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IIT-JOINT ENTRANCE EXAMINATION, 2008 PAPER I PHYSICS CHEMISTRY MATHEMATICS
QUESTION PAPER CODE
Time: 3 Hours INSTRUCTIONS:
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Maximum Marks: 243
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A. General 1. This booklet is your Question Paper containing 66 questions. The booklet has 24 pages. 2. This question paper CODE is printed on the right hand top corner of this sheet. 3. This question paper contains 1 blank page for your rough work. No additional sheets will be provided for rough work.
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PART A : PHYSICS SECTION I Straight Objective Type This section contains 9 multiple choice questions numbered 1 to 9. Each question has four choices (A), (B), (C) and (D), out of which ONLY ONE is correct. 1. A point moving with uniform acceleration in a straight line and describes distances S and S in the m (A) S m S n (B) S m S n
th
and n
th
seconds. What is its acceleration? S m n (D) S m n
(C)
2. The maximum vertical distance an astronaut can jump on earth surface is 0.5 m. Estimate the vertical distance through which he can jump on moon, which has a 2 mean density that of earth and radius one quarter that of earth. 3 (A) 1.5 m (B) 6 m (C) 7.5 m (D) 3 m
3. A constant voltage V = 25 volts is maintained between points A and B of the circuit. Find the magnitude of the current flowing through CD if R1 = 1 ohm, R2 = 2 ohm, R3 = 3 ohm and R4 = 4 ohm. (A) 2 A (B) 0.8 A (C) 1 A (D) 1.2 A SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK
4. If the number of turns per unit length of a coil of a solenoid is doubled, the self inductance of solenoid will (A) remain the same (C) be doubled (B) be halved (D) become four times 1 64 of its initial value in 60 seconds.
5. A radioactive substance disintegrates to What is the half-life of the substance? (A) 5 s (B) 10 s (C) 30 s
(D) 20 s
6. The friction coefficient between floor and board of mass m on which a man of mass M stands is . Find the maximum force that the man can exert on the rope so that the board does not slip. (A) M 1 M 1 Mg m g m g
(B)
(C)
(D) (M + m) g 7. A steel ring of radius r and cross-sectional area A is fitted on to a wooden disc of radius R (R > r). If Young s modulus is Y, what is the force with which the steel ring is expanded? (A) AYR r (B) AY R r r (C) Y R A r r (D) Yr AR
SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK
8. Two identical conducting spheres having charges of opposite sign attract each other with a force 0.108 N, when separated by 0.5 m. The spheres which are connected by a conducting wire is removed. Now they repel each other with a force 0.036 N. Find the charges. (A) 3 C and 1 C (C) 5 C and 4 C (B) 5 C and 2 C (D) 3 C and 2 C
9. The initial pressure and volume of a given mass of gas for which = 1.5 is P and V. It is slowly compressed to one half of its initial volume. It is then rapidly compressed to volume V/4. Find the final pressure. (A) 4P (B) 2P (C) 5.64P SECTION II Assertion and Reason Type This section contains 4 questions numbered 10 to 13. Each question contains STATEMENT 1 (Assertion) and STATEMENT 2 (Reason). Each question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and (D), out of which ONLY ONE is correct. (A) Statement 1 is True, Statement 2 is True; Statement 2 is a correct explanation for Statement 1. (B) Statement 1 is True, Statement 2 is True; Statement 2 is not a correct explanation for Statement 1. (C) Statement 1 is True, Statement 2 is False. (D)Statement 1 is False, Statement 2 is True. 10. Statement 1: because Statement 2: The necessary condition for S.H.M is that the restoring force must be proportional to the displacement and directed towards the mean position. SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK All simple harmonic motions are periodic but all periodic motions are not necessarily simple harmonic. (D) 1.5P
11. Statement 1: because Statement 2: 12. Statement 1: because Statement 2:
When ultrasonic waves travel from air to water, it bends towards the normal to the air water surface.
The speed of a sound wave is greater in water than in air. The specific heat capacity of a solid is different when the solid is heated at (i) constant volume and (ii) at constant pressure.
When solid is heated at constant pressure, it does expand a little and some heat is required for doing the mechanical work associated with this expansion. A dentist uses a convex mirror to examine a small cavity in the tooth.
13. Statement 1: because Statement 2:
A convex mirror forms only diminished virtual images. SECTION III
Linked Comprehension Type This section contains 2 paragraphs. Based upon each paragraph, 3 multiple choice questions have to be answered. Each question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and (D), out of which ONLY ONE is correct. Paragraph for Questions 14 to 16 The vibration of a string of length 60 cm fixed at both ends are represented by the equation y = 4 sin x 15 cos 96 t , where x and y are in cm and t in sec.
14. What is the maximum displacement of a point at x = 5 cm? (A) 3.46 cm (B) 4.8 cm (C) 2.96 cm (D) 5.2 cm
15. Where are the nodes located along the string? (A) 0, 15, 30, 45, 60 (C) 5, 20, 35, 50 (A) 0 (B) 48 cm/s (B) 2, 12, 22, 32, 42, 52 (D) 9, 19, 29, 39, 49 (C) 24 cm/s (D) 12 cm/s
16. What is the velocity of the particle at x = 7.5 cm and t = 0.2 s? Paragraph for Questions 17 to 19 Two particles of masses 100 and 300 g have at a given time positions 2i 7i 5j 9j 1 4 1 4 1 4 1 4 13k and 6 i 4j 6k respectively. 2k respectively and velocities 10 i 7j 3k and
17. What is the instantaneous position of the centre of mass? (A) (C) 16 i 25 i 17 j 15 j 7k 3k (B) (D) 1 4 1 4 1 4 1 4 10 i 20 i 2j 8k 7k
17 j
18. What is the velocity of the centre of mass? (A) (C) 3i 25 i 14 j 20 j 15k 10k (B) (D) 31 i 2i 34 j 38 j 15k 16k
19. What is the velocity of the second particle in a frame of reference travelling with the centre of mass? (A) (C) 1 4 1 4 3i 6i 10 j 2j 10k 8k (B) (D) 1 4 1 4 3i 3i 20 j 2j 16k 9k
SECTION IV Matrix-Match Type This section contains 3 questions. Each question contains statements given in two columns which have to be matched. Statements (A, B, C, D) in Column I have to be matched with statements (p, q, r, s) in Column II. The answers to these questions have to be appropriately bubbled as illustrated in the following example. If the correct matches are A-p, A-s, B-q, B-r, C-p, C-q and D-s, then the correctly bubbled 4 4 matrix should be as follows: p A B C D 20. Column I (A) Magnetic force on a charged particle of charge q moving in a magnetic field with velocity v perpendicular to it (B) Magnetic field induction due to an infinitely long straight conductor at a distance R (C) Magnetic field induction at the centre of a circular loop of radius R having N turns (D) Magnetic field induction due to a long solenoid SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK (q) (p) p p p p q q q q q r r r r r s s s s s Column II Ni
0
Ni
0
2R
(r) Bqv i
0
(s)
2 R
21. Column I gives the various defects of human eye and Column II lists the laser that are used to correct them. Column I (A) Myopia (B) Hypermetrobia (C) Presbyopia (D) Astigmatism Column II (p) Concave lens (q) Cylindrical lens (r) Bifocal lens (s) Convex lens
22. Column I gives list of common units and Column II gives the dimensional formula of these units to measure the physical quantities. Column I (A) Pascal (B) Becquerel (C) Watt (D) Joule Column II (p) ML T (q) ML T (r) T (s)
1 1 2 2 2 3 2
ML
PART B : CHEMISTRY SECTION I Straight Objective Type This section contains 9 multiple choice questions numbered 23 to 31. Each question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and (D), out of which ONLY ONE is correct. 23. A metal crystallizes into two cubic phases FCC and BCC whose unit cell lengths are 3.5 and 3.0 respectively. The ratio of the densities of FCC and BCC are (A) 1.26 (B) 1.0 (C) 1.8 (D) 2.2
n +
1
24. The standard reduction potentials of three cations A , B and C 3 + 0.52, 2.8 and 1.5 V respectively. The order of their reducing powers is (A) A (C) B
n +
1
n +
2
n +
are
> B >C
n +
2
>C > A
n +
3
(B) A
n +
1
>C
n +
3
> B
n +
2
n +
2
n +
3
n +
1
(D) cannot be predicted
25. What is true regarding adsorption phenomenon? (A) Physical adsorption is endothermic but chemical adsorption is exothermic. (B) Reverse of the above. (C) Both are endothermic. (D) Both are exothermic. 26. How many types of carbon-carbon bonds are present in butyne-1? (A) 2 (B) 3 (C) 1 (D) 4 27. Following is an organic reaction, X Y C H SO OH C H SO Cl C H SO NH 6 5 2 6 5 2 6 5 2 2 The reagents used for the steps X and Y respectively are (A) PCl5, SOCl2, NH2NH2 (C) P4H10, NH3 (B) PCl5 or SOCl2, NH3 (D) HCl, NaNH2 SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK
10
28. An organic compound of molecular formula C5H10O2 gives the following properties. (i) It evolves effervescence with NaHCO3 solution. (ii) On chlorination, gives only one monochloro derivative. (iii) Its sodium salt when fused with soda lime gives neobutane. (iv) Its calcium salt when distilled gives di-ter-butyl ketone. The structure of the original compound is (A) (CH3)3C COOH (B) CH3 CH2 CH2 CH2 COOH (C)
(D)
29. Pentaamminenitrito-N-cobalt (III) cation is (A) [Co(ONO)(NH3)5] (B) [Co(NO2)(NH3)5]

2+
2+ 3+
(C) [Co(ONO)(NH3)5] (D) [Co(NO2)(NH3)5]
3+
30. An example of an oxygen containing compound which does not give oxygen gas on strong heating is (A) (NH4)2Cr2O7 (C) KClO3 (B) KMnO4 (D) Pb3O4 SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK
11
31. When HCl and HNO3 are mixed in the ratio 3:1 by volume, the products obtained are (A) Cl2 (B) NOCl (C) H2O SECTION II Assertion - Reason Type This section contains 4 questions numbered 32 to 35. Each question contains STATEMENT 1 (Assertion) and STATEMENT 2 (Reason). Each question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and (D), out of which ONLY ONE is correct. (A) Statement 1 is True, Statement 2 is True; Statement 2 is a correct explanation for Statement 1. (B) Statement 1 is True, Statement 2 is True; Statement 2 is not a correct explanation for Statement 1. (C) Statement 1 is True, Statement 2 is False. (D)Statement 1 is False, Statement 2 is True. 32. Statement 1: Diborane on complete methylation gives B2H2(CH3)4. because Statement 2: 33. Statement 1: because Statement 2: 34. Statement 1: because Statement 2: 35. Statement 1: because Statement 2: OH ion is a base. RMgX is a Lewis base. It attacks on electron rich atoms. The conjugate base of HSO
4
(D) all the above
Diborane structure shows two three-centre bonds. Linkage isomerism is not possible in coordiantion compounds when the ligand present in it is OH ion.

in aqueous solution is H2SO4.
H2SO4 is a strong acid in aqueous solution. SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK
12
SECTION III Linked Comprehension Type This section contains two paragraphs. Based upon each paragraph, 3 multiple choice questions have to be answered. Each question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and (D), out of which ONLY ONE is correct. Paragraph for Questions 36 to 38 We know that, in a chemical reaction only electrons (extra nuclear part) of the atom take part, while the nucleus of the atom remains unaffected. However, the reverse reactions (where only nuclei of atoms take part in reactions) are also possible. Such reactions in which nucleus of an atom itself undergoes spontaneous change or interact with other nuclei of lighter particles, resulting in the formation of new nuclei and one or more lighter particles are called nuclear reactions. 36. Which is not a postulate of theory of radioactivity? (A) Radioactivity is due to the unstability of the nucleus. (B) Radioactivity is not affected by chemical combination but affected by temperature. (C) If n/p ratio is higher than 1.6, -particles are emitted. (D) If n/p ratio is less than 1, positron emission takes place. 37. The half-life period of a radioactive substance is 12.2 days. The time taken to fall the amount to 20% of the initial concentration is (A) 8.45 days
60 27
(B) 28.3 days
(C) 40.5 days

131 53
(D) 100 days
38. Which among the following is used in radiotherapy? (A) Co (B) I
(C) Radio P Paragraph for Questions 39 to 41
(D) All the above
Tautomerism may be defined as a phenomenon, in which a single compound exists in two readily interconvertible structures that differ markedly in the relative position of at least one atomic nucleus, generally hydrogen. The two different structures are known as tautomers of each other. SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK
13
Thus acetoacetic ester exists as tautomers.
39. Which one of the compounds does not show tautomerism?
(A) CH3COCH2COCH3
(B)
(C)
(D) C6H5COC6H5
40. Which is not a correct statement regarding tautomerism? (A) Nitro compounds show tautomerism. (B) The tautomeric forms are chemically distinct entities. (C) Tautomers cannot be separated. (D) Polar protic solvent like water tends to stabilize the keto form. 41. Tautomerism can be distinguished from the resonance, as (A) Tautomers are in dynamic equilibrium with each other but resonating structures are not in dynamic equilibrium. (B) Tautomers have different functional groups but resonance structures have the same functional group. (C) Tautomerism occurs in planar or non-planar molecules, while resonance occurs only in planar molecules. (D) All the above SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK
14
SECTION IV Matrix-Match Type This section contains 3 questions. Each question contains statements given in two columns which have to be matched. Statements (A, B, C, D) in Column I have to be matched with statements (p, q, r, s) in Column II. The answers to these questions have to be appropriately bubbled as illustrated in the following example. If the correct matches are A-p, A-s, B-q, B-r, C-p, C-q and D-s, then the correctly bubbled 4 4 matrix should be as follows: p A B C D p p p p q q q q q r r r r r s s s s s
42. (A) (B) (C) (D)
Column I (p) COCl CN HCOOH (q) (r) (s)
Column II [Ag(NH3)2] CHO

2+
COOH
15
43.
Column I (A) sp hybridisation (B) sp hybridisation (C) sp d hybridisation

3 3 2
Column II (p) SnCl2 (q) bent (r) linear
(D) Three lone pairs of electrons (s) XeF2 44. Column I (A) KNO3 (B) NH4NO2 (C) (NH ) Cr O 42 2 7 (D) CaCO3 Column II (p) CO2 (q) N2 (r) O2 (s) Oxidises Fe
2+
16
PART C : MATHEMATICS SECTION I Straight Objective Type This section contains 9 multiple choice questions numbered 45 to 53. Each question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and (D), out of which ONLY ONE is correct. 45. A solution x of [x] 2 [x] 15 > 0, where [] is the greatest integer function is (A) 1.2 (B) 4.2 (C) 5.3 (D) 8.3
2
2 46. If p {0, 1, 2, ... 9} such that x px + 1 (2p + 3) = 0, then the probability that 4 the roots of the above equation are real is
(A)
3 10
(B)
1 5
(C)
2 5
(D)
7 10 x
2 2 2
47. If the eccentric angles , of two points on the ellipse
a b eccentricity e differ by a constant, then the chord joining these two points touches another ellipse of eccentricity (A) e (A) 1 (B) e/2 (B) 2 (C) e/3 (C) 0 (D) e/4 (D) 3 48. The number of solutions of sin 2x + 2 sin x + 2 cos x + 1 = 0 in (0, 2) is 49. If a b 2c = b, where and are non-zero and non-collinear vectors the b c c angle between the unit vectors a and is (A) 6 (B) 4 (C) 3 (D) 2
= 1 of
17
50. If f(x) =
sin x
x
2
,where [] denotes the greatest integer function, then
1 x f(4) + f( 4) is (A) 3
th
(B) 4
th th
(C) 0
(D) 1
51. If the (p + 1) , (q + 1) , (r + 1) terms of an A.P. are in G.P., p, q, r are in H.P., then the ratio of the common difference to the first term of the A.P. is (A) 2 q (B) 2 q B 2 C 2 A 2 B A C (C) tan tan tan 2 r A 2 B 2 C 2 , (D) 2 p
52. If in ABC x = tan y = tan z = tan then (A) 1 x y xyz z is
(B) 1
4
(C) 2
5
(D) 2
53. The maximum value of (7 x) (2 + x) when x lies between 2 and 7 is (A) 7 2

4 5
(B) 4 5
(C) 2 7
(D) 4 5
SECTION II Assertion and Reason Type This section contains 4 questions numbered 54 to 57. Each question contains STATEMENT 1 (Assertion) and STATEMENT 2 (Reason). Each question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and (D), out of which ONLY ONE is correct. SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK
18
(A) Statement 1 is True, statement 2 is True; statement 2 is a correct explanation for statement 1. (B) Statement 1 is True, statement 2 is True; statement 2 is not a correct explanation for statement 1. (C) Statement 1 is True, statement 2 is False. (D)Statement 1 is False, statement 2 is True. 54. Statement 1: because Statement 2: 55. Statement 1: because Statement 2: For different values of , ax + by + c + (ax + by + c) = 0 passes through the points of intersection of ax + by + c = 0, ax + by + c = 0 which is a fixed point. If log|z + i||3 + 4i| < log|z + i||5 + 12i|, then the point z lies inside the circle with centre (0, 1) and radius unity. If x < y and logb x < logb y, then base b > 1. If 0 < < < < /2, then the equation 1 1 1 = 0 has real and unequal roots. x sin x sin x sin If f(x) is continuous in [a, b] where a, b are real and f(a), f(b) are of opposite signs, then there is a real root of f(x) = 0 between a and b. SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK If P(A B) = P(A) P(B), then A and B are independent. Tangents are drawn from the points on 2x + y = 1 to the circle x + y = 4. Then the chords of contact passes through (8, 4).
2 2
If P(A B) = 5/6, P(A ) = 1/4, P(B) = 1/3, then A and B are independent events.
56. Statement 1: because Statement 2: 57. Statement 1:
because Statement 2:
19
SECTION III Linked Comprehension Type This section contains 2 paragraphs. Based upon each paragraph, 3 multiple choice questions have to be answered. Each question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and (D), out of which ONLY ONE is correct. Paragraph for Question Nos. 58 to 60 If f(x) = 0 be an n
1 th
degree equation in x, then coeff. of x

n n n n n n 3 2 1
S = sum of the roots =
coeff. of x
S = sum of the products of the roots taken 2 by 2 = coeff. of x

2
coeff. of x
S3 = sum of the products of the roots taken 3 by 3 = and so on.
coeff. of x
coeff. of x
2
58. If p, q are the roots of x 2x + A = 0 and r, s are the roots of x 18x + B = 0 and p < q < r < s are in A.P., then the ordered pair (A, B) is (A) (3, 77) (B) ( 3, 77)
3
(C) (3, 77)
(D) ( 3, 77)
59. If , , are the roots of x + px + q = 0 such that + = 1, then the value of (q p) is (A) 1 (B) 1 (C) 2 (D) 2
20
60. If x 8x + ax + bx + 16 = 0 have equal roots, then the ordered pair (a, b) is (A) (24, 32) (B) (24, 32) (C) (8, 24) (D) (24, 8)
Paragraph for Question Nos. 61 to 63 If Lt f x = 1 and Lt

xa 1
xa
g x = , then Lt
xa
f x
g x
Lt
f x
1 g x
is e
xa
61. The value of Lt (A) abc
x0
3
3
is (C) abc
1
(B) abc 4
(D) a + b + c
62. The value of Lt

x0
tan
is
2 2
(A) e
(B) e Lt
x /2
(C) e
1
(D) e
63. The value of (A) e
1 1
1
cot x cos x
cos x
is (D) 0
(B) e
(C) 1 SECTION IV
Matrix-Match Type This section contains 3 questions. Each question contains statements given in two columns which have to be matched. Statements (A, B, C, D) in Column I have to be SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK
21
matched with statements (p, q, r, s) in Column II. The answers to these questions have to be appropriately bubbled as illustrated in the following example. If the correct matches are A-p, A-s, B-q, B-r, C-p, C-q and D-s, then the correctly bubbled 4 4 matrix should be as follows: p A B C D 64. Column I (A) PQ and RS are parallel tangents of a circle r. If PS and QR intersect at a point X on the
2 2
q q q q q
r r r r r
s s s s s Column II (p) 1
p p p p
circle, then the value of
QX PQ
SX RS
is
(B) The number of points lying inside the region bounded by |x| + |y| = 3 which are equidistant from the lines is (C) Number of values of x (0, 2) satisfying cot x cosec x = 2 sin x is (D) 3 tan x 10 sec x + 6 = 0 has exactly 5 values in [0, k/2], then the value of k is SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK
2
(q) 2
(r) 0
(s) 9
22
65.
Column I (A) If A (a, b, c) be any point on the plane 3x + 2y + z = 7, then the least value of a + b + c is (B) Let u, v, w be such that | u| = 1, | v| = 2 and | w| = 3. Also the projection of v on u is equal to the projection of w on u and v, w are perpendicular to each other, then u v w is (C) If f(x) is odd periodic function with period 2, then f(4) is
/2
Column II 7 (p) 2 (q) 1 3
(r) 14 (s) 0 Column II (p) 2
(D) The value of 66.
sin x
cos x
dx is
Column I (A) The tangent and normal at any point P whose eccentric angle is of x
2
2 2
a b eccentricity meets the major axis in K and L such that KL = a, then e cos + cos is equal to y (B) P and Q are two points on x = 1 whose 4 9 centre is C and CP is perpendicular to CQ, then 1 1 is 2 2 CP CQ (C) The area of the triangle formed by the tangents from (2, 3) to x + y = 9 with the chord of contact is (D) If in ABC, a, b, c are in A.P., then cos A + 2 cos B + cos C is equal to SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK (s) 1
2 2
2 2
= 1 whose
(q)
24 13
(r)
5 36
23
Name: .
Enrollment No.:
C. Question paper format: 10. The question paper consists of 3 parts (Physics, Chemistry and Mathematics). Each part has 4 sections. 11. Section I contains 9 multiple choice questions. Each question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and (D), out of which only one is correct. 12. Section II contains 4 questions. Each question contains STATEMENT-1 (Assertion) and STATEMENT2 (Reason). Bubble (A) Bubble (B) Bubble (C) if both the statements are TRUE and STATEMENT-2 is the correct explanation of STATEMENT-1. if both the statements are TRUE but STATEMENT-2 is not the correct explanation of STATEMENT-1. if STATEMENT-1 is TRUE and STATEMENT-2 is FALSE.
Bubble (D) if STATEMENT-1 is FALSE and STATEMENT-2 is TRUE. 13. Section III contains 2 paragraphs. Based upon each paragraph, 3 multiple choice questions have to be answered. Each question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and (D), out of which only one is correct. 14. Section IV contains 3 questions. Each question contains statements given in 2 columns. Statements in the first column have to be matched with statements in the second column. The answers to these questions have to be appropriately bubbled in the ORS as per the instructions given at the beginning of the section. D. Marking scheme: 15. For each question in Section I, you will be awarded 3 marks if you darken only the bubble corresponding to the correct answer and zero mark if no bubble is darkened. In all other cases, minus one (1) mark will be awarded. 16. For each question in Section II, you will be awarded 3 marks if you darken only the bubble corresponding to the correct answer and zero mark if no bubble is darkened. In all other cases, minus one (1) mark will be awarded. 17. For each question in Section III, you will be awarded 4 marks if you darken only the bubble corresponding to the correct answer and zero mark if no bubble is darkened. In all other cases, minus one (1) mark will be awarded. 18. For each question in Section IV, you will be awarded 6 marks if you darken ALL the bubbles corresponding ONLY to the correct answer. No negative mark will be awarded for an incorrectly bubbled answer.
BRILLIANT S
IIT-JEE 2008 STS IV/PCM/P(I)/SOLNS

IIT-JOINT ENTRANCE EXAMINATION, 2008 PAPER I - SOLUTIONS PHYSICS CHEMISTRY MATHEMATICS PART A: PHYSICS
SECTION I 1. (A) Distance described in mth and nth seconds are S = u S = u 2m 2 2n 2 1 1 f f, where f is acceleration and u is initial velocity.
S S = (m n) f f = S m S n
2. (D) At earths surface, vertical distance = 0.5 m Final velocity = 0 Initial velocity = v Acceleration = g v u = 2as v = 2 0.5 g = g.
Brilliant Tutorials Pvt. Ltd. IIT/STS IV/PCM/P(I)/Solns - 1
2 2 2
At moons surface, acceleration due to gravity = g . With the same velocity he can jump a distance, v2 = 2g s s= g 2g (Q v2 = g)
g = g =
GM R 4 3
2
G =
3 4 R 3
R R 4
4 3 1 6 g
GR
2 3
s =
1 6 = 3m 2
3. (C)
The current distribution is as shown in Figure. Applying Kirchhoffs law to circuits. KDCNK, DLMCD and AKDLBA, we get 3i2 i1 = 0 i1 = 3i2 4(i2 + i3) 2(i1 i3) = 0 i1 = 2i2 + 3i3 3i2 + 4(i2 + i3) = 25 7i2 + 4i3 = 25 From equations (1) and (2) 3i2 = 2i2 + 3i3 i2 = 3i3
... (1)
... (2)
... (3)
... (4)
IIT/STS IV/PCM/P(I)/Solns - 2
Substituting the values of i2 from equation (4) in (3) 7 3i3 + 4i3 = 25 or 25i3 = 25 i3 = 1 amp 4. (D) Self inductance of solenoid, L = N A
0 2
l If N becomes doubled; L becomes four times. M

0
5. (B)
= 64 = 2 1
60 6 = 10 sec 6. (A) Let T be the tension of the string and let F be the force applied by the man downwards. Then, T=F For the board not to slip T = R, where R is the normal reaction between board and floor. R = (M + m)g F F = [(M + m)g F] F(1 + ) = g (M + m) F = M 1 mg
T =
7. (B) Original length of the steel ring = 2r If it is fitted in wooden disc of radius R, its length becomes 2R. increase in length = 2R 2r = 2(R r) Strain = Y = 2 R 2 r r = R r r
Stress Stress = Strain R r r R r Y R r r A

stress = Y
Force = stress area =

8. (A) Let q1 and q2 be the charges. Force of attraction = q q

0 1 2 2
= 0.108 q
... (1) q 2 ... (2)
4 0.5
After connecting and disconnecting the charges on each becomes = q q

0 2 2 2 2 2
Net force of repulsion =
= 0.036
0.5
From (1), q1q2 = 0.108 4 0 (0.5) q1q2 = 0.108 4 From (2), q 1 q

2 2 0
0.5
12
= 3 10
12
= 4 10
6
q1 q2 = 2 10 q
1
2 2
= q
6
2 2
4 q q = 4 10
1 2
12
4 3 10
12
q1 + q2 = 4 10 q1 q2 = 2 10 q1 = 3 C
q2 = 1 C
9. (C) For isothermal change, P V 2

1
= PV
P1 = 2P, where P1 is the pressure after isothermal change. Let P2 be the pressure after adiabatic compression.

V 4
= P
V 2 = 2P 2
3 2
P = 2P
2
=2 2
2 P = 5.64 P
SECTION II 10. (A) 11. (D) 12. (A) 13. (D) SECTION III 14. (A) Displacement is maximum when cos (96t) = 1 At x = 5 cm, the maximum displacement = 4 sin = 4 sin = 4 sin 15. (A) At nodes, the displacement is always zero. Hence nodes are located at values of x given by, sin x 15 x 15 =0 = p x 15 5 15 3 = 4 3 = 3.46 cm 2
where p = 0, 1, 2, 3, .... etc., x = 15; p = 0, 15, 30, 45 and 60 16. (A) The velocity of the string at point x at time t is obtained by differentiating x cos 96t y = 4 sin 15 with respect to time. dy dt = 4 96 sin x 15 sin 96 t
At x = 7.5, t = 0.2 s, the velocity is zero. because at t = 0.2 s, sin 96t = sin 24 = 0 17. (A) Position vector r CM = Given m1 = 100 g, r r
1 2
m r
1
1 1
2 2
m 2 = 300 g 5j 4j 13k 2k
= 2i = 6i
CM
= =
100 2 i 1 4 dr
CM
5j
13k
300 400
6i
4j
2k
16 i
17 j
1 1
7k m v m
2 2 2
18. (B) v CM =
1
dt
m v
v = 10 i v = 7i
2
7j 9j
3k 6k 7j 3k 400 300 7 i 9j 6k
CM
= =
100 10 i 1 4
31 i
34 j
15k
19. (D) The velocity of the second particle in a frame of reference travelling with centre of mass. v
2
CM
= 7i = 1 4
9j 3i
6k 2j
1 4 9k
31 i
34 j
15k
SECTION IV 20. (A) (r); (B) (s); (C) (q); (D) (p) 21. (A) (p); (B) (s); (C) (r); (D) (q) 22. (A) (s); (B) (r); (C) (p); (D) (q)
PART B : CHEMISTRY
SECTION I n atomic weight
1
23. (A) Density of FCC =
V Avogadros number
1
Density for BCC, = n n V V
n atomic weight
2
V Avogadros number
2
FCC BCC
1 2
2 1
n1 = number of units for FCC = 8 1 8 n2 = number of units for BCC = 8 1 8

FCC BCC
6 1= 2
1 =4 2
4 3 10 2 3.5 10
8 8
3 3
= 1.259
1.26
24. (C) Lower the value of E0, higher will be the tendency to get oxidised or it will act as a strong reducing agent. The order of reducing powers is B
n
2
>C
>A
25. (D) Adsorption (both physical and chemical) involves attraction among adsorbate and adsorbent molecules, thus energy is given out to attain more stable form. Hence adsorption is an exothermic process. H 26. (B) H C H CC CC H C H butyne-1 sp sp
3 3 3
C C
C C sp sp sp sp
27. (B)
28. (A)
CH
C COOH CH
soda lime
NaOH
CH
ter-butanoic acid
neobutane
CH
di-ter-butyl ketone forms only one monochloro product, shows that it contains only one type of alkyl group and it may be CH C COOH. This is proved by its
3
Since the compound liberates CO2 with NaHCO3 solution, it is an acid. It
conversion to neobutane and di-ter-butyl ketone. 29. (B) Cox NO 2

1
(ii) distil
(i) Ca(OH)2
C CO C CH
NH
0 3
x1+0=+2 x = 3. 30. (A) NH

4
2
Cr O Cr2O3 + N2 + 4H2O
2 7
heat
31. (D) This is aqua regia. 3HCl + HNO3 NOCl + Cl2 + 2H2O SECTION II 32. (A) Structure of diborane is
Four terminal hydrogen atoms (Ht) lie in the same plane. The two bridging molecule and prevent rotation between the two boron atoms. OH ion is not an ambidentate ligand.
hydrogen atoms (Hb) are in the plane perpendicular to the rest of the 33. (B) Linkage isomerism is possible with the ligand, if it is an ambidentate ligand.
34. (C) RMgX is a Lewis base and attacks on electron deficient atoms. 35. (D) The conjugate base of HSO HSO
4 4
is SO
2
2 4
H+ + SO 4
36. (B) Radioactivity is not affected by chemical combination and temperature. 37. (B) = t 0.693 12.2 = = 0.0568 day log 100 20 =
1
2.303
2.303 0.0568
80%
0.6990
= 28.34 days 38. (D)

60
Co is used for treating tumors. I is used for hyperthyroidism.
131
Radio P is used to treat leukemia. 39. (D) Keto-enol tautomerism is possible only in those aldehydes and ketones which have at least one -hydrogen atom. O CH
3
O
2
OH
3
O
3
C CH
C CH
CH
C = CH C CH
Tautomerism not possible in benzophenone. 40. (C) Nitro compounds exhibit tautomerism. CH N O O CH = N 2 OH O
Tautomers can be separated and characterised. Polar protic solvents tend to stabilise the keto form relative to the enol form and thus reduce the enol content.
10
41. (D) SECTION IV 42. (A) (r); (B) (q); (C) (q), (s); (D) (p) (A) C = O CH2, Clemmensen reduction CHO; Stephen reduction (C) C N COOH; hydrolysis
2 3 2
(B) COCl CHO, Rosenmund reduction
(D) HCOOH + 2 Ag NH
2OH
2Ag + CO2 + 4NH3 + 2H2O
Tollens reagent 43. (A) (p), (q); (B) (q); (C) (r), (s); (D) (s)
(A) sp2
Bent
SnCl2 (one lone pair)
(B) sp3
Bent
(Two lone pairs)
(C) sp d
linear
XeF2 (Three lone pairs)
44. (A) (r); (B) (q); (C) (q), (s); (D) (p) (A) 2KNO3 2KNO2 + O2 (B) NH4NO2 N2 + 2H2O (C) NH Cr O Cr2O3 + N2 + 4H2O
2 7 2+ heat heat
4 2
It oxidises Fe
Fe
3+
(D) CaCO3 CaO + CO2

11
PART C : MATHEMATICS
SECTION I 45. (D) The given inequality is x 3 x 5 >0 [x] > 5 Either [x] < 3 or Only (D) fits. 46. (D) p can take the values from 0 to 9. Exhaustive cases = 10. Roots are real p
2
4
2
1 2p 4
3 0
p 2p 3 0 (p + 1) (p 3) 0 p 1, p 1 is not possible. p can be 3, 4, 5, 6, 7, 8, 9 Favourable cases = 7. Required probability = 47. (A) Let = 2k 2 2 = k 7 10 p3
Equation to the chord is x a cos y b sin 2 = cos k
Dividing by cos k x cos a cos k 2 Put 2 y sin =1 b cos k 2
= , a cos k = A, b cos k = B, x A
2 2
then the above line touches the ellipse

2 2
= 1
12
Its eccentricity =
B A
2
a cos
k
2
b cos
2
a cos = a
2
b a
2
= e
48. (B) 1 + sin 2x + 2 sin x + 2 cos x = 0 (sin x + cos x)2 + 2 (sin x + cos x) = 0 (sin x + cos x) (sin x + cos x + 2) = 0 sin x + cos x = 0 or sin x + cos x = 2 (This is not possible) sin x + cos x = 0 2 1 2 sin x 1 2 4 x 4 cos x =0
sin
= 0 = n 4 = 4 3 4 = 7 4
x = n Put n = 1, x = n = 2, x = 2 4
These are the 2 solutions in (0, 2) 49. (C) 2 a c b 2 a c 2 ab c 1 b b =0
2 ab c = 0
Since b and c are arbitrary vectors. 2 a c a c = 1 2 3 1 = 0, a b = 0 a and b are perpendicular.
Since a and c are unit vectors, angle between a and c is

13
50. (C) [x ] is an integer = n say sin [x ] = sin n = 0 Also 1 + [x] + [x]2 0 for any x f(x) = 0 for all x f(4) + f( 4) = 0. 51. (B) (a + qd) = (a + pd) (a + rd) a 2q d a = 2q pr 2pr r = p 2q q r 2 = = 52. (B) tan tan B 2 B 2 b b x x = C 2 q 2 q C 2q r p 2 q c A cot c 2 A 2 = b b y = 1 1 c c c c y y = a a c a z = 1 1 a a z z = b b a b p p p q
2 2 2
r =d r
pr
q = d a
[p, q, r are in H.P.] p p r q

2
r 2q
1 = = b b
tan c c b c
x = 1 1
(1 + x) (1 + y) (1 + z) = (1 x) (1 y) (1 z) 1 + x + xy + xyz = 1 x + xy xyz 2 x = 2xyz x = xyz x y xyz

1
14
53. (B) x lies between 2 and 7 2 + x, 7 x are positive Apply AM GM 4 7 4 4 9 9 7 x

4 4
5 5 2
5
2 5
x
5
7 4
2 5
4 5
(7 x)4 (2 + x)5 44 55 Maximum value is 44 55 SECTION II 54. (A) P(A B) = P(A) + P(B) P(AB) = 1 = 3 4 3 4 1 4 1 3 1 3 = 1 3 5 6
5 3 1 = = 6 12 4 1 4
P(A) P(B) =
A and B are independent. Both (1) and (2) are true. Statement (2) is the correct explanations for statement (1) 55. (A) Any point on the line is (x1, 1 2x1) Chord of contact from this point to x + y = 4 xx1 + y (1 2x1) = 4 x1 (x 2y) + (y 4) = 0 It passes through the intersection of y 4 = 0 and x 2y = 0 i.e., (8, 4). 56. (D) Given log z
i 2 2
5 < log
13
Base |z + i| > 1 z lies outside the circle with centre (0, 1) and radius 1. Statement 1 is false.
15
57. (A) Because of the given condition sin < sin < sin Now f(x) = (x sin ) (x sin ) + (x sin ) (x sin ) + (x sin ) (x sin ) f(sin ) = (sin sin ) (sin sin ) = ()() = +ve f(sin ) = (sin sin ) (sin sin ) = ()(+) = ve f(sin ) = (sin sin ) (sin sin ) = (+)(+) = +ve Equation f(x) = 0 has one root between sin and sin and another root between sin and sin statement (1) is true. SECTION III 58. (B) p + q = 2; pq = A r + s = 18; rs = B Subtracting we get, (r p) + (s q) = 16 2d + 2d = 16, d=4 qp=4 (q + p)2 = (q p)2 + 4pq 4 = 16 + 4A A=3 (s + r)2 = (s r)2 + 4sr 182 = 16 + 4B 4B = 308 B = 77 (A, B) = ( 3, 77) 59. (A) + + = 0 1+=0 =1 It is a root of x + px + q = 0 1p+q=0 qp=1
3
d is the common difference of A.P.
16
60. (B) Sum of the roots = 8 Product of the roots = 16 Equal root is 2 x 8x + ax + bx + 16 (x 2)4 = x 8x + 24 x 32x + 16 Comparing the coefficient of x2, a = 24 Comparing the coefficient of x, b = 32 (a, b) = (24, 32) 61. (B) Required limit
Lt a
x x x
= ex
1 3 1 3
b 3 a
x
1 x 1 c
x
Lt
x 0
1 x log b
1 x
=e =e =e =e
x log c
e
log a
e
1 log abc e 3
1
log
abc 3 1 3
= abc 62. (D) Required limit

Lt
abc
tan
= ex = ex = ex =e =e
4 tan x tan x
1 x
Lt
0
1 1
1 x
Lt
0
2 tan x 1 tan x x tan x x Lt

x 0
2 Lt
x 0
1 tan x
2 1 1
= e
17
63. (C) Required limit

Lt
2
1 1
cot x cos x
1 cos x
=e
Lt
cos x sin x
2
cos x 1 cos x
1 cos x
Lt
=e
=e
1 1 sin x 1 cos x
=e SECTION IV 64. (A) (p); (B) (p); (C) (r); (D) (s) (A) SX SP = RS
2
1 1
1 0
=e =1
SX RS = = sin RS SP QX QR = PQ2 PQ QX = = cos PQ QR

2 2
[from PRS]
[from PQR]
QX PQ
SX RS
= 1
(B) The equations of the four lines are x + y = 3, x y = 3, x y = 3, x + y = 3 They are marked in the figure
From the figure it is clear that origin is the only point lying inside the region bounded by the four lines.
18
(C) The given equation is cos x sin x 1 = 2 sin x sin x

2
cos x 1 = 2 sin x 2 cos2 x + cos x 3 = 0 (2 cos x + 3) (cos x 1) = 0 cos x = 3 2 . This is not possible.
cos x = 1 x = 0 or 2 which is not in (0, 2 ) no solution. (D) 3 tan2 x 10 sec x + 6 = 0 3 (sec x 1) 10 sec x + 6 = 0 3 sec x 10 sec x + 3 = 0 (3 sec x 1) (sec x 3) = 0 sec x = 1 3 This is not possible.
2 2
sec x = 3 This has two solutions in [0, 2 ] and [2 , 4] One more solution in 4, 4 2 4, 9 2
i.e., required value of k is 9
65. (A) (p); (B) (r); (C) (s); (D) (q) (A) Now OA = a + b + c , where O is the origin, OA is least when it is perpendicular to the plane. p = 3 7
2 2 2 2 2 2 2
= 49 14
7 14 = 7 2
Required least value =

19
(B) Given
vu u
w u u
v u = w u Also v w = 0 Now u v w
2
= u
2
2 2
2 2
2 u v
2 v w
2 u w
=1 +2 +3 0 = 14 (C) f( x) = f(x) f(x + 2) = f(x) f(2) = f(0) f( 2 + 2) = f( 2) f(0) = f( 2) = f(2) = f(0) 2f(0) = 0 f(0) = 0 f(2) = 0 f(4) = f(2 + 2) = f(2) = 0 (D) I =
2
dx cos x
4 4
tan x
sec x
4
dx
tan x dt
4
1 , taking tan x = t
t u u
4
1 1
2
0
du
, taking u = t
=2
1 2u
2
1 3u
4 1
=2
1 2
1 3
=2
1 6
1 3
20
66. (A) (s); (B) (r); (C) (q); (D) (p) (A) The equation to the tangent at is x cos a y sin = 1 b
The equation to the normal at is ax cos K is KL = a a

2
by sin a cos
=a
, 0 and L is
cos
, 0
cos
2 2
a cos a cos = a e cos

2 2 2 2
= a
2
a e cos
cos = 1
(B) Let CP = r1 and CP make an angle with the transverse axis. Then P is r 1 cos , r 1 sin It lies on the hyperbola. r
2 1
cos 4 = cos 4 cos 4

2 2
sin 9 sin 9
2
= 1
1 r
2 1
1 CP
2
sin 9 1 CQ 1 4
2
Put = 90 + , 1 CP
2
sin 4
cos 9
1 CQ
2
1 5 = 9 36
21
(C) Equation to AB, the chord of contact is 2x + 3y 9 = 0 OM = 9 13 81 13 81 13 = 6 13 9 117 13 , = AB = 4 13 81 = 36 13
OM2 = AM = 9
2
AM = PM = 4 9 13 1 2
12 13
The area of PAB = = AB PM 4 13 = 24 13
1 12 2 13
(D) a, b, c are in A.P. sin A + sin C = 2 sin B 2 sin cos A 2 C cos A 2 C = 2 2 sin B 2 cos B 2
B A C B B cos = 2 sin cos 2 2 2 2 cos A 2 C 2 cos C = 2 sin A 2 C B 2

2
2 cos
= 2 2 sin
B 2
cos A + cos C = 2 (1 cos B) cos A + 2 cos B + cos C = 2.
IIT-JEE 2008 STS IV/PCM/P(II)/QNS
BRILLIANT S
IIT-JOINT ENTRANCE EXAMINATION, 2008

PAPER II PHYSICS CHEMISTRY MATHEMATICS
QUESTION PAPER CODE
Time: 3 Hours INSTRUCTIONS:
DO NOT BREAK THE SEALS ON THIS BOOKLET, AWAIT INSTRUCTIONS FROM THE INVIGILATOR
Maximum Marks: 243
A. General 1. This booklet is your Question Paper containing 66 questions. The booklet has 26 pages. 2. This question paper CODE is printed on the right hand top corner of this sheet and on the back page (page no. 26) of this booklet. 3. This question paper contains 2 blank pages for your rough work. No additional sheets will be provided for rough work. 4. Blank papers, clipboards, log tables, slide rules, calculators, cellular phones, pagers and electronic gadgets in any form are not allowed to be carried inside the examination hall. 5. Fill in the boxes provided below on this page and also write your Name and Enrollment No. in the space provided on the back page (page no. 26) of this booklet. 6. The answer sheet, a machine-readable Objective Response Sheet (ORS), is provided separately. 7. DO NOT TAMPER WITH/MUTILATE THE ORS OR THE BOOKLET. 8. Do not break the seals of the questions-paper booklet before being instructed to do so by the invigilators. B. Filling the ORS 9. On the lower part of the ORS, write in ink, your name in box L1, your Enrollment No. in box L2 and Name of the Centre in box L3. Do not write these anywhere else. 10. The ORS has a CODE printed on its lower and upper parts. 11. Make sure the CODE on the ORS is the same as that on this booklet and put your signature in ink in box L4 on the ORS affirming that you have verified this. 12. IF THE CODES DO NOT MATCH, ASK FOR A CHANGE OF THE BOOKLET. C. Question paper format: Read the instructions printed on the back page (page no. 26) of this booklet. D. Marking scheme: Read the instructions on the back page (page no. 26) of this booklet.
I have read all the instructions and shall abide by them. ............................................... Signature of the Candidate
I have verified all the informations filled in by the Candidate. ............................................... Signature of the Invigilator
IIT/STS IV/PCM/P(II)/Qns - 1
SEAL
Name: .
Enrollment No.:
SEAL
PART A : PHYSICS SECTION I Straight Objective Type This section contains 9 multiple choice questions numbered 1 to 9. Each question has four choices (A), (B), (C) and (D), out of which ONLY ONE is correct. 1. A rocket is launched in space free from all gravitational matter. It takes fuel at a constant rate . Initially the mass of fuel is comparable to the mass of rocket. If the entire fuel gets burnt out in T seconds, which one of the following graphs represents the variation of speed of rocket with time? (A) (B)
Fig. (A) (C) (D)
Fig. (B)
Fig. (C)
Fig. (D)
2. An elastic spring has a length when the tension in it is 4N. Its length is when the tension is 5N. What will be its length, when the tension is 9N? (A) + (B) (C) (5 4) (D) 9 4
3. A brass sphere immersed completely in water at 0C weighs 1.5 kgwt. If water is heated to 50C with sphere immersed in it althrough, the weight of the sphere now is (A) 1.5 kgwt (B) > 1.5 kgwt (C) < 1.5 kgwt (D) [1.5 (1 50x)] kgwt where x is volume coefficient of water 4. Light propagates with speed 2.2 10 m/sec and 2.4 10 m/sec in two media P and Q respectively. The critical angle of incidence for light undergoing reflection from P and Q is (A) sin
1
5 11
(B) sin
5 12
(C) sin
11 12
(D) sin
1 11
5. Three wires of equal length and same material are connected to a battery as shown in Figure. Which one of the following graphs represent the variation of electric field E under the conductor with distance x measured along the wire and positive terminal of the battery? (A) (B)
Fig. (A) (C) (D)
Fig. (B)
Fig. (C)
Fig. (D) SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK
6. In a nuclear experiment, -particles and protons are to describe circular path of same radius in a given uniform magnetic field. The ratio of their kinetic energies must be (A) 1 (B) 2 (C) 4 (D) 1 2
7. An ideal gas is taken round the cycle ABCA as shown in P V diagram. The net work done by the gas during the cycle is (A) 12 P1 V1 (B) 6 P1 V1 (C) 3 P1 V1 (D) P V 1 1 8. A transverse wave is described by the equation y = y0 sin 2 (nt ). What should be the value of so that the maximum particle velocity is equal to four times the wave velocity? (A) yo (B) yo 2 (C) 2yo 3y (D)
o
9. Two parallel plate capacitors of capacities C and 2C are connected in parallel and charged to a potential V. The battery is then disconnected and region between the plates of condenser of capacity C is completely filled with a material of dielectric constant k. What will be the potential difference across the capacitors now? (A) 3V k 2 (B) kV (C) V k (D) kV 3
SECTION II Assertion and Reason Type This section contains 4 questions numbered 10 to 13. Each question contains STATEMENT 1 (Assertion) and STATEMENT 2 (Reason). Each question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and (D), out of which ONLY ONE is correct. (A) Statement 1 is True, statement 2 is True; statement 2 is a correct explanation for statement 1. (B) Statement 1 is True, statement 2 is True; statement 2 is not a correct explanation for statement 1. (C) Statement 1 is True, statement 2 is False. (D)Statement 1 is False, statement 2 is True. 10. Statement 1: The relative velocity of the two particles in head-on collision is unchanged both in magnitude and direction. because Statement 2: The relative velocity is unchanged in magnitude but gets reversed in direction. 11. Statement 1: The phenomena of beats is not observed in the case of visible light waves. because Statement 2: To observe beats,the difference between the two interfering frequencies must be less than about 10 16 Hz. 12. Statement 1: A sphere and a thin circular disc of same mass are made of the same material. If they are heated to the same high temperature, the rate of cooling is maximum for the plate and minimum for sphere. because Statement 2: The rate of loss of heat is proportional to the surface area. 13. Statement 1: A ray of light incident normally on a refracting surface does not suffer any refraction. because Statement 2: The angle of refraction r is given by Snells law, sin r = sin i . SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK
SECTION III Linked Comprehension Type This section contains two paragraphs. Based upon each paragraph three multiple choice questions have to be answered. Each question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and (D), out of which ONLY ONE is correct. Passage for Question Nos. 14 to 16 A train approaching a hill at a speed of 40 km/hr sounds a whistle of frequency 580 Hz when it is at a distance of 1 km from the hill. A wind with a speed of 40 km/hr is blowing in the direction of motion of train. Velocity of sound = 1200 km/hr. 14. Find the frequency of the whistle as heard by an observer on the hill. (A) 599.33 Hz (B) 590.33 Hz (C) 582.30 Hz (D) 570.22 Hz 15. What is the distance from the hill at which the echo from the hill is heard by the driver? (A) 15 16 km (B) 20 31 km (C) 17 18 km (D) 29 30 km
16. What is the frequency heard by the driver? (A) 620 Hz (B) 630 Hz (C) 650 Hz (D) 640 Hz Passage for Question Nos. 17 to 19 Two boys each of mass, 25 kg are sitting on the opposite ends of a horizontal beam of mass 10 kg and length 2.6 m. The beam is rotating at a vertical axis through its centre at 5 revolutions per minute. 17. Find the initial angular momenta. (A) 15 J sec (B) 10 J sec (C) 8 J sec (D) 24 J sec 18. What would be the angular velocity of each boy moves 0.6 m towards the centre of the beam without touching the floor? (A) 15 revolutions/minute (C) 27 revolutions/minute (A) 24.6 J (B) 15.81 J (B) 18 revolutions/minute (D) 16 revolutions/minute (C) 30.2 J (D) 48.2 J
19. What is the change in kinetic energy of the system? SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK
SECTION IV Matrix-Match Type This section contains 3 questions. Each question contains statements given in two columns which have to be matched. Statements (A, B, C, D) in Column I have to be matched with statements (p, q, r, s) in Column II. The answers to these questions have to be appropriately bubbled as illustrated in the following example. If the correct matches are A-p, A-s, B-q, B-r, C-p, C-q and D-s, then the correctly bubbled 4 4 matrix should be as follows:
20. Column I lists the way in which the mass m is suspended by springs and Column II lists the frequency of oscillation of the mass. The spring constant of each spring is k. Column I Column II (A) (p) 1 2 1 2 k 2m 2k m
(B)
(q)
(C)
(r)
1 2
2k 3m k 2m
(D)
(s)
1 4
21. Column I lists the different phenomena observed in light and Column II lists the name of the phenomena. Match them. Column I Column II
(A) Light of one wavelength absorbed by a (p) Spherical aberration substance results in reemission of light of greater wavelengths (B) When light falls on particles where size (q) Chromatic aberration is smaller than the wavelength of light, the light is scattered and the amount of scattering is inversely proportional to fourth power of wavelength (C) When parallel beam of white light is passed through a lens different colours are focussed at different places (D) If the aperture of a lens is large, all the rays from any axial point after refraction through a lens are not focussed at a single point (r) Rayleigh s scattering
(s) Fluorescence
22. Column I lists the physical quantities and Column II lists the units of these quantities. Match them. Column I (A) Capacitance (B) Inductance (C) Magnetic Inductance (D) Specific resistance Column II (p) Ohm metre (q) Newton (ampere metre ) (r) Ohm second (s) Coulomb volt
1 1
PART B : CHEMISTRY SECTION I Straight Objective Type This section contains 9 multiple choice questions numbered 23 to 31. Each question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and (D), out of which ONLY ONE is correct. 23. For the reaction A+B
k1 k2
3 C D. The rate law is given by the expression
slow
(A) Rate =
k k
1
(B) Rate = k2 [A] [B] k k A C B
(C) Rate = k
D
3
(D) Rate =
24. In the first excited state of sodium atom, the outermost electron has an angular momentum (A) zero (B) h 2 (C) 6 h 2 (D) 2 h 2
25. x mL of hydrogen gas effuses through an orifice in a container in 10 s. The time taken for the effusion of the same volume of the gas given below under the identical conditions is, (A) 10 seconds, He (C) 25 seconds, CO (B) 40 seconds, O2 (D) 50 seconds, CO2 SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK
10
26. The correct order of increasing C O bond lengths of CO2, HCO (A) HCO < CO < CO (B) HCO < CO < CO < CO
and CO is
(C) CO < CO
< HCO
(D) CO < HCO
27. The strength of the trihalides as Lewis acid increases in the order BF3 < BCl3 < BBr3 (weakest) (strongest) Which is correct of the following statements? (A) The tendency to form p p bonding is maximum in BF3. (B) The tendency to accept electron pair increases from BF to BBr . 3 3 (C) Due to back bonding, the electron deficiency of boron atom is partly made up and hence Lewis acid character of BF3 decreases. (D) All are correct. 28. In compounds of the type ECl3, where E = B, P, As or Bi the angle Cl E Cl for different atoms of E are in the order (A) B > P = As = Bi (C) B < P = As = Bi 29. The product of the reaction (B) B > P > As > Bi (D) B < P < As < Bi

is
11
(A) 1-chloro-1-methylcyclohexane (B) 2-chloro-1-methylcyclohexane (C) 1-chloro-2-methylcyclohexane (D) 1,2-dichloro-2-methylcyclohexane 30. In the conversion
The reagent R and the product formed are respectively (A) Zn (Hg) in HCl and (B) NH2 NH2/NaOEt and
(C) Ethylene glycol and
(D) Ethylene glycol and
31. Which of the following sequences regarding activating effects of the given o, p directors is correct? (A) O < OH < OCOCH 3 (C) O > OH < OCOCH3

(B) O > OH > OCOCH3 (D) O = OH > OCOCH3
12
SECTION II Assertion and Reason Type This section contains 4 questions numbered 32 to 35. Each question contains STATEMENT 1 (Assertion) and STATEMENT 2 (Reason). Each question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and (D), out of which ONLY ONE is correct. (A) Statement 1 is True, statement 2 is True; statement 2 is a correct explanation for statement 1. (B) Statement 1 is True, statement 2 is True; statement 2 is not a correct explanation for statement 1. (C) Statement 1 is True, statement 2 is False. (D) Statement 1 is False, statement 2 is True. 32. Statement 1: Although benzene contains three double bonds, normally it does not undergo addition reaction because Statement 2: Benzene is immiscible with water 33. Statement 1: The dipole moment of p-nitrotoluene is expected to be larger than p-chloronitrobenzene because Statement 2: Chloro group is primarily electron-withdrawing and methyl group is electron repelling. 34. Statement 1: The H As H bond angle in AsH3 is greater than H N H bond angle in NH3 because Statement 2: Electronegativity values of N and As are 3.0 and 2.0 respectively. 35. Statement 1: The enthalpy of fusion of KCl is greater than that of naphthalene because Statement 2: KCl is an ionic compound but naphthalene is a covalent compound. SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK
13
SECTION III Linked Comprehension Type Paragraph for Question Nos. 36 to 38 N2O4 dissociates according to the equation N O (g) 2 4 2 NO2 (g) When 0.578 g of N2O4 was introduced into a one litre flask maintained at 300 K, the equilibrium pressure was 0.238 atm. 36. The degree of dissociation is (A) 0.2 (B) 0.85 (C) 0.4 (D) 0.5 37. K of the reaction is p (A) 0.32 (B) 0.5 (C) 0.4 (D) 0.2 38. What happens when some more NO2(g) is added to the system at equilibrium? (A) Kp decreases (B) Kp increases (C) Kp neither increases nor decreases (D) None Paragraph for Question Nos. 39 to 41 Carboxylic acids are weak acids and their carboxylate anions are strong conjugate bases. The aqueous solutions of carboxylate salts are slightly alkaline due to hydrolysis of carboxylate anion. Compared to other species, the order of acidity is R COOH > HOH > ROH > HC CH > NH3 > RH The acidity of carboxylic acid is due to the resonance stabilization of its anion
14
39. Which of the following is the correct order of acidic strength of compounds? (I) 1-methylpentanoic acid (II) 2-methylpentanoic acid (III) 3-methylpentanoic acid (A) III > II > I (B) I > II > III (C) II > I > III (D) none
40. o-nitrocinnamic acid on oxidation with cold aqueous KMnO4 gives (A) o-nitrobenzoic acid (C) o-nitrocinnamaldehyde (B) o-nitrobenzaldehyde
(D) o-nitrophenylacetic acid
41.
. The main product X is
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
SECTION IV Matrix-Match Type This section contains 3 questions. Each question contains statements given in two columns which have to be matched. Statements (A, B, C, D) in Column I have to be matched with statements (p, q, r, s) in Column II. The answers to these questions have to be appropriately bubbled as illustrated in the following example. If the correct matches are A-p, A-s, B-q, B-r, C-p, C-q and D-s, then the correctly bubbled 4 4 matrix should be as follows: SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK
15
p A B C D 42. (A) (B) Column I Zn Zn Pt, H

2+ c
1
q q q q q
r r r r r
s s s s s Column II
p p p p
Zn
+ c
1
2+ c
2
Zn H , Pt
2
(p) Electrochemical cell (q) gas electrode
+ c
1
p atm 1 (C) Zn Zn
2+ c
1
p2 atm Ag
+ c
2
Ag
(r) concentration cell (s) metal-metal ion electrode Column II (p) Ammonium molybdate
(D) Nernst equation 43. (A) (B) (C) (D) Column I PO

3 4
Pb
2+
(q) (r) (s)
Potassium chromate Potassium chloride Hydrogen sulphide
Ag
Cu
2+
16
44. (A)
Column I (p)
Column II Optical isomerism
(B)
(q)
Geometrical isomerism
(C)
(r)
Beckmann rearrangement
(D)
(s)
Walden inversion
17
PART C : MATHEMATICS SECTION I Straight Objective Type This section contains 9 multiple choice questions numbered 45 to 53. Each question has four choices (A), (B), (C), (D) out of which ONLY ONE is correct. 45. The value of x satisfying the equation cot (x + y) + tan (x + y) = 1 + 2x x is (A) 1 (A) 3 (A) 10
2 2 2 2
(B) 2
2006
(C) 3 +7
2006
(D) 1 (D) 7 (D) 1
46. The remainder when 3 (B) 5 (B) 11
+ 2007 is divided by 29 is
(C) 6 (C) 9
47. If f{x + f(y)} = f(x) + y for all x, y R and f(0) = 1, then the value of f(10) is 48. If the product of the slopes of any two normals out of three normals drawn from (h, k) to y = 4ax is 2, then the locus of (h, k) is (A) a straight line (C) a parabola 49. If < < 3 2 value of 4 sin
4
(B) a circle (D) an ellipse sin 2 (C) 2

2
2 2
4 cos
is
(A) 2 + 4 sin (B) 2 4 sin
(D) 2 + 4 cos
2
50. Given that x [0, 1] and y [0, 1] let E1 be the event of (x, y) satisfying y x and E2 be the event of (x, y) satisfying x y then (A) P (E1 E2) = 1 3 (C) E1 and E2 are exhaustive (B) P (E1 E2) = 1 2 (D) E1 and E2 are independent
18
51. The real value of k such that a root of (k 2) m (3k 4) m + k = 0 is the slope of a line parallel to y-axis is (A) 1 52. The value of function is
2
(B) 2
(C) 2
x
(D) 3
e
0
d x
where [ ] represents the greatest integer
(A) (e + 1) (e 1) (C) e 1 53. The sum of cot (A) 4

1
(B) (e 1) (e + 1) (D) e + 1
2
3 + cot 2
7 + cot
13 + cot
21 + cot
31 is
1
(B)
(C) cot
5 7
(D) cot
7 5
SECTION II Assertion and Reason Type This section contains 4 questions numbered 54 to 57. Each question contains STATEMENT 1 (Assertion) and STATEMENT 2 (Reason). Each question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and (D), out of which ONLY ONE is correct. (A) Statement 1 is True, statement 2 is True; statement 2 is a correct explanation for statement 1. (B) Statement 1 is True, statement 2 is True; statement 2 is not a correct explanation for statement 1. (C) Statement 1 is True, statement 2 is False. (D)Statement 1 is False, statement 2 is True. SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK
19
54. Statement 1: because Statement 2:
1 1
cos 2x cos 2x
dx =
f x dx = 2 f x dx if f(x) is even
a 0
= 0 if f(x) is odd 55. Statement 1:

n
3 C
3 C
(n + 3)
n n r 2
= because Statement 2: 56. Statement 1:

n
Cr
Cr + Cr 1 =
(n + 1)
Cr
2 2
The angle of intersection of the curves x = 5 4y and y = x at (1, 1) is 2
because Statement 2: The angle of intersection of two curves at a point of intersection is = tan
1
m 1
m
1
2 2
m m
where m1 and m2 are the slopes of the
tangents to the curves at the point. SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK
20
57. Statement 1:
If one root of the equation x + ax + 12 = 0 is 4 while the equation 2 x + ax + b = 0 has equal roots, then the value of b is equal to 49 4
because Statement 2: If the roots of ax + bx + c = 0 are equal, then b 4ac = 0. SECTION III Linked Comprehension Type This section contains 2 paragraphs. Based upon each paragraph, 3 multiple choice questions have to be answered. Each question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and (D), out of which ONLY ONE is correct. Paragraph for Questions 58 to 60 Let S = 0 L=0 ... (1) ... (2)
2 2
be the equations respectively conic and a line. Then the combined equation of the straight lines joining the origin to the points of intersection of (1) and (2) can be got by homogenising (1) with (2) 58. The lines joining the origin to the points of intersection of y = mx + c and x + y = 1 are at right angles then c is (A) m + 1
2
(B)
m
2
(C)
(D)
y 59. A tangent to x = 1 meets its director circle at P and Q. Then the product 16 9 of the slopes of CP and CQ where C is the centre of the ellipse is (A) 9 16 (B) 9 16 (C) 16 9 (D) 1
21
60. The line x + y = 1 meets x y = 4 at P and Q. Angle between CP and CQ where C is the centre of the hyperbola is (A) tan
1
1 2
1
(B) tan
1 3 2
(C) tan
1 4
(D)
Paragraph for Questions 61 to 63 sin x + cos

1
x=
if 1 x 1
1 x
tan
x + tan
y = tan
y xy y xy y xy is
1
if x > 0, y > 0 and xy < 1 if x > 0, y > 0 and xy > 1
= + tan tan
1
1 x
x tan
1
y = tan cos
1
1 x
1 49 50
61. The value of cos (A) tan

1
12 13
48 79
(B) tan
1
47 79
1
(C) tan
46 79
(D) tan
1 36
79
62. The value of tan (A) 4

1
2 + tan 4
1
3 is (C) 3 4 (D) 5 4
(B) x + cos
63. Let f(x) = sin (A) f ( 3) (C) f 1 1
x. Then
is equal to
(B) f ( 2)
4
, R
(D) f ( 2 + 3), R
22
SECTION IV MATRIX-MATCH TYPE This section contains 3 questions. Each question contains statements given in two columns which have to be matched. Statements (A, B, C, D) in Column I have to be matched with statements (p, q, r, s) in Column II. The answers to these questions have to be appropriately bubbled as illustrated in the following example. If the correct matches are A-p, A-s, B-q, B-r, C-p, C-q and D-s, then the correctly bubbled 4 4 matrix should be as follows: p A B C D p p p p q q q q q r r r r r s s s s s Column II (p) 4 2 5 0
Column I 64. (A) If 3 is a root of ax2 + bx + c = 0 and a, b, c are in AP, then the other root is (B) The value of tan 9 tan 27 tan 63 + tan 81 is (C) The value of sin
1
(q) sin
1
2 2 where [ ] denotes greatest integer function is

1
(r)
x x
1 x 1 x then f (2) is (s) 7 5
(D) If f x = cos
23
Column I 65.(A) The value of
Column II
2
1
x
x dx is
2
(p) 0
(B) The value of
e sec x e
2x
dx is
1 is
(q) 4
(C) The value of
dx 5
cos x
0 1
(r)
4 2 Column II (p) 5 3 (q) 2 z1
(D) The value of Column I
dx 1 x
2
is
(s)
0 x
66.(A) The greatest value of |z + 1| if |z + 4| 7 is (B) If z1, z2, z3 are the complex numbers of the vertices of an equilateral triangle, 1 1 1 then is z z z z z z
1 2 2 3 3 1
(C) The area of the parallelogram whose diagonals represent the vectors 3i j 2 k and i 3 j 4 k is (D) x, y, z are distinct real numbers such that the scalar triple product xa yb zc xb yc za xc ya where a, b, c are non-coplanar vectors then the value of x + y + z is SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK
(r) 10
(s) 0 zb = 0
24
25
Name: .
Enrollment No.:
C. Question paper format: 10. The question paper consists of 3 parts (Physics, Chemistry and Mathematics). Each part has 4 sections. 11. Section I contains 9 multiple choice questions. Each question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and (D), out of which only one is correct. 12. Section II contains 4 questions. Each question contains STATEMENT-1 (Assertion) and STATEMENT2 (Reason). Bubble (A) Bubble (B) Bubble (C) if both the statements are TRUE and STATEMENT-2 is the correct explanation of STATEMENT-1. if both the statements are TRUE but STATEMENT-2 is not the correct explanation of STATEMENT-1. if STATEMENT-1 is TRUE and STATEMENT-2 is FALSE.
Bubble (D) if STATEMENT-1 is FALSE and STATEMENT-2 is TRUE. 13. Section III contains 2 paragraphs. Based upon each paragraph, 3 multiple choice questions have to be answered. Each question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and (D), out of which only one is correct. 14. Section IV contains 3 questions. Each question contains statements given in 2 columns. Statements in the first column have to be matched with statements in the second column. The answers to these questions have to be appropriately bubbled in the ORS as per the instructions given at the beginning of the section. D. Marking scheme: 15. For each question in Section I, you will be awarded 3 marks if you darken only the bubble corresponding to the correct answer and zero mark if no bubble is darkened. In all other cases, minus one (1) mark will be awarded. 16. For each question in Section II, you will be awarded 3 marks if you darken only the bubble corresponding to the correct answer and zero mark if no bubble is darkened. In all other cases, minus one (1) mark will be awarded. 17. For each question in Section III, you will be awarded 4 marks if you darken only the bubble corresponding to the correct answer and zero mark if no bubble is darkened. In all other cases, minus one (1) mark will be awarded. 18. For each question in Section IV, you will be awarded 6 marks if you darken ALL the bubbles corresponding ONLY to the correct answer. No negative mark will be awarded for an incorrectly bubbled answer.
BRILLIANT S
IIT-JEE 2008 STS IV/PCM/P(II)/SOLNS

IIT-JOINT ENTRANCE EXAMINATION, 2008 PAPER II - SOLUTIONS PHYSICS CHEMISTRY MATHEMATICS PART A: PHYSICS
SECTION I 1. (B) The rocket is subjected to a constant force (the fuel burns at constant rate) but since its total mass is decreasing with time, the acceleration keeps on increasing. The speed thus does not increases linearly. After the entire fuel is burnt t = T, there is no force acting and hence no acceleration. The speed for t > T is constant. Fig. (D) is not correct because the acceleration is increasing in the figure. So Fig. (B) is correct picture. 2. (C) Let l be the actual length and k the spring constant. We then have l + 4 5 =, l+ = k k
1 = l = 4 ( ) = (5 4) k when tension is 9 N its length = l + 9( ) = 5 4 + 9 9 = (5 4) 3. (C) The new upthrust is V0 (1 + Bt) 0 (1 wt) which is V00 1
w
t , where w and B are cubical coefficient of
expansion of water and brass. Since w > B, this is less than V00 the original upthrust, the weight of the sphere now is < 1.5 kgwt.
Brilliant Tutorials Pvt. Ltd. IIT/STS IV/PCM/P(II)/Solns - 1
4. (C) The relative refractive index of the pair of media = = Speed of light in media 1 Speed of light in media 2 2.2 10 2.4 10
1 8 8
11 12
c = sin
11 12
5. (D) The electric field E is
V and V = current resistance. Since l and current are l the same for all the three wires, the electric fields are proportional to the resistances of the three wires. mv = qvB R R= qB mv B 2E
2
6. (A) We have
R=
qB 2mE
q m
For particles, m = 4Mp and q = 2qp Hence for same R, E = Ep 7. (C) No work is done by the charge AB Work done along BC is the area of PV diagram = P1 2V1 + 1 2V 3P 1 1 2 = 5P1V1 Work done along CA = 2V1P1 Net work done by the gas = 5V1P1 2V1P1 = 3V1P1 8. (B) y = y0 sin 2 nt x
= 2n, Amplitude a = y0 Maximum particle velocity = a = y0 = 2ny0

Wave velocity = n 2ny0 = 4n or = y

o
2 9. (A) In the first case, the equivalent capacity = C + 2C = 3C The charge stored = 3CV coulomb In the second case, the equivalent capacity = kC+ 2C = C (k + 2) potential = 3V charge 3CV = = capacity C k 2 k 2 SECTION II 10. (D) Applying the laws of conservation of linear momentum and kinetic energy, we find v2 v1 = (u2 u1). Thus the relative velocity is unchanged in magnitude but gets reversed in direction. 11. (A) To observe beats, the difference between two interfering frequencies must be less than 10 to 16 Hz. In visible light, waves have very high frequencies. So beats are not observed due to persistence of vision. 12. (A) Since the mass and material are same, the volumes must also be same. For same volume the surface area of plate is greatest and for sphere it is least. 13. (A) Angle of refraction r is given by sin r = sin i . Since angle i = 0, sin r = 0 or r = 0 implying that the ray incident normally on a surface goes through undeviated. SECTION III 14. (A) When both source and observer move along the same direction, the apparent frequency n = v v u u v v
o s
According to problem vo = 0 n = v v u u v
s
v = 1200 km/hr, u = 40 km/hr, vs = 40 km/hr, n = 580 n = 1200 40 580 = 599.3 Hz 1200 40 40

IIT/STS IV/PCM/P(II)/Solns - 3
15. (D) Let the echo be heard when train P is at distance x from hill. Time taken by train to reach P = distance SP 1 x = velocity of train 40 ... (1)
Time taken by echo to reach P = = distance SH v u 1 1200 40 distance PH v u x 1200 40 ... (2)
Comparing (1) and (2), 1 40 x = 1 1240 km x 1160
x=
29 31
16. (A) Frequency heard by driver n = = = v v u u v

o
1200 40 40 599.33 1200 40 1200 1160 599.33
= 620 Hz 17. (A) Initial moment of inertia of system = moment of inertia of rod + moment of inertia of boys = Ml 12 = =
2
mr
2
10 2.6 12 270.4 3
2 25 1.3
= 90.1 kg-m2
Initial angular speed = 2
5 60
6 3
rad/sec 6
Initial angular moment J = I =
270.4
= 15 J-sec 18. (A) When each boy moves 0.6 m towards centre, the new distance of boy from centre = 0.7 m M.I. of system I = Ml 12
2
mr
2
= 10 2.6 12
2 25 0.7
2
= 30.13 kg-m
If is the angular speed then according to principle of case, value of angular momentum J = I = I = I I 2 = 15 30.13 1 4 2 revolution sec
2n =
or n =
= 15 revolution/minute 19. (A) Change in K.E of rotation = = 1 2 J I

2 2
1 2
2
2I 15
J 2I
2
15
2 30.13
2 90.1
24.6 J
SECTION IV 20. (A) (q); (B) (p); (C) (q); (D) (r) 21. (A) (s); (B) (r); (C) (q); (D) (p) 22. (A) (s); (B) (r); (C) (q); (D) (p)
PART B : CHEMISTRY
SECTION I
23. (A) A + B
k1 k2
C D
k3
Slow
Rate = k3 [C], but
k k
1 2
C A B
Substituting for [C], Rate = k k k

2 1 3
[A] [B]
24. (D) Na 1s2 2s2 2p6 3s1 If the excited state is taken as 3p1, then for a p-electron, l = 1 Angular momentum = l l h 2 1 h 2
= 2 10 x
2
25. (B)
2 32 2 32
100 x
2
x =
32 100 = 1600 2
x = 40 s
26. (C) CO has a triple bond. CO2 has a double bond. In HCO , due to resonance the bond is in between single and a double bond.
3
27. (D)
resonance hybrid of the following canonical forms:
Formation of an additional p-p bond due to lateral overlap of vacant 2p-orbital of B and one filled 2p-orbital of F. Since any one of the three fluorine atoms can take part in back bonding, the structure of BF3 is a
28. (B) In compounds of type ECl3, the angle is in the order B > P > As > Bi. 29. (A) In presence of peroxide, HCl addition to unsymmetrical olefin will give only Markownikoff product. The secondary carbocation formed rearranges to the more stable 3 carbocation.
30. (D)
31. (B) The activating effect is O
>
OH >
OCOCH . The negative charge in

3
pushes electron pair towards benzene ring more strongly than OH
decreases this effect.
group. The attachment of COCH3 group with oxygen is
SECTION II
32. (B) Benzene gets stabilised because of resonance. 33. (A) In p-nitrotoluene, both group moments act in the same direction, while in p-chloronitrobenzene they act in the opposite direction.
34. (D) H N H bond angle in NH3 is greather than H As H bond angle in
AsH3. With the decrease in electronegativity of the elements, the size of the participation of s2 electrons in hybridisation becomes less important. H N H 106 45 ; H P H 94 ; H As H 91 48.
electron cloud increases from N to P to As. This causes greater distortion in pyramidal structure of the molecule. The bond angle approaches 90 and the
35. (A)
SECTION III
36. (D) Initial amount of N2O4 =
0.578 = 0.00628 mol. 92 2NO2(g) 2n
If is the degree of dissociation, N2O4(g) At equilibrium n (1 )
Total amount = n(1 ) + 2n = n(1 + ) PV = n(1 + ) RT = = PV nRT 1 1
0.238 1 0.00628 0.0821 308
= 0.5 37. (A) p N

O
=
4
1 1
= P =
2
0.5 0.238 = 0.0793 atm 1.5 2 1 P
NO
2 0.5 1.5 p
2 NO
2
0.238 = 0.159 atm

2
Kp =
=
4
0.159
N O
2
0.0793
= 0.319
38. (C) When more NO2 is added at equilibrium, according to Le-Chatelier principle, increases. But Kp does not change. greater is the acid strength.
the reaction proceeds in the reverse direction. i.e., concentration of N2O4
39. (A) CH3 group exerts + I effect. Farther the CH3 group from COOH group,
40. (A) 41. (B) Ac2O is a strong dehydrating agent. Hence
SECTION IV 42. (A) (p), (r), (s); (B) (p), (q), (r); (C) (p), (s); (D) (p), (q), (r), (s) 43. (A) (p); (B) (q), (r), (s); (C) (q), (r), (s); (D) (s) Phosphates give yellow precipitate with ammonium molybdate (A) H3PO4 + 12(NH4)2 MoO4 + 21 HNO3 (NH4)3PO4 12 MoO3 + 12 H2O + 21 NH4NO3 yellow ammonium phosphomolybdate (B) Pb2+ + K2CrO4 PbCrO4 + 2K+ Yellow Pb2+ + 2KCl PbCl2 + 2K+ White Pb2+ + H2S PbS + 2H+ (C) 2Ag + K2CrO4 Ag2CrO4 + 2K Red
+ +
10
2Ag+ + 2KCl 2AgCl + 2K+ 2Ag + H2S Ag2S + 2H Black

+ +
(D) Cu2+ + H2S CuS + 2H+ Black 44. (A) (p); (B) (p), (s); (C) (q); (D) (q), (r)
(A)
2, 3-pentadiene, non-superimposable mirror images.
(B)
(C)
(D)
In this rearrangement, the shift or migration of groups is always trans (anti) to the leaving group (eg. OH)
11
PART C : MATHEMATICS
SECTION I 45. (A) LHS 2, (Q cot (x + y) 1 > 0) Now 1 + 2x x2 = 1 [x2 2x] = 1 [(x 1) 1] = 2 (x 1) It is 2 RHS is 2 Only equality is possible. In this case x 1 = 0 x = 1 46. (C) The expression = 9
1003 1003 2 2 2
+ 49
+ 2001 + 6
= k (9 + 49) + 29 69 + 6 {because 1003 is odd, where k is an integer) = k 2 29 + 29 69 + 6 = M(29) + 6 required remainder is 6. 47. (D) In the given relation, put y = 0 f(x + f(0)) = f(x) + 0 f(x + 1) = f(x) Put x = 0 f (1) = f(0) = 1 Put x = 1 f (2) = f(1) = 1, f(3) = 1, .... Proceeding similarly, f(10) = 1 48. (C) Normal at t to the parabola y = 4ax is y + xt = 2at + at
3 3 2
It passes through (h, k). at + t(2a h) k = 0 If t1, t2, t3 are the roots, t1 + t2 + t3 = 0
... (1)
12
t1t2 + t2t3 + t3t1 = 2a t1 t2 t3 = k a
h a
... (2) ... (3)
If the product of the slopes of the normals at t1 and t2 is 2, then t1t2 = 2 From equation (3) t3 = k 2a By (2), 2 + t3 (t1 + t2) = 2a From (1), t1 + t2 = t3 = From (4) and (5), 2 k = 4ah Locus of (h, k) is y2 = 4ax, which is a parabola. 49. (C) The expression = 4 sin
4 2
h a k 2a
... (4) ...(5) h a
2 2
4a
=2
4 sin cos
2 1
cos 2
= 4 sin 2 1
2 1
sin
= 2|sin | + 2 (1 + sin ) Since lies in III quadrant, sin = sin
the value of the given expression is 2. 50. (A) P(E1) = area OQPAO area OAPBO
1
=
0
x dx =
1 1
2 3
13
P(E2) =
area ORPAO area OAPBO
=
0
y dy
11 = 2 3
P(E1 E2) =
area OQPRO area OAPBO

1 1 0
x dx
x 2 dx
1 3
11 = P(E1 E2) = 2 3 1 3 2 3 1 1 3 =
P(E1) + P(E2) = 2 3
E1 and E2 are not exhaustive. P(E1)P(E2) = 2 3 2 3 = 4 9 P E E

1 2
E1 and E2 are not independent.

14
51. (C) Slope of the line parallel to y-axis is infinity. coefficient m = 0 k 2=0 k =2 k= 2 (Other root cannot be infinity) If so, 3k 4 = 0 k= 4 3
2 2 2
They are not simultaneously true. 52. (B) Required integral =

1 2
e
0
dx
ex
1
d x
e
0 1
dx
ex
1 2
dx
= e 1 + e [e e] = e 1 + e3 e2 = e 1 + e2 (e 1) = (e 1) (e2 + 1) 53. (D) t1 = cot

1
(1 + 1 + 1 ) = tan
1 1 2 1 1 1 2 1
1
= tan = tan t2 = cot

1
1 1
2 tan
1
2
(1 + 2 + 22) = tan
1 1 3 1 2 2 32
1
= tan = tan
1 1
3 tan
2
15
Similarly, t3 = tan t4 = tan t5 = tan
4 tan 5 tan 6 tan
3 4 5 1 = tan
1 1
1 1
1 1
Adding, sum = tan = tan
1 1
6 tan 5 1
5 7 7 5
= cot
SECTION II 54. (D) Now, 1 1 cos 2x cos 2x = 2 sin x 2 cos x = tan2x .

4 2 2
I=2
tan x dx (Q tan2 x is even and by S2)
=2
sec x
1 dx
4 0
= 2 tan x =2 1 55. (A)

n n
x 4
S1 is false.
n n n n
Cn r + Cn r + 1 + 2 { Cn + r + 1 + Cn r + 2} + { Cn r + 2 + Cn r + 3}
(n + 1)
Cn r + 1 + 2
(n + 1)
C nr+2 +
(n + 1)
C nr+3
= (n + 2)Cn r + 2 + (n + 2)Cn r + 3 = (n + 3)Cn r + 3 =

(n + 3)
Cn + 3 (n r + 3)
= (n + 3)Cr
16
56. (A) The first curve is 4y = 5 x

2
dy 1 at (1, 1) = dx 2 dy dx
The second curve is y = x2 at (1, 1) = 2 2 1 = tan = 2

1
Required angle = tan
1 2 1
57. (A) Now 16 + 4a + 12 = 0 a = 7 x 7x + b = 0 has equal roots 49 4b = 0 b= 49 4 SECTION III 58. (B) The given curves are x2 + y2 1 = 0 (1) and Homogenising (1) with (2),
2 2
y c
mx
= 1 (2)
x +y
y c
mx
=0
x2 (c2 m2) + y2 (c2 1) + 2mxy = 0 If the lines are perpendicular, then c m +c 1=0 2c2 = m2 + 1 c =
2 2 2 2
1 2
17
59. (A) Any tangent to the given ellipse is y = mx + 16m y 16m

2 2
9, where m is the slope ... (1)
mx = 1 9 x2 + y2 = 16 + 9 = 25 x2 + y2 25 = 0
The director circle of the ellipse is
... (2)
2
Homogenising (2) with the help of (1), x + y 25

2 2 2 2 2 2
y 16m
mx
2
=0 9
x (9 9m ) + y (16m 16) + 50 mxy = 0 Product of the slopes of CP and CQ = 9 16m 9 16

2 2
9m
16
60. (C) Homogenising x2 y2 = 4 with x + y = 1 3x2 5y2 8xy = 0 3x2 + 5y2 + 8xy = 0 tan = = 2 16 8 1 2 = 8 4
1
15
= tan
1 4
1
61. (B) The expression = tan Here, 5 12 1 7 <1
5 12
tan
1 7
18
tan
5 12
tan
1 1 = tan 7
5 12 1 47 79 5 12
1 7 1 7
= tan
62. (C) x = 2, y = 3 xy > 1 and x > 0, y > 0 tan

1
2 + tan
1
3 = + tan 4 =
2 1
3 6
= + tan
1
( 1) =
1
3 4
63. (C) sin x + cos
x=
holds if 1 x 1
Now 3, 2 do not satisfy the condition 2 + 3 = ( 1) + 2 2 2 2 + 3 does not satisfy the condition Q0< 1 1 1
4 2 2
1
4
1,
satisfies the condition SECTION IV
64. (A) (s); (B) (p); (C) (r); (D) (q) (A) 9a + 3b + c = 0 2b = a + c 9a + 3 a 2 c +c=0
18a + 3a + 3c + 2c = 0 21a + 5c = 0 c a = 21 5
19
3 =
c a
, where is the other root
5 (B) tan 9 + tan 81 (tan 27 + tan 63) = = sin 90 cos 9 sin 9 2 sin 18 sin 54 2 sin 54 sin 18 sin 90 cos 27 sin 27
=2 =2 =4
sin 18 cos 36 2 cos 36 sin 18 sin 18 cos 36

1
(C) The expression = sin = sin =0 (D) f(x) = cos

1
(1) + sin (1) + sin
( 2 + 1) ( 1)
x x
2 2
1 1 1 x
2
1 = cos
1
1
1
1 x
2
f(x) = 2 tan f (x) = 2 1 = x f (2) = 4 2 = 5
1 x 1 1 x
2
Q at x = 2,
1 x
>0
2
2
1 1
20
65. (A) (q); (B) (p); (C) (s); (D) (r) (A) |1 x | is even.
2
x dx = 2
|1
0
x | dx
2 1
=2 =4 (B) f(x) = e sec x e

2x x x 2
dx
1 dx
1 sec x 1 sec x e
2x 2 2x 2 2x
f( x) =
e e
x
1 e e
1 e
x 2x
sec2 x = f(x)
f(x) is odd
4
f x dx = 0
(C) I =
dx 1 5
cos x a 0 a 0
dx 1 5 5 5
cos x cos x
x dx =
f a
x dx
cos x
dx 1
21
2I =
1
0
5 5
cos x cos x
1 dx
dx
= I= 2 dx = cos d
2 0
(D) Put x = sin
I=

0 2 0 2
cos sin cos
I=
sin cos sin
f x dx =
f a
0
x dx
2I =
cos cos
2 4
sin sin
= I=
66. (A) (r); (B) (s); (C) (p); (D) (s) (A) |z + 1| = |z + 4 3| |z + 4| + | 3| 7+3 10 Greatest value is 10
22
(B) A, B, C are z1 , z2 , z3 Equilateral |z1 z2| = |z2 z3| = |z3 z1| = k (say) (z1 z2) z 1 z
1 1
z =
= (z2 z3) z
= z
= k
1 k
2
= 0
(C) Let a , b be vectors of the adjacent sides of the parallelogram. Let d 1, d 2 be the diagonal vectors. d = b
1
a a d 2
2
d = b
2
a =
b =
d 2
Area of the parallelogram = a b = 4i 2j 2 j 7j 49 2k 2i 4j 2 2j 3k 6k
= 2i = i = 1
k i 5k 25
= 75 = 5 3 (D) Let A = xa B = xb C = xc yb yc ya zc za zb
23
A B= x
yz
2
a b yz
y y y
2 2
zx zx
b c zz
2
z xy
xy
c a
A BC = x x But a b c 0
a b c = 0 (given)
x + y + z 3xy z = 0 (x + y + z) (x + y + z xy yz zx) = 0 (x + y + z) 1 2 x y
2 2 2 2
=0
x + y + z = 0 (Q x, y, z are distinct.)

IIT STS4 Questions Solutions

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BRILLIANT S

FOR OUR STUDENTS TOWARDS

IIT-JEE 2008 STS IV/PCM/P(I)/QNS

HOME BASED FULL-SYLLABUS SIMULATOR TEST SERIES

Maximum Marks: 243

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seconds. What is its acceleration? S m n (D) S m n

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SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK

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11. Statement 1: because Statement 2: 12. Statement 1: because Statement 2:

13. Statement 1: because Statement 2:

A convex mirror forms only diminished virtual images. SECTION III

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SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK

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(D) cannot be predicted

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29. Pentaamminenitrito-N-cobalt (III) cation is (A) [Co(ONO)(NH3)5] (B) [Co(NO2)(NH3)5]

(C) [Co(ONO)(NH3)5] (D) [Co(NO2)(NH3)5]

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(D) all the above

in aqueous solution is H2SO4.

H2SO4 is a strong acid in aqueous solution. SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK

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(B) 28.3 days

(C) 40.5 days

(D) 100 days

38. Which among the following is used in radiotherapy? (A) Co (B) I

(C) Radio P Paragraph for Questions 39 to 41

(D) All the above

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Thus acetoacetic ester exists as tautomers.

39. Which one of the compounds does not show tautomerism?

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42. (A) (B) (C) (D)

Column I (p) COCl CN HCOOH (q) (r) (s)

Column II [Ag(NH3)2] CHO

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Column I (A) sp hybridisation (B) sp hybridisation (C) sp d hybridisation

Column II (p) SnCl2 (q) bent (r) linear

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47. If the eccentric angles , of two points on the ellipse

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,where [] denotes the greatest integer function, then

52. If in ABC x = tan y = tan z = tan then (A) 1 x y xyz z is

53. The maximum value of (7 x) (2 + x) when x lies between 2 and 7 is (A) 7 2

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56. Statement 1: because Statement 2: 57. Statement 1:

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degree equation in x, then coeff. of x

S = sum of the roots =

S = sum of the products of the roots taken 2 by 2 = coeff. of x

S3 = sum of the products of the roots taken 3 by 3 = and so on.

(C) (3, 77)

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