Test 3 Semiconductor 1. The name of pure semiconductor material that has an equal number of electrons and holes A.

. n-type B. pure type C. intrinsic D. p-type ANSWER: C 2. Elements that has four valence electrons are classified as A. conductor B. insulator C. elemental semiconductor D. compound semiconductor ANSWER: C 3. An example of an elemental semiconductor. A. Germanium (Ge) B. Gallium Arsenide (GaAs) C. Gallium Phosphide (GaP) D. Aluminum Arsenide (AlAs) ANSWER A 4. Which of the following is an example of a compound semiconductor? A. Gallium Arsenide (GaAs) B. Gallium Phosphide (GaP) C. Aluminum Arsenide (AlAs) D. All of the above ANSWER: D 5. Germanium has an atomic number of 32 and an atomic weight of approximately 72 amu. How many electrons, protons and neutrons are there? A. 32, 32, 40 B. 32, 32, 104 C. 40, 32, 32 D. 40, 32, 104 ANSWER: A 6. The chemical bond that is present in a crystal lattice of silicon atoms. A. covalent bond B. electrovalent bond C. ionic bond D. metallic bond ANSWER: A 7. The atomic weight of a silicon atom is approximately 28 amu. How many electro ns, protons and neutrons does the atom consist? A. 14, 42, 14 B. 14, 14, 42 C. 42, 14, 14 D. 14, 14, 14 ANSWER: D 8. What is the total charge at the nucleus of silicon atom? A. -12e C B. 12e C C. -14e C D. 14e C ANSWER: D

9. In materials, what do you call the area that separates the valence band and t he conduction band? A. energy gap B. forbidden band C. insulation band D. A and B are correct ANSWER: B 10. At absolute zero temperature, semiconductor acts as A. an insulator B. a conductor C. a semi-insulator D. usual ANSWER: A 11. The electron flow in a semiconductor material is A. opposite in direction of hole flow B. the same direction with hole flow C. the drift current D. known as the conventional current ANSWER: A 12. Typical range of the resistivity of a semiconductor A. 10-15 10-18 -cm B. 10-5 10-8 -cm C. 10 104 -cm D. 108 1015 -cm ANSWER: C 13. Chemical bond that is significant in metals A. ionic bonding B. electrovalent bonding C. covalent bonding D. metallic bonding ANSWER: D 14. A semiconductor that is free from impurities A. intrinsic semiconductor B. extrinsic semiconductor C. compensated semiconductor D. elemental semiconductor ANSWER: A 15. The process of adding impurities in a semiconductor material. A. growing B. diffusion C. doping D. depleting ANSWER: C 16. Impurities with five valence electrons. A. acceptor B. donor C. trivalent D. pentavalent ANSWER: D 17. Example of acceptor impurities. A. pentavalent impurities B. trivalent impurities

C. tetravalent impurities D. hexavalent impurities ANSWER: B 18. If the substance used in doping has less than four valence electrons, it is known as A. acceptor B. donor C. trivalent D. pentavalent ANSWER: A 19. Commonly used as donor impurities. A. Antimony (Sb) B. Arsenic (As) C. Phosphorus (P) D. all of the above ANSWER: D 20. Example of trivalent impurities. A. Boron (B) B. Gallium (Ga) C. Indium (In) D. all of the above ANSWER: D 21. Donor-doped semiconductor becomes a A. N-type semiconductor B. good conductor C. p-n semiconductor D. P-type semiconductor ANSWER: A 22. What do you call a semiconductor that is doped with both donor and acceptor impurities? A. double doped semiconductor B. compensated semiconductor C. compound semiconductor D. diffused semiconductor ANSWER: B 23. The resistance of a semiconductor is known as A. bulk resistance B. intrinsic resistance C. extrinsic resistance D. dynamic resistance ANSWER: A 24. The most extensively used semiconductor. A. silicon B. germanium C. gallium phosphide D. gallium arsenide ANSWER: A 25. Semiconductor whose electron and hole concentrations are equal. A. extrinsic semiconductor B. intrinsic semiconductor C. compensated semiconductor D. doped semiconductor ANSWER: B

26. Silicon is widely used over germanium due to its several advantages, what do you think is its most significant advantage? A. abundant B. cheap C. temperature stable D. low leakage current ANSWER: D 27. Current flow in a semiconductor that is due to the applied electric field. A. diffusion current B. conventional current C. drift velocity D. drift current ANSWER: D 28. The movement of charge carriers in a semiconductor even without the applicat ion of electric potential. A. diffusion current B. conventional current C. drift current D. saturation current ANSWER: A 29. Typically, how much energy is required for a valence electron to move to the conduction band for a doped semiconductor? A. 0 eV B. 0.05 eV C. 1.0 eV D. 5.0 eV ANSWER: B 30. Conduction of electrons in a doped semiconductor happens at A. conduction band B. forbidden band C. valence band D. nuclei band ANSWER: A 31. Theoretically, where does the conduction of holes occur in a doped semicondu ctor? A. conduction band B. forbidden band C. valence band D. empty band ANSWER: C 32. In energy band diagram of a doped semiconductor, the donor level A. is near the valence band B. is near the conduction band C. is exactly in between the valence and conduction band D. depends on the amount of doping ANSWER: B 33. The acceptor level in a doped semiconductor A. is near the valence band level B. is near the conduction level C. is exactly in between the conduction and valence band D. will depend on the concentration of doping ANSWER: A

34. In a semiconductor material, what will happen to the number of free electron s when the temperature rises? A. increases B. decreases exponentially C. decreases D. remains the same ANSWER: A 35. The electrical resistance of a semiconductor material will ________ as the t emperature increases. A. increase B. increase exponentially C. decrease D. not change ANSWER: C 36. The potential required to removed a valence electron A. valence potential B. threshold potential C. critical potential D. ionization potential ANSWER: D 37. Among the given elements, which is considered as nonmetal? A. silicon (Si) B. germanium (Ge) C. tin (Sn) D. lead (Pb) ANSWER: A 38. A semiconductor that is classified as a metalloid or semimetal A. silicon (Si) B. germanium (Ge) C. tin (Sn) D. carbon (C) ANSWER: B 39. Semiconductor that is very rare, it only occurs in minute quantities in many metal sulfides A. silicon (Si) B. germanium (Ge) C. tin (Sn) D. lead (Pb) ANSWER: B 40. Compound semiconductors are also known as A. compensated semiconductors B. amorphous semiconductors C. organic semiconductors D. inner-mettalic semiconductors ANSWER: D 41. What semiconductor that is mostly used in devices requiring the emission or absorption of lights? A. amorphous semiconductor B. organic semiconductor C. compound semiconductor D. elemental semiconductor ANSWER: C

42. For high-speed integrated circuit, which semiconductor material given below is best to be used? A. silicon B. germanium C. carbon D. gallium arsenide ANSWER: D 43. How much impurity concentration is needed for a sample of silicon to change its electrical property from a poor conductor to a good conductor? A. one part per hundred B. one part per thousand C. one part per million D. one part per billion ANSWER: C 44. The restriction of certain discrete energy levels in a semiconductor materia l can be predicted generally by using what model? A. Bohr model B. string model C. wave model D. particle model ANSWER: A 45. Is defined as the energy acquired by an electron moving through a potential of one volt. A. electron Joules (eJ) B. electron-potential C. oxidation potential D. electron Volt (eV) ANSWER: D 46. At room temperature, in a perfect silicon crystal, the equilibrium concentra tion of thermally generated electrons in the conduction band is about A. 1.5 x 105 per cubic cm. B. 1.5 x 1010 per cubic cm. C. 1.5 x 1015 per cubic cm. D. 1.5 x 1020 per cubic cm. ANSWER: B 47. What is the basis in operation of semiconductor photoconductors? A. EHP generation B. EHP degeneration C. EHP optical degeneration D. EHP optical generation ANSWER: D 48. The semiconductor that is used in xerography A. selenium (Se) B. gallium phosphide (GaP) C. cadmium compound D. organic semiconductor ANSWER: A 49. A silicon material has an intrinsic concentration ni=1010 per cubic centimet er at room temperature. If it is doped with 1015 antimony atoms per cubic centim eter, what is now the approximate electron concentration at the conduction band? A. 105 electrons B. 1010 electrons

C. 1015 electrons D. 1020 electrons ANSWER: C 50. When an electron at the conduction band falls back to the valence band it wi ll recombine with the hole. This is known as A. regeneration B. reunion C. combination D. recombination ANSWER: D 51. Which semiconductor is mostly used to detect near infrared? A. silicon B. germanium C. carbon D. silicon carbide ANSWER: D 52. What semiconductor that is good for high-temperature applications? A. indium antimonide (InSb) B. gallium anitmonide(GaSb) C. silicon carbide (SiC) D. diamond (C) ANSWER: A 53. Among the given semiconductors below, which has the highest mobility? A. silicon B. germanium C. gallium arsenide D. indium antimonide ANSWER: D 54. A semiconducting glass is known as A. isomorphous semiconductor B. amorphous semiconductor C. organic semiconductor D. compound semiconductor ANSWER: B 55. For an electroluminescent of green and red lights, which semiconductor is be st? A. silicon carbide B. gallium arsenide C. indium antimonide D. gallium phosphide ANSWER: D 56. Typical range of power dissipation for a semiconductor to be considered as lo w power or small signal A. less than 1 watt B. 5 < P < 10 watts C. 10 < P < 20 watts D. 20 watts above ANSWER: A 57. In the design of high power semiconductor devices, it involves what factors? A. making the size of the semiconductor bigger B. packing the device into a bigger case C. excellent contact between the semiconductor and the case D. all of the above

ANSWER: D 58. How to have a better high-frequency response in designing semiconductor devi ces? A. make the chip as small as possible B. the leads should be made shorter and smaller C. smaller packaging D. all of the above ANSWER: D 59. Before an electron can participate in the conduction of electricity, it must leave from the valence band and transfer to the conduction band. Transferring t o the conduction band involves energy acquisition by an electron from external s ources and this energy must be greater than the energy gap of the material. Whic h semiconductor material has the highest energy gap? A. Zinc Sulfide (ZnS) B. silicon (Si) C. germanium (Ge) D. Indium Antimonide (InSb) ANSWER: A 60. Which of the following semiconductors has the smallest energy gap? A. ZnS B. Si C. Ge D. InSb ANSWER: D 61. The ease with which a charge carrier (electron or hole) moves in a semicondu ctor material is known as mobility. It is also defined as the average drift velo city of electrons and holes per unit electrostatic field. Which of the semicondu ctor materials has the highest value of electron-mobility? A. InSb B. Ge C. Si D. AlP ANSWER: A 62. In semiconductor materials, electrons have a higher value of mobility than h oles, but which semiconductor material has the slowest electron-mobility? A. InSb B. GaP C. GaAs D. AlP ANSWER: D 63. Solar cell is a semiconductor electric-junction device, which absorbs the ra diant energy of sunlight and converts it directly and efficiently into electrica l energy. This device, uses what type of semiconductor materials? A. single-crystal silicon B. amorphous or polycrystalline silicon C. GaAs, CdS, CdTe, CuS D. all of the above ANSWER: D 64. What is formed when n-type and p-type semiconductors are brought together? A. pn junction B. semiconductor junction C. energy band gap D. semiconductor diode

ANSWER: A 65. PN junction acts as a one way valve for electrons because _________. A. the circuit in which the diode is used, only attempts to pump electrons in on e diode B. electrons tend to follow the direction of the hole C. there is a little mechanical switch inside a diode D. when electrons are pump from P to N, free electrons and holes are force apart leaving no way for electrons to cross the junction ANSWER: D 66. The device that is formed when an n-type and p-type semiconductors are broug ht together A. pn junction B. semiconductor junction C. depletion region D. junction diode ANSWER: D 67. An external voltage applied to a junction reduces its barrier and aid curren t to flow through the junction A. reverse bias B. external bias C. junction bias D. forward bias ANSWER: D 68. A device containing an anode and a cathode or a pn junction of a semiconduct or as the principal elements and provides unidirectional conduction. A. diode B. diac C. triode D. triac ANSWER: A 69. Unidirectional conduction in two-electrodes in any device other than a diode , such that rectification between the grid and cathode of a triode, or asymmetri cal conduction between the collector and base of a transistor is called A. rectification B. diode action C. clipping D. clamping ANSWER: B 70. The p-type material in a semiconductor junction diode is technically termed as A. positive terminal B. negative terminal C. cathode D. anode ANSWER: D 71. Cathode in a semiconductor junction diode is referred to the A. positive terminal B. junction C. p-type terminal D. n-type terminal ANSWER: D 72. The area in the semiconductor diode where there are no charge carriers

A. depletion B. depletion C. depletion D. depletion ANSWER: B

layer region mode area

73. Depletion region is an area in a semiconductor device where there are no cha rge carriers exist. This will be always near the junction of n-type and p-type m aterials. What causes this junction to be depleted by charge carriers? A. Due to the recombination of holes and electrons at the junction B. Due to the cancellation of positively charge protons and negatively charge el ectrons C. Due to the annihilation of charge carriers D. Due to the combination of positively charge holes and negatively charge elect rons ANSWER: D 74. A junction diode A. Anode is supplied B. Anode is supplied C. A voltage greater anode. D. A voltage greater anode. ANSWER: C is said to be forward-biased if more positive than the cathode. more negative than the cathode. than threshold is applied, with cathode less positive than than threshold is applied, with cathode less negative than

75. What do you call the very small amount of current that will flow in the diod e when it is reverse biased? A. saturation current B. reverse saturation current C. cut-off current D. holding current ANSWER: B 76. When the diode is supplied with forward direction potentials but with a magn itude less than the threshold voltage of the diode, still it will not turn-on and will only allow a very small amount of current to pass. This very small current is known A. as leakage current B. as forward saturation current C. as holding current D. as cut-off current ANSWER: D 77. The minimum voltage required before a diode can totally conduct in a forward direction. A. triggering voltage B. breakdown voltage C. saturation voltage D. threshold voltage ANSWER: D 78. What will happen to the threshold voltage of the diode when it operates at h igher temperatures. A. increases B. increases exponentially C. decreases D. decreases exponentially ANSWER: C

79. The forward current in a conducting diode will ______________ as the operati ng temperature increases. A. not be affected B. decrease C. decrease exponentially D. increase ANSWER: D 80. As the operating temperature of a reverse-biased diode is increased, its lea kage or reverse saturation current will A. Increase B. increase exponentially C. decrease D. decrease exponentially ANSWER: B 81. The small value of direct current that flows when a semiconductor device has reverse bias A. surge current B. bias current C. reverse current D. current limit ANSWER: C 82. Normally, diodes will not conduct when reverse-biased, but if the reverse vo ltage is increased further, a point will be reached where the diode gives up and allowing the current to surge. This voltage is one of the limiting parameter of diodes and is known as A. breakdown voltage (VBR) B. peak inverse voltage (PIV) C. peak reverse voltage (PRV) D. all are correct ANSWER: D 83. For a silicon diode, calculate the current at room temperature if the forwar d voltage VF = 0.3 V and the reverse saturation current IS = 100 nA. A. 32.8 A B. 10.8 A C. 32.8 mA D. 10.8 mA ANSWER: A 84. The breakdown voltage of a junction diode will ___________ A. Increase as operating temperature rises. B. Increase exponentially as operating temperature rises. C. Decrease as operating temperature rises. D. Not change as operating temperature rises. ANSWER: C 85. Calculate the new threshold voltage of a germanium diode when it operates at 100 0C. A. 0.113 V B. 0.188 V C. 0.215 V D. 0.513 V ANSWER: A 86. A silicon diode has a reverse saturation current of 50 nA at room temperatur e. If the operating temperature is raised by 50C, what is now the reverse saturat ion current? A. 105.56 nA

B. 287.73 nA C. 827.89 nA D. 1.66 A ANSWER: D 87. In every increase of 10C in the operating temperature of a diode will cause i ts reverse saturation current to A. decrease B. double C. triple D. quadruple ANSWER: B 88. What do you call the resistance of the diode when operating at a steady stat e voltage? A. dc resistance B. dynamic resistance C. ac resistance D. average resistance ANSWER: A 89. The resistance of the diode that is significant when operating with a small ac signal A. dc resistance B. static resistance C. dynamic resistance D. average resistance ANSWER: C 90. When a diode is used in large ac voltages, the resistance that is to be cons idered is A. dc resistance B. static resistance C. dynamic resistance D. average resistance ANSWER: D 91. At forward bias condition, what will happen to the diode resistance when the applied voltage is increased? A. will also increase B. will increase exponentially C. will decrease D. will not change ANSWER: C 92. The primary use of Zener diode in electronic circuits. A. resistance regulator B. rectifier C. voltage regulator D. current regulator ANSWER: C 93. What phenomenon in electronics does an avalanche breakdown primarily depende nt? A. Doping B. Recombination C. Ionization D. Collision ANSWER: C

94. When a diode is reverse biased the depletion region widens, since it is in b etween positively charge holes and negatively charge electrons, it will have an effect of a capacitor, this capacitance is called what? A. diffusion capacitance B. storage capacitance C. stray capacitance D. transition capacitance ANSWER: D 95. In a semiconductor diode, the total capacitance, that is the capacitance bet ween terminals and electrodes, and the internal voltage variable capacitance of the junction is called A. diffusion capacitance B. transition capacitance C. depletion-region capacitance D. diode capacitance ANSWER: D 96. What capacitance is significant when the diode is forward biased? A. diffusion capacitance or storage capacitance B. transition capacitance C. depletion-region capacitance D. stray capacitance ANSWER: A 97. A diode that is especially designed to operate as a voltage-variable capacit or. It utilizes the junction capacitance of a semiconductor diode. A. varactor B. varicap C. varistor D. A and B are correct ANSWER: D 98. The capacitance of a varactor will _______ when the forward bias voltage is increased. A. increase B. decrease C. exponentially decrease D. not change ANSWER: A 99. The time taken by the diode to operate in the reverse condition from forward conduction A. reverse recovery time B. forward recovery time C. reverse holding time D. reverse time constant ANSWER: A 100. In operating a diode at high-speed switching circuits, one of the most impo rtant parameters to be considered is A. ac resistance B. diode capacitance C. noise figure D. reverse recovery time (trr) ANSWER: D 101. The time required for forward voltage or current to reach a specified value after switching the diode from its reverse-to-forward-biased state. A. reverse recovery time

B. forward recovery time (tfr) C. saturation time D. conduction time ANSWER: B 102. The maximum power the diode can handle. A. maximum derating power B. maximum consumption power C. breakdown power D. maximum dissipation power ANSWER: D 103. What is the most important specification for semiconductor diode? A. Forward resistance B. Reverse resistance C. Peak inverse voltage D. Current capacity ANSWER: D 104. What will happen to the power handling capability of the diode if it is to be operated at a higher temperature? A. decreases B. increases C. increases exponentially D. will not be affected ANSWER: A 105. Diode parameter that will inform the user as to what factor does the power handling capability of the diode is reduced as the operating temperature is incr eased. A. power derating factor B. power dissipating factor C. power reduction constant D. all of the above ANSWER: A 106. A certain diode has a maximum power dissipation of 500 mW at room temperatu re and a linear power derating factor of 5.0 mW/C. How much power the diode can h andle if operated at 50C. A. 625 mW B. 505 mW C. 495 mW D. 375 mW ANSWER: D 107. A semiconductor device especially fabricated to utilize the avalanche or ze ner breakdown region. This is normally operated in the reverse-region and its ap plication is mostly for voltage reference or regulation. A. varactor diode B. zener diode C. shockley diode D. Schottky barrier diode ANSWER: B 108. Refers to a special type of diode which is capable of both amplification an d oscillation. A. Junction diode B. Tunnel diode C. Point contact diode D. Zener diode

ANSWER: B 109. The effect obtain when the electric field across a semiconductor is strong enough which causes the free electrons to collide with valence electrons, thereb y releasing more electrons and a cumulative multiplication of charge carriers oc cur. A. Gunn B. avalanche C. tunneling D. diffusion ANSWER: B 110. A negative resistance diode commonly used in microwave oscillators and dete ctors, it is sometimes used as amplifiers. This device is also known as Esaki di ode. A. varactor diode B. Schottky diode C. IMPATT diode D. tunnel diode ANSWER: D 111. A rectifying metal-semiconductor junction A. Schottky barrier diode B. surface barrier diode C. hot-carrier or hot-electron diode D. all of the above are correct ANSWER: D 112. Diode whose negative resistance depends on a specific form of quantum-mecha nical bond structure of the material A. Gunn diode B. tunnel diode C. TRAPATT diode D. backward diode ANSWER: A 113. One of the electronic semiconductor devices known as diac, function as A. Four terminal multi-directional switch B. Two terminal bi-directional switch C. Two terminal unidirectional switch D. Three terminal bi-directional switch ANSWER: C 114. Another name of a three-layer diode. This is also considered as an ac diode . A. Shockley diode B. thyrector C. thyristor D. diac ANSWER: D 115. A diode whose negative resistance is dependent on the classical effects of phase shift introduced by the time lag between maximum field and maximum avalanc he current, and by the transit time through the device. A. Read diode B. IMPATT diode C. TRAPATT diode D. all of the above ANSWER: D 116. What semiconductor diode that have a fine wire (called a cat-whisker) whose

point is in permanent contact with the surface of a wafer of semiconductor mate rial such as silicon, germanium or gallium arsenide? A. point-contact diode B. diac C. PiN diode D. thyrector ANSWER: A 117. When the p-n junction of a semiconductor diode is inserted with an intrinsi c material, the diode becomes a A. backward diode B. Read diode C. Schokley diode D. PiN diode ANSWER: D 118. A four layer semiconductor diode whose characteristic at the first quadrant is similar to that of a silicon-controlled rectifier (SCR). A. Shockley diode B. thyrector C. Schottky diode D. diac ANSWER: A 119. A diode that is especially processed so that its high-current flow takes pl ace when the junction is reverse-biased. It is a variation of a tunnel diode. A. Esaki diode B. Read diode C. zener diode D. backward diode ANSWER: D 120. A silicon diode that exhibits a very high resistance in both directions up to certain voltage, beyond which the unit switches to a low-resistance conductin g state. It can be viewed as two zener diodes connected back-to-back in series. A. bizener diode B. diac C. thyristor D. thyrector ANSWER: D 121. A type of Read diode that uses a heavily doped n-type material as its drift region A. IMPATT diode B. TRAPATT diode C. TUNNETT diode D. MITATT ANSWER: A 122. A device containing more than one diode. An example is the full-wave bridge -rectifier integrated circuit. A. diode array B. diode IC C. diode pack D. combined diode ANSWER: C 123. Is the combination of the inductance of the leads and electrodes, capacitan ce of the junction, and the resistance of the junction of a semiconductor diode. A. diode impedance B. diode ac resistance

C. diode reactance D. diode ac parameter ANSWER: A 124. In a reverse-biased pn junction, the sudden large increase in current that occurs when a particular value of reversed voltage is reached, and which is due to ionization by the high intensity electric field in the depletion region. A. Zener effect B. Hall effect C. breakdown voltage D. ionization ANSWER: A 125. The appearance of RF current oscillations in a dc-biased slab of n-type gal lium arsenide in a 3.3 kV electric field A. Gunn effect B. Hall effect C. Zener effect D. avalanche ANSWER: A 126. The impedance presented by a junction operating in its zener breakdown regi on. A. diode impedance B. zener impedance C. breakdown impedance D. critical impedance ANSWER: B 127. A curve showing the relationship between the voltage and the current of the diode at any given temperature A. characteristic curve B. transfer curve C. transfer characteristic curve D. all are correct ANSWER: A 128. The line that is plotted in the diode characteristic curve which represents the load A. linear line B. operating line C. load line D. transfer load line ANSWER: C 129. Diode is said to be operating at a point where the characteristic curve and the load line intersect. This point is technically termed as A. Q-point B. operating point C. quiescent point D. all are correct ANSWER: D 130. What will happen to the magnitude of the load-line slope when the load resi stance is decreased? A. it will also decrease B. it will increase C. it will increase exponentially D. is not affected by the load ANSWER: B

131. Q-point position is dependent on A. the supply voltage B. the load resistance C. the type of diode D. all of the above ANSWER: D 132. A germanium diode is connected to a load resistance of 1.5 k and is supplied with 12-V such that the diode will be forward biased. What is the voltage acros s the diode? A. approximately 12 V B. approximately 0.7 V C. approximately 0.3 V D. lack of data and cant be solved ANSWER: C 133. What is the drop across the diode when it is connected in series to a resis tor of 1.8 k and a supply voltage of 50 V. The supply voltage causes the diode to be reverse-biased. A. 50 V B. 0.7 V C. 0.3 V D. can not be solve, lack of data ANSWER: A 134. Two germanium diodes are connected in series and have a load resistance of 10 k and a forward supply voltage of 5 V. Calculate the voltage across the load r esistor. A. 4.7 V B. 4.4 V C. 0.6 V D. 0.3 V ANSWER: B 135. A silicon diode is in parallel with a germanium diode and is connected to a load resistor having a value of 20 k and a forward supply voltage of 10 V. What is the approximate voltage across the silicon diode? A. 10 V B. 1.0 V C. 0.7 V D. 0.3 V ANSWER: D 136. What is the output voltage across a load resistor if it is paralleled with a forward biased silicon diode? The resistor network is supplied with 10 V. A. 0.7 V B. 9.3 V C. 10 V D. Cant be solve, lack of data. ANSWER: A 137. Diode circuit that is used to cut a portion of the input signal A. clipper B. clamper C. peak detector D. level shifter ANSWER: A 138. A clipper circuit wherein the diode is connected in series with the load A. series clipper

B. parallel clipper C. shunt clipper D. series feed clipper ANSWER: A 139. What do you call a clipper circuit wherein the diode is shunted with the lo ad? A. series clipper B. parallel clipper C. cascade clipper D. cascade clipper ANSWER: B 140. A network with a diode and a capacitor that is used to shift the dc-level o f the input signal A. clipper B. clamper C. shifter D. level inverter ANSWER: B 141. Half-wave rectifier is a good example of A. a series clamper B. a parallel clamper C. a parallel clipper D. a series clipper ANSWER: D 142. Which of the given circuit below must have a capacitor? A. rectifier B. clipper C. clamper D. all of the above ANSWER: C 143. How many capacitors are used in a diode-capacitor half- wave voltage double r? A. 1 B. 2 C. 3 D. 4 ANSWER: B 144. An improvement of a diode-capacitor half-wave voltage doubler is the full-w ave doubler, this circuit uses how many capacitors? A. 1 B. 2 C. 3 D. 4 ANSWER: B 145. In a diode-capacitor voltage quadrupler, what is the voltage across the thi rd stage capacitor? A. Vmax B. 2 Vmax C. 3 Vmax D. 4 Vmax ANSWER: B 146. A combination of several diodes in a single housing

A. diode array B. diode network C. diode IC D. diode matrix ANSWER: A 147. A chopper, employing an alternately biased diodes as the switching element. A. diode chopper B. active chopper C. junction chopper D. all are correct ANSWER: A 148. A light emitting diode (LED) is to be used in a circuit with a supply volta ge of 5 V. What should be the value of the resistor needed by the LED to operate normally? A. 25 B. 250 C. 25 k D. 250 k ANSWER: B 149. A simple voltage-regulator whose output is the constant voltage drop develo ped across a zener diode conducting in the reverse breakdown region. The regulat or circuit consists of a zener diode in parallel with the load and an appropriat e limiting resistor. A. ordinary voltage regulator B. zener voltage regulator C. series voltage regulator D. switching voltage regulator ANSWER: B 150. Logic circuitry in which a diode is the logic element and a transistor acts as an inverting amplifier. A. RTL B. DTL C. HDTL D. ECL ANSWER: B 151. What is a bridge rectifier having diodes in two arms and resistors in the o ther two? A. full-wave bridge B. half-wave bridge C. half-bridge D. full bridge ANSWER: C 152. An over-voltage protection circuit employing a zener diode and an SCR whose function is to produce high overload by-pass current on a circuit. A. regulator B. current enhancer C. crowbar D. shunted zener ANSWER: C 153. The flow of electron in a NPN transistor when used in electronic circuit is from _______. A. collector to base B. collector to base

C. emitter to collector D. base to emitter ANSWER: C 154. A three terminal, three layer semiconductor device that has the ability to multiply charge carriers. This device was first introduced at Bell Laboratories, by Brattain and Bardeen in 1947 and which opens a completely new direction of i nterest and development in the field of electronics. A. triode B. triac C. SCR D. transistor ANSWER: D 155. An active semiconductor device, capable of amplification, oscillation, and switching action. It is an acronym for transfer resistor and had replaced the tu be in most applications. A. thyristor B. thyrector C. SBS D. transistor ANSWER: D 156. Transistor replaces the old vacuum tubes because it has several obvious adv antages, what are they? A. smaller, lightweight and rugged construction B. no heater loss, low operating voltage and therefore efficient C. low power consumption and low power dissipation D. all of the above ANSWER: D 157. Which of the three regions/areas in a transistor that is the smallest in co nstruction? A. emitter B. collector C. base D. all are equal ANSWER: C 158. The region or area in a transistor that is heavily doped A. at the junction B. emitter C. collector D. base ANSWER: B 159. A transistor in which the base is diffused and the emitter is alloyed. The collector is provided by the semiconductor substrate into which alloying and dif fusion are affected. A. alloy-transistor B. alloy-diffused transistor C. alloy junction transistor D. diffused junction transistor ANSWER: B 160. A transistor whose junctions are created by alloying A. alloy transistor B. alloy-diffused transistor C. diffused transistor D. alloy junction

ANSWER: A 161. In a semiconductor device, a p-n junction formed by alloying a suitable mat erial such as indium with the semiconductor. A. alloy junction B. diffused junction C. depletion junction D. storage junction ANSWER: A 162. A transistor in which one or both electrodes are created by diffusion A. diffused transistor B. alloy transistor C. planar transistor D. mesa transistor ANSWER: A 163. A two-junction transistor whose construction takes the form of a pnp or a n pn. Such device uses both electron and hole conduction and is current-driven. A. bipolar transistor B. unipolar transistor C. bi-directional transistor D. double junction transistor ANSWER: A 164. The predecessor of the junction transistor, and is characterized by a curre nt amplification factor, alpha of greater than one. A. surface-charge transistor B. surface-barrier transistor C. schottky transistor D. point-contact transistor ANSWER: D 165. For a transistor, the outer layers are A. lightly doped semiconductors B. heavily doped semiconductors C. no doping at all D. A and B above ANSWER: B 166. The ratio of the total width of the outer layers to that of the center laye r A. 100:1 B. 150:5 C. 150:1 D. 1:150 ANSWER: C 167. The ratio of the doping level of the outer layers to that of the sandwiched material A. 10:3 or more B. 10:2 or more C. 10:3 D. 10:1 or less ANSWER: D 168. Limiting the number of free carriers will A. increase the conductivity but decreases the resistance B. decrease the conductivity but increases the resistance C. increase the conductivity as well as resistivity

D. decrease the conductivity as well as resistivity ANSWER: B 169. The term ________ reflects the fact that holes and electrons participate in the injection process into the oppositely polarized material. A. unipolar B. bipolar C. tetrode D. pentode ANSWER: B 170. What device, that employs only electron or hole? A. unipolar B. bipolar C. tetrode D. pentode ANSWER: A 171. At forward-biased junction of pnp transistor, majority carriers flow heavil y A. from p- to the n-type material B. from n- to the p-type material C. from p- to p-type material D. A and B above ANSWER: A 172. The minority-current component of a transistor is called A. leakage current B. emitter current C. cut-off current D. all of the above ANSWER: A 173. For general-purpose transistors, IC is measured in ____, while ICO is measu red in ____. A. micro and nanoamperes B. milliamperes and microamperes C. milliamperes and nanoamperes D. b and c above ANSWER: D 174. Is temperature sensitive, and can severely affect the stability of the syst em, when not carefully examined during design A. IC B. ICO C. IS D. IE ANSWER: B 175. For the transistor, the arrow in the graphic symbol defines the direction o f _______ through the device A. leakage current flow B. emitter electron flow C. majority carrier flow D. emitter conventional current flow ANSWER: D 176. In the dc mode, the levels of IC and IE due to the majority carriers are re lated by the quantity A. alpha ()

B. bet () C. gamma () D. A nd B bove ANSWER: A 177. In the c mode, lph is form lly c lled A. common-b se, short-circuit, mplific tion f ctor B. common-emitter, mplific tion f ctor C. common-collector, mplific tion f ctor D. ll of the bove re correct ANSWER: A 178. Phr ses not pointin in A. npn nd pnp B. pnp nd npn C. npn only D. pnp only ANSWER: A nd pointin in simply me n

179. In the dc mode, the levels of IC nd IB re rel ted by A. B. C. D. A nd B bove ANSWER: B

qu ntity c lled

180. For pr ctic l tr nsistor devices, the level of typically ranges A. from a out 25 to over 400 B. less than 1 C. mostly in midrange of 50 to 400 D. A or C a ove ANSWER: C 181. The formal name of ac A. Common-collector reverse-current amplification factor B. Common-collector forward-current amplification factor C. Common-emitter forward-current amplification factor D. Common-emitter reverse-current amplification factor ANSWER: C 182. It is a particularly important parameter that provides a direct link etwee n current levels of the input and output circuits for a common-emitter configura tion. A. B. C. A and B a ove D. none of the a ove ANSWER: B 183. The _______ id defined as that area A. active region B. cutoff region C. saturation region D. none of the a ove ANSWER: B

elow IC= ICEO.

184. It is referred to as the communication link er A. specification sheet B. characteristic manual

etween the manufacturer and us

C. characteristic curve D. all of the a ove ANSWER: D 185. The information that can e found in most specification sheets? A. maximum ratings B. thermal characteristics C. electrical characteristics D. all of the a ove ANSWER: D 186. With an ohmmeter, a large or small resistance in either junction of an npn or pnp transistor indicates A. faulty device B. well functioning device C. leaky device D. either A or C ANSWER: A 187. At ase-emitter junction, using an ohmmeter, if the positive (+) lead is co nnected to the ase and the negative (-) lead to the emitter, a low resistance r eading would indicate A. npn transistor B. pnp transistor C. germanium transistor D. silicon transistor ANSWER: A 188. At ase-emitter junction, if the positive (+) lead is connected to the ase and the negative (-) lead to the emitter, a high resistance reading would indic ate A. npn transistor B. pnp transistor C. germanium transistor D. silicon transistor ANSWER: B 189. Transistors of heavy duty construction A. high-power devices B. low-power devices C. medium-power devices D. all of the a ove ANSWER: A 190. On a voltage-current condition curve, the point elong to which a further i ncrease in voltage produces no (or very little) further increase in current. A. saturation flux B. saturation value C. saturation point D. all of the a ove ANSWER: C 191. It is applied to any system where levels have reached their maximum values A. saturation B. active C. cutoff D. quiescent point ANSWER: A 192. For an on transistor, the voltage VBE should e in the neigh orhood of

A. 0.3 V B. 0.55 V C. 0.7 V D. 1.7 V ANSWER: C 193. Among the three characteristics of a transistor amplifier, which region is normally employed for linear (undistorted) amplifiers? A. active region B. cutoff region C. saturation region D. capital region ANSWER: A 194. In the active region, the collector- ase junction is ________, while the a se-emitter junction is ________. A. forward and forward- iased B. forward and reverse- iased C. reverse and reverse iased D. reverse and forward- iased ANSWER: D 195. It is necessary, in order to esta lish the proper region of operation for a c amplification. A. ac iasing B. dc iasing C. A and B a ove D. none of the a ove ANSWER: B 196. At cutoff region, the collector- ase and ase-emitter junctions of a transi stor are A. oth reverse- iased B. forward and reverse- iased C. oth forward- iased D. reverse and forward- iased ANSWER: A 197. In saturation region, the collector- ase and ase-emitter junctions of a tr ansistor are A. oth reverse- iased B. forward and reverse- iased C. oth forward- iased D. reverse and forward- iased ANSWER: C 198. If the ase-emitter junction is reverse iased and the ase-collector junct ion is forward iased, the transistor will e at what region of operation? A. active region B. cut-off region C. saturation region D. reakdown region ANSWER: B 199. Under what region does the transistor operate if oth the ase-emitter and ase-collector junctions are reverse- iased? A. active region B. cut-off region C. saturation region D. reakdown region

ANSWER: B 200. What region the transistor should t the output signal? A. active region B. cut-off region C. saturation region D. none of the a ove ANSWER: A

201. In dc iasing, it means quiet, still, inactive A. passive B. quench C. static D. quiescent ANSWER: D 202. The transistor terminal that handles most current A. ase B. collector C. emitter D. collector and emitter ANSWER: C 203. Which indicates the degree of change, in operating-point due to temperature variation in the dc iasing? A. temperature coefficient B. factor of safety C. merit factor D. sta ility factor ANSWER: D 204. What est descri es the transistor current that flows and emitter terminals when the ase is open? A. leakage current B. cut-off current C. reverse saturation current D. all of the a ove ANSWER: B 205. Solve for the ain is 20. A. 30 mA B. 3 mA C. 12 mA D. 1.2 mA ANSWER: A

ase current if collector current is 600 mA and the current g

206. When the transistor is saturated, VCE is approximately A. 0 V B. VCC C. VCC D. infinite ANSWER: A 207. Collector-emitter resistance of ideal transistor at cut-off A. 0 B. infinite C. a function of the load resistance D. a function of the collector current

e operating to have minimum distortion a

etween the collector

ANSWER: B 208. The leakage current that flows at the collector-base junction when the emit ter is open A. ICO B. ICBO C. ICEO D. ICBE ANSWER: B 209. A transistor with = 100 is connected as common ase, was found to have a le akage current ICBO = 1A. If the transistor is configured as common emitter, what is the approximate value of its ICEO? A. 0.01 A B. 1.0 A C. 100 A D. 10 mA ANSWER: C 210. The most correct technical term of the reverse leakage current that flows b etween the collector and base junctions when the emitter is open circuited. A. leakage current B. saturation current C. reverse saturation current D. cut-off current ANSWER: C 211. How is the collector cut-off or reverse saturation current ICBO related to the emitter cutoff current IEBO? IEBO p A. ICBO B. ICBO IEBO/ C. ICBO IEBO(1-) D. ICBO IEBO ANSWER: D 212. ICBO of n ide l tr nsistor A. incre ses s temper ture incre ses B. incre ses s temper ture decre ses C. is not ffected by temper ture ch n e D. is zero (0) mA ANSWER: D 213. The m ximum volt e th t c n be l for iven tr nsistor is specified s A. VCEO B. VECO C. V(BR)BEO D. V(BR)CEO ANSWER: D pplied cross the collector-emitter termin

214. If the current- in-b ndwidth product of tr nsistor is 250 MHz ted t 100 MHz, wh t is the effective current in of the tr nsistor? A. 2.5 B. 25 C. 250

nd is oper

D. 350 ANSWER: A 215. The current in of tr nsistor decre ses s the oper tin frequency incre ses. As the oper tin frequency is incre sed continuously, point occurs where the current in becomes unity. This point, is best described by wh t tr nsisto r p r meter? A. unity in frequency B. 0 dB frequency C. cut-off frequency D. unity in b ndwidth product or unity current in b ndwidth product ANSWER: D

217. Which tr nsistor confi ur tion h s the hi hest input resist nce? A. common b se B. common emitter C. common collector D. common tr nsistor ANSWER: C 218. One of the followin mplifier ch r cteristic refers to th t of common-b se (C-B) s comp red to common-emitter (C-E) nd common-collector (C-C) mplifie rs. A. H s l r er current in B. H s lower input resist nce C. H s hi her input resist nce D. H s l r er volt e in ANSWER: B 219. A tr nsistor is s id to be confi ured s common emitter if the emitter term in l is A. rounded B. connected to V+ C. flo tin D. not used s n input nor output ANSWER: D 220. Most frequently used tr nsistor confi ur tion for pnp nd npn A. common-b se B. common-collector C. common-emitter D. A nd C bove ANSWER: C 221. C lcul te the common-emitter mplific tion f ctor of a transistor with a co mmon- ase amplification factor =0.99. A. 10 B. 50 C. 100 D. 200 ANSWER: C

216. When b se is common to both the input nd output sides of the confi ur tion nd is usu lly the termin l closes to, or t round potenti l, it is c lled wh t? A. common-emitter terminolo y B. common-collector terminolo y C. common-b se terminolo y D. ll of the these ANSWER: C

222. Which tr nsistor confi ur tion hybrid p r meters, th t is usu lly specified by the m nuf cturers? A. for common-b se B. for common-collector C. for common-emitter D. combin tion of the three confi ur tions ANSWER: C 223. For common-emitter tr nsistor confi ur tion, the hybrid p r meter hfe st nds for forw rd tr nsfer current r tio. This p r meter is pproxim tely equ l to A. HFE B. ac C. D. all of the a ove ANSWER: D 224. Hy rid parameter that is usually neglected in circuit analysis A. hi and ho B. hr and hf C. hi and hf D. hr and ho ANSWER: D 225. The input impedance of a common- ase configuration is hi , and its magnitud e is approximately equal to A. hie/hfe B. hie/(1+) C. re for dynamic model D. all of these ANSWER: D 226. In most transistor input equivalent circuit it comprises of a resistor and a A. voltage source B. stiff voltage source C. current source D. stiff current source ANSWER: A 227. Which transistor configuration has the highest input resistance? A. common- ase B. common-collector C. common-emitter D. emitter follower ANSWER: B 228. Common- ase configuration has a high voltage gain and a current gain of A. low B. moderate C. high D. approximately equal to one (1) ANSWER: D 229. Common-collector has the lowest power gain and a voltage gain of approximat ely one. In contrast to this, what configuration has the highest power gain? A. common- ase B. common-collector C. common-emitter D. emitter follower

ANSWER: C 230. Which of the following transistor characteristic curves that is most useful ? A. input characteristic curve B. output characteristic curve C. transfer characteristic curve D. all of the a ove ANSWER: B 231. The graph of the product of collector-emitter voltage VCE and collector cur rent IC in the transistor output characteristic curve. A. maximum power curve B. minimum power curve C. saturation power curve D. reakdown curve ANSWER: A 232. The ase of a transistor serves a purpose to what element of the FET? A. source B. ground C. su strate D. gate ANSWER: D 233. What is the primary difference etween the BJT and the A. current-controlled device and voltage-controlled device, B. voltage-controlled device and current-controlled device, C. impedance transformed device and conductance transformed D. A and C a ove are correct ANSWER: A

234. Another difference etween a BJT and a FET with regards to its normal iasi ng. A. The input circuit is forward- iased for BJT while reverse for FET. B. The input circuit is reverse- iased for BJT while forward for FET. C. The output circuit is forward- iased for BJT while reverse for FET. D. The output circuit is reverse- iased for BJT while forward for FET. ANSWER: A 235. Field-effect transistors (FETs) offer high input impedance than BJT. What m akes FETs have high input impedance? A. The way FETs are constructed. B. Because of the materials used. C. Due to the level of doping D. Due to the reverse- iased input circuit of FETs ANSWER: D 236. The operation of BJT involves oth the flow of electrons and holes and is t herefore, considered as a ipolar device. Unlike BJT, FETs operation involves onl y either electrons or holes and is considered as a _________ device. A. single polar B. unipolar C. unpolar D. polarized ANSWER: B 237. Considered as the A. JFET B. MOS-FET C. IGFET asic FET or the simplest form of FET

FET? respectively respectively device, respectively

D. VMOS-FET ANSWER: A 238. Junction field effect transistor or JFET has three terminals, which corresp onds to the E-B-C of the BJT? A. D-S-G B. D-G-S C. S-G-D D. S-D-G ANSWER: C 239. One o vious advantage of a JFET over BJT is its A. high voltage gain B. high current gain C. high input resistance D. high output resistance ANSWER: C 240. A BJT is a current-controlled current-source device while JFET is a _______ __ device. A. current-controlled voltage-source B. voltage-controlled voltage-source C. voltage-controlled current-source D. voltage-controlled transconductance-source ANSWER: C 241. What do you call the area in a JFET where current passes as it flows from s ource (S) to drain (D). A. channel B. su strate C. depletion D. drift ANSWER: A 242. What will happen to the channel of a JFET as current flows to it? A. widens B. narrows C. skews D. nothing ANSWER: C 243. For a normal operation of an n-channel JFET, how do you e junction? A. positive-negative respectively B. negative-positive respectively C. forward- iased D. any of the a ove ANSWER: B

244. The voltage across the gate-source terminal of a FET that causes drain curr ent ID equal to zero. A. saturation voltage B. threshold voltage C. cut-off voltage D. pinch-off voltage ANSWER: D 245. The current that flows into the channel of a JFET when the gate-source volt age is zero. A. drain-source saturation current

ias the gate-sourc

B. drain-source cut-off current C. drain-source leakage current D. drain-source pinch-off current ANSWER: A 246. The graph of the drain current ID versus drain-source voltage VDS with VGS as the parameter. A. transfer characteristic curve B. output characteristic curve C. input characteristic curve D. current-voltage characteristic curve ANSWER: D 247. In FET, the conduction path of the output is controlled y the electric fie ld as its name implies. How does an electric field in FET esta lished? A. By the charges present at the gate due to the reverse- iased junction. B. By the application of reverse- iased etween the gate and drain. C. By the charges produced due to the applied potential etween drain and source VDS. D. By the charges present at each terminal due to the applied potential. ANSWER: A 248. An early version of the field effect transistor in which limited control of current carriers near the surface of a semiconductor ar or film was o tained y an external electric field applied transversely. A. fieldistor B. JFET C. IGFET D. MOSFET ANSWER: A 249. A FET in which the gate electrode consists of a pn junction A. JFET B. fieldistor C. MOS-FET D. IGFET ANSWER: A 250. Which type of FET has the lowest input resistance? A. JFET B. MOS-FET C. IGFET D. VMOSFET ANSWER: A 251. In order to increase further the input resistance of a FET, its gate is ins ulated. An example of this type is the A. fieldistor B. JFET C. MOS-FET D. A and B a ove ANSWER: C 252. What is the insulator used in most MOS-FET? A. CO2 B. SiO2 C. mica D. plastic ANSWER: B

253. An n-channel JFET has a drain-source saturation current IDSS = 10 mA and a gate-source pinch-off voltage Vp = -4 V. If the applied reverse gate-source volt age VGS = 2 V, calculate the drain current ID. A. 2.5 mA B. 5.0 mA C. 10.0 mA D. 22.5 mA ANSWER: A 254. Base from Shockleys equation of a JFET, what is the drain current when the a pplied voltage VGS is exactly equal to the pinch-off voltage Vp? A. IDSS B. maximum C. minimum D. zero ANSWER: D 255. The transconductance of a JFET is defined as A. dID/dVGS B. dVGS/dID C. dIDSS/dVGS D. dID/dVp ANSWER: A 256. A field-effect transistor in which the gate electrode is not a pn junction (as in the junction field-effect transistor) ut a thin metal film insulated fro m the semiconductor channel y a thin oxide film. A. MOSFET (enhancement type) B. MOSFET (depletion type) C. IGFET D. all of the a ove ANSWER: D 257. In MOSFET, it is the foundation upon which the device will e constructed a nd is formed from a silicon ase A. su strate B. sla C. source D. ase ANSWER: A 258. A type of MOSFET wherein originally there is no channel nd the source A. depletion type B. enhancement type C. reak type D. insulated type ANSWER: B 259. What type of MOSFET whose channel is originally thick oper gate ias is applied? A. enhancement B. depletion C. transverse D. all of the a ove ANSWER: B

etween the drain a

ut narrows as the pr

260. The amount of voltage needed at the gate-source terminal for an enhancement type MOSFET so that a channel can e formed for the current to flow. A. ON voltage B. pinch-off voltage

C. threshold voltage D. trigger voltage ANSWER: C 261. To switch off the depletion type MOSFET, the channel should e depleted. De pletion of the channel is done y applying enough voltage across the gate-source terminal. What do you call this voltage? A. pinch-off voltage B. trigger voltage C. holding voltage D. threshold voltage ANSWER: A 262. The su strate of a MOSFET is usually connected internally to A. source B. gate C. drain D. channel ANSWER: A 263. In an n-channel enhancement type MOSFET, the gate voltage should e _______ _ with respect to the source in order to produce or enhance a channel. A. the same B. positive C. negative D. either positive or negative ANSWER: B 264. To deplete a channel from a p-channel IGFET depletion type, the gate voltag e should e ________ with respect to the source. A. the same B. positive C. negative D. either positive or negative as long as it is greater ANSWER: B 265. The su strate used in a p-channel IGFET enhancement type A. n -type material B. n+ -type material C. p -type material D. p+ -type material ANSWER: A 266. The ase material of a MOSFET which extends as an additional terminal A. source (S) B. channel (C) C. drain (D) D. su strate (SS) ANSWER: D 267. Which FET that has a su strate? A. MOSFET enhancement type B. IGFET C. MOSFET depletion type D. all of the a ove ANSWER: D 268. What is the difference etween a JFET and a MOSFET? A. The gate of a MOSFET is insulated. B. MOSFET uses a su strate in its construction.

C. MOSFET can work in oth forward and reverse gate-source voltages. D. all of the a ove ANSWER: D 269. Calculate the transconductance of a p-channel MOSFET enhancement type if th e gate-source voltage VGS = -8 V, threshold voltage VT = -4 and a constant k = 0 .3 mA/V2. A. 1.2 mS B. 2.4 mS C. 3.6 mS D. 7.2 mS ANSWER: B 270. One draw ack of JFET devices is the strong dependence of the devices paramet ers on the channel geometry. Which parameter is an example of this? A. drain saturation current (IDSS) B. pinch-off voltage (VP) C. transconductance (gm) D. all of the a ove ANSWER: D 271. JFET cutoff frequency is dependent on channel length y a factor of A. 1/L B. 1/L2 C. 1/L3 D. 1/L4 ANSWER: B 272. Which FET operates as close as BJT in terms of switching? A. JFET B. MOSFET depletion type C. MOSFET enhancement type D. IGFET ANSWER: C 273. Generally, MOSFET has low power handling capa ility than BJT. To increase M OSFET power, the channel should e made A. narrow and long B. narrow and short C. wide and long D. wide and short ANSWER: D 274. Which FET has a wide and short effective channel? A. JFET B. MOSFET C. IGFET D. V-MOSFET ANSWER: D 275. A type of FET wherein the channel is formed in the vertical direction rathe r than horizontal A. JFET B. MOSFET C. IGFET D. V-MOSFET ANSWER: D 276. Advantage or advantages of V-MOS over BJT A. No stored charge and therefore faster in switching action.

B. A negative temperature dependence of output current which eliminates thermal runaway. C. High input impedance and therefore high current gain. D. all of the a ove ANSWER: D 277. In general, which of the transistors is particularly more useful in integra ted-circuit (IC) chips? A. BJTs B. FETs C. UJTs D. all of the a ove ANSWER: B 278. A monolithic semiconductor-amplifying device in which a high-impedance GATE electrode controls the flow of current carriers through a thin ar of semicondu ctor called the CHANNEL. Ohmic connections made to the ends of the channel const itute SOURCE and DRAIN electrodes. A. BJT B. UJT C. FET D. UPT ANSWER: C 279. A junction field effect transistor has a drain saturation current of 10 mA and a pinch-off voltage of -4 V. Calculate the maximum transconductance. A. 2.5 mS B. 5.0 mS C. 25.0 mS D. 50.0 mS ANSWER: B 280. In semiconductor application, which of the following statement is not true? A. An ohmmeter test across the ase-collector terminal of a transistor should sh ow low resistance in one polarity and high resistance in the opposite polarity. B. A triac is a idirectional device. C. An ohmmeter test across a diode shows low resistance in one polarity and high resistance in the opposite polarity. D. An ohmmeter test across the ase-collector of a transistor should show low re sistance for oth polarities. ANSWER: D Test 4 Amplifiers 1. What do you call an amplifier which has an output current flowing during the whole input current cycle? A. class AB amplifier B. class B amplifier C. class A amplifier D. class C amplifier ANSWER: C

ANSWER: D 3. If a transistor amplifier provides a 360 output signal, it is classified as A. class A

2. A. B. C. D.

Class A amplifier can e uilt from what transistor configuration? common ase common emitter common collector all of the a ove

B. class B C. class C D. class D ANSWER: A 4. An amplifier that delivers an output signal of 180 only. A. class A B. class B C. class AB D. class D ANSWER: B 5. A class of amplifiers wherein the output signal swings more than 180 ut less than 360. A. class A B. class B C. class C D. class AB ANSWER: D 6. What is the distinguishing feature of a class C amplifier? A. Output is present for less than 180 degrees of the input signal cycle B. Output is present for the entire signal cycle C. Output is present for exactly 180 degrees of the input signal cycle D. Output is present for more than 180 degrees ut less than 60 degrees of the i nput signal cycle ANSWER: A 7. A full 360 sine-wave signal is applied as an input to an unknown class of ampl ifier, if the output delivers only a pulse of less than 180, of what class does t his amplifier elongs? A. class AB B. class B C. class C D. class D ANSWER: C 8. Which class of amplifiers that is intended for pulse operation? A. class B B. class C C. class D D. class S ANSWER: C 9. How do you classify an amplifier used to amplify either amplitude modulated ( AM) or frequency modulated (FM) signals? A. class C B. class BC C. class D D. class S ANSWER: D 10. Which class of amplifiers that has the highest efficiency? A. class A B. class B C. class C D. class D ANSWER: D 11. What is the efficiency of a series-fed class A amplifier? A. 25%

B. 50% C. 78.5% D. a ove 90% ANSWER: A 12. A class A amplifier has an efficiency of only 25%, ut this can e increased if the output is coupled with a transformer. Up to how much is its efficiency w ill reach due to coupling? A. 36.5% B. 50% C. 68.5% D. 78.5% ANSWER: B 13. Class B amplifiers deliver an output signal of 180 and have a maximum efficie ncy of A. 50% B. 68.5% C. 78.55 D. a ove 90% ANSWER: C 14. Transistorized class C power amplifiers will usually have an efficiency of A. 25% B. 33% C. 50% D. 78.5% ANSWER: B 15. For pulse-amplification, class D amplifier is mostly used. How efficient is a class D amplifier? A. a out 25% efficient B. less efficient than class B C. more efficient than class A ut less efficient than class B D. its efficiency reaches over 90% ANSWER: D 16. An amplifier of class AB means its output signal is etween the output of cl ass B and A, such that it varies from 180 (class B) to 360 (class A). How a out it s efficiency? A. Efficiency of class AB is in etween the efficiency of class A and B, that is from 25% - 78.5%. B. It is always as efficient as class A (25%). C. It is always as efficient as class B (78.5%) D. The efficiency of class AB is the average of the efficiencies of oth class A and class B (25% + 78.5%)/2 = 51.75% ANSWER: A 17. Among the given amplifiers elow, which is the most efficient? A. class A (series-fed) B. class A (transformer-coupled) C. class A (directly-coupled) D. class A (capacitor-coupled) ANSWER: B 18. In order to have the est efficiency and sta ility, where at the loadline sh ould a solid state power amplifier e operated? A. Just elow the saturation point B. At 1.414 times the saturation point C. Just a ove the saturation point D. At the saturation point

ANSWER: A 19. In most transistor class A amplifiers, the quiescent point is set at A. near saturation B. near cutoff C. elow cutoff D. at the center ANSWER: D 20. For a class B amplifier, the operating point or Q-point is set at A. the top of the load line B. saturation C. the center D. cutoff ANSWER: D 21. The Q-pint for class A amplifier is at the active region, while for class B it is at cutoff region, how a out for class AB? A. it is slightly elow saturation B. it is slightly a ove cutoff C. it is slightly a ove saturation D. it is at the saturation region ANSWER: B 22. Where does the Q-point of a class C amplifier positioned? A. at saturation region B. at active region C. at cutoff region D. elow cutoff region

ANSWER: D 24. Which of the amplifiers given elow that is considered as non-linear? A. class A B. class B C. class AB D. class C

ANSWER: D 26. What do you call an amplifier that is iased to class C ut modulates over t he same portion of the curve as if it were iased to class B? A. class S B. class D C. class AB D. class BC

ANSWER: D 25. Which amplifiers can A. class A B. class B C. class C D. class A or B

e used for linear amplification?

ANSWER: D 23. The Q-point of a class D amplifier can n the load line? A. elow saturation B. a ove cutoff C. at cutoff D. any of the a ove

e set or positioned at what region i

ANSWER: D 27. Two class B amplifiers connected such that one amplifies the positive cycle and the other amplifies the remaining negative cycle. Both output signals are th en coupled y a transformer to the load. A. transformer-coupled push pull amplifier B. complementary-symmetry amplifier C. quasi-complementary push-pull amplifier D. transformer-coupled class A amplifier ANSWER: A 28. A push-pull amplifier that uses npn and pnp transistors to amplify the posit ive and negative cycles respectively. A. transformer-coupled push pull amplifier B. complementary-symmetry amplifier C. quasi-complementary push-pull amplifier D. transformer-coupled class A amplifier ANSWER: B 29. A push-pull amplifier that uses either npn or pnp as its final stage. The ci rcuit configuration looks like the complementary-symmetry. A. transformer-coupled push pull amplifier B. complementary-symmetry amplifier C. quasi-complementary push-pull amplifier D. feed- ack pair amplifier ANSWER: C 30. Amplifiers conversion efficiency are calculated using what formula? A. ac-power/dc-power B. ac-power/dissipated power C. dc-power/ac-power D. A or B are correct ANSWER: D 31. Basically, which class of amplifiers has the least distortion? A. class A B. class B C. class C D. class D ANSWER: A 32. A type of distortion wherein the output signal does not have the desired lin ear relation to the input. A. linear distortion B. nonlinear distortion C. cross-over distortion D. all of the a ove ANSWER: B 33. Distortion that is due to the ina ility of an amplifier to amplify equally w ell all the frequencies present at the input signal. A. nonlinear distortion B. amplitude distortion C. harmonic distortion D. cross-over distortion ANSWER: B 34. A nonlinear distortion in which the output consists of undesired harmonic fr equencies of the input signal. A. amplitude distortion B. frequency distortion C. cross-over distortion

D. harmonic distortion ANSWER: D 35. Calculate the 2nd harmonic distortion for an output signal having a fundamen tal amplitude of 3V and a 2nd harmonic amplitude of 0.3V. A. 1.0% B. 10% C. 23.33% D. 43.33% ANSWER: B 36. An amplifier has the following percent harmonic distortions; D2=10%, D3=5% a nd D4=1%. What is the amplifier % THD? A. 5.33% B. 11.22% C. 16.0% D. 22.11% ANSWER: B 37. Which of the following refers to the gain of a circuit? A. Input quantity of an amplifier divided y the output quantity. B. The difference etween the input voltage and the output voltage of a circuit. C. The ratio of the output quantity to input quantity of an amplifier. D. The total increase in output quality over the input quantity of an amplifier. ANSWER: C 38. The overall gain of an amplifier in cascade is A. the sum B. the average of each C. the product D. 100% the sum ANSWER: C 39. If three amplifiers with a gain of 8 each are in cascade, how much is the ov erall gain? A. 72 B. 24 C. 512 D. 8 ANSWER: C 40. A multistage transistor amplifier arranged in a conventional series manner, the output of one stage is forward-coupled to the next stage. A. cascaded amplifier B. cascoded amplifier C. darlington configuration D. feed- ack pair configuration ANSWER: A 41. A direct-coupled two-stage transistor configuration wherein the output of th e firs transistor is directly coupled and amplified y the second transistor. Th is configuration gives a very high current gain. A. cascade configuration B. cascode configuration C. darlington configuration D. feed- ack pair ANSWER: C

42. A two-stage transistor amplifier in which the output collector of the first stage provides input to the emitter of the second stage. The final output is the n taken from the collector of the second stage. A. cascade configuration B. cascode configuration C. quasi-complementary D. complementary amplifier ANSWER: B 43. Famous transistor amplifier configuration designed to eliminate the so calle d Miller effect. A. cascode amplifier B. darlington amplifier C. differential amplifier D. complementary-symmetry ANSWER: A 44. What are the transistor configurations used in a cascade amplifier? A. common- ase and common-emitter B. common- ase and common-collector C. common-collector and common-emitter D. common-emitter and common- ase ANSWER: D 45. Transistor configuration known to have a super- eta (2). A. cascade B. cascode C. darlington D. differential

ANSWER: C 47. Transistor arrangement that operates like a darlington ut uses a com inatio n of pnp and npn transistors instead of oth npn. A. differential B. common C. cascode D. feed ack pair ANSWER: D 48. An amplifier asically constructed from two transistors and whose output is proportional to the difference etween the voltages applied to its two inputs. A. differential amplifier B. cascode amplifier C. complementary amplifier D. quasi-complementary amplifier ANSWER: A 49. An amplifier having high direct-current sta ility and high immunity to oscil lation, this is initially used to perform analog-computer functions such as summ ing and integrating. A. operational amplifier (op-amp) B. parametric amplifier (par-amp)

ANSWER: C 46. What is the approximate threshold voltage etween the of a silicon darlington transistor? A. 0.3 V B. 0.6 V C. 1.6 V D. 3.0 V

ase-emitter junction

C. instrumentation amplifier D. DC-amplifier ANSWER: A 50. One of the most versatile and widely used electronic device in linear applic ations. A. SCR B. FET C. UJT D. op-amp ANSWER: D 51. It is a very high-gain differential amplifier with very high input impedance and very low output impedance. A. par-amp B. op-amp C. differential amp D. complementary amp ANSWER: B 52. What are the possi le applications of operational amplifiers (op-amps)? A. ac and dc-amplifiers B. oscillators and signal conditioning C. voltage-level detectors and comparators D. all of the a ove ANSWER: D 53. An operational amplifier must have at least how many usa le terminals? A. 3 terminals B. 5 terminals C. 8 terminals D. 14 terminals ANSWER: B 54. The circuit at the input stage of operational amplifiers A. differential amplifier B. cascaded amplifier C. current mirror D. complementary amplifier ANSWER: A 55. An amplifier whose output is proportional to the difference etween the volt ages applied to its two inputs. A. differential amplifier B. differencing C. delta amp D. cascode-amp ANSWER: A 56. In op-amps functional lock diagram, what follows the differential amplifier ? A. cascode-amplifier B. complementary amplifier C. level shifter D. high gain amplifier ANSWER: D 57. A good op-amp has a A. very high input resistance B. very low input resistance C. very high output resistance

D. very low CMRR ANSWER: A 58. Ideally, op-amps have infinite input resistance and ________ output resistan ce. A. infinite B. zero C. varia le D. a highly sta ilized ANSWER: B 59. How does the input of an op-amp made high? A. y using super eta transistor at the input differential stage B. y using FETs at the input differential stage C. y connecting a very high resistance in series with the input differential st age D. A and B a ove ANSWER: D 60. What type of amplifier commonly used at the output stage of op-amps? A. differential amplifier B. cascade-amplifier C. complementary amplifier D. darlington stage amplifier ANSWER: C 61. The transistor configuration used at the output complementary stage of most op-amps A. cascode configuration B. common emitter C. common collector D. common ase ANSWER: C 62. Why do A. to have B. to have C. to have D. to have

most op-amps use a common collector at the output stage? a higher output power a etter frequency response a low harmonic distortion a very low output resistance

ANSWER: D 63. The stage followed y the output complementary in op-amps functional lock d iagram. A. level shifter B. phase shifter C. current mirror D. polarizer ANSWER: A 64. What is the purpose of a level shifter in op-amps? A. to set and/or adjust the output voltage to zero when the input signal is zero B. to set and/or adjust the input offset voltage to zero C. to shift the input offset current to zero D. all of the a ove ANSWER: A 65. Primarily, op-amps are operated with ipolar power supply, however, we can a lso use single polarity power supply y A. generating a reference voltage a ove ground.

B. floating the negative supply terminal (V-) of the op-amp. C. simply connecting the negative supply terminal (V-) of the op-amp to ground. D. isolating the negative supply terminal (V-) y a capacitor. ANSWER: A 66. Op-amps have two input terminals namely, the inverting (-) and non-inverting (+) inputs. What is the significance of its name? A. If a sine-wave is applied to the inverting (-) input, the output will e inve rted or shifted y 180, while if applied to the non-inverting (+) there will e n o phase shift at the output. B. If pulses are applied to the inverting (-) input, the positive pulse ecomes negative at the output and vice versa, while if applied at the non-inverting (+) there will e no reversal of the pulse at the output. C. In dc amplifier applications, increasing input at the inverting (-) terminal causes the output to decrease and vice versa, while at the non-inverting (+) inp ut, the output magnitude goes with the input. D. all of these are correct ANSWER: D 67. When the same signal is applied to oth inverting and non-inverting input te rminals of an ideal op-amp, the output voltage would e A. zero (0) V B. +VSAT C. VSAT D. offset voltage ANSWER: A 68. The operating mode of an op-amp, when oth inputs are tied together or when the input signal is common to oth inputs. A. differential mode B. rejection mode C. dou le-ended mode D. common mode ANSWER: D 69. What do you call of the gain of an op-amp if operated in common mode input? A. differential gain B. common gain C. dou le-ended gain D. rejection gain ANSWER: B 70. When one input of the op-amp is connected to ground and the other is to the signal source, its operation is called A. single-ended output B. dou le-ended output C. single-ended input D. dou le-ended input ANSWER: C 71. If op-amps are operated in differential mode, its gain is technically termed as A. common-mode differential gain B. differential gain C. open-loop gain D. closed-loop gain ANSWER: B 72. In op-amps, which gain is the highest? A. common-mode gain

B. differential gain C. closed-loop gain D. open-loop gain ANSWER: D 73. The ratio of the differential gain and common gain of an op-amp A. differential-common mode ratio B. common-mode ratio C. differential-mode rejection ratio D. common-mode rejection ratio ANSWER: D 74. An operational amplifier has a common-mode voltage gain of 10 and a differen tial-mode voltage gain of 20,000, calculate its common-mode rejection ratio (CMR R). A. B. C. D. 200 2,000 20,000 200,000

ANSWER: B 75. Calculate the CMRR of an op-amp having a common-mode gain of 10 and a differ ential-mode gain of 100,000. A. 1000 dB B. 100 dB C. 80 dB D. 40 dB ANSWER: C 76. The non-inverting and inverting inputs of an op-amp have an input voltage of 1.5 mV and 1.0 mV, respectively. If the op-amp has a common-mode voltage gain o f 10 and a differential-mode gain of 10,000, what is its output voltage? A. 5.0 V B. 5.0125 mV C. 5.0125 V D. 25.0125 V ANSWER: C 77. What is the maximum output voltage swing of an op-amp? A. +V to -V (supply voltage) B. +VSAT to -VSAT C. +V to -V D. depends on the input signal ANSWER: B 78. The A741 op-amp has a CMRR of 90dB and a differential-mode voltage amplificat ion of 200,000.What is the op-amps common-mode voltage gain? A. 31,622.778 B. 632.40 C. 6.324 D. 0.158 ANSWER: C 79. The current needed at the input of an op-amp to operate it normally A. input bias current B. input offset current C. input threshold current D. input holding current

ANSWER: A 80. Ideal op-amp requires no input current, but real op-amp needs a very small i nput current called input bias current. At both inputs, the bias currents have a slight difference. What do you call this difference? A. differential input current B. differential bias C. input offset difference D. input offset current ANSWER: D 81. The change in input offset current due to temperature change A. delta input offset current B. slew rate C. input offset current drift D. PSRR ANSWER: C 82. The reason why a slight difference between the input bias current occurs in op-amps is due to the unsymmetrical circuit component parameters. This unsymmetr ical condition also produces a difference in input voltage called what? A. drift voltage B. differential voltage C. input offset voltage D. input threshold voltage ANSWER: C 83. As electronic circuit operates, its operating temperature changes which caus es device parameters to change. In op-amps, what do you call the change in input offset voltage due to the change in temperature? A. input differential drift B. input offset voltage drift C. slew rate D. PSRR ANSWER: B 84. It is known through experiment that the input bias currents at the non-inver ting (IB+) and inverting (IB-) inputs of a certain op-amp is 100 nA and 80 nA, r espectively. Determine the op-amps input offset current. A. -20 nA B. 20 nA C. 90 nA D. 180 nA ANSWER: B 85. Ideally, the output voltage of an op-amp is zero when there is no input sign al, however, in practical circuits, a small output voltage appears, this voltage is known as A. minimum output voltage B. pinch-off voltage C. output offset voltage D. saturation voltage ANSWER: C 86. The output offset voltage of an op-amp is (are) due to A. input offset current B. input offset voltage C. voltage and current drift D. A and B above ANSWER: D

87. Calculate the output offset voltage of an inverting amplifier using op-amp w ith an input offset current of 10 nA. The circuit is having an input resistance of 10 k and a feedback resistance of 100 k. A. 0.1 mV B. 1.0 mV C. 10.0 mV D. 100.0 mV ANSWER: B 88. An op-amp inverting amplifier uses a feedback resistor of 100 k and input res istor of 10 k. If the op-amps input offset voltage is 2.0 mV, approximate the amp lifier output offset voltage due to this input offset voltage. A. 10 mV B. 11 mV C. 20 mV D. 22 mV ANSWER: D 89. The output offset voltage of an op-amp is due to the input offset current an d voltage. If 1 mV is due to the input offset current and 22 mV due to the input offset voltage, what is the total output offset voltage of the op-amp? A. 11.5 mV B. 22 mV C. 23 mV D. 45 mV ANSWER: C 90. How will you minimize the output offset voltage due to the input offset curr ent of an op-amp? A. by installing a bias-current-compensating resistor B. by increasing the value of the feedback resistor C. by decreasing the value of the input resistor D. B and C above ANSWER: A 91. What is a bias-current compensating resistor in op-amp circuits? A. A resistor used to reduce the undesired output offset voltage due to the inpu t offset current. B. A resistor connected between the non-inverting terminal and ground. C. A resistor used to balance both input bias currents and therefore eliminates the input offset current. D. all of these ANSWER: D 92. The approximate value of the bias-current compensating resistor in op-amp ci rcuits is A. equal to the feedback resistor B. equal to the input resistor C. equal to the series combination of the input and feedback resistors D. equal to the parallel combination of the input and feedback resistors ANSWER: D 93. In op-amp analysis, the input offset voltage is represented by A. a battery B. a signal generator C. Thevenins voltage source D. Nortons current source ANSWER: A 94. The battery representing the input offset voltage in op-amp circuit analysis

is connected where? A. between the inverting and ground terminal B. between the non-inverting and ground terminal C. between the inverting and non-inverting terminal D. either B and C above ANSWER: B 95. What is the effect of the input offset voltage to the output voltage if the op-amp has no feedback element? A. causes the output to be always at cutoff B. causes the output to saturate towards positive C. causes the output to saturate towards negative D. causes the output to saturate either towards positive or negative ANSWER: D 96. How can we minimize the effect of the input offset current and input offset voltage at the output offset voltage? A. by making the feedback resistance small B. by making the feedback resistance large C. by making the input resistance small D. by making the input resistance large ANSWER: A 97. An op-amp is wired as an inverting amplifier with an input and feedback resi stances of 1 k and 100 k, respectively. When the input signal is set to zero, the output was found to have an offset voltage of 101 mV. Calculate the input offset voltage. A. 0.01 mV B. 0.1 mV C. 1.0 mV D. 10.0 mV ANSWER: C 98. What is the most effective way of minimizing the output offset voltage of an op-amp? A. by reducing the value of the feedback resistor B. by increasing the value of the input resistor C. by a capacitor-compensation technique D. by properly using and adjusting the offset-null terminals ANSWER: D 99. What cause(s) the well-adjusted output offset voltage of op-amps to change? A. change in operating temperature B. component aging C. variations in supply voltage D. all of the above ANSWER: D 100. Which op-amp parameter(s) that normally affects its small signal dc-amplifi cation performance? A. input bias current B. input offset voltage C. input offset current D. all of the above ANSWER: D 101. Op-amp parameter(s) that is important in large signal dc-amplification. A. input offset voltage B. input offset current C. slew rate

D. all of the above ANSWER: C 102. In large signal dc-amplifiers using op-amp, which parameter has the least e ffect on its performance? A. drift B. slew rate C. input offset voltage D. input offset current ANSWER: A 103. For ac-amplifiers using op-amps what parameters can affect its performance. A. B. C. D. input offset current and voltage input bias current and voltage drift and slew rate slew rate and frequency response

ANSWER: D 104. If an op-amp is used to amplify small ac-signals, what parameter you should greatly consider to ensure better performance? A. input bias current B. drift C. frequency response D. slew rate ANSWER: C 105. What do we mean by internally compensated op-amps? A. Op-amps with internal frequency compensation capacitor to prevent . B. Op-amps with an internal compensating resistor to make the output age zero. C. Op-amps with internal coupling capacitor to block dc-voltages and oltages to pass. D. Op-amps with internal active components to make its gain constant re operating frequency.

oscillation offset volt allows ac-v at the enti

ANSWER: A 106. The frequency at which the open-loop gain of an op-amp is 0.707 times its v alue at very low frequency A. threshold frequency B. break frequency C. minimum frequency D. operating frequency ANSWER: B 107. What will happen to the voltage gain of op-amp when its operating frequency is increased? A. also increases B. increases exponentially C. will decrease D. decreases exponentially ANSWER: C 108. The reduction of op-amps gain due to increasing operating frequency. A. Cutoff B. roll-off C. diminishing factor D. reduction step

ANSWER: B 109. What do we mean by a 20 dB/decade roll-off? A. a gain reduction by a factor of 10 per decade B. a gain reduction by a factor of 20 per decade C. a gain reduction by a factor of 10 per 10 Hz increased in frequency D. a gain reduction by a factor of 20 per 10 Hz increased in frequency ANSWER: A 110. A reduction of op-amps voltage gain by a factor of two each time the frequen cy doubles. A. 2 dB/octave B. 2 dB/decade C. 6 dB/octave D. 6 dB/decade ANSWER: C 111. Frequency at which the voltage gain of op-amp reduces to unity. A. unity-gain frequency B. cutoff frequency C. bandwidth point D. unity-gain bandwidth product ANSWER: D 112. The low and high cutoff frequencies of an amplifier is also called A. corner frequencies B. 0.707 frequencies C. 3-dB frequencies D. all of these are correct ANSWER: D 113. Calculate the cutoff frequency (fc)of an op-amp having a unity-gain bandwid th product B1 = 1 MHz and a open-loop voltage gain AOL = 100,000. A. 10 Hz B. 20 Hz C. 100 Hz D. 200 Hz ANSWER: A 114. An op-amp has a specified transient response rise time of 0.3 s, calculate i ts unity-gain bandwidth. A. 0.857 MHz B. 1.0 MHz C. 1.167 MHz D. 2.334 MHz ANSWER: C 115. Rise time is defined as the time required for the output voltage to rise fr om _______ to ________ of its final value. A. 0% - 100% B. 1% - 99% C. 5% - 95% D. 10% - 90% ANSWER: D 116. The maximum output voltage rate of change of an op-amp. A. rise time B. maximum voltage swing C. differential rate D. slew rate ANSWER: D

117. Factor(s) or parameter(s) that determine(s) the op-amps maximum operating t emperature A. PSRR B. slew rate C. unity-gain bandwidth product D. B and C above ANSWER: D 118. What is the maximum signal frequency that can be used in an op-amp having a specified slew rate of 0.5 V/sec? The maximum output voltage desired is 5 V. A. 16 kHz B. 32 kHz C. 100 kHz D. 1 MHz ANSWER: A 119. What must be the slew rate of an op-amp to be used in order to provide an u ndistorted output voltage of .10 V ac a frequency of 100,000 rad/sec? A. 0.1 V/sec B. 0.5 V/sec C. 1.0 V/sec D. 6.28 V/sec ANSWER: C 120. When an op-amp is used as a comparator, the output voltage would be +VSAT i f A. V+ > VB. V- > V+ C. V- = V+ D. V- and V+ are both zero ANSWER: A 121. Two comparators using op-amps, configured such that it can detect voltage l evels within a certain range of values rather than simply comparing whether a vo ltage is above or below a certain reference. A. analog comparator B. regenerative comparator C. parallel comparator D. window comparator ANSWER: D 122. What gain is significant when an op-amp is used as a voltage comparator? A. open-loop gain B. common gain C. differential closed loop gain D. closed loop gain ANSWER: A 123. An op-amp zero-crossing detector without hysteresis, A. uses a resistor as its feedback element B. uses a capacitor as its feedback element C. uses an inductor as its feedback element D. has no feedback ANSWER: D 124. The feedback element of a differentiator constructed from op-amp is A. a resistor B. an inductor C. a capacitor D. an RC network

ANSWER: A 125. An active integrator uses an op-amp, what is its feedback element? A. Resistor B. capacitor C. inductor D. RC network ANSWER: B 126. The voltage gain of an op-amp voltage follower. A. unity B. Rf/Ri C. 1 + Rf/Ri D. depends on the type of op-amp ANSWER: A 127. Calculate the closed-loop voltage gain of an inverting amplifier having a f eedback and an input resistance of 100 k and 10 k, respectively. A. 10 B. 11 C. 100 D. 110 ANSWER: A 128. The gain of an inverting amplifier is determined by the ratio of the feedba ck and input resistors (Rf/Ri), meaning we can select any value of resistors as long as its ratio is the same. What op-amp parameter that helps us determine the appropriate values of these resistors? A. CMRR B. PSRR C. SR D. input bias current ANSWER: D 129. What is the noise gain of op-amps? A. equal to the open loop gain B. Rf/Ri C. 1 + Rf/Ri D. equal to the common gain ANSWER: C 130. A unity-gain summing amplifier has three inputs, V1 = 1.0 mV, V2 = 1.5 mV, and V3 = 2.5 mV, calculate the total output voltage. A. 2.5 mV B. 3.5 mV C. 4.0 mV D. 5.0 mV ANSWER: D 131. The random voltage at the output of an op-amp which could occupy the entire bandwidth. A. noise B. hash C. interference D. all of the above ANSWER: D 132. Which of the following of the resistor combinations that provides lesser no ise in op-amp circuits? A. Make both the feedback and input resistances as large as possible B. Make the feedback as large as possible, while the input as low as possible.

C. Make the feedback as low as possible, while the input as large as possible. D. Make the feedback and input resistances as small as possible. ANSWER: D 133. In most ac-amplifiers using op-amps, the feedback resistor is shunted with a very small capacitance, what is its purpose? A. to prevent oscillation B. to improve stability C. to minimize high frequency noise D. to compensate for high frequency loss ANSWER: C 134. Approximate the noise gain of an inverting adder using op-amps if it has fi ve inputs. A. unity (1) B. two (2) C. four (4) D. six (6) ANSWER: D 135. Op-amps with internal frequency compensation are very stable with respect t o signal frequencies. However, the trade-off for frequency stability is (are) A. limited small-signal bandwidth B. slow slew rate C. limited open-loop frequency response D. all of these ANSWER: D 136. What do we mean by externally compensated op-amps? A. op-amps with frequency-compensation terminals B. op-amps with provision to externally compensate for frequency stability C. op-amps whose gain is externally compensated D. A and B above ANSWER: D 137. What is true about the external frequency-compensation capacitor? A. the higher its value, the wider is its bandwidth B. the lower its value, the wider is its bandwidth C. the higher its value, the faster its slew rate D. A and C above ANSWER: B 138. Typical value of the external frequency-compensating capacitor of op-amps. A. 3 - 30 nF B. 30 - 300 nF C. 0.3 - 3.0 F D. 3.0 - 30 F ANSWER: D 139. What do we mean by a general-purpose op-amps? A. op-amps with limited unity-gain bandwidth up to approximately 1 MHz B. op-amps with slew rate about 0.5 V/sec C. op-amps that has unlimited application D. A and B above ANSWER: D 140. Op-amps designed to operate at high slew rate, about 2000 V/sec and at high frequencies, more than 50 MHz. A. general purpose op-amps B. high power op-amps

C. high-stability op-amps D. high-frequency, high-slew rate op-amps ANSWER: D 141. Generally, where does hybrid op-amps found its application? A. for high-output voltage B. for high-output current C. for high-frequency D. A and B above ANSWER: D 142. The magnitude of the op-amps input offset voltage before it can be classifi ed as a low-input offset voltage op-amp A. 0.2 mV B. 2.0 mV C. 2.5 mV D. 5.0 mV ANSWER: A 143. Op-amps whose internal transistor biasing can be controlled externally are categorize as A. general purpose op-amps B. programmable op-amps C. variable op-amps D. externally compensated op-amps ANSWER: B 144. What op-amp parameter(s) that can be governed by the bias control in a prog rammable op-amp? A. open-loop gain and slew rate B. unity-gain bandwidth C. input bias current D. all of the above ANSWER: D 145. The most popular op-amp packages are the metal can, 8-pin DIP, and the SMT. Which of these corresponds to TO-99? A. metal can B. 8-pin DIP C. SMT D. all of the above ANSWER: A 146. Dual-in-line or DIL package is designated as A. TO-99 B. TO-91 C. TO-116 D. TO-220 ANSWER: C 147. For high density ICs involving many op-amps, what packaging is suitable? A. metal can B. 14-pin DIL C. SMT D. flat-pack ANSWER: C 148. Example(s) of surface-mounted technology (SMT) devices. A. PLCCs B. SOICs C. LCCCs

D. all of the above ANSWER: D 149. Which condition must exist for A. It must have a negative feedback B. It must have a gain of less than C. It must have a positive feedback D. It must be neutralized

a circuit to oscillate? sufficient to cancel the input 1 sufficient to overcome losses

ANSWER: C 150. Which of the following is not an essential part of an oscillator? A. Source of energy that supply the losses in tank circuit. B. A resistor IC combination circuit. C. Resonant circuit consist of inductance and capacitance. D. Regenerative feedback circuit. ANSWER: B 151. Circuits that produces alternating or pulsating current or voltage. A. Damper B. Generator C. oscillator D. mixer ANSWER: C 152. What do you call the oscillator circuit that uses a tapped coli in the tune d circuit? A. Pierce B. Colpitts C. Hartley D. Ultraudion ANSWER: C 153. What determines the resonant frequency of a crystal? A. external components B. the temperature of the crystal C. the size and thickness of the crystal material D. the hermitic seal ANSWER: C 154. Type of oscillator whose frequency is dependent on the charge and discharge of RC networks. A. Hartley oscillator B. Copitts oscillator C. Relaxation oscillator D. Klystron oscillator ANSWER: C 155. A microwave oscillator A. Hartley oscillator B. Copitts oscillator C. Relaxation oscillator D. Klystron oscillator ANSWER: D 156. A self-excited oscillator in which the tank is divided into input and feedb ack portions by a capacitive voltage divider. A. Hartley capacitor B. Copitts oscillator C. Relaxation oscillator D. Klystron oscillator

ANSWER: B 157. A self-excited oscillator in which the tank is divided into input and feedb ack portions by an inductive voltage divider or a tapped coil. A. Hartley oscillator B. Copitts oscillator C. Relaxation oscillator D. Klystron oscillator ANSWER: A 158. A circuit usually containing two transistors or tubes in an RC-coupled ampl ifier, the two active devices switch each other alternately on and off. A. Multivibrator B. Signal generator C. Oscillator D. Thyristor ANSWER: A 159. A multivibrator that generates one output pulse for each input trigger puls e. A. monostable B. astable C. bistable D. tristate ANSWER: A 160. Monostable multivibrator is also known as A. one shot B. single shot C. direct shot D. one shot or single shot ANSWER: D 161. What determines the pulse time in a monostable multivibrator? A. resistor combinations B. capacitor combinations C. inductor combinations D. resistor and capacitor combinations ANSWER: D 162. A multivibrator having two stable state A. monostable B. bistable C. astable D. unstable ANSWER: B 163. Is also known as Eccles/Jordan circuit A. Monostable multivibrator B. bistable multivibrator C. astable multivibrator D. unstable multivibrator ANSWER: B 164. Flip-flop is actually a _______ multivibrator. A. Monostable B. bistable C. astable D. unstable ANSWER: B 165. Considered as a free-running multivibrator

A. monostable B. bistable C. astable D. unstable ANSWER: C Test 5 Energy Conversion 1. A. B. C. D. A device that transforms chemical energy into electrical energy secondary battery cell battery primary battery

ANSWER: B 2. A device that is capable of converting chemical energy into electrical energy A. B. C. D. generator battery converter cell

ANSWER: D 3. A secondary cell whose active positive plate consists of nickel hydroxide, an d active negative-plate material is powdered iron oxide mixed with cadmium. Its typical output when fully charged is VO = 1.2V A. Leclanche cell B. dry cell C. Edison cell D. lead-acid cell ANSWER: C 4. If a cell can be charged after it is depleted, it is considered as A. a secondary cell B. a storage cell C. an accumulator D. all of the above ANSWER: D 5. What type of cell that cannot be recharged which cannot restore chemical reac tion? A. nickel-cadmium cell B. secondary cell C. primary cell D. lead-acid wet cell ANSWER: C 6. A cell whose chemical reaction is not reversible A. primary cell B. secondary cell C. rechargeable cell D. solar cell ANSWER: A 7. A voltage source in a single container made from one or more cells combines i n series, parallel, or series-parallel. A. photoelectric B. thermocouple C. battery D. piezo-electric

ANSWER: C 8. A battery means A. cells connected in series B. cells connected in parallel C. cells connected in series-parallel D. all of the above ANSWER: D 9. A battery is used to A. supply a steady dc voltage B. supply an unstable dc voltage C. supply an ac voltage D. supply an ac/dc voltage ANSWER: A 10. In a dry cell, what will happen to the internal resistance as it aged? A. decreases B. increases C. remains constant D. decreases or increases, depends on the chemical composition ANSWER: B 11. The maximum current a cell can deliver through a 0.01 ohm load during testin g A. flash current B. surge current C. ideal current D. full-load current ANSWER: A 12. In batteries, the material used to insulate the positive plates from negativ e plates are technically called A. insulator B. break-point C. coupler D. separator ANSWER: D 13. How long will a battery need to operate a 240 Watts equipment, whose capacit y is 100Ah and 24 volts rating? A. 5 hrs B. 10 hrs C. 1 hr D. 0.10 hr ANSWER: B 14. A battery is rated 20 A-hr and is delivering a current of 2A. How long does it last? A. 1 hr B. 5 hrs C. 8 hrs D. 10 hrs ANSWER: D 15. A primary cell with carbon and zinc as its positive and negative electrodes respectively, and an electrolyte of either a gel or paste. This is commonly know n as dry cell. A. Leclanche cell B. Edison cell C. storage cell D. solar cell

ANSWER: A 16. Find the output of a four (4) lead acid cells. A. 3.2 V B. 8.4 V C. 5.8 V D. 12 V ANSWER: B 17. Silver-cadmium cell has a nominal open-circuit voltage of A. 1.05 V B. 1.5 V C. 2.1 V D. 2.2 V ANSWER: A 18. Output of six carbon-zinc cells connected in series A. 3 V B. 6 V C. 6.6 V D. 9 V ANSWER: D 19. The flat 9-V battery, has how many cells in series? A. 3 B. 4 C. 6 D. 9 ANSWER: C 20. Output of automotive battery with six lead-acid cells in series A. 6V B. 12V C. 24V D. 48V ANSWER: B 21. Substance, which generates a voltage when exposed to light. A. generating substance B. photovoltaic material C. thermoelectric generator D. hydroelectric generator ANSWER: B 22. A cell whose voltage is generated as a function of light A. photovoltaic cell B. thermoelectric cell C. photodiode D. LED ANSWER: A 23. Substance used in photovoltaic cells A. Silicon B. Selenium C. Germanium D. All of these ANSWER: D 24. A junction between two conductors that exhibits electrical characteristics u nder condition of changing temperature

A. B. C. D.

pn junction photojunction thermoelectric junction hydroelectric junction

ANSWER: C 25. Electricity that is generated due to heat, as in thermocouple. A. thermodynamics B. thermojunction C. electric heater D. thermoelectricity ANSWER: D 26. The source of mechanical power to turn the rotors of alternators, large and small, A.C. and D.C. A. prime contactor B. primer C. prime mover D. prime user ANSWER: C 27. Electrical machines refer to machines that convert ________ A. mechanical to electrical energy B. electrical to mechanical energy C. electrical energy of one form to electrical energy of another form D. all of the above ANSWER: D 28. Electrical machines that convert mechanical energy to electrical energy. A. generators B. motors C. cycloconverters D. frequency converters ANSWER: A 29. Electrical machine that converts ac voltage to dc voltage, or vice versa. A. generator B. motor C. rotary converter D. frequency converter ANSWER: C 30. Electrical machine that changes ac voltage at one frequency to another ac vo ltage at another frequency. A. generator B. motor C. rotary converter D. frequency converter ANSWER: D 31. It consist of a single coil rotated in a magnetic field and produces an A.C. voltage. A. field winding B. armature C. commutator D. elementary generator ANSWER: D 32. Generation of voltage in a generator can only happen when? A. there is a rotary conductor

B. there is a magnetic field in a conductor C. there is a relative motion between conducting wires and magnetic lines of for ce D. there is a relative motion between a conductor and electric field ANSWER: C 33. Two essential parts in rotating generators A. electro/permanent magnets and armature winding B. electromagnets or permanent magnets and commutator C. commutator and armature winding D. brushes and commutator ANSWER: A 34. In electrical machines, what do you call the set of conductors wound on lami nated cores of good magnetic permeability? A. armature core B. armature winding C. rotary winding D. rotary core ANSWER: B 35. In dc generator, what converts the alternating emf to DC? A. armature B. commutator C. diode D. alternator ANSWER: B 36. Generally, in dc generators A. The armature winding is rotated with respect to a stationary magnetic field p roduced by electromagnets or permanent magnets. B. The electromagnets or permanent magnets (magnetic fields) are rotated with re spect to the stationary armature winding. C. Current is sent into the armature winding; or the armature winding is usually placed in a stationary laminated iron core and the rotating element may or may not be a set of magnet poles, it depends on the type of motor. D. The armature winding is supplied with current; or the armature is placed insi de a set of radially supported magnetic poles. ANSWER: A 37. In electrical machines, what type of voltage is generated at the armature wi nding? A. dc B. pulsating dc C. ac D. ac or dc depending on the type of machine ANSWER: C 38. Generally in ac generators A. The armature winding is rotated by a stationary magnetic field produced by el ectromagnets or permanent magnets. B. Current is sent into the armature winding; or the armature winding is usually placed in a stationary laminated iron core and the rotating element may or may not be a set of magnet poles, it depends on the type of motor. C. The electromagnets or permanent magnets (magnetic fields) are rotated with re spect to the stationary armature winding. D. The armature winding is supplied with current; or the armature is placed insi de a set of radially supported magnetic poles. ANSWER: C 39. A dc generator whose excitation is produced by a winding connected to its ow

n positive and negative terminals. A. series generator B. separately excited shunt generator C. self-excited shunt generator D. compound generator ANSWER: C 40. What is true about field poles in electric machines? A. there are always even number of them (exist by pair) B. there are always an odd number of them C. there are an even or an odd number of them D. none of the above ANSWER: A 41. In a compound generator, which field winding usually, has a lower resistance ? A. series field winding B. shunt field winding C. armature winding D. excitation winding ANSWER: A 42. Which winding in a dc-compound generator that is relatively made of fine wir es? A. armature winding B. excitation winding C. shunt field winding D. series field winding ANSWER: C 43. What important characteristic you should consider in choosing a dc-generator ? A. voltage capacity B. current capacity C. voltage vs. load D. power rating ANSWER: C 44. What is the purpose of laminating the field poles and armature of a dc machi ne? A. to reduce eddy current B. to avoid contaminants C. to provide isolation D. to beautify the machine ANSWER: A 45. An alternator with a lagging power factor of 0.8 will have a ________ voltag e regulation at unity power factor. A. 0% B. less than C. greater than D. 100% ANSWER: C 46. With alternators connected in parallel, the frequency of the system can be c hanged by A. increasing the field excitation B. decreasing the field excitation C. changing the rpm of the prime movers D. synchronizing the prime movers

ANSWER: C 47. With alternators connected in parallel, the voltage of the system can be cha nged by A. changing the field excitation B. increasing the speed of the prime movers C. changing the rpm of the prime movers D. synchronizing the prime movers ANSWER: A 48. If an ac generator is to be driven from prime mover having variable speed, s uch as aircraft engine, a ________ must be used. A. constant speed drive (CSD) B. regulator C. conditioner D. peak limited ANSWER: A 49. Find the frequency in kilocycles per second in the armature of a 10 pole, 1, 200 rpm generator. A. 100 B. 1000 C. 10 D. 0.1 ANSWER: D 50. What should be the speed of a 6-pole ac generator in order to have a frequen cy of 50Hz? A. 100 rpm B. 500 rpm C. 1000 rpm D. 1500 rpm ANSWER: C 51. What is the voltage regulation when the full load voltage is the same as noload voltage assuming a perfect voltage source? A. 100% B. 1% C. 10% D. 0% ANSWER: D 52. Calculate the voltage regulation of a generator having a no-load voltage of 220 V and a full load voltage of 180 V. A. 18% B. 22% C. 28% D. 32% ANSWER: B 53. Usually used to drive low-speed alternators A. diesel engines B. jet propulsion engines C. steam turbines D. hydraulic turbines ANSWER: D 54. Is usually used to drive high-speed alternators A. diesel engines B. pneumatic engines

C. steam turbines D. hydraulic turbines ANSWER: C 55. Which statement is true regarding alternators? A. high-speed alternators are smaller than low-speed B. low-speed alternators are smaller than high-speed C. high-power alternators are smaller than low-power D. high-voltage alternators are smaller than low-voltage ANSWER: A 56. For what reason, why carbon brushes are widely used dc machines? A. it is abundant B. it is cheap C. it has a high voltage drop D. it lubricates and polishes the contacts ANSWER: D 57. Alternators have less chance to hunt if driven by A. steam turbines B. hydroturbines C. diesel turbines D. nuclear reactor ANSWER: A 58. In alternators, what is the purpose of damper windings? A. it prevents over speeding B. it maintain constant speed C. it prevents hunting D. it protects overloading ANSWER: C 59. What term applies to the use of two or more generators to supply a common lo ad? A. on-line operation B. series operation C. cascaded operation D. parallel operation ANSWER: D 60. In paralleling ac generators, ________ is very important. A. voltage level B. current level C. phase angle D. internal resistance ANSWER: C 61. Description used for generators trying to self-adjust its parameters before paralleling with on line generators. A. synchronizing B. sequencing C. jogging D. alighning ANSWER: C 62. In changing power from one generator to another, what do you call the operat ional sequence wherein the incoming generator is connected first before removing the existing generator? A. No Break Power Transfer (NBPT) B. UPS C. LIFO

D. Standby Power transfer ANSWER: A 63. What do you mean by break power transfer? A. The incoming generator will be connected first to the bus bar before disconne cting the existing generator. B. The present on-line generator will be disconnected first before connecting th e incoming generator. C. The incoming generator will only be connected to the bus bar when the bus bar breaks. D. The present on-line generator will be disconnected first and then reconnected together with the incoming generator. ANSWER: B 64. How alternators rated? A. in Watts B. in kW C. in kVar D. in kVA ANSWER: C 65. In electrical power distribution, what do you call the first distribution li ne from the main generating station? A. main transmission lines B. primary distribution lines C. sub transmission lines D. secondary distribution lines ANSWER: A 66. The lines which carry the energy from the transformer to a customers services are called ________. A. main transmission lines B. primary distribution lines C. sub transmission lines D. secondary distribution lines ANSWER: D 67. In electrical power Generating/distribution Company, which do you think is t heir highest expenses? A. generation of power B. distribution of power to the consumers C. power transmission D. substations ANSWER: B 68. In electrical power distributions, what insulator is generally used? A. rubber B. wood C. plastic D. porcelain ANSWER: D 69. Electrical machines refer to machines that convert ________ A. mechanical to electrical energy B. electrical to mechanical energy C. electrical energy of one form to electrical energy of another form D. all of the above ANSWER: D 70. Electrical machines that convert electrical energy to mechanical energy. A. generators

B. motors C. rotary converters D. frequency converters ANSWER: B 71. Synchronous type of ac-motor, A. uses a dc-generator to supply dc-excitation to the rotating field B. uses pulsating dc C. uses alternator D. has an ac or dc depending on the type of machine ANSWER: A 72. Generally in dc motors A. the armature winding is rotated by a stationary magnetic field produced by el ectromagnets or permanent magnets. B. current is sent into the armature winding; or the armature winding is usually placed in a stationary laminated iron core and the rotating element may or may not be a set of magnet poles, it depends on the type of motor. C. the electromagnets or permanent magnets (magnetic fields) are rotated with re spect to the stationary armature winding. D. the armature winding is supplied with current; or the armature is placed insi de a set of radially supported magnetic poles. ANSWER: D 73. In ac motors, generally A. current is sent into the armature winding; or the armature winding is usually placed in a stationary laminated iron core and the rotating element may or may not be a set of magnet poles, it depends on the type of motor. B. the armature winding is supplied with current; or the armature is placed insi de a set of radially supported magnetic poles. C. the armature winding is rotated by a stationary magnetic field produced by el ectromagnets or permanent magnets. D. the electromagnets or permanent magnets (magnetic fields) are rotated with re spect to the stationary armature winding. ANSWER: A 74. Among the dc motors, which produces the highest torque? A. series B. shunt C. compound D. differentially compounded ANSWER: A 75. Dc motor that has the most stable speed. A. differentially compounded B. compound C. shunt D. series ANSWER: C 76. In dc A. during B. during C. during D. during motors, when does severe arcing happens? starting rated speed speed fluctuation shutdown

ANSWER: A 77. What is the primary reason why carbon brushes are preferred over copper brus hes in dc motors? A. they have low loss

B. they are more strong C. they produce less arcing D. all of the above ANSWER: C 78. In dc motors, the emf developed which opposes to the supplied voltage. A. residual emf B. induced emf C. coercive emf D. counter emf or back emf ANSWER: D 79. To minimize arcing during starting of dc motors, a resistance should be adde d to limit the current in the ________ A. series field winding B. shunt field winding C. armature winding D. all of these ANSWER: C 80. Which dc motors whose speed is greatly affected by a change in load? It will even run-away if the load is removed. A. series B. shunt C. cumulatively compounded D. differentially compounded ANSWER: A 81. Motors whose speed can be easily controlled. A. dc motors B. ac motors C. ac & dc motors D. ac or dc motors ANSWER: A 82. When a dc motor has no load, what will happen to the back emf? A. reduces B. increases C. becomes maximum D. becomes zero ANSWER: C 83. When can we get a maximum mechanical power from a dc motor? A. Eb = 0 B. Eb = V C. Eb = 1V D. Eb = 2V ANSWER: B 84. The torque of a dc motor is A. directly proportional to the field strength B. inversely proportional to the field strength C. directly proportional to the armature current D. A and C are correct ANSWER: D 85. One causes why the shaft torque is less than the developed armature torque o f a dc motor. A. eddy current B. field loss

C. brushes loss D. friction loss ANSWER: D 86. For heavy-duty dc motor, how does the effect of armature reaction be correct ed? A. using interpoles & brush shifting B. using interpoles C. using compensatory winding D. B & C are correct ANSWER: D 87. Considered as a variable speed motor A. compounded B. differentially compounded C. shunt D. series ANSWER: D 88. What is the most common method used in varying the speed of a dc motor? A. by varying the supply voltage B. by changing the effective number of conductors in series C. by varying the armature resistance D. by varying the field strength ANSWER: D 89. The running speed of a dc series motor is greatly affected by what factor? A. field excitation B. load C. armature resistance D. supply voltage ANSWER: B 90. In choosing a motor for a particular application, what characteristic you sh ould consider? A. speed-torque B. speed-armature current C. speed efficiency D. speed power ANSWER: A 91. What will happen to the dc shunt motor if the load torque greatly increases? A. B. C. D. the speed will decrease there will be a great increase in current the speed almost remains constant B and C are correct

ANSWER: D 92. What will happen to a dc series motor when its load is removed? A. the motor will stop B. the motor speed remains the same C. the torque remains the same D. the motor will overspeed ANSWER: D 93. A motor whose speed increases as the load is increased. A. series dc B. dc shunt C. cumulatively compounded

D. differentially compounded ANSWER: D 94. Factor(s) that affect iron losses in a dc motor. A. flux B. speed C. armature resistance and flux D. A and B are correct ANSWER: D 95. One advantage of a cumulatively compounded motor is that it does not run wid ely at light loads, this feature is due to A. shunt winding B. brake winding C. series winding D. clutch winding ANSWER: A 96. In applications where an almost constant speed is required, a _______ motor is a good choice. A. dc shunt B. dc series C. cumulatively compounded D. differentially compounded ANSWER: A 97. In applications where a high torque is needed during starting a _______ moto r is preferred. A. dc shunt B. dc series C. differentially compounded D. cumulatively compounded ANSWER: B 98. In applications where sudden heavy loads happen for short duration, a ______ _ motor is the best choice. A. dc shunt B. dc series C. cumulatively compounded D. differentially compounded ANSWER: C 99. In motors of the same rating, which has the least starting torque? A. dc shunt B. dc series C. differentially compounded D. cumulatively compounded ANSWER: A 100. Factor(s) that affect friction and winding loses in dc motors. A. speed B. armature current C. interpoles D. armature resistance ANSWER: A 101. In dc motors, power loss is contributed greatly by A. flux loss B. core loss C. copper loss

D. mechanical friction ANSWER: C 102. Dirt on the commutator may produce A. isolation B. excessive sparking C. power loss D. lower torque ANSWER: B 103. Motor vibrations are usually caused by A. loose coupling B. dirt on the commutator C. much brush tension D. worn bearings ANSWER: D 104. When a motor is overloaded, it will usually A. slow down B. speed up C. vibrate D. overheat ANSWER: D 105. Which motor that produces the highest increase in torque considering the sa me increase in current? A. dc shunt B. dc series C. differentially compounded D. cumulatively compounded ANSWER: B 106. When an armature opens in dc motor, it may cause A. intermittent sparking B. an increase in speed C. the motor to slow down D. the motor to stop rotating ANSWER: A 107. Why do motors take large current during starting? A. the armature resistance is still low B. the field produced is still weak C. it has to break the momentum D. theres still a low back emf ANSWER: D 108. In dc motors, the speed will A. increase with an increase in field strength B. decrease with an increase in field strength C. decrease as the supply voltage is increased D. B and C are correct ANSWER: B 109. When armature current is increased in a dc motor, its armature reaction wil l A. also increase B. decrease C. increase exponentially D. decrease exponentially

ANSWER: A 110. Why does in dc motor, brushes are positioned such that they will be with th e direction of the rotation? A. to reduce sparking B. to last long C. to have less loss D. all of the above ANSWER: A 111. Motors are used to convert electrical energy to mechanical energy. What typ e of motor that is best suited for heavy-load application? A. dc series motors B. dc compound motors C. single phase motors D. polyphase motors ANSWER: D 112. DC shunt motor speed can be controlled electronically by using a _______ in series with the armature winding. A. thyrector B. potentiometer C. rheostat D. thyristor ANSWER: D 113. Which thyristor is commonly used is motor speed control? A. triac B. diac C. SCR D. SUS ANSWER: C 114. In controlling motor speed, the SCRs controls the A. number of pulses B. phase angle C. firing angle D. any of these ANSWER: C 115. How do you reverse the rotation of a dc shunt motor? A. By reversing the direction of the field current, leaving the armature current the same. B. By reversing the direction of the armature current, leaving the field current the same. C. By reversing both field and armature current D. Either A or B ANSWER: D 116. In motor speed control, what is responsible for SCR firing? A. trigger circuit B. threshold circuit C. reference circuit D. holding circuit ANSWER: A 117. A circuit that converts ac-voltage to dc-voltage A. rectifier B. inverter C. dc-converter D. ac-converter

ANSWER: A 118. Conversion from dc-voltage to another dc-voltage requires a A. inverter B. cycloconverter C. dc-converter D. ac-converter ANSWER: C 119. A converter that changes ac-voltage to another ac-voltage level. A. inverter B. cycloconverter C. dc-converter D. ac-converter ANSWER: D 120. What converter must be used if one wished to change dc-voltage into ac-volt age? A. inverter B. cycloconverter C. dc-converter D. ac-converter ANSWER: A 121. A converter that changes ac-voltage frequency from one to another. A. inverter B. cycloconverter C. dc-converter D. ac-converter ANSWER: B 122. In electronic converters, what signal is mostly used to trigger the active device? A. sine-wave B. square-wave C. triangular-wave D. sawtooth-wave ANSWER: B 123. A transformer consist of the following: A. An inductance and resistance B. A parallel resonant circuit C. A capacitor and an inductor D. Two coils wound on a common core ANSWER: D 124. Transformer is considered by many as an efficient device due to the fact th at A. it uses an inductive coupling B. it is magnetically coupled C. it is a static device D. it is electrically coupled ANSWER: C 125. With transformer, what is measured when performing open-circuit test? A. turns ratio B. copper loss C. leakage reactance D. turns impedance

ANSWER: B 126. Open-circuit test with transformers is always done on what winding? A. low-voltage B. high-voltage C. primary D. secondary ANSWER: A 127. Short-circuit test with transformers is always done on what winding? A. low-voltage B. high-voltage C. primary D. secondary ANSWER: A 128. When the transformer secondary winding is short-circuited, its primary indu ctance will A. become zero B. decrease C. increase D. not be affected ANSWER: C 129. Cooling system for transformers with ratings less than 5kVA A. forced-air cooling B. oil-cooling C. natural air cooling D. water cooling ANSWER: C 130. For transformers, zero efficiency happens when it has A. no-load B. 1/2 of full-load C. 2/3 of full-load D. full-load ANSWER: A 131. For transformers, maximum efficiency happens when A. copper loss is zero B. copper loss is equal to constant loss C. the primary and secondary windings are equal D. the leakage reactances of both windings are equal ANSWER: B 132. In constructing transformers, the primary and secondary windings should hav e A. good electrical coupling B. loose magnetic coupling C. tight magnetic coupling D. best inductive coupling ANSWER: C 133. What are the two parameters in transformers that are the same in both prima ry and secondary? A. power and voltage B. power and current C. power and impedance D. voltage per turn and ampere-turns ANSWER: D

134. In transformers, the amount of copper used in the primary is A. less than that of the secondary B. greater than that of secondary C. exactly twice that of secondary D. almost equal as that of secondary ANSWER: D 135. At very low frequencies, transformers woks poorly because A. its magnetizing current will be very high B. its core permeability will be greatly increased C. its core permeability will be greatly reduced D. its impedance will increase ANSWER: A 136. What will happen if a power equency? A. it will have a very high core B. its impedance will decrease C. its core permeability will be D. its core permeability will be transformer is to be operated at a very high fr loss greatly increased greatly reduced

ANSWER: A 137. How are the primary and secondary coupled in autotransformers? A. electrically B. magnetically C. electrically and magnetically D. capacitively ANSWER: C 138. In a single-phase transformer, the core flux is A. constant B. pulsating C. alternating D. alternating and sometimes stable ANSWER: C 139. What do you think will happen to a transformer when its primary is connecte d to a DC supply? A. It will become more efficient B. It will become less efficient C. It will have good regulation D. It might burn out ANSWER: D 140. Generally, in what application you consider the use of core-type transforme rs? A. low voltage and low current B. low voltage and high current C. high voltage and low current D. high voltage and high current ANSWER: C 141. In ________ transformers, when its primary is energized the secondary shoul d never be open-circuited. A. power B. voltage C. current D. matching ANSWER: C

142. Considered A. the one with B. the one with C. the one with D. the one with

as an ideal transformer no losses and leakage reactance 100% regulation zero efficiency equal primary and secondary

ANSWER: A 143. What is the effect of air gaps at the transformer core? A. Its reluctance is decreased B. It increases eddy current C. It decreases hysteresis loss D. It increases magnetizing current ANSWER: D 144. ________ currents are wasteful currents which flows in cores of transformer s and produces heat. A. Residual B. Eddy C. Sneak D. Magnetizing ANSWER: B 145. What will happen to the eddy current loss in transformers when the load is increased? A. will also increase B. will decrease C. will become infinite D. nothing will happen ANSWER: D 146. Leakage flux in transformers will cause A. copper loss to increase B. copper loss to decrease C. eddy current to decrease D. voltage drop in the windings ANSWER: D 147. The increase in temperature in a transformer is mainly due to A. true power B. reactive power C. apparent power D. virtual power ANSWER: C 148. In transformers, the voltage per turn at the primary is ________ the second ary. A. less than that of B. greater than that of C. a factor of D. the same as ANSWER: D 149. In transformer windings, the more number of turns A. the higher is the voltage B. the lower is the voltage C. the lower is the impedance D. the higher is the current ANSWER: A 150. What is true about core-type transformers?

A. B. C. D.

It It It It

has has has has

a shorter magnetic path a longer magnetic path a very long magnetic path an infinite magnetic path

ANSWER: A 151. Practically how many percent is copper loss to the total loss in transforme rs? A. 15% B. 50% C. 85% D. 100% ANSWER: C 152. What is the purpose of laminating the core of a transformer? A. to decrease eddy current loss B. to increase eddy current loss C. to decrease copper loss D. to decrease hysteresis loss ANSWER: A 153. Large transformers have approximately an efficiency of A. 25% B. 45% C. 75% D. 95% ANSWER: D 154. The loss in a transformer due to the changing field is called A. leakage B. hysteresis loss C. eddy loss D. keeper ANSWER: B 155. The ratio of the amount of magnetic flux linking a secondary coil compared to the flux generated by the primary coil: A. coupling factor B. mutual coupling C. coefficient of coupling D. hysteresis factor ANSWER: C 156. Mutual inductance between two coils can be decreased by A. moving the coils apart B. inserting an iron core C. moving the coils close D. reducing the reluctance ANSWER: A 157. An advantage of full-wave rectifier over half-wave rectifier. A. Each diode can cool-off during half of each input cycle B. The ripple frequency is lower C. The tube will conduct during both halves of the input cycle D. Output voltage is lower with more ripple ANSWER: C 158. One of the following items below is not one of the main components of an al ternating current power supply. A. Power transformer

B. Voltage regulator C. Rectifier D. Filter ANSWER: C 159. Most electronic devices/circuits require dc-voltage to operate. A battery i s a good power source, however, its operating time is limited. The use of batter y also proves to be expensive. A more practical alternative is to use the househ old main supply, and since this is an ac-voltage, it must be converted to a dc-v oltage. The circuit that converts this ac-voltage to a dc-voltage is called A. rectifier B. clamper C. filter D. regulator ANSWER: A 160. A rectifier that uses either the positive or negative portion only of the m ain ac-supply A. half-wave B. full-wave C. full-wave bridge D. all of the above ANSWER: A 161. For a half-wave rectifier, the average output voltage is _______ of the max imum ac-voltage. A. 31.8% B. 45% C. 63.6% D. 90% ANSWER: A 162. Percent ripple of a half-wave rectifier. A. 24% B. 48% C. 63.6% D. 121% ANSWER: D 163. Calculate the dc-voltage at the output of a half-wave rectifier with a 12Vr ms input. A. 2.7 V B. 3.8 V C. 4.5 V D. 5.4 V ANSWER: D 164. To double the capability of the half-wave rectifier, a _______ must be used . A. full-wave rectifier B. full-wave bridge C. dual-supply D. A or B is correct ANSWER: D 165. Fullwave rectifier defers from fullwave bridge in what aspect? A. fullwave uses two diodes, while four for fullwave bridge B. diodes PIV in fullwave is twice that of fullwave bridge C. fullwave generates less heat than fullwave bridge D. all of the above

ANSWER: D 166. Common to both full-wave and full-wave bridge rectifiers A. dc-voltage B. ripple factor C. ripple frequency and percent ripple D. all are correct ANSWER: D 167. Find direct current voltage from a full-wave rectifier with 120 V peak rect ified voltage. A. 60 V B. 7.639 V C. 76.39 V D. 6.0 V ANSWER: C 168. The dc-voltage of a full-wave bridge rectifier. A. 0.318 Vmax B. 0.45 Vmax C. 0.636 Vmax D. 0.90 Vmax ANSWER: C 169. Relate the magnitude of the dc-output voltage to the ac input rms voltage o f a full-wave rectifier. A. VDC = 0.318 Vrms B. VDC = 0.45 Vrms C. VDC = 0.636 Vrms D. VDC = 0.90 Vrms ANSWER: D 170. Determine the dc-voltage of a full-wave bridge rectifier when the input acvoltage is 24 Vrms. A. 7.63 V B. 10.8 V C. 15.3 V D. 21.6 V ANSWER: D 171. Ripple factor of a full-wave rectifier. A. 0.318 B. 0.48 C. 0.9 D. 1.21 ANSWER: B 172. To improve the dc output voltage of a power supply, a _______ A. shunt resistor may be installed B. limiting resistor may be installed C. feedback element may be installed D. filter capacitor may be installed ANSWER: D 173. Factor(s) that can reduce the ripple voltage of a power supply. A. filter capacitance B. reduction of load current C. increase in input frequency D. all of the above

ANSWER: D 174. Making the filter capacitor large in a power supply results to A. an increase of the ripple voltage B. an increase of the dc-voltage C. a decrease of the ripple frequency D. A and B above ANSWER: B 175. Find the ripple factor (kr) of a sinusoidal signal with peak ripple of 4 vo lts on an average of 30. A. 0.094 B. 0.013 C. 0.130 D. 0.94 ANSWER: A 176. Calculate the peak-to-peak ripple voltage of a 20 V full-wave power supply with a filter capacitor C = 220 F when delivering a load current of 50 mA. A. 2.0 Vpp B. 3.79 Vpp C. 5.67 Vpp D. 7.9 Vpp ANSWER: A 177. In capacitor-filtered power supply, what will happen to the ripple voltage if the load is disconnected? A. increases B. becomes infinite C. becomes unpredictable D. drops to zero ANSWER: D 178. For a power supply with a peak-to-peak ripple voltage of 5 Vpp, determine i ts rms ripple. A. 1.44 Vrms B. 1.77 Vrms C. 2.88 Vrms D. 3.54 Vrms ANSWER: B 179. A 20-Vdc power supply was found to have a ripple voltage of 2 Vrms when sup plying 1.5 amps load. Calculate its percent ripple. A. 7.5 % B. 10.0 % C. 12.5 % D. 15.0 % ANSWER: B 180. Which power supply filter gives the smallest ripple voltage? A. capacitor filter B. RC-filter C. LC-filter D. multi-section LC-filter ANSWER: D 181. Ripple voltage in power supplies causes unwanted effects on the load it is supplying, i.e. a hum in audio amplifiers. To minimize this effect several filte ring techniques are used, however, ripple still exists. What is a better alterna tive to reduce further the ripples? A. truncation

B. clipping C. clamping D. regulation ANSWER: D 182. A voltage regulator connected in parallel with the load. A. series regulator B. parallel regulator C. shunt regulator D. switching regulator ANSWER: C 183. Which regulator is the most efficient? A. series B. shunt C. switching D. modulating ANSWER: B 184. Voltage reference element in most voltage regulators A. diac B. thyrector C. zener diode D. transistor ANSWER: C 185. In voltage regulators, what do you call the element/device that controls th e amount of current/voltage/power? A. sampling circuit B. comparator C. limiter D. control element ANSWER: D 186. The element/device used as a comparator in most voltage regulators. A. zener diode B. BJT C. IGBT D. op-amp ANSWER: D 187. Sampling circuit used in most voltage regulators. A. voltage divider network B. bleeder network C. crowbar D. bootstrap circuit ANSWER: A 188. Most voltage regulators used _______ as their control element. A. BJT B. SBS C. UJT D. JFET ANSWER: A 189. The most efficient voltage regulator and is therefore used in high-current high-voltage applications. A. series regulators B. shunt regulators C. hybrid regulators

D. switching regulators ANSWER: D 190. A 12 VDC power supply is regulated using 7805 IC and is used in TTL circuit s that require a 0.2 amps current. Determine the dropout voltage of the system. A. 4 V B. 5 V C. 6 V D. 7 V ANSWER: D 191. A load draws 1 A current from a 10-V regulated power supply. Calculate the power dissipated by the regulator if it has an input voltage of 16 V. A. 6 Watts B. 10 Watts C. 12 Watts D. 16 Watts ANSWER: A 192. Three-terminal fixed positive voltage regulators commonly used in industry. A. B. C. D. 78XX series 79XX series 723 IC regulator 317 regulator

ANSWER: A 193. What is the regulated output voltage of a 7924 regulator? A. + 4 V B. - 4 V C. + 24 V D. - 24 V ANSWER: D 194. A three-terminal variable positive voltage regulator A. 317 B. 337 C. 723 D. 741 ANSWER: A 195. What three-terminal IC regulator that has a variable negative voltage outpu t? A. 317 B. 337 C. 723 D. 741 ANSWER: B 196. In a three-terminal adjustable positive voltage regulator (317), what is th e band-gap voltage between the output terminal and adjustment terminal? A. 1.25 V B. 2.5 V C. 3.25 V D. 4.125 V ANSWER: A 197. Typical ripple rejection of most three-terminal voltage regulators A. 0.1 % B. 0.8 %

C. 1.2 % D. 2.0 % ANSWER: A 198. The three-terminal voltage regulators, such as the 78XX series has a typica l current rating of 1.5 amperes. If a high current is required, say 30 amperes, how will you make modifications from this regulator in order to provide the requ ired current? A. by cascading them B. by the use of a crowbar circuit C. by connecting them in parallel D. by the use of external pass transistor ANSWER: D 199. What is the simplest way of protecting power supplies from reverse-polarity /reverse-current flow? A. by a forward-biased diode B. by a reverse-biased diode C. by a crowbar circuit D. by a snubber circuit ANSWER: B 200. A crowbar circuit is used A. to monitor the output current of a power supply and automatically shuts down the system when an overload occur. B. to monitor the temperature of a power supply and switches the cooling fan whe n a threshold temperature is reached. C. as voltage reference in regulated power supplies. D. as an over-voltage protection in power supplies. ANSWER: D 201. Technique(s) in using low-power, low-voltage transistors in high voltage re gulators. A. ground return regulation B. by lifting the regulator above ground C. connecting them in series D. all of the above ANSWER: D 202. Which of the regulators dissipates less power and therefore generates less heat? A. series B. shunt C. switching D. UPS ANSWER: C 203. In switching regulators, what are the semiconductor devices that can be use d as controllable power switches? A. BJTs and MDs B. MOSFETs and IGBT C. GTOs and thyristors D. all of the above ANSWER: D 204. In voltage regulators, the control element plays a major part in providing proper and efficient regulation. What are the desirable characteristics of the c ontrol element to be used if excellent regulator is desired? A. very small off-state leakage current and high on-state current ratings B. large forward and reverse blocking voltage and very small on-sate voltage

C. short turn-on and turn-off times so that it can be used in high-speed switchi ng regulators D. all of the above ANSWER: D 205. Active devices used in switching regulators may experience large over-curre nts during conduction (turn-on-state) and large over-voltages during turn-off. T hese excessive currents and voltages may cause distraction or damage of the acti ve devices. How do we protect them? A. by the use of a crowbar circuit B. by providing a buck-boost circuit C. by shunting a thyrector D. by installing a snubber circuit ANSWER: D 206. One of the major concerns in power electronics is to clean-up or shape-up t he utility-supply voltage (the wall-outlet 220 V/60 Hz) from disturbances such a s, overvolt, undervolt, voltage spikes, and harmonic distortions. What circuit i s used for this? A. power conditioners B. UPS C. power inverters D. line scanning ANSWER: A 207. A power supply that continuously provides protection against undervoltage, overvoltage and even power outages. A. standby power supply B. uninterruptible power supply C. power conditioners D. regulated power supply ANSWER: B Test 6 Test and Measurement 1. What is the degree of exactness of measurement when compared to the expected value of the variable being measured? A. Accuracy B. Error C. Deviation D. Precision ANSWER: A 2. The art or process of determining the existence or knowing the magnitude of s omething, directly or indirectly in terms of a recognized standard. A. Measurement B. Testing C. Recording D. Evaluating ANSWER: A 3. A procedure or sequence of operations for determining whether a component or equipment is functioning or working normally. A. Measurement B. Test C. Recording D. Evaluating ANSWER: B

4. In measurement, what do you call the degree of exactness compared to the expe cted value of the variable being measured? A. precision B. accuracy C. sharpness D. correctness ANSWER: B 5. A measure of consistency or repeatability of measurements is called A. precision B. accuracy C. sharpness D. correctness ANSWER: A 6. Precision is also known as A. correctness B. accuracy C. sharpness D. reproducibility ANSWER: D 7. In measurements, the sum of a set of numbers divided by the total number of p ieces of data in the given set is called A. geometric mean B. algebraic mean C. arithmetic mean D. effective value ANSWER: C 8. The deviation of a reading from the expected value A. accuracy B. precision C. error D. difference ANSWER: C 9. Errors due to frictions of the meter movement, incorrect spring tension, impr oper calibration or faulty instruments: A. Observational errors B. Environmental errors C. Instrument errors D. Gross errors ANSWER: C 10. When an instrument is subjected to harsh environments such as high temperatu re, strong magnetic, electrostatic or electromagnetic field, it may have detrime ntal effects and cause errors known as A. Observational errors B. Environmental errors C. Instrument errors D. Gross errors ANSWER: B 11. Errors introduced by the observer or user. A. Observational errors B. Environmental errors C. Instrument errors D. Gross errors ANSWER: A

12. Errors in analog meter reading due to your physical position with respect to the meter scale. A. parallax error B. angular error C. linear error D. deviation ANSWER: A 13. What do you call the difference between any number within the set of numbers and the arithmetic mean of that set of numbers? A. parallax error B. angular error C. linear error D. deviation ANSWER: D 14. An instrument or device having recognized permanent or stable value that is used as a reference. A. standard instrument/device B. reference instrument/device C. fixed instrument/device D. ideal instrument/device ANSWER: A 15. The smallest change in a measured variable to which an instrument will respo nd. A. quantize value B. resolution C. minimum D. step size ANSWER: B 16. A device or mechanism used to determine the value of a quantity under observ ation. A. measuring kit B. evaluator C. instrument D. sensor ANSWER: C 17. What is the basic unit for measuring current flow? A. coulomb B. ampere C. atomic weight D. volt ANSWER: B 18. An instrument used to detect and measure the presence of electrical current is generally called A. DArsonval meter B. electrodynamometer C. galvanometer D. potentiometer ANSWER: C 19. What is the common type of meter movement? A. Fixed coil B. Farad C. DArsonval D. Digital ANSWER: C

20. A permanent-magnet moving-coil instrument. A. induction instrument B. DArsonval meter movement C. moving-iron instrument D. moving-magnet instrument ANSWER: B 21. An instrument which depends on current in one or more foxed-coils acting on one or more pieces of soft iron, at least one of which is movable. A. moving-magnet instrument B. moving-iron instrument C. DArsonval meter movement D. induction instrument ANSWER: B 22. What is that device, which depends on the action of a movable permanent magn et, in aligning itself in the resultant field, produced either by a fixed perman ent magnet and adjacent coil or coils carrying current, or by two or more curren t-carrying coils whose axes are displaced by a fixed angle? A. DArsonval meter movement B. induction instrument C. moving-magnet instrument D. moving-iron instrument ANSWER: C 23. What ammeter is mostly used in measuring high-frequency currents? A. electrostatic B. moving-coil C. dynamometer D. thermocouple ANSWER: D 24. Measurement of high dc-voltages is usually done by using A. Electrostatic B. moving-coil C. dynamometer D. thermocouple ANSWER: A 25. Measuring instrument that can be used only to measure voltages. A. electrostatic B. thermocouple C. dynamometer D. permanent-magnet moving-coil ANSWER: A 26. This instrument measures temperatures by electric means, especially temperat ures beyond the range of mercury thermometers. A. pyrometer B. electrostatic instrument C. moving-magnet instrument D. permanent-magnet moving-coil instrument ANSWER: A 27. This instrument refers to that one, which measures the intensity of the radi ation, received from any portion of the sky. A. megaohmmeter B. pyranometer C. Megger D. galvanometer

ANSWER: B 28. What is the normal indication on a megger (megohmmeter) when checking insula tion? A. one B. infinity C. middle of scale D. zero ANSWER: B 29. Resistance measuring instrument particularly used in determining the insulat ion resistance. A. megaohmmeter B. Megger C. galvanometer D. A or B are correct ANSWER: D 30. An electrodynamic meter used to measure power A. hook-on type voltmeter B. wattmeter C. watt-hour meter D. multi-meter ANSWER: B 31. A device used to mechanically measure the output power of a motor. A. dynamometer B. Megger C. concentric-vane instrument D. radial-vane instrument ANSWER: A 32. An indicating instrument whose movable coils rotate between two stationary c oils, usually used as wattmeter. A. induction-type meter B. radial-vane instrument C. electrodynamometer D. concentric-vane instrument ANSWER: C 33. Dynamometers are mostly used as A. voltmeter B. ammeter C. ohmmeter D. wattmeter ANSWER: D 34. What damping method is generally used in dynamometers? A. spring B. fluid friction C. eddy-current damping D. air friction ANSWER: D 35. Which dynamometer instrument has a uniform scale? A. voltmeter B. ammeter C. ohmmeter D. wattmeter

ANSWER: D 36. For a dynamometer to be able to measure high current, a ________ should be u sed. A. shunt resistor B. multiplier C. CVDT D. current transformer ANSWER: D 37. Error in voltmeter reading is due to A. insertion B. loading C. battery aging D. conversion ANSWER: B 38. Error in ammeter reading id due to A. insertion B. loading C. battery aging D. conversion ANSWER: A 39. Which type of meter requires its own power source? A. A voltmeter B. An ammeter C. An ohmmeter D. A wattmeter ANSWER: C 40. Error in ohmmeter reading is due to A. insertion B. loading C. battery aging D. meter friction ANSWER: C 41. Decreasing the value of the shunt resistor of an ammeter, its current measur ing capability A. increases B. decreases C. remains constant D. none of the above ANSWER: A 42. Increasing the value of the series resistor of a voltmeter, its voltage meas uring capability A. increases B. decreases C. remains constant D. none of the above ANSWER: A 43. A device that is used to measure current without opening the circuit A. megger test B. clamp probe C. ammeter D. multi-meter ANSWER: B

44. Which of the ammeter below that has no insertion error? A. DArsonval meter B. clamp-meter C. micrometer D. meter with current transformer ANSWER: B 45. To prevent damage of the multirange ammeter during selection, a/an _______ s hould be used. A. direct shunt B. selected shunt C. Ayrton shunt D. shunt fuse ANSWER: C 46. For the greatest accuracy, what should be the input impedance of a VOM be? A. 1,000 ohms/V B. 50,000 ohms/V C. as large as possible D. as small as possible ANSWER: C 47. Voltage measurement in a high impedance circuit requires a voltmeter with A. low input impedance B. high input impedance C. high voltage probe D. low voltage probe ANSWER: B 48. A meter has a full-scale current of 50A, what is its sensitivity? A. 20k/V B. 20V/ C. 50k/V D. 50A/V ANSWER: A 49. If a meter with a full-scale current of 100A is used as an ac voltmeter with half-wave rectification, its ac sensitivity is A. 10,000 /V B. 4,500 /V C. 9,000 /V D. 100 /V ANSWER: B 50. In order to make an accurate measurement as possible, the internal resistanc e of a voltmeter must be A. as high as possible B. as low as possible C. proportional to the voltage range D. proportional to the current range ANSWER: A 51. An ammeter has a full-scale deflection current of 100mA. If the same ammeter is used to measure a full-scale current of 1.0 ampere, what is the value of the shunt resistor in ohms if the voltage across the meter is 9.0 volts? A. 9.0 B. 10 C. 900 D. 100

ANSWER: B 52. What is the purpose of the rheostat in ohmmeter? A. balancing resistance B. counter resistance of measured circuit C. coil resistance D. compensate aging battery of the meter ANSWER: D 53. The zero-adjust control in an analog type ohmmeter is used to A. compensate for the differing internal battery voltage B. make sure the pointer is moving correctly C. align the infinity resistance position D. align the zero-voltage position ANSWER: A 54. The scale of a hot wire instrument is a/an __________ function. A. linear B. squared C. log D. exponential ANSWER: B 55. Moving iron instrument have a scale function that is A. log B. exponential C. linear D. squared ANSWER: D 56. To increase the measuring capability of a moving-iron ac ammeter, a _______ should be used. A. shunt B. multiplier C. swamping resistors D. different number of turns of operating coil ANSWER: D 57. Which electrical instruments below is the most sensitive? A. moving-iron B. dynamometer C. thermocouple D. PMMC ANSWER: D 58. Basically, a PMMC instrument can be used only in A. ac measurements B. dc measurements C. rms measurements D. all of the above ANSWER: B 59. Controlling torque in PMMC. A. spring action B. magnetic action C. electromagnetic action D. tension cable ANSWER: A 60. What damping method is used in induction type ammeters? A. air friction B. electrostatic damping

C. fluid friction D. eddy current damping ANSWER: D 61. Induction type instruments are mostly used as A. voltmeter B. ammeter C. wattmeter D. watt-hour meter ANSWER: D 62. In indicating instruments, what will happen to the controlling torque if the deflection becomes greater? A. increases B. decreases C. remains unchanged D. drops to zero ANSWER: A 63. The force(s) that is(are) acting on the pointer of an indicating instrument as it rest on its final deflected position. (Note: damping torque is 0). A. controlling torque B. deflecting torque C. damping torque D. A & B above ANSWER: D 64. What is(are) the force(s) acting on the pointer of an indicating instrument when it is in motion? A. controlling and deflecting torques B. damping and deflecting torques C. controlling and damping torques D. controlling, damping, deflecting torques ASNWER: D 65. Material that is mostly used as a pointer in indicating instruments. A. soft iron B. aluminum C. silver D. stainless ANSWER: B 66. A Kelvin electrostatic voltmeter uses what method of damping? A. fluid friction B. spring action C. mechanical friction D. eddy-current damping ANSWER: A 67. Shunts in meters should have a _________ temperature coefficient of resistan ce. A. positive B. negative C. very small D. very large ANSWER: C 68. In a moving coil ammeter, a _________ is connected in series with the soil t o compensate for temperature variations. A. limiting resistor B. shunt resistor

C. multiplier D. swamping resistor ANSWER: D 69. Where can we use the dynamometer? A. dc only B. ac only C. dc and ac D. peak measurement ANSWER: C 70. What is the meter that depends for its operation on the forces of attraction and repulsion between electrically charged bodies? A. induction instrument B. electrostatic instrument C. moving-magnet instrument D. DArsonval meter movement ANSWER: B 71. What do you call of an instrument that depends for its operation on the reac tion between magnetic flux set up by currents in fixed windings and other curren ts set up by electromagnetic induction in movable conducting parts? A. induction instrument B. electrostatic instrument C. moving-magnet instrument D. DArsonval meter movement ANSWER: A 72. A meter for its operation, it depends on a movable iron vane which aligns it self in the resultant field of a permanent magnet and an adjacent current carryi ng coil. A. induction instrument B. electrostatic instrument C. moving-magnet instrument D. permanent-magnet moving coil-instrument ANSWER: D 73. What is the measuring instrument that uses the force of repulsion between fi xed and movable magnetized iron vanes, or the force between a coil and a pivoted vane-shaped piece of soft iron to move the indicating pointer? A. pyrometer B. vane-type instrument C. electrostatic instrument D. moving-magnet instrument ANSWER: B 74. Its an electrostatic voltmeter in which an assembly of figure 8 shaped metal plates rotates between the plates of a stationary assembly when a voltage is app lied between the assemblies. The length of the arc of rotation is proportional t o the electrostatic attraction and thus, to the applied voltage. A. varmeter B. variometer C. potentiometer D. Kelvin voltmeter ANSWER: D 75. What is that instrument used for measuring the strength and direction of mag netic fields? A. varmeter B. potentiometer C. magnetometer

D. Kelvin voltmeter ANSWER: C 76. What do you call of that instrument used for measuring reactive power in var s? A. varmeter B. pyrometer C. reactive volt-ampere meter D. A or C is correct ANSWER: D 77. What is this instrument or circuit that has four or more arms, by means of w hich one or more of the electrical constants of an unknown component may be meas ured? A. bridge B. Hazeltine circuit C. Loftin White circuit D. DArsonval meter movement ANSWER: A 78. A four-arm bridge. Al arms of which are predominantly resistive; used for me asuring resistance. A. bridge B. resistance bridge C. Wheatstone bridge D. B or C is correct ANSWER: D 79. This is the method of using a Wheatstone bridge to determine the distance fr om the test point to a fault in a telephone or telegraph line or cable. A. Mesh B. Varley loop C. Batten system D. Cordonnier system ANSWER: B 80. This refers to a four-arm ac bridge used for measuring inductance against a standard capacitance. A. Maxwell bridge B. slide-wire bridge C. resistance bridge D. Wheatstone bridge ANSWER: A 81. Refers to an ac bridge for measuring the inductance and Q of an inductor in terms of resistance, frequency and a standard capacitance. A. Hay bridge B. Maxwell bridge C. slide-wire bridge D. Wheatstone bridge ANSWER: A 82. This is a special bridge for measuring very low resistance (0.1 or less). The arrangement of the bridge reduces the effects of contact resistance, which caus es significant error when such low resistances are connected to conventional res istances bridges. A. Hay bridge B. Maxwell bridge C. Wheatstone bridge D. Kelvin double bridge

ANSWER: D 83. A type of four-arm capacitance bridge in which the unknown capacitance is co mpared with a standard capacitance. This bridge is frequently employed in testin g electrolytic capacitors, to which a dc polarizing voltage is applied during th e measurement. What is this bridge? A. Hay bridge B. Maxwell bridge C. Schering bridge D. Wheatstone bridge ANSWER: C 84. What do you call of that frequency-sensitive bridge in which two adjacent ar ms are resistances and the other two arms are RC combinations? A. Hay bridge B. Wein bridge C. Maxwell bridge D. Schering bridge ANSWER: B 85. When the capacitors of a Wein bridge are replaced by inductors, the bridge b ecomes A. Wein-bridge filter B. variometer C. Schering bridge D. Wein inductance bridge ANSWER: D 86. A simplified version of the Wheatstone bridge wherein, two of the ratio arms are replaced by a 100 cm long Manganin of uniform cross-sections and provided w ith a slider. A. Hay bridge B. Schering bridge C. slide-wire bridge D. Wein inductance bridge ANSWER: C 87. Bridge used to measure both inductive and capacitive impedances at higher fr equencies. A. Hay bridge B. Schering bridge C. Wein bridge D. radio-frequency bridge ANSWER: D 88. A bridge wherein all legs are electrically identical A. balance bridge B. balance circuit C. balance line D. all of the above ANSWER: A 89. Comparison between dc and ac measuring instruments A. generally, ac instruments are less sensitive than dc instruments B. errors such as induced emfs, frequency variations, and harmonic-current compo nents are only present in ac instruments C. in ac instruments, higher value of current is needed than in dc instruments t o produce the same deflection D. all of these are correct ANSWER: D

90. What is an electronic instrument capable of showing on screen and maybe on p rint, relative spacing of transmitter carriers, their sidebands and harmonics? A. Counters B. Spectrum analyzer C. Triggered oscilloscope D. Multimeter ANSWER: B 91. An instrument capable of displaying simultaneously the amplitude of signals having different frequencies. A. oscilloscope B. spectrum analyzer C. VTVM D. Logic analyzer ANSWER: B 92. Spectrum analyzer is A. a real-time analyzer B. a non-real time analyzer C. the same as a wave analyzer in all aspects D. an instrument not dependent on frequency ANSWER: A 93. Indications of spectrum analyzer is presented by means of A. a moving meter B. an iron vane C. a CRT D. a LED ANSWER: C 94. An electronic measuring device that provide instantaneous visual indication of voltage excursions. A. voltmeter B. power meter C. oscilloscope D. power line meter ANSWER: C 95. An instrument that is capable of displaying waveforms by means of fluorescen ce in a CRT. A. oscilloscope B. wave analyzer C. spectrum analyzer D. distortion analyzer ANSWER: A 96. Types of oscilloscopes that are able retain the display for a longer period for analysis. The display is retained by the use of flood gun. A. sampling oscilloscope B. digital storage oscilloscope C. storage oscilloscope D. delayed sweep oscilloscope ANSWER: C 97. What do call an oscilloscope that uses sampling technique in processing sign als having frequencies beyond its normal capabilities? A. sampling oscilloscope B. digital storage oscilloscope C. storage oscilloscope D. delayed sweep oscilloscope

ANSWER: A 98. Generally, oscilloscope uses what type of deflection? A. magnetic deflection B. electromagnetic deflection C. static deflection D. electrostatic deflection ANSWER: D 99. A device or instrument, which delivers signals of pre3cise frequency and amp litude, usually over a wide range. A. synthesizer B. frequency generators C. signal generators D. modulators ANSWER: C 100. The two most common audio oscillators are A. Wein bridge and Colpitts B. Wein bridge and phase-shift C. Colpitts and Hartley D. Hartley and phase-shift ANSWER: B 101. What are the two most popular RF oscillators A. Wein bridge and Colpitts B. Wein bridge and phase-shift C. Colpitts and Hartley D. Hartley and phase-shift ANSWER: C 102. A device or instrument able to generate noise with accurate voltage for tes t purposes. A. signal generator B. synthesizer C. frequency generator D. noise generator ANSWER: D 103. When do you need a noise generator? A. When starting an oscillators B. When evaluating noise performance of an oscillator C. When evaluating noise characteristics of an amplifier D. When performing modulation analysis ANSWER: C 104. In RF or microwave system, what instrument is used to measure the incidenta l and reflected signals. A. oscilloscope B. reflectometer C. incident-wave meter D. spectrum analyzer ANSWER: B 105. A type of photometer used to measure reflection. A. photodiode B. reflectometer C. incident-wave meter D. LED

ANSWER: B 106. A tunable RF instrument, which, by means of a sharp dip of an indicating me ter, indicates resonance with an external circuit under test. A. reflectometer B. inclinometer C. dip meter D. Grid-dip meter ANSWER: C 107. A type of dip meter employing a vacuum tube oscillator, whose indicating dc microammeter is in the grid circuit. A. reflectometer B. inclinometer C. dip meter D. Grid-dip meter ANSWER: D 108. In meter movement, how do you prevent the meter from oscillation and oversw ing? A. by shorting B. by coupling C. by swamping D. by damping ANSWER: D 109. When the meter is insufficiently damped, it is considered as A. underdamped B. overdamped C. critically damped D. negatively damped ANSWER: A 110. A meter when _______ damped will become insensitive to small signals. A. underdamped B. overdamped C. critically damped D. negatively damped ANSWER: B Test 7 Solid State 1. One type of circuit control device which may be manual, automatic or multi-co ntact A. fuse B. breaker C. switch D. relay ANSWER: B 2. What are the primary methods of controlling electrical power? A. by using manual switches and rheostats B. by using variable reactance and transformers C. by using electronic switches, such as diodes, transistors thyratrons, and thy ristors D. all of the above ANSWER: D 3. Common method(s) of controlling electrical power with reactance A. switching a tapped inductor B. using a saturable reactor

C. by a matching transformer D. A and B above ANSWER: D 4. A reactive device used in controlling electrical power by using two windings on a common iron core. The control winding is supplied with small dc-current whi ch causes the reactance of large ac-winding to change accordingly. A. tapped inductor B. saturable reactor C. auto transformer D. LVDT ANSWER: B 5. A saturable reactor with regenerative feedback. A. tapped inductor B. auto transformer C. LVDT D. magnetic amplifier ANSWER: D 6. Thyratrons in industrial electronics refers to ____________. A. a gas-filled diode B. a vacuum tube C. gas-filled triode D. an electron triode ANSWER: C 7. An electronic switch that has the highest single-device current capacity and can withstand overloads better. A. Thyristors B. ignitrons C. SCR D. triac ANSWER: B 8. A semiconductor, electronic switch that has the highest single-device current rating A. thyristor B. triac C. SCR D. Quadric ANSWER: C 9. The purpose of installing thyrectors across the incoming power lines to the s peed control system is to ___________ A. cause the motor to caution B. protect drive circuits from high voltage transient surges C. increase the counter emf D. allow the field winding current to continue flowing ANSWER: B 10. Semiconductor devices equivalent to thyratrons are generally called A. thyrector B. thyristor C. diac D. ignitron ANSWER: B 11. Using electronic devices as switches, what is(are) the general methods of co ntrolling electrical power?

A. B. C. D.

phase control zero-voltage switching static switching all of the above

ANSWER: D 12. Which power control switching method that greatly generates RFI or EMI and i s therefore limited to low-frequency applications? A. phase control B. zero-voltage switching C. inverter control D. static switching ANSWER: A 13. One of the electronic semiconductor devices known as diac, function as A. four terminal multi-directional switch B. two terminal bi-directional switch C. two terminal unidirectional switch D. three terminal bi-directional switch ANSWER: B 14. Which of the trigger diodes has the highest holding voltage? A. bidirectional-trigger diac B. bidirectional-diode-thyristor diac C. Shockley diode D. thyrector ANSWER: A 15. General term of electronic devices used to control or trigger large-power sw itching devices. A. thyristor B. thyrector C. break-over devices D. triggering devices ANSWER: C 16. A break-over device that is basically a diode. A. thyristor B. thyrector C. thyratron D. triggering diode ANSWER: D 17. A four-element solid state device that combi9nes the characteristics of both diodes and transistors A. varactor B. zener diode C. tunnel diode D. SCR ANSWER: D 18. The most popular thyristor used in electrical power controllers A. SCR B. triac C. SCS D. PUT ANSWER: A 19. Find the two stable operating conditions of an SCR. A. Conducting and non-conducting

B. Oscillating and quiescent C. NPN conduction and PNP conduction D. Forward conducting and reverse conducting ANSWER: A 20. How do you stop conduction during which SCR is also conducting? A. remove voltage gate B. increase cathode voltage C. interrupt anode current D. reduce gate current ANSWER: C 21. How do we turn ON or trigger an SCR? A. by making the gate (G) positive with respect to its cathode (K) B. by making the gate (G) positive with respect to its anode (A) C. by making the cathode more positive with respect to the anode D. A and C above ANSWER: A 22. What is true about SCRs after they are being switched ON? A. The anode (A) to cathode (K) continues to conduct even if the gate triggering voltage is removed. B. The gate (G) must be provided with the required holding current to continue i ts conduction. C. A small holding voltage at the gate is required for a continuous conduction. D. B and C above ANSWER: A 23. The voltage across the anode (A) and cathode (K) terminals of an SCR when co nducting. A. holding voltage B. breakdown voltage C. breakback voltage D. trigger voltage ANSWER: A 24. The minimum amount of current needed for an SCR to conduct continuously. A. holding current B. triggering current C. threshold current D. average sustaining current ANSWER: A 25. What is(are) the condition(s) A. The gate voltage must be equal B. The gate current must be equal C. The anode (A) must be positive D. all of the above in triggering SCR? to or greater than the triggering voltage. to or greater than the triggering current. with respect to the cathode.

ANSWER: D 26. The voltage decreased across the anode (A) and cathode (K) of an SCR from no n-conducting state to conducting state. A. holding voltage B. forward breakdown voltage C. triggering voltage D. breakback voltage ANSWER: D 27. An SCR rated 10 A is used as the controlling switch in a circuit powered by 50Vdc. When the SCR fires ON, its anode (A) to cathode (K) voltage was observed

to A. B. C. D.

be 25 32 41 48

2 V. Calculate the breakback voltage of the SCR. Vdc Vdc Vdc Vdc

ANSWER: D 28. The needed voltage at the gate of an SCR before it conducts. A. minimum-gate trigger voltage B. maximum-gate trigger voltage C. minimum-gate peak-inverse voltage D. maximum-gate peak-inverse voltage ANSWER: A 29. What is(are) the gate limitation(s) of SCRs and triacs? A. maximum-gate power dissipation B. maximum-gate peak-inverse voltage C. maximum-gate trigger current and voltage D. all of the above ANSWER: D 30. How can we extend the rating of SCRs? A. by external cooling B. by external circuitry C. by connecting them in series/parallel D. all of the above ANSWER: D 31. Use of heat sinks, forced air, and water cooling are examples of external co oling in SCRs and other devices. Which of these is the only recommended to be us ed for the largest power dissipating device? A. metal heat sinks B. forced air C. water cooling D. A and B above ANSWER: C 32. How can we increase the forward-voltage blocking capability of SCRs? A. by connecting them in series B. by connecting them in parallel C. by cascading them D. by connecting back to back in parallel ANSWER: A 33. In connecting two SCRs in series, during OFF state, the voltage source must be properly shared between them, but due to devices differences, there might be une qual voltages across each SCR. How do we equalize these voltages? A. by installing a snubber circuit B. by adding a gate-to-cathode resistor C. by shunting a capacitor across the anode (A) and cathode (K) of each SCR D. by using a blocking-equalizing resistor ANSWER: D 34. What is true regarding blocking-equalizing resistors in SCRs connected in se ries? A. Blocking-equalizing resistors are shunted across each SCR. B. The value of these resistors is about 10% of the value of the blocking resist ance of the SCR it is shunted with. C. These resistors increases the leakage current towards the load.

D. All of the above ANSWER: D 35. A circuit used for voltage equalization during ON-OFF switching action of SC Rs in series. A. snubber circuit B. crow-bar C. clipper D. clamper ANSWER: A 36. When a high current is needed, SCRs are connected in parallel. The problem w ith paralleled SCRs is, when they are not perfectly matched, one will conduct fi rst before the other and carries the full-load current that is for sure greater than its maximum rating. To avoid this situation, both SCRs should be turned ON at the same time. How can we do this? A. by using high triggering gate voltage B. by using a gate-triggering transformer C. by using reactors D. all of the above are possible ANSWER: D 37. In controlling electrical power using phase control method with SCR/triac be ing the active device, what do we call the period of the cycle before the device switches to conduction? A. trigger time B. trigger delay time C. firing frequency D. firing delay angle ANSWER: D 38. How many times per second does an SCR is turned ON and OFF when it is operat ed in a full-wave phase control at a line frequency of 60 Hz? A. 30 times B. 60 times (HV) C. 90 times D. 120 times (FW) ANSWER: D 39. A three terminal device that behaves roughly like SCR, except that it can co nduct current in either direction when at ON. A. thyristor B. SUS C. SBS D. GTO ANSWER: C 40. What is the difference between a triac and a silicon bilateral switch (SBS)? A. An SBS is usually used as breakover device, while a triac is a load controlli ng device. B. An SBS is for low voltage applications, while a triac is generally for high v oltage applications. C. An SBS has better and stable symmetrical-firing voltage than a triac. D. all of the above ANSWER: D 41. A triac can be triggered ON by the application of a A. positive voltage at the gate with respect to MT1 B. negative voltage at the gate with respect to MT1

C. positive or negative gate voltage with respect to MT2 D. all of the above are correct ANSWER: D 42. Which are the three terminals of a TRIAC? A. Gate, anode 1 and anode 2 B. Gate, source and sink C. Base, emitter and collector D. Emitter, base 1 and base 2 ANSWER: A 43. What are the three terminals of a triac? A. anode 1 (A1), anode 2 (A2) and gate (G) B. mainterminal 1 (MT1), mainterminal 2 (MT2), and gate (G) C. anode (A), cathode (K) and gate (G) D. both A and B are acceptable ANSWER: D 44. A silicon bilateral switch may be considered as s small power triac, and has three terminals namely, A. anode 1 (A1), anode 2 (A2) and gate (G) B. mainterminal 1 (MT1), mainterminal 2 (MT2), and gate (G) C. anode (A), cathode (K) and gate (G) D. both A and B are acceptable ANSWER: D 45. A thyristor that is very similar to an SCR except that it has low voltage an d current ratings. It is very temperature stable, and is therefore suitable to b e used as triggering device. A. UJT B. GTO C. SBS D. SUS ANSWER: D 46. Silicon unilateral switches (SUSs) generally have a breakover voltage of 8 V , however, this value can be altered by normally connecting a zener diode. How i s the diode installed? A. across the gate (G) and cathode (K) terminals, with the diodes anode at the ga te B. anode to anode, cathode to cathode C. diodes cathode to SUSs anode and diodes anode to SUSs cathode D. diodes cathode to SUSs gate and diodes anode to SUSs cathode ANSWER: D 47. A silicon unilateral switch (SUS) has a forward breakover voltage of 8 V. a zener diode is connected between its gate and cathode terminals with the diodes c athode at SUSs gate. If the zener voltage is 3.9 V, what is the new forward break over voltage of the device? A. 0.49 V B. 2.05 V C. 4.50 V D. 11.9 V ANSWER: C 48. Thyristor whose characteristic curve closely resembles that of SCRs and SUSs, except that its forward breakover voltage (+VBO) is not alterable, for the devic e has no gate terminal. A. diac B. thyrector

C. UJT D. Shockley diode ANSWER: D 49. What will happen to the forward breakdown or breakover voltage of SCRs and t riacs if the gate current is increased? A. will decrease B. will also increase C. will not change D. will either increase or decrease, it depends on their current coefficient ANSWER: A 50. A UJT or unijunction transistor is a three terminal breakover-type switching device. Its three terminals are called base 1, base 2, and emitter. Though this is a transistor and has base and emitter terminals, this operates very differen t from a BJT and is not used as a linear amplifier. Its applications are for A. timers and oscillators B. signal generators C. triggering control for SCRs and triacs D. all of the above ANSWER: D 51. A UJT has an internal resistances of RB1 = 6 K and RB2 = 3 K, what is its inte rbase resistance? A. 2 K B. 3 K C. 6 K D. 9 K ANSWER: D 52. For a unijunction transistor (UJT) to witch ON A. the base 1 voltage should be greater than the peak voltage B. the base 2 voltage should be greater than the peak voltage C. the emitter voltage should be greater than the peak voltage D. the voltage between the emitter and base 1 should be greater than the peak vo ltage when emitter being more positive ANSWER: D 53. Semiconductor devices with inherent ON-OFF behavior and has no linear operat ing regions are called thryistors. Examples are SCRs, triacs, SUSs, SBSs, Shockl ey diodes, diacs, PUTs, and SCSs. In selecting thyristors for a particular appli cation, which of the statement below is generally desirable? A. thyristors with high current and voltage ratings B. thyristors with high holding current/voltage C. faster thyristors D. thyristors with high breakback-voltage ANSWER: D 54. Why does thyristors with high breakback voltage desirable? A. it dissipates less power B. it generates less heat C. it is more efficient D. all of the above ANSWER: D 55. Portion in the welding process interval during which the welding current is flowing is called ____________. A. cool sub-interval B. released interval C. squeeze interval

D. heat sub-interval ANSWER: D 56. In automatic welding system, basically there are how many intervals? A. 2 B. 5 C. 10 D. 15 ANSWER: B 57. In automatic welding what do you call the first interval wherein the materia l to be welded are held together? A. squeeze interval B. weld interval C. hold interval D. standby interval ANSWER: A 58. After the squeeze interval, what comes next in an automatic welding system? A. squeeze interval B. weld interval C. hold interval D. standby interval ANSWER: B 59. During the welding or weld interval, when a welding current is flowing the s ystem is said to be at A. weld interval B. cool subinterval C. heat subinterval D. hold interval ANSWER: C 60. The portion of the weld interval during which the current is absent A. cool subinterval B. heat subinterval C. hold interval D. standby interval ANSWER: A 61. After the welding interval, it goes to _________ interval wherein the electr ode pressure is maintained on the metal surfaces. A. cool subinterval B. heat subinterval C. hold interval D. standby interval ANSWER: C 62. Next to hold interval is __________ interval in automatic welding system. A. squeeze B. cool C. standby D. release ANSWER: D 63. After the release interval in automatic welding, the system will go to A. cool interval B. squeeze interval C. standby interval

D. hold interval ANSWER: C 64. Refers to the system that has no feedback and is not self correcting A. Close-loop system B. Coal slurry system C. Feed forward control system D. Open-loop system ANSWER: D 65. The system is ____________ if a position servo system does not respond to sm all changes in the input. A. under stabilized B. underdamped C. stabilized D. overdamped ANSWER: D 66. What is the purpose of using a differential synchro instead of a regular syn chro? A. Handles more signals only B. Performs addition and subtraction function only C. Differential synchros can handle more signals and also performs addition and subtraction function D. Handles two signals only ANSWER: C 67. Industrial circuit or system that is not self-correcting A. open-loop B. closed-loop C. system with feed back D. non-servo ANSWER: A 68. What do you call a circuit or system that is self-correcting? A. open-loop B. closed-loop C. system without feed back D. servo ANSWER: B 69. Open-loop in control system means: A. it has no feedback B. it is not self-correcting C. it is not self-regulating D. all are correct ANSWER: D 70. In control system, closed-loop means: A. it has feedback B. it is self-correcting C. it is self-regulating D. all are correct ANSWER: D 71. When a closed-loop system is used to maintain physical position it is referr ed as A. gyro system B. feedback system C. servo system

D. differential system ANSWER: C 72. In closed-loop system, what do you call the difference in the measured value and the set value or desired value? A. error B. differential voltage C. potential difference D. threshold ANSWER: A 73. Error signal in closed-system is also known as A. difference signal B. deviation C. system deviation D. all are correct ANSWER: D 74. In a closed-loop control system, when the error signal is zero the system is at A. null B. saturation C. cut-off D. halt ANSWER: A 75. The small error signal or system deviation where the system cannot correct a nymore A. threshold B. holding C. offset D. bias ANSWER; C 76. A good closed-loop control system has the following characteristics A. with very small offset signal or voltage B. quick response C. highly stable D. all are correct ANSWER: D 77. In control system, the manner in which the controller reacts to an error is termed as A. mode of operation B. type of operation C. mode of control D. reaction style ANSWER: C 78. What are the general basic modes of control in control system? A. On-Off B. Proportional C. Proportional plus integral D. Proportional plus derivative ANSWER: D 79. Mode of control wherein the controller has only two operating states. This m ode is also known as bang-bang control. A. On-Off

B. Proportional C. Proportional plus integral D. Proportional plus derivative ANSWER: A 80. ____________ is a mode of control wherein the controller has a continuous ra nge of possible position, not just two as in bang-bang control. A. On-Off B. Proportional C. Proportional plus integral D. Proportional plus derivative ANSWER: B 81. Proportional mode of control wherein the controller is not only considering the magnitude of the error signal but as well as the time that is has persisted. A. B. C. D. On-Off Proportional Proportional plus integral * Proportional plus derivative

ANSWER: C 82. Proportional mode of control wherein the controller is not only considering the magnitude of the error signal but as well as its rate of change. A. Proportional B. Proportional plus integral C. Proportional plus derivative * D. Proportional plus integral plus derivative ANSWER: C 83. What is (are) being considered in Proportional plus Integral plus Derivative (PID) mode of control? A. error signal magnitude B. error signal period of occurrence C. error signal rate of change D. all are considered * ANSWER: D 84. If On-Off mode of control is the simplest, what is its opposite or the most complex? A. Proportional B. Proportional plus integral C. Proportional plus derivative D. Proportional plus integral plus derivative * ANSWER: D 85. The __________ are two of the most common mechanical configuration of indust rial robots. A. Spherical and pneumatic B. Articulated arm and cylindrical * C. Spherical and hydraulic D. Jointed-arm and electric ANSWER: B 86. One advantage of hydraulic actuator in industrial robots include ___________ __. A. great force capability handling heavy loads * B. lower operating cost than the other type C. low initial cost than the other type D. clean-no oil leaks

ANSWER: A 87. ____________ includes tow of the actuator type used in industrial robots. A. Pneumatic and Jointed-arm B. Hydraulic and Pneumatic C. Electric and Spherical D. Hydraulic and Cylindrical ANSWER: B 88. A system in which the precise movement of a large load is controlled by a re latively weak signal. A. hydraulic B. electro C. synchro D. servo ANSWER: D 89. A programmable, multifunction manipulator designed to move materials, parts, tools or specific devices. A. Industrial robot B. Android C. Actuator D. End effector ANSWER: A 90. The technology for automations A. avionics B. cryogenics C. cryotronics D. robotics ANSWER: D 91. What is(are) the common mechanical configurations for industrial robots? A. articulated-arm or jointed-arm B. spherical configuration C. cylindrical configuration D. all of these ANSWER: D 92. The number of axis a robot is free to move is called A. freedom axis B. degrees of freedom C. movement degrees D. mechanical axis ANSWER: B 93. Actuators used in industrial robots A. electric motors B. fluid motors C. fluid cylinders D. all of these are correct ANSWER: D 94. Which of the actuators that has the greatest force capability? A. electric B. hydraulic fluid C. pneumatic D. magnetic ANSWER: B

95. Actuator that requires the highest initial cost: A. electric B. hydraulic C. pneumatic D. magnetic ANSWER: B 96. Robot actuator that has the highest operating cost: A. electric B. hydraulic C. pneumatic D. magnetic ANSWER: B 97. The most messy robot actuator: A. electric B. hydraulic C. pneumatic D. magnetic ANSWER: B 98. Advantages of electric actuators: A. Lower initial cost than either hydraulic or pneumatic B. Much lower operating cost than hydraulic C. Accurate positioning and good velocity control D. All of these are correct ANSWER: D 99. Advantages of pneumatic actuators: A. lower initial and operating cost than hydraulic actuators B. Clean, no oil leaks C. Quick response D. All are correct ANSWER: D 100. Advantages of hydraulic actuators A. Great holding strength when stopped B. Accurate positioning and good velocity control C. Intrinsically safe in flammable environment such as painting D. All of these are correct ANSWER: D 101. Disadvantages of pneumatic actuators: A. Weak force capability B. Not so much holding strength when stopped as compared to hydraulic system C. Accurate positioning and velocity control is impossible D. All of these are correct ANSWER: D 102. Disadvantages of electric actuators in industrial robots: A. Less force capability as compared to hydraulic system B. Very little holding strength when stopped which causes a heavy load to sag C. Usually requires mechanical brakes D. All are correct ANSWER: D 103. A robot software or program that produces only two-position motion for a gi ven robot axis.

A. B. C. D.

positive-stop point-to-point continuous-path hard interrupt

ANSWER: A 104. A robot program that has the ability to move a robot to any position within the range but without specific path. A. positive-stop program B. point-to-point program C. continuous path program D. compound program ANSWER: B 105. A robot program that has the ability to move a robot to any position within the range with specific path. A. positive-stop program B. point-to-point program C. continuous path program D. compound program ANSWER: C 106. When a robot moves on several axis at the same time, it is to have A. intrinsic motion B. extrinsic motion C. compound motion D. universal motion ANSWER: C 107. In robotics, SCARA means: A. Selective Compliant Articulated Robot Arm B. Selective Compliant Assembly Robot Arm C. Selective Computer-Actuated Robot Arm D. A and B are correct ANSWER: D 108. SCARA Robots has how many axis of motion? A. 2 B. 4 C. 6 D. 8 ANSWER: B 109. SCARA Robots are designed for what applications? A. Machining B. Welding C. Assembling D. Handling heavy loads ANSWER: C 110. Why is SCARA Robot attractive in industry? A. because it is relatively cheaper B. because it can carry very heavy loads C. because it has unlimited movement D. all of the above ANSWER: A Test 8 Computers

1. A. B. C. D.

An English mathematician who invented the slide rule in 1622. Blaise Pascal Clifford Berry Charges Babage William Oughtred

ANSWER: D 2. Built a computer in 1946 at the Institute of Advance Study (IAS), Princeton, USA, that uses binary numbers and stores information. A. Vannevar Bush B. John Van Neumann C. John Atannasoff D. Clifford Berry ANSWER: B 3. An electronic device design to accept data performs prescribed computational and logical operations at high speed and output the results of this operation. A. Compiler B. Simulator C. Computer D. Digital machine ANSWER: C 4. First commercial computer introduce in 1953 that uses valves. A. IBM-1400 B. UNIVAC C. IBM-701 D. ENIAC ANSWER: B 5. The first electronic computer and was completed in 1946. A. ENIAC B. UNIVAC C. EDVAC D. Whirlwind I ANSWER: A 6. ENIAC was developed at A. University of Pennsylvania B. Massachusetts Institute of Technology C. Cambridge University D. Bell Laboratories ANSWER: A 7. Who constructed ENIAC and UNIVAC? A. William Oughtred B. Presper Eckert and John W. Mauchly C. John von Neumann D. William Oughtred and Jon von Neumann ANSWER: B 8. A. B. C. D. ENIAC consist of how many vacuum tubes? 1,500 tubes 3,575 tubes 13,575 tubes 18,000 tubes

ANSWER: D 9. ENIAC could perform _________ additions or up to _________ multiplications pe

r second. A. 1,000 / B. 1,500 / C. 3,000 / D. 5,000 /

100 150 300 500

ANSWER: D 10. Whirlwind I, develop at Massachusetts Institute of Technology is capable of _________ operations per second. A. 1,000 B. 5,000 C. 10,000 D. 20,000 ANSWER: D 11. Refers to the increased use of data conversion circuits as a result of incre ased application. A. Op Amps B. Linear circuit C. Computers D. Digital equipment ANSWER: C 12. What is a group of circuits that provides timing and signals to all operatio ns in the computer? A. Output unit B. Memory unit C. Control unit D. Input unit ANSWER: C 13. Refers to the part of computer that performs mathematical operations. A. CPU B. Flip-flop C. Assembly language D. ALU ANSWER: D 14. What does ALU which carries arithmetic and logic operations process? A. Binary coded decimal B. Hexadecimal numbers C. Octal numbers D. Binary numbers ANSWER: D 15. What is the smallest part of a computer language? A. binary B. byte C. bit D. word ANSWER: C 16. A digital word consisting of only four bits is called a A. dibit B. quad C. pixel D. nibble ANSWER: D 17. Electronics methodology in solving application problems using circuits, in w

hich there are only two possible voltage levels. A. digital electronics B. switching techniques C. state diagramming D. bistable electronics ANSWER: A 18. In digital electronics, there are mainly two possible voltage levels and the se make _____ number system to be useful in its analysis. A. binary B. octal C. hexadecimal D. all of the above ANSWER: A 19. 1 and 0 in binary number system are used to represent the two different volt age levels or logic levels in digital circuits. However, in most applications, a long string of 1s and 0s occur, and makes the data presentation nasty. To condense this long string of 1s and 0s, the ___________ number system is (are) also used. A. octal B. decimal C. hexadecimal D. all of the above ANSWER: D 20. How many symbols are used in octal digital number system? A. 16 B. 4 C. 8 D. 2 ANSWER: C 21. How many symbols does hexadecimal digital number system used? A. 16 B. 4 C. 8 D. 32 ANSWER: A 22. What is the equivalent of decimal number 11 in binary? A. 1101 B. 1110 C. 1111 D. 1011 ANSWER: D 23. Which of the following is not used in hexadecimal digital symbols? A. A B. C C. H D. F ANSWER: C 24. What is the equivalent of decimal 7 in octal? A. 21 B. 49 C. 7 D. 14 ANSWER: C 25. The decimal 36020 is equivalent to hexadecimal ___________.

A. B. C. D.

8CB4 88BC 8BC8 884C

ANSWER: A 26. What is the equivalent of decimal 14 in binary? A. 1110 B. 1011 C. 1101 D. 1111 ANSWER: A 27. The code 1011 in BCD is A. 24 B. Letter A C. 11 D. Invalid ANSWER: D 28. Conversion from binary to octal number system needs a grouping of bits by A. Two B. Three C. Four D. Five ANSWER: B 29. Convert the given binary number 1010011.01 to octal system. A. 511.1 B. 511.2 C. 123.1 D. 123.2 ANSWER: D 30. What is the hexadecimal equivalent of the binary number 1010011.01? A. 53.4 B. 53.1 C. A6.1 D. A6.4 ANSWER: A 31. The most practical way of converting hexadecimal numbers to binary is to giv e each number its _________ equivalent bits. A. Two B. Three C. Four D. Five ANSWER: 32. The A. 1110 B. 1110 C. 1101 D. 1101 C binary equivalent of the hexadecimal number ECE.5 1100 1110.0101 1100 1110.101 1100 1101.101 1100 1101.0101

ANSWER: A 33. Convert (1111 1111 1111 1111)2 to decimal number. A. 32 767 B. 32 768 C. 65 535

D. 65 536 ANSWER: C 34. Find the sum of binary number 1010 and 0011. A. 1021 B. 1101 C. 1011 D. 1111 ANSWER: B 35. Get the sum of (110.1101)2 and (11.01)2. A. 1010.0101 B. 1010.0001 C. 1101.0101 D. 0111.1010 ANSWER: B 36. What is the difference between the given binary numbers, 110.1101 and 11.01? A. B. C. D. 110.0000 111.1010 11.1010 11.1001

ANSWER: D 37. Find the radix-minus one complement of (110.1101)2. A. 111.0010 B. 010.0011 C. 1.001 D. 001.0010 ANSWER: D 38. Give the true complements of (1101.1100)2. A. 0010.0011 B. 10.0011 C. 10.01 D. 0010.0100 ANSWER: D 39. Mathematics used in expressing, analyzing, and designing of digital electron ic circuits. A. Boolean algebra B. Numerical methods C. Statistical approach D. Logical mathematics ANSWER: A 40. Method(s) used in simplifying Boolean algebra. A. Karnaugh map B. Map-entered variable technique C. Quine-McCluskey tabular method D. All of the above ANSWER: D 41. Karnaugh map is the most commonly used method in simplifying Boolean express ion or logical functions. In this method only 1s and 0s are entered into the table , while ________ includes variables into the table. A. Boolean algebra B. Map-entered variable technique C. Superposition method

D. Quine-McCluskey tabular method ANSWER: B 42. A suitable method in simplifying Boolean expression when the system deals wi th more than six variables. A. Boolean algebra B. Karnaugh map C. Map-entered variable technique D. Quine-McCluskey tabular method ANSWER: D 43. What level is used to represent logic 1 in a negative logic circuit? A. negative transition level B. low level C. positive transition level D. high level ANSWER: B 44. What level is used to represent logic 0 in a negative logic circuit? A. high level B. low level C. negative transition level D. positive transition level ANSWER: A 45. _________ is a gate which has two or more low inputs signals to get a low ou tput. A. AND B. Inverter C. OR D. NAND ANSWER: C 46. What is the logic circuit having two or more inputs but only output, with hi gh output of any or all inputs are high, with low output only if all inputs are low? A. AND gate B. OR gate C. NOR gate D. NAND gate ANSWER: B 47. A logic gate whose output is HIGH when a single HIGH at its input is present . A. OR gate B. NOR gate C. AND gate D. NAND gate ANSWER: A 48. An output of logic zero can be generated by what logic gate(s) if all inputs are zero? A. OR gate B. AND gate C. NOR gate D. NAND gate ANSWER: A 49. Logic gate that generates an output of logic zero if and only if all inputs are zero.

A. B. C. D.

OR gate AND gate NOR gate NAND gate

ANSWER: A 50. A solid state device which only gives a 1 output if all inputs are also 1 is cal led A. an AND gate B. a NAND gate C. a NOR gate D. an OR gate ANSWER: A 51. Only when all inputs are logic one that this gate can delver an output of lo gic one. A. NOR gate B. AND gate C. NAND gate D. XOR gate ANSWER: B 52. A solid state logical device which only gives a 1 output if all inputs are 0 is called a _________ gate. A. NOT B. NOR C. NAND D. OR ANSWER: B 53. To cause a three-state buffer to output 0-1 levels, the following must be tr ue: A. The output enable must be false B. The output enable must be true C. The information must have been stored in the buffer D. The signal OE must be at logic 1 ANSWER: D 54. The rapidly flashing logic probe tip tells you that the logic node being pro be A. Has rapidly changing logic activity B. Is struck C. Is at an illegal logic level D. Has an unstable logic activity ANSWER: A 55. ______________ is a single bit comparator. A. Wired OR B. Exclusive OR C. NOR gate D. Exclusive NOR ANSWER: D 56. _____________ refers to the class of logic circuit containing flip-flops. A. Combinational B. Sequential C. Linear D. Feedback ANSWER: B

57. What is the counter that follows the binary sequence? A. Binary counter B. Simplex counter C. Shift counter D. Decimal counter ANSWER: A 58. What logic circuit is analogous to a single pole mechanical selector switch? A. B. C. D. Decoder Encoder Multiplexer Exclusive OR

ANSWER: C 59. An encoder is an MSI (medium-scale-integrated) circuit that A. Provides an output code that corresponds to which of a set of input line is t rue B. Provides a storage of a certain number of binary bits C. Selects a given output based on binary input code D. Provides for delivering one of two or more inputs to an output ANSWER: A 60. _____________ is called the time sharing of one line with multiplex signals. A. B. C. D. Simultaneous transmission Bi-directional Relay Multiplexing

ANSWER: D 61. Data selector is also called A. Encoder B. Decoder C. Multiplexer D. Demultiplexer ANSWER: C 62. _____________ refers to a function of a decade counter digital IC. A. Provides one output pulse for every 10 inputs pulses B. Adding two decimal numbers C. Producing 10 output pulses for every 1 pulse D. Decoding a decimal number for display on seven-segment ANSWER: A 63. ___________ refers to BCD counter: A. Decade counter B. Shift register C. Frequency divider D. Binary counter ANSWER: A 64. In a system with MOS devices, the main bus loading factor is likely to be A. B. C. D. Resistive Current Capacitive Static charge

ANSWER: C 65. When a logic circuit rejects an unwanted signal, this is termed as _________ __. A. Logic levels B. Noise margin C. Power consumption D. Propagation delay ANSWER: B 66. Speed of a logic circuit is normally expressed as _________. A. Logic levels B. Speed immunity C. Propagation delay D. Power consumption ANSWER: C 67. What is a multi-wire connection between digital circuits? A. Bus B. Wire wrap C. Multiplexed cable D. Cable ribbon ANSWER: A 68. What is the process used to describe analog-to-digital conversion? A. Binarize B. Linearize C. Digitize D. Analogize ANSWER: C 69. What is the process of converting multiple analog input signals sequentially to digital output? A. Time division multiplexing B. Analog to digital conversion C. Space division multiplexing D. Pulse code modulation ANSWER: A 70. What do you call a circuit that changes pure binary code into ASCII? A. Decoder B. Encoder C. Demultiplexer D. Code converter ANSWER: D 71. The output pulses of the logic pulser _________. A. Can damage logic circuits B. Are too many for the logic probe to respond to C. Can only force high nodes to low D. Can be used to overdrive logic nodes high or low ANSWER: D 72. Circuits used to implement Boolean expression or equations. A. Logic gates/circuits B. Digital circuits C. Binary circuits D. All of the above ANSWER: D

73. Logic gate whose output is HIGH when one or all of its inputs is LOW. A. OR gate B. NOR gate C. AND gate D. NAND gate ANSWER: D 74. What logic gate that generates an output of logic zero (LOW) only when all i ts inputs are logic one (HIGH)? A. OR gate B. NOR gate C. AND gate D. NAND gate ANSWER: D 75. Only when all inputs are LOW thus, this logic gate produces an output of HIG H. A. NOR gate B. NAND gate C. AND gate D. NOR and NAND ANSWER: A 76. A logic gate whose output is logic zero every time one of its inputs goes to logic one. A. NOR gate B. NAND gate C. XOR gate D. A and C ANSWER: A 77. Gate with HIGH output level every time one of its inputs goes LOW. A. NOR gate B. NAND gate C. XNOR gate D. B and C ANSWER: B 78. What logic gate that gives an output of logic one if there is an odd number of 1s at the input? A. NOR gate B. NAND gate C. XOR gate D. XNOR gate ANSWER: C 79. Logic gate that gives a HIGH output when the input has an even number of 1s. A. NOR B. NAND C. XOR D. XNOR ANSWER: D 80. A circuit that converts the input logic level to its complement. A. Inverter B. NOR gate with all inputs tied C. NAND gate with all inputs tied D. All of the above ANSWER: D

81. If the fan out of a logic gate is not enough, a/an ___________ should be use d. A. Inverter B. Amplifier C. Buffer D. Isolator ANSWER: C 82. A buffer multiplies the number of gates a certain output can drive, and this can also be used as a/an A. Voltage follower B. Current amplifier C. Isolator D. All of the above are correct ANSWER: D 83. Is considered as a controlled inverter. A. XOR B. NOR C. NAND D. AND ANSWER: A 84. A logic gate that can be wired to function like any other gate. A. International gate B. Flexible gate C. Variable gate D. Universal gate ANSWER: D 85. Known as universal gates. A. OR and AND B. AND and NAND C. OR and NOR D. NOR and NAND ANSWER: D 86. How many NAND-gates are needed to have an AND function? A. 2 B. 3 C. 4 D. 5 ANSWER: A 87. The number of NAND-gates needed to form an OT-gate. A. 2 B. 3 C. 4 D. 5 ANSWER: B 88. OR function can be achieved by suing how many NOR gates? A. 2 B. 3 C. 4 D. 5 ANSWER: A 89. Which of the following is the probable output if all inputs of a TTL gate ar e binary 1?

A. B. C. D.

Determinable Binary 0 Binary 1 Indeterminate

ANSWER: B 90. Logic devices are broadly divided or categorized into two families, bipolar and MOS. What are the examples of bipolar? A. RTL and DTL B. IIL and ECL C. TTL and HLDTL D. All of the above ANSWER: D 91. CMOS, NMOS, and PMOS belong to MOS family, what is (are) the significance of these devices? A. They have lower power dissipation than bipolar devices B. They are generally slower than bipolar devices C. They are most sensitive to electrostatic D. All of the above ANSWER: D 92. Refers to the ability of logic circuit it withstand noise superimposed on it s input signal. A. LOW noise immunity B. HIGH noise immunity C. Noise immunity D. Noise figure ANSWER: C 93. The number of logic gates of the same family that can be connected to the in put of a particular gate without degrading the circuit performance. A. Fan-in B. Fan-out C. Input-drive D. Input noise immunity ANSWER: A 94. Refers to the number of logic gate of the same family that can be driven by a single output of a particular logic gate. A. Output drive B. Output noise margin C. Fan-in D. Fan-out ANSWER: D 95. A bipolar logic family that uses resistors as its input circuit. A. RTL B. DTL C. ECL D. TTL ANSWER: A 96. Logic family that uses diodes and transistors as its circuit elements. This logic family is more resistant to noise than RTL. A. DTL B. TTL C. ECL D. I2L or IIL

ANSWER: A 97. A logic circuit family with a supply voltage of 25 V, and are generally used in industry where machinery causes electrical noise and large power line transi ents to occur. A. HLDTL B. 74HXX C. NMOS D. CMOS ANSWER: A 98. A variation of transistor-transistor-logic (TTL) wherein transistors base and collector junctions are clamped with a Schottky diode. A. ECL B. STTL C. I2L D. CML ANSWER: B 99. In a transistor-transistor logic (TTL), if the base collector junction of a transistor is clamped with a Schottky diode it becomes Schottky TTL. What is the significance of having this diode? A. It increases the switching speed B. It decreases the power dissipation C. It increases the noise margin D. It increases the fan-out ANSWER: A 100. Which of the bipolar logic circuits is the fastest? A. TTL B. STTL C. SCTL D. ECL ANSWER: D 101. Other name of emitter-coupled logic (ECL). A. CML B. CSL C. NSL D. All of the above ANSWER: D 102. Of all bipolar logic families, TTL is widely used. What do you think is (ar e) the reason(s) why? A. Its speed is just enough for most applications B. Its power consumption/dissipation is manageable C. It has a good noise immunity D. All of the above ANSWER: D 103. Of the MOS logic family, which is the fastest? A. PMOS B. NMOS C. CMOS D. VMOS ANSWER: C 104. PMOS are generally supplied with a voltage up to A. 5.5 V B. 12 V

C. 15 V D. 24 V ANSWER: D 105. CMOS are normally supplied a voltage up to what value? A. 5.5 V B. 12 V C. 15 V D. 24 V ANSWER: C 106. PMOS and CMOS have normally different supply requirements. However, both ca n be operated from the same power supply provided it should be up to the CMOS li mitation (15 V). CMOS output can drive directly PMOS inputs, but not PMOSs output to CMOSs input. How do you interface PMOS to CMOS? A. By providing a pull-down resistor at the interconnection (PMOS output to CMOS input) B. By providing a pull-up resistor at the interface C. By inserting a series limiting resistor between PMOS output and CMOS input D. By interfacing through an open-collector transistor configuration ANSWER: A 107. NMOS can be interfaced to CMOS by providing a A. Pull-up resistor B. Pull-down resistor C. Limiting resistor D. Coupling capacitor ANSWER: A 108. A digital IC whose output transistor has no internal pull-up resistor. A. Open-collector configuration B. Open-emitter configuration C. Totem-pole output D. Tri-sate output ANSWER: A 109. In digital ICs, such as buffers and registers, what output configuration is used if they are intended for busing? A. Totem-pole B. Tri-state output C. Complementary D. Open-collector ANSWER: B 110. The output configuration of most CMOS ICs. A. Totem-pole B. Open-source C. Darlington D. Complementary ANSWER: D 111. In TTL ICs, which input configurations gives a high-input impedance at both logic states (HIGH and LOW state)? A. MET B. Input with kicker transistor C. Diode cluster input D. Substrate PNP input ANSWER: D

112. What is the purpose of the internal clamping diodes at the input of a logic circuit? A. To minimize negative ringing effects B. To minimize positive ringing effects C. To regulate the input signal D. To protect reverse-polarity connection ANSWER: A 113. In TTL ICs with more than one gate available, sometimes not all gates are u sed. How ill you handle these unused gates? A. Force the output to go LOW B. Force the output to go HIGH C. Provide pull-down resistors to all inputs D. Provide all inputs with pull-up resistors ANSWER: B 114. How ill you handle unused inputs in a logic gate/ logic IC? A. Leave them floating B. Pull them down C. Pull them up D. Pull them down or up, depending on circuit function ANSWER: D 115. What is the memory element used in clocked sequential logic circuit? A. Gates B. Flip-flop C. Static-RAM D. Read-only memory ANSWER: B 116. A static memory will store information A. As long as power is applied to the memory B. Even when power is not applied to the memory C. As long as power is applied and the memory is refreshed periodically D. When power is applied at regular intervals ANSWER: B 117. What is the reason why more cells can be stored in a given area with dynami c cells? A. They consume less power B. They are similar C. They are larger D. They travel faster ANSWER: B 118. A ______________ is a solid state memory device, which depends on the magne tic polarization of domains, usually in a garnet type material. A. Magnetic disk B. Magnetic core C. Magnetic bubble D. Magnetic drum ANSWER: C 119. ______________ are non-semiconductor devices still used in digital memories . A. Gates B. Flip-flops C. Relay D. Magnetic cores

ANSWER: D 120. The density of data recorded on magnetic tape is measured in A. Bit stuffing rate B. Bit error rate C. Bits per inch D. Bits per second ANSWER: C 121. A memory circuit that has 9 address inputs has how many storage locations? A. 1024 B. 256 C. 512 D. Not determined by sets of input ANSWER: C 122. Clock periods are measured from ___________. A. The high level to the low level B. The low level to the high level C. Similar points on the clock waveform D. The clock pulse at 50% of its low or high levels ANSWER: C 123. Determine which item is not a storage device. A. Card readers B. CD-ROM C. Diskettes D. Magnetic tape ANSWER: A 124. What is the function of flip-flop as logic element? A. Stores binary data B. Generates clock signal C. Relay data D. Makes decision ANSWER: A 125. _____________ is not a type of flip-flop. A. RS B. Latch C. D D. Register ANSWER: D 126. What is the higher voltage level in digital gates and flip-flop circuits? A. Yes or One B. One or Zero C. Zero or No D. Yes or No ANSWER: A 127. _____________ is a byte data stored in a memory location. A. 8 bits B. Character C. 4 bits D. Memory word ANSWER: D 128. _____________ is called retrieving data from memory. A. Accessing B. Getting

C. Encoding D. Reading ANSWER: A 129. ____________ can erase EPROMS. A. Applying a 21-volt pulse B. Applying ultraviolet rays C. Turning off the power D. Blowing fuse ANSWER: B 130. ___________ is a segment register which normalcy access variables in the pr ogram. A. Extra B. Stack C. Data D. Code ANSWER: B 131. ____________ is a storage device used to accommodate a difference in rate o f flow of data or time of occurrence of events when transmitting from one device to another. A. Accumulator B. Buffer C. Modem D. Register ANSWER: B 132. _____________ is a device that stay on once triggered and store one or two conditions as a digital circuit. A. Gate B. Latch C. Integrator D. Oscillator ANSWER: B 133. The typical number of bits per dynamic memory location is A. 1 B. 8 C. 2 D. 16 ANSWER: A 134. ______________ is an output applied to Read Only Memory (ROM). A. Multiplexer B. Address C. Input code D. Data ANSWER: B 135. ____________ is a kind of memory where only manufacture can store program a nd has s group of memory locations each permanently storing a word. A. ROM B. SOS memory C. RAM D. Hard memory ANSWER: A 136. In shift registers made up of several flip-flops, the clock signal indicate s ________.

A. B. C. D.

A bit of information stored in flip-flop Information of time What time is it When to shift a bit of data from input of the flip-flop to the output

ANSWER: D 137. What do you call the duration within it takes to read the content of a memo ry location after it has been addressed? A. Execution time B. Data rate C. Cycle time D. Access time ANSWER: D 138. A static memory generally contains A. Row and column decoders B. No decoders C. Row decoders D. Column decoders ANSWER: A 139. ___________ is called a memory device which holds fixed set of data in a ci rcuit. A. RAM B. Register C. Logic D. ROM ANSWER: D 140. An interval required to address and read out memory word. A. Propagation delay B. Pulse duration C. Setting time D. Access time ANSWER: D 141. ___________ refers to a circuit that stores pulses and produces an output p ulse when specified numbers of pulses are stored. A. Counter B. Register C. Flip-flop D. Buffer ANSWER: A 142. A dynamic memory will store information A. As long as power is applied to the memory B. As long as power is applied and the memory is refreshed periodically C. Even when power is not applied to the memory D. When power is applied at regular interval ANSWER: B 143. Several gates combined to form the basic memory element. A. Multivibrator B. Register C. ROM D. Flip-flop ANSWER: D

144. An RS flip-flop constructed from NOR-gates would have an undefined output w hen the inputs R/S combinations are A. LOW / LOW B. LOW / HIGH C. HIGH / LOW D. HIGH / HIGH ANSWER: D 145. When a flip-flop is constructed from two NAND-gates, its output will be und efined if the R/S inputs are A. LOW / LOW B. LOW / HIGH C. HIGH / LOW D. HIGH / HIGH ANSWER: A 146. A flip-flop whose output is always the same as its input. This is sometimes used as delay element. A. RS flip-flop B. D flip-flop C. T flip-flop D. JK flip-flop ANSWER: B 147. Flip-flop that changes state every time the input is triggered. A. RS flip-flop B. Master slave flip-flop C. T flip-flop D. JK flip-flop ANSWER: C 148. Flip-flop arrangement, such that the first receives its input on the positi ve edge of a clock pulse, and the other receives its input from the output of th e first during the negative edge of the same pulse. A. Clocked RS flip-flop B. Clocked JK flip-flop C. Cascaded flip-flop D. Master/slave flip-flop ANSWER: D 149. Combination of flip-flop, arranged so that they can be triggered at the sam e time. A. Clocked flip-flop B. Delayed flip-flop C. Sequential flip-flop D. Asynchronous flip-flop ANSWER: A 150. A flip-flop without an undefined output state condition whatever the input combination is A. JK flip-flop B. T flip-flop C. D flip-flop D. All of the above ANSWER: D 151. Group of flip-flops used to store more bits. A. Register B. ROM C. PROM

D. All of the above ANSWER: A 152. Sequential access digital memory uses what storage circuit? A. Parallel register B. Shift register C. Dynamic RAM D. EEPROM ANSWER: B 153. Memory whose contents are lost when, electrical power is removed. A. Nonvolatile B. Temporary C. Dynamic D. Volatile ANSWER: D 154. One of the following can program PROMs. A. Biasing bipolar transistor B. Blowing fuse C. Effusing input D. Charging a gate ANSWER: B 155. Type of memory wherein the data are permanently stored. Usually the storing of data is done during manufacturing of the component. A. ROM B. PROM C. EPROM D. EEPROM ANSWER: A 156. A semiconductor memory device in which data can be stored after fabrication s. A. PROM B. EPROM C. EEPROM D. All of the above ANSWER: D 157. A type of ROM that allows data to be written into the device by a programme r. After it has been programmed it cannot be reprogrammed again. A. PROM B. EPROM C. EEPROM D. A and B above ANSWER: A 158. What memory device that can be programmed, and reprogrammed after the old p rograms are erased usually by an ultraviolet light? A. EEPROM B. EPROM C. RPROM D. B and C ANSWER: D 159. A variation of PROM, wherein its stored data can be erased by electrical si gnal instead of ultraviolet light. A. EEPROM B. Dynamic ROM

C. RAM D. EEPROM and dynamic RAM ANSWER: A 160. A nonvolatile memory A. ROM B. PROM and RPROM C. EPROM and EEPROM D. All are correct ANSWER: D 161. What is the time interval to undertake a refresh operation in a typical dyn amic RAM? A. 2 ms B. 200 ms C. 50 microsec. D. 22 microsec. ANSWER: A 162. Semiconductor-based, volatile data storage device that can be written and r ead randomly. A. RAM B. PROM C. EPROM D. EEPROM ANSWER: A 163. Random access memory that needs recharging of capacitors. A. SRAM B. DRAM C. Dynamic storage D. A and B ANSWER: B 164. Dynamic RAM (DRAM) uses capacitor as its data storage element, while static RAM (SRAM) uses what? A. Inductor B. Magnet C. Register D. Flip-flop ANSWER: D 165. Type of memory that is formed by a series of magnetic bubbles at the substr ate. A. Magnetic disk B. Bubble sort C. Bubble chart D. Bubble memory ANSWER: D 166. Non-semiconductor digital memory device. A. Magnetic core B. Magnetic domain C. Saturable core D. Ferromagnetic domain ANSWER: A 167. A hardware used to program a PROM. A. Microcomputer B. Data loader C. Encoder

D. PROM programmer ANSWER: D 168. Computer hardware device constructed to perform shifting of its contained d ata. A. Parallel register B. Serial to parallel register C. Shift register D. ALU ANSWER: C 169. Register wherein data can be serially inputted, while the output can be ret rieved in parallel manner. A. Serial to parallel register B. Parallel storage C. Parallel to serial register D. Serial register ANSWER: A 170. Digital device similar to that of a ROM and whose internal connections of l ogic arrays can be programmed by passing high current through fusible links. A. PLA B. PAL C. APL D. A and B ANSWER: D 171. What is the difference between a read only memory (ROM) and logic array (PLA)? A. All input combinations of a ROM produce an output, while in a combinations do not affect the output. B. Only the OR-functions in a ROM are programmable, whereas in a d AND-functions are programmable. C. In ROM, all the possible states must be programmed, while not D. All of the above a programmable PLA, some input PLA, both OR an all for a PLA.

ANSWER: D 172. The difference between a programmable logic array (PLA) and a programmable array logic (PAL) is that, A. With PLA, only OR-gates are programmable, whereas both OR and AND gates are p rogrammable in PAL B. With PLA, both OR and AND-gates are programmable, while in PAL only OR-gate i s programmable C. With PLA, both OR and AND-gates are programmable, while in PAL, only AND-gate is programmable D. Only AND-gate is programmable with PLA, whereas both OR and AND-gates are pro grammable for PAL ANSWER: C 173. A circuit used for selecting a single output from multiple inputs. A. Universal logic module (ULM) B. Demultiplexer C. Tri-state D. Logic array ANSWER: A 174. Another name for universal logic module (ULM) A. Multiplexer B. Decoder C. Coder

D. Shift register ANSWER: A 175. A device/circuit used to separate two or more signals from one line. A. Decoder B. Demodulation C. Demodifier D. Demultiplexer ANSWER: D 176. An electronic counter in which bistable units are cascaded to form a loop. A. Ring counter B. Twisted ring counter C. UP/DOWN counter D. Bistable counter ANSWER: A 177. What is formed when the complemented output of the last stage of a shift re gister is fed back to the input of the first stage? A. Ring counter B. Twisted ring counter C. Decade counter D. UP/DOWN counter ANSWER: B 178. A digital circuit that produces logic 1 output pulse for every 10 input pul ses. A. Decade scaler B. Divider C. Chopper D. Multiplexer ANSWER: A 179. Binary codes are converted into ASCII by what circuit? A. Decoder B. Demultiplexer C. Degenerator D. Code converter ANSWER: D 180. The technical term used when signals are converted from analog-to-digital. A. Digitize B. Quantize C. Coded D. All of the above ANSWER: A 181. ________________ is a sequence of instructions that tells the computer mach ine on how available data shall be processed. A. Program B. RAM C. Command D. Flowchart ANSWER: A 182. Diagram showing procedures that are followed, and actions taken is called A. Functional block diagram B. Circuit diagram C. Flow chart D. Schematic diagram

ANSWER: C 183. What is the medium of communication with a computer where programs are writ ten in mnemonics? A. Assembly language B. High level language C. Machine language D. Low-level language ANSWER: C 184. A _________ a program which converts instruction written in a source langua ge into machine code, which can be read and acted upon by the computer. A. Source code B. Assembler C. Application software D. Compiler ANSWER: B 185. A detailed step by step set of direction telling a computer exactly how to proceed to solve a specific problem or process as specific task. A. Sequence B. Flow chart C. Computer program D. Process ANSWER: C 186. What is a program that translated English-like word of high-level language into the machine language of a computer? A. Compiler B. Assembler C. Monitor program D. Interpreter ANSWER: A 187. ___________ is a software that converts a high level language program into machine or assembly language program. A. ALU B. Cross-assembler C. Compiler D. CPU ANSWER: C 188. The purpose of the fetch cycle in a computer is to ____________. A. Obtain instruction B. Obtain input data C. Obtain memory data D. Implement a specific operation ANSWER: A 189. _____________ refers to a program that translates and then immediately exec utes statements in a high level language. A. Interpreter B. Synchronous C. Interface D. Operating system ANSWER: A 190. A _____________ is an instruction in a source language that is to be replac

ed A. B. C. D.

by a defined sequence of instructions in the same source language. Statement Source code Mnemonic Macro-instruction

ANSWER: D 191. A very high-dense and probably the most versatile integrated circuit used i n digital electronics. It is known to function as the central processing unit of most computer applications. A. Microcomputer B. Micro-integrated C. Macro-integrated D. Microprocessor ANSWER: D 192. The smallest computer in terms of physical size A. Microcomputer B. Minicomputer C. Mainframe D. Host computer ANSWER: A 193. A logic/digital circuit that generates an output code for every input signa l. A. Enhancer B. Compressor C. Encoder D. Decoder ANSWER: C 194. What code that gives each digit of a decimal number with a corresponding bi nary equivalent? A. Binary code B. Gray code C. ASCII D. Binary coded decimal ANSWER: D 195. Which of the code below is considered as minimum-change code? A. Gray code B. ASCII C. BCD D. ARINC ANSWER: A 196. A 7-bit alphanumeric code that is widely used A. Gray code B. ASCII C. BCD D. ARINC ANSWER: B 197. The op-code of a computer instruction A. Mnemonic B. Bionic C. Operand D. Program ANSWER: A

198. An instruction that causes the program to go another task. A. FLIP B. SUB C. JUMP D. MOVE ANSWER: C 199. An instruction that can move data from memory to the accumulator. A. FETCH B. MOVE C. ACC D. LOAD ANSWER: D 200. An instruction tat moves data from accumulator to the memory A. FETCH B. MOVE C. STORE D. LOAD ANSWER: C 201. Part of the instruction cycle where the instruction is moved from memory to the instruction register. A. ACC B. FETCH C. MOVE D. CLI ANSWER: B 202. An instruction, which means clear the interrupt mask. A. ACC B. DEL C. CANCEL D. CLI ANSWER: D 203. Refers to a condition wherein the result of an arithmetic operation is more negative than the capacity of the output register. A. Error B. Negative infinite C. Overflow D. Underflow ANSWER: D 204. Refers to a condition wherein the result of an arithmetic operation is more than the capacity of the output register. A. Error B. Infinite C. Overflow D. Underflow ANSWER: C 205. Machine instructions represented by mnemonics is considered as A. Machine language B. Personal language C. Assembly language D. Coded language ANSWER: C 206. The first generation language of instruction, and is considered as the most

primitive instruction that can be given to a computer. A. Machine language B. Assembly language C. COBOL D. 4GL ANSWER: A 207. COBOL, FORTRAN, and ALGOL are examples of A. Machine language B. Assembly language C. High-level language D. 4GL ANSWER: C 208. An advanced programming language, more advanced than high-level language. A. Machine language B. Assembly language C. High-level language D. 4GL or 4th generation language ANSWER: D 209. Translator from high-level program to machine instructions A. Assembler B. Converter C. Encoder D. Compiler ANSWER: D 210. Translates source program to object program A. Assembler B. Converter C. Encoder D. Compiler ANSWER: D 211. Assemble language to machine language translator A. Assembler B. Converter C. Compiler D. Transponder ANSWER: A 212. A program in a programming language, as written by the programmer. A. Source program B. Object program C. Machine program D. Original program ANSWER: A 213. A source program can run in computer only after translation into a machine code by a compiler. This machine code is referred as the A. Source program B. Object program C. Interpreter D. Mnemonic ANSWER: B 214. A program that can read a source program in high-level language, translates , and executes the statement in one operation. A. Mnemonic B. Object program

C. Interpreter D. Assembler ANSWER: C 215. A sequence of instructions or statements designed to tell the computer how to carry out a particular processing task. A. Software B. Hardware C. Assembler D. Program ANSWER: D 216. The instructions and data in a computer system is referred to as A. Software B. Hardware C. Program D. CPU ANSWER: A 217. Refers to digital interface in which data characteristics are individually synchronized and may be sent at a time. A. Half-duplex B. Asynchronous C. Synchronous D. Simplex ANSWER: B 218. A network facility used to connect individual similar network segments form ing a larger extended network is called _________. A. Routers B. Relays C. Repeaters D. Bridges ANSWER: C 219. What is the circuit that detects bit error in binary characters? A. Decoder B. Parity detector C. Server D. Comparator ANSWER: B 220. A device that enables users to transmit computer data and fax messages alon g telephone lines A. Converter B. Facsimile C. Demodulator D. Modem ANSWER: D 221. What do you call the devices that allow computers to communicate with other computers through telephone lines or radio frequency? A. Modems B. Disk C. Mouse D. Super computers ANSWER: A 222. What network facility used to interconnect distinct networks physically? A. Relays

B. Routers C. Repeaters D. Bridges ANSWER: D 223. Files in E-mail communication are send thru ____________. A. Disk B. Mailbox C. Wires D. Attachment ANSWER: D 224. The first recipient in E-mail communication. A. Host B. Mail box C. Computer D. Disk ANSWER: A 225. The interconnections of computers, terminals, and other equipment. A. Cluster B. Network C. Cascading D. Bonding ANSWER: B 226. A network classification that is usually built and owned by a single compan y or governmental organization. A. Private data network B. Public data network C. Switched network D. Node ANSWER: A 227. A network that is built and owned by a common carrier. A. Public data network B. Private data network C. Leased line network D. Node ANSWER: A 228. Network configuration that let computers share their resources. A. Peer-to-peer network B. Hierarchical network C. Permanent virtual circuit D. Local Area Network ANSWER: A 229. A computer network configuration that makes the host computer manages a net work of dependent terminals. A. Hierarchical network B. Peer-to-peer network C. Local Area Network D. Wide Area Network ANSWER: A 230. A network switching that creates a dedicated temporary connection between c omputers in a network. A. Circuit switching B. Message switching

C. Packet switching D. Virtual switching ANSWER: A 231. The component that provides control or supporting services for other comput ers, terminals, or devices in a network. A. Host B. Communications controller C. Cluster controller D. Interface equipment ANSWER: A 232. It is a type of computer networking technology that is used to connect comp uters that are located within the same room, building, or complex. A. Internet B. Intranet C. Local area network D. Wide area network ANSWER: C 233. It is a fast computer with a large amount of secondary storage, to which al l of the other computers in a network have access for data storage and retrieval . A. Mainframe B. Maincomputer C. File server D. Workstation ANSWER: C 234. It is also known as cooperative processing that involve using two or more n etworked computers to perform an application task. A. Client computing B. Server computing C. Distributed processing D. Client/server computing ANSWER: D 235. A type of server that allows multiple users to take advantage of a single p rinting device. A. Printer server B. Client server C. Network server D. File server ANSWER: A 236. This topology is the most efficient centralized network for a small company A. B. C. D. Bus Ring Tree Star

ANSWER: D 237. It is the other term that is used to refer to a central device into which e ach node of a star network is directly connected. A. Hub B. Central pointer C. Router D. Repeater

ANSWER: A 238. It is simply the term that is used to refer to an I/O device that relies en tirely on the host computer for processing. A. Keyboard B. Terminal C. Monitor D. Mouse ANSWER: B 239. Workstations in a star network that can operate without storage devices. A. Diskless B. Wireless C. Disked D. Wired ANSWER: A 240. A ___________ network requires that message travel around the ring to nthe desired destination. A. Star B. Bus C. Tree D. Ring ANSWER: D 241. Networks that transmit data across town using electromagnetic signals are c alled ____________. A. LANs B. WANs C. MANs D. All of the above ANSWER: C 242. The process of choosing a terminal on a network to receive data is called _ ______. A. Polling B. Selection C. Contention D. Option ANSWER: B 243. A microcomputer attached to a network requires a __________. A. Dongle B. Network interface card C. RS-232 D. Software ANSWER: B 244. To ___________ is to send a file to a remote computer A. Upload B. Download C. Call D. Transmit ANSWER: A 245. To ___________ is to receive a file from a remote computer. A. Upload B. Download C. Call D. Transmit

ANSWER: B 246. It is term that is used to describe the conventions of how network componen ts communicate with each other. A. Network model B. Network layer C. Network topology D. Network protocol ANSWER: D 247. It is A. Network B. Network C. Network D. Network term that is used to describe the form or the shape of a network. model layer topology protocol

ANSWER: C 248. __________ is the process of asking each remote terminal, one at a time, if it has data to send. A. Polling B. Selection C. Contention D. Option ANSWER: A 249. __________ network topology has more than one level of host computer. A. Star B. Bus C. Hierarchical D. Ring ANSWER: C 250. It describes its System Services Control Point (SSCP), Logical Units (LU), and Physical Units (PU) as network addressable units. A. Internetworking B. Digital network architecture C. Open system interconnection D. Systems network architecture ANSWER: D 251. Networks that include telecommunications are called __________. A. LANs B. WANs C. MANs D. All of the above ANSWER: B 252. A multi-network IBM token ring network is also a __________ network. A. Star B. Bus C. Tree D. Mesh ANSWER: A 253. Network topology, where stations are connected to a concentric ring through a ring interface unit (RIU). A. Bus B. Mesh C. Token Ring D. Tree

ANSWER: C 254. A _________ will decide which route the message or messages should follow t hrough the network. A. Router B. Bridge C. Repeater D. Gateway ANSWER: A 255. Used in connecting networks at different sites. A. Router B. bridge C. repeater D. gateway ANSWER: B 256. Similar to a bridge, which connects networks at different sites, it connect s networks with different protocols. A. Router B. Bridge C. Gateway D. Repeater ANSWER: C 257. Used to extend the length of a network or to expand the network. A. Router B. Bridge C. Gateway D. Repeater ANSWER: D