is A) 5% dextrose B) 10% dextrose C) Dextrose normal saline D) Hartman's solution 143. The preferred initial treatment for carcinoma of the anal canal is A) Abdominoperineal resection B) Abdominoperineal resection followed by radiotherapy C) Radiotherapy alone D) Chemoradiation 144. FALSE about annular pancreas is A) Prevalent in Down's syndrome B) Bilious vomiting C) Double-bubble sign on X ray D) Gastrojejunostomy offers best remedy 145. Surgical wound of gastrojejunostomy is an example for A) Clean wound B) Clean contaminated wound C) Contaminated wound D) Dirty wound 146. Following is the part of "Sentinel Surveillance" EXCEPT

A) Method for identifying the missing cases B) Supplementing the notified cases C) To estimate the disease prevalence in total population D) To estimate the fatality of the disease 147. If the disease is acute and of short duration either due to rapid recovery or death - then it will have A) Low prevalence rate relative to incidence rate B) High prevalence rate relative to incidence rate C) High prevalence rate and high incidence rate D) Low prevalence rate and low incidence rate 148. Epidemic dropsy is caused by consumption of A) rice contaminated with Fusarium species of fungus B) mustard oil contaminated with Argemone oil C) food grains contaminated with Ergot fungus D) food grains infested with Aspergillus fungus 149. The headquarters of Food and Agriculture Organization (FAO) is situated at A) Geneva B) Rome C) New York D) Paris 150. The following diseases are communicable during later part of incubation period EXCEPT A) Measles B) Whooping Cough C) Hepatitis A D) Typhoid 151. March fracture usually involves A) 1st metatarsal B) 2nd metatarsal C) 4th metatarsal D) 5th metacarpal 152. Referred pain on left shoulder tip may be due to A) Left ureteric stones B) Liver or gall bladder pathology C) Ruptured spleen D) Early appendicitis 153. In axillary nerve paralysis, all the following are true EXCEPT A) Deltoid muscle is wasted B) Extension of shoulder with arm abducted to 90 degrees is impossible C) Small area of numbness is present over the shoulder region D) Patient cannot initiate abduction 154. 'Ulnar paradox' is seen in A) High ulnar lesion B) Low ulnar lesion C) Triple nerve disease D) Combined ulnar and median nerve injury

155. 38 years old male sustained fracture shaft femur with fracture pelvis. On day two of injury, he developed dyspnoea, tachycardia and drowsiness. The most likely diagnosis is A) head injury B) fat embolism C) pulmonary embolism D) hemorrhagic shock 156. Pulse proteins are deficient in A) Histidine B) Lysine C) Methionine D) Threonine 157. Bleaching powder is widely used in public health practice. A good sample of bleaching powder contains about of available 'Chlorine'. A) 13 percent B) 23 percent C) 33 percent D) 43 percent 158. The "Crude death rate" is defined as "the number of deaths (from all causes) per 1000 estimated". A) Total population B) Total births C) Mid year population D) Live births 159. A man acquires beliefs, customs and prejudices in everyday social interaction with the people of his society. This is called as A) Acculturation B) Isolation C) Socialization D) Social defence 160. The single most common cause of maternal mortality is A) Anemia B) Sepsis C) Obstetric hemorrhage D) Obstructed labor 161. Entonox is a mixture of A) 50% oxygen and 50% air B) 50% oxygen and 50% nitrous oxide C) 75% oxygen and 25% air D) 75% oxygen and 25% helium 162. Following is an adverse effect of Etomidate A) Adrenocortical suppression B) Hypotension C) Hyperkalemia D) Emergence phenomena 163. Grade III of Mallampatti score in airway examination suggests

A) Only hard palate visible B) Tip of the epiglottis visible C) Only soft palate visible D) Soft palate, faucial pillars and uvula visible 164. Minimum Alveolar Concentration (MAC) of sevoflurane in % is A) 0.75 B) 0.42 C) 1.15 D) 2 165. Pin index of nitrous oxide cylinder is A) 2,5 B) 3,6 C) 3,5 D) 1,6 166. Which of the following indicators is a component of the Physical Quality of Life Index ? A) Life expectancy at birth B) Gross enrolment ratio C) GDP per capita D) Literacy 167. Which of the following types of waste can be safely incinerated ? A) Halogenated plastics B) Radiographic waste C) Sealed ampules D) Animal waste 168. In order to prevent damage to hearing, the limit of daily noise exposure should NOT exceed A) 65 dB B) 85 dB C) 105 dB D) 125 dB 169. Compared with unprocessed cow's milk, breast milk contains more A) Lipids B) Proteins C) Minerals D) Carbohydrates 170. 'Lead time' refers to the time between A) Disease onset and final critical diagnosis B) Disease onset and first possible point of detection C) First possible point of detection and final critical diagnosis D) First possible point of detection and usual time of diagnosis 171. "Piano Key Sign" is positive in A) Carpal Instability B) Proximal Radioulnar Joint Instability C) Distal Tibiofibular Joint Instability D) Distal Radioulnar Joint Instability

172. Which of following is the primary treatment of Pott's paraplegia ? A) Anti Tuberculous Chemotherapy (ATT) B) Posterior Instrumentation C) Posterior Decompression D) Posterior Spinal Fusion 173. Hand to knee gait is seen in A) gluteus medius weakness B) hamstring weakness C) ilio-psoas weakness D) quadriceps weakness 174. Ortolani's test is used in A) Congenital dislocation of knee B) Obstetric brachial plexus palsy C) Developmental dysplasia of hip D) Tom Smith's arthritis 175. Which of the following is malignant bone tumor ? A) osteochondroma B) osteosarcoma C) osteiodosteoma D) osteoblastoma 176. Which of the following is an example of a 'Point-source' epidemic ? A) Bhopal gas tragedy B) Epidemic of Hepatitis A C) Epidemic of poliomyelitis D) Outbreak of gonorrhoea 177. ELISA Test for detection of antibodies to the HIV is an example of A) Primordial Prevention B) Primary Prevention C) Secondary Prevention D) Tertiary Prevention 178. Which of the following statements regarding 'unmet need' for family planning is FALSE ? A) Unmet need for family planning is higher in rural areas B) Its measurement has been limited to married women only C) A common reason for unmet need is unsatisfactory services D) It is defined based on the couple's response to survey questions 179. Which of the following is NOT used to control KFD ? A) Vaccination B) Control of ticks C) Chemoprophylaxis D) Personal protection 180. Each tablet of iron and folic acid administered to pregnant women contains A) 300 mg of elemental iron B) 100 mg of elemental iron C) 60 mg of elemental iron D) 20 mg of elemental iron

181. The posterior boundary of the paraglottic space of larynx is formed by A) Infra-hyoid epiglottis B) Hyoepiglottic ligament C) Thyrohyoid membrane D) Pyriform fossa mucosa 182. Vincent's angina is caused by A) Beta-hemolytic streptococcus B) Fusiform bacillus C) Pseudomonas aeroginosa D) Diphtheroids 183. Gradenigo's syndrome is characterized by the following, EXCEPT A) Facial nerve palsy B) Abducent nerve palsy C) Retro-orbital pain D) Persistent ear discharge 184. In permanent tracheostomy A) The tracheal remnant is sutured to the strap muscles for safer ventilation of the respiratory tract B) The tracheostomy tube is kept permanently with intermittent cleaning of the tube C) The chances of tracheal stenosis is high D) The remnant of trachea is brought out to the surface as a permanent mouth to the respiratory tract 185. The speech reception threshold can be derived from the audiogram and is A) Taken as the intensity at which the patient can repeat 50% of the presented words B) Taken as the average of the minimum and maximum frequency levels at which speech can be perceived C) Not useful to predict the usefulness of a hearing aid D) But is not useful in helping to detect sensorineural deafness or conductive hearing loss 186. A young woman has long h/o dysphagia without any pain. She has learnt to overcome this by drinking large quantities and moving around after eating. She is likely to be suffering from A) Diffuse oesophageal spasm B) CREST syndrome C) Achalasia of the osophagus D) Peptic stricture 187. The treatment most likely to benefit a patient of massive pulmonary embolism in shock A) Thrombolytic therapy B) lonotropic agent C) Vasodilator therapy D) Diuretic therapy 188. Following are features of complete heart block EXCEPT A) Bradycardia B) Cannon waves C) Varying intensity of 1st heart sound

D) Heart rate increase during exercise 189. Haemolysis is most severe with Plasmodium falciparum infection compared to other malarial parasites because of A) Associated gram-negative bacteremia B) Ability of the parasite to infect RBCs of all ages C) Ability of the organism to-infect selectively reticulocytes D) Ability of the organism to escape the immune recognition by the immune system 190. A 50-years-old known asthmatic develops sudden onset right-sided chest pain with dyspnoea. Chest X ray reveals hyperlucency on right side with shift of trachea to left side. The best option of treatment for immediate relief of symptom is A) Intravenous morphine B) Nebulisation of beta 2 agonist, Ex Salbutamol C) Intravenous aminophylline D) Water seal intercostal drainage on right side of chest 191. Acanthamoeba keratitis is associated with A) trauma with vegetable matter B) wearing of soft contact lenses C) dry eyes D) trichiasis 192. Proliferative diabetic retinopathy is treated by A) pan retinal photocoagulation B) pars plana vitrectomy C) grid laser photocoagulation D) focal retinal photocoagulation 193. Aqueous humor in the eye is secreted by A) pigmentary epithelium of iris B) pigmentary epithelium of ciliary body C) non pigmentary epithelium of ciliary body D) retinal pigmentary epithelium 194. Pediatric cataract is surgically treated by A) extra capsular cataract extraction B) intra capsular cataract extraction C) phacoemulsification D) lens aspiration 195. Follicles of a diameter of 5 mm are typically seen in A) Pharyngoconjunctival fever B) Trachoma C) Drug induced follicular conjunctivitis D) Ophthalmia neonatorum 196. The pathophysiological mechanism for gastro oesophageal reflux disease is A) Increased lower oesophageal spincter tone B) Decreased oesophageal mucosal sensitivity C) Increased gastric emptying D) Low resting lower esophageal resting tone 197. Which of the following is considered to be effective treatment of Type I hepatorenal

syndrome ? A) Haemo dialysis B) Peritoneal dialysis C) Large dose diuretic therapy D) Albumin infusion with terlipressin 198. A patient has preserved light touch and absent pain and temperature over the left upper limb. This pattern of sensory loss is called A) Stock and glove type B) Segmental type C) Dissociated type D) Mononeuritic type 199. All the following are at-risk groups meriting Hepatitis B vaccination in low endemic areas EXCEPT A) Patients on chronic haemodialysis B) Diabetics on insulin C) Medical/nursing personnel D) Patients with chronic liver disease 200. The drug of choice in an 80-years-old patient presenting with hyperglycemia and ketoacidosis A) Oral hypoglycemic drugs B) Intermediate acting insulin C) Oral drugs with intermediate acting insulin D) Short acting insulin