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IIT-JEE 2008

STS VIII/PCM/P(I)/QNS

BRILLIANTS

HOME-BASED FULL-SYLLABUS SIMULATOR TEST SERIES

FOR OUR STUDENTS

TOWARDS

IIT-JOINT ENTRANCE EXAMINATION, 2008

PAPER I

Time: 3 Hours Maximum Marks: 243

Please read the instructions carefully. You are allotted 5 minutes specifically for this purpose.

INSTRUCTIONS:

DO NOT BREAK THE SEALS ON THIS BOOKLET, AWAIT INSTRUCTIONS FROM THE INVIGILATOR

A. General

1. This booklet is your Question Paper containing 66 questions. The booklet has 26 pages.

2. This question paper CODE is printed on the right hand top corner of this sheet.

3. This question paper contains 2 blank pages for your rough work. No additional sheets will be

provided for rough work.

4. Blank papers, clipboards, log tables, slide rules, calculators, cellular phones, pagers and electronic

SEAL

gadgets in any form are not allowed to be carried inside the examination hall.

5. Fill in the boxes provided below on this page and also write your Name and Enrollment No. in the

space provided on the back page (page no. 26) of this booklet.

6. This booklet also contains the answer sheet (i.e., a machine gradable response sheet) ORS.

7. DO NOT TAMPER WITH/MUTILATE THE ORS OR THE BOOKLET.

B. Filling the ORS

8. On the lower part of the ORS, write in ink, your name in box L1, your Enrollment No. in box L2 and

Name of the Centre in box L3. Do not write these anywhere else.

9. Put your signature in ink in box L4 on the ORS.

C. Question paper format: Read the instructions printed on the back page (page no. 26) of this booklet.

D. Marking scheme: Read the instructions on the back page (page no. 26) of this booklet.

SEAL

I have read all the instructions I have verified all the informations

and shall abide by them. filled in by the Candidate.

............................................... ...............................................

Signature of the Candidate Signature of the Invigilator

2

PART A : PHYSICS

SECTION I

Straight Objective Type

This section contains 9 multiple choice questions numbered 1 to 9. Each question has

4 choices (A), (B), (C) and (D) out of which ONLY ONE is correct.

1. A freely falling object crosses a T.V. tower of height 102.9 m in three seconds.

Find the height above the top of the tower from which it would have started

falling.

(A) 122.5 m (B) 102.9 m (C) 19.6 m (D) 82.3 m

2. A frame of mass 200 gms, when suspended from a coil

spring is found to stretch by 10 cms. A stone of mass 200 gms

is dropped from rest on to the pan of the frame from a

height 30 cm as shown in Figure. Find the maximum

distance moved by frame downwards.

(A) 20 cm (B) 10 cm

(C) 30 cm (D) 40 cm

medium. Find the phase difference between pressure and displacement.

π π

(A) 0 (B) (C) (D) π

4 2

resistance R, the maximum power in the external circuit is 9 watts. The current

flowing in the circuit under the conditions is 3 ampere. What is the value of E?

(A) 4 V (B) 6 V (C) 8 V (D) 3 V

3

5. A single turn circular coil produces at its centre a magnetic induction B when a

current is passing through it. It is reshaped into a circular coil of 2 turns and if

the same current is passed through it what is the magnetic induction at the

centre?

6. In two separate setups of Youngs double slit experiment fringes of equal width

are observed when light of wavelength in the ratio 1 : 2 are used. If the ratio of

slit separation in the two cases is 2 : 1 the ratio of distances between the plane of

slits and screen are in the ratio

7. Find the number of neutrons generated per unit time in a uranium reactor whose

thermal power is 100 MW if the average number of neutrons liberated per fission

is 2.5. Each fission releases energy 200 MeV.

18 5

(A) 7.8 × 10 (B) 7.8 × 10

10 12

(C) 7.8 × 10 (D) 7.8 × 10

surface under the restoring force of a spring constant 100 N/m. A block of mass 3 kg is

gently placed on it as it passes through the mean position. Assuming that the

blocks move together, find the amplitude of motion.

2

9. A wheel rotates with constant angular acceleration a = 2 rad/sec . If t = 0.5 s

2

after motion begins, the total acceleration of the wheel becomes 13.6 m/s .

Determine the radius of wheel.

4

SECTION II

STATEMENT 1 (Assertion) and STATEMENT 2 (Reason). Each question has 4 choices

(A), (B), (C) and (D), out of which ONLY ONE is correct.

explanation for statement 1.

explanation for statement 1.

field acting at right angles to its direction of motion is a parabola.

because

its direction of motion moves entirely in the plane perpendicular

mv

to the magnetic field in a circular radius .

eB

11. Statement 1: The critical angle for total internal reflection at glass water

interface is greater than the critical angle at glass air interface.

because

Statement 2: The refractive index of glass is greater than the refractive index of

water.

5

field. An e.m.f is induced in the coil.

because

Statement 2: There must be a variation in magnetic field with time if the e.m.f

is to be generated.

because

Statement 2: If a conductor is placed in the electric field the intensity inside the

conductor is zero.

SECTION III

This section contains 2 paragraphs. Based upon each paragraph, 3 multiple choice

questions have to be answered. Each question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and (D), out of

which ONLY ONE is correct.

A small disc of mass m1 and a thin uniform rod of mass m2 and length l lie on a

smooth horizontal plane. The disc is set in motion in horizontal direction and

perpendicular to the rod with velocity v after which it elastically collides with the end

m

2

of the rod. The ratio of = η.

m

1

v 4B η v 4A η v v

(A) (B) (C) (D)

4A η 4B η 4A η 4B η

6

12v v

(A) ω = (B) ω =

l 4A η l 4A η

6v 6v

(C) ω = (D) ω =

l 4A η l ηB 4

m

2

16. For what ratio of (= η) the disc will reverse its direction of motion?

m

1

perpendicular magnetic field B. A metal rod OA is pivoted at the centre O of loop. The

other end A of the rod touches the loop. The rod and loop have no resistance. A resistor

R is connected between O and a fixed point C on the loop. The rod OA is made to

rotate anticlockwise with a small angular velocity ω by an external force.

2 2 2

Bωa

(A) Bω a (B) Bωa (C) (D) B ωa

R 2R R 2R

7

2 3 2 2 2 2

Bωa

(A) B ωa (B) B ωa (C) B ωa (D)

2R 2R R 2R

19. Find the torque of external force needed to keep the rod rotating with constant

angular velocity ω.

2 4 2 2 2 3 2 4

(A) B ωa (B) B ωa (C) B ωa (D) B ωa

4R 2R 2R R

SECTION IV

Matrix-Match Type

This section contains 3 questions. Each question contains statements given in two

columns which have to be matched. Statements (A, B, C, D) in Column I have to be

matched with statements (p, q, r, s) in Column II. The answers to these questions

have to be appropriately bubbled as illustrated in the following example.

If the correct matches are A-p, A-s, B-q, B-r, C-p, C-q and D-s, then the correctly

bubbled 4 × 4 matrix should be as follows:

p q r s

A p q r s

B p q r s

C p q r s

D p q r s

8

(A) A loaded spring gun of mass M fires a shot of mass m (p) 2.0

with a velocity ω at an elevation θ. The gun is initially

at rest on the frictionless horizontal surface. After firing

the velocity of the centre of mass of system is (in terms of ω)

(B) A body of mass M moving with speed ω makes head on (q) zero

collision with another body of mass m initially at rest.

If M > m, the speed of mass m is (in terms of ω)

(C) Three masses each of mass m are located at the corners (r) 1.0

of an equilateral triangle ABC. They start moving with

equal speed ω along the medians and collide at centroid.

After collision A comes to rest and B retraces its path.

What is the speed of C after collision? (in terms of ω)

(D) A particle A undergoes oblique impact with particle B (s) 1.57

that is at rest initially. If their masses are equal the

velocity of A after collision, makes an angle with that

of B equal to (in radian)

21. Column I Column II

Physical Quality Name of units

(A) Angle in a plane (p) Radian

(B) Solid angle (q) Steradian

(C) Electric dipolemoment (r) Coulomb metre

(D) Electric field intensity (s) Volt per metre

22. Column I lists the physical quantities associated with photon and Column II lists

the formulae for calculating them. Match them properly.

Column I Column II

(A) The momentum of a moving particle is p and the (p) E/p

wavelength of associated matter wave will be

2

(B) The energy of the photon is E and its momentum is p. (q) hν/c

The velocity of photon will be

(C) A photon in motion of energy E has a mass equal to (r) h/p

(D) The mass of photon at rest is (s) zero

SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK

9

PART B : CHEMISTRY

SECTION I

Straight Objective Type

This section contains 9 multiple choice questions numbered 23 to 31. Each

question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and (D), out of which ONLY ONE is correct.

23. Matte in metallurgy is

(A) artificially produced oxides

(B) artificially produced sulphides

(C) natural sulphides

(D)none of these

24. In which of the following reactions, H2O2 acts as a reducing agent?

(s)

(B) Na2SO3(aq) + H2O2(aq) → Na2SO4(aq) + H2O(l)

25. TlI3 is a black coloured sparingly soluble ionic compound. In its aqueous solution,

it will give

A B 3+ −

(A) Tl and I ions (B) Tl and I ions

3

+ − + −

(C) Tl , I ions and I2 (D) Tl and I ions

10

(A) 3-hexanone (B) 2, 4-hexanedione

(C) 2, 5-hexanedione (D) 2, 3-hexanedione

28. Which of the following will be most readily dehydrated in acidic conditions?

(A) (B)

(C) (D)

29. 20 mL of 0.2 M MnSO4 solution was oxidised by 0.05 N KMnO4. MnO2 is formed

as one of the product. Find out the volume of KMnO4 required for this reaction.

30. Two separate bulbs contain ideal gases A and B. The density of the gas A is twice

that of gas B. The molecular weight of A is half that of gas B. Both the gases are

at the same temperature. The ratio of the pressure of A to that of B is

2 4

31. For a I order reaction, identify the correct statement.

−kt

(A) the degree of dissociation is equal to (1 − e ).

(B) a plot of reciprocal concentration vs time gives a straight line.

(C) the time taken for the completion of 75% reaction is thrice the t1/2 of the

reaction.

2

(D)the pre-exponential factor in the Arrhenius equation has dimensions of T .

11

SECTION II

Assertion-Reason Type

This section contains 4 questions numbered 32 to 35. Each question contains

STATEMENT 1 (Assertion) and STATEMENT 2 (Reason). Each question has 4

choices (A), (B), (C) and (D), out of which ONLY ONE is correct.

(A) Statement 1 is True, statement 2 is True; statement 2 is a correct

explanation for statement 1.

(B) Statement 1 is True, statement 2 is True; statement 2 is not a correct

explanation for statement 1.

(C) Statement 1 is True, statement 2 is False.

(D)Statement 1 is False, statement 2 is True.

32. Statement 1: Standard free energy change of a reaction (∆G°) is not affected

by catalyst.

because

Statement 2: Kp of a reaction is also not changed by a catalyst.

+ +

33. Statement 1: K ion is a weaker acid than Na ion.

because

Statement 2: E° value of K is less than that of Na.

34. Statement 1: Neopentyl alcohol on acid catalysed dehydration gives

2-methyl-2-butene.

because

A

Statement 2: Neopentyl Me C B CH carbocation is the stable intermediate.

3 2

35. Statement 1: Pure chloroform does not produce a white precipitate with aqueous

AgNO3.

because

Statement 2: Chloroform is not easily miscible with water.

SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK

12

SECTION III

Linked Comprehension Type

This section contains 2 paragraphs. Based upon each paragraph, 3 multiple choice

questions have to be answered. Each question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and (D), out of

which ONLY ONE is correct.

Nucleophilic substitution reactions: Due to the electronegativity difference, the

δ+ δ− δ+ δ−

− C − X bond is highly polarized bond ( − C − X ). Thus the carbon centre of C −X

− −

R − X + Nu → R − Nu + X

These nucleophilic substitution reactions may take place by SN1 and SN2 mechanism.

36. X; X is

(A) (B)

(C) (D)

13

− −

(A) C2H5Br + OH → C2H5OH + Br

B −

(B) CH CH I A NH → CH CH NH + I

3 2 2 3 2 2

− −

(C) (CH3)3 C − Br + OH → (CH3)3C − OH + Br

(D)Both A and B

38. Which is the correct statement?

(A) Haloalkanes are insoluble in water.

(B) CH − CH − I is more reactive than CH − CH − Br towards nucleophilic

3 2 3 2

substitution reactions.

(C) Haloarenes are less reactive than haloalkanes towards nucleophilic

substitution reactions.

(D)All are correct.

Paragraph for Question Nos. 39 to 41

Consider an aqueous 0.01 M sodium acetate solution. Given: log 1.85 = 0.27, Ka of

−5

acetic acid = 1.85 × 10 at 298 K.

39. pH of the solution is

(A) 7.0 (B) 8.36 (C) 9.2 (D) 6.0

40. The hydrolysis constant is

−10 10

(A) 5.45 × 10 (B) 5.45 × 10

8 −10

(C) 54.5 × 10 (D) 54.5 × 10

41. Degree of hydrolysis is

4 −4 −4 4

(A) 23.4 × 10 (B) 23.4 × 10 (C) 2.34 × 10 (D) 2.34 × 10

SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK

14

SECTION IV

Matrix-Match Type

This section contains 3 questions. Each question contains statements given in two

columns which have to be matched. Statements (A, B, C, D) in Column I have to be

matched with statements (p, q, r, s) in Column II. The answers to these questions

have to be appropriately bubbled as illustrated in the following example.

If the correct matches are A-p, A-s, B-q, B-r, C-p, C-q and D-s, then the correctly

bubbled 4 × 4 matrix should be as follows:

p q r s

A p q r s

B p q r s

C p q r s

D p q r s

2+ +

(A) Zn | Zn ∥ Ag | Ag (p) Redox system

− −

(B) Pt, Cl2 | Cl ∥ Cl | Cl , Pt (q) Gas electrode

2

P1 atm P2 atm

2+ 2+

(C) Cu | Cu ∥ Cu | Cu (r) Concentration cell

c1 c2

3+ 2+ −

(D) Pt, Fe |Fe ∥ OH | O2, Pt (s) ∆G° = − nE°F

15

(Ion) µ(B.M)

2+

(A) Fe (p) 0

2+

(B) Cu (q) > 1.5 but less than 3

3+

(C) Ti (r) > 3 but less than 6

2+

(D) Zn (s) four unpaired electrons

16

PART C : MATHEMATICS

SECTION I

This section contains 9 multiple choice questions numbered 45 to 53. Each question

has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and (D), out of which ONLY ONE is correct.

2π 2 2π 2 3π

45. The sum to 14 terms of sin A sin A sin A ... is

7 7 7

(A) 0 (B) 14 (C) 7 (D) 21

2

46. If (a , a + 1) is a point on the angle between the lines 3x − y + 1 = 0, x + 2y − 5 = 0

containing the origin, then

(A) a ≥ 1 or a ≤ − 3 (B) a ∈ (0, 1)

1

(C) a ∈ (− 3, 0) ∪ ,1 (D) no real value of a exists

3

47. The sixth term of an A.P. a1, a2, .... is 2. The common difference of the A.P., such

that a1 a4 a5 is minimum is given by

2 8 1 2

(A) (B) (C) (D)

3 5 3 9

C A2 C A C A C A ... A C

2 2 2 2 2

3 2 nA1

(A) ∑n (B) ∑n (C) ∑n (D)

2

17

49. One ticket is selected at random from 100 tickets numbered 00, 01, 02, ..., 99.

Suppose S and P are the sum and product of the digits found on the ticket. Then

the probability that S = 7 given P = 0 is

2 1 2 1

(A) (B) (C) (D)

3 50 19 19

2

2cos x sin2x sinx

2

sin2x 2 sin x B cos x

B sinx cos x 0 is

51. In a right angled triangle ABC, the bisector of the right angle C, divide AB into

A B B

segments of lengths p, q. Also tan = k. Then p : q is

2

2

1B k k 1

(A) (B) k (C) (D)

1A k 1 2 2

−1 −1 −1 3π

52. If sin x + sin y + sin z = and f (p + q) = f(p) ⋅ f(q) for all p, q ∈ R and f(1) = 1,

2

f 1 f 2 f 3 xA yAz

then the value of x A y Az B is

f 1 f 2 f 3

x A y Az

18

3 2 −1

f : [0, 1] → R ; f(x) = x − x + 4x + 2 sin x is

SECTION II

STATEMENT 1 (Assertion) and STATEMENT 2 (Reason). Each question has 4 choices

(A), (B), (C) and (D), out of which ONLY ONE is correct.

explanation for statement 1.

explanation for statement 1.

position vector of the orthocentre, then the position vector of the

5

circumcentre is B i A 2j A k .

2

because

collinear and SG : GH = 1 : 2.

19

55. Statement 1: If l, m, n are consecutive positive even integers, then the family

of lines lx + my + n = 0 are concurrent at (1, − 2).

because

3 1 3

56. Statement 1: For any two events A and B, P (A ∪ B) ≥ and ≤ P (A ∩ B) ≤

4 8 8

7 11

then ≤ P(A) + P(B) ≤ .

8 18

because

Statement 2: For any two events E and F, P(E ∪ F) = P(E) + P(F) − P(E ∩ F).

3 5

57. Statement 1: In ∆ABC, cos A = , cos B = , then the value of cos C can be

5 13

7

.

13

because

SECTION III

This section contains 2 paragraphs. Based upon each paragraph, 3 multiple choice

questions have to be answered. Each question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and (D), out of

which ONLY ONE is correct.

20

a × b × c = a⋅c b B a⋅b c

b×c c×a a× b

p = , q = , r = ,

b c a c a b a b c

then a A b ⋅ p A b A c ⋅ q A c A a ⋅ r is

a × b × a × c A b × c × b × a A c × a × c × b is equal to

2

(A) a b c aA bAc (B) a b c aA bAc

(C) 0 (D) 3a

21

1

60. If a, b, c are non-coplanar unit vectors such that a × b × c = b A c and if

2

α, β are the angles between a and b and a and c , then α + β is

π 2π

(A) π (B) (C) 2π (D)

2 3

Let f(x) be a continuous function defined on the closed interval [a, b].

nB1 1

1 r

Then lim ∑

n

f

n

= ∫f x dx.

n → ∞ r =0 0

97 97 97

1 A2 A ... A n

61. lim is

98

n→∞ n

98 1 1 1

(A) (B) (C) (D)

100 99 98 100

n

62.

6 πr 1 is

lim ∑ sin

n→∞ r=1 n n

5 5 5 5

(A) (B) (C) (D)

4 8 16 32

63. lim 1 1 1 1 is

A A A ... A

n→∞ 2n 2 2 2

4n B 1 4n B 4 3n A 2n B 1

π π π π

(A) (B) (C) (D)

3 6 4 2

22

SECTION IV

Matrix-Match Type

This section contains 3 questions. Each question contains statements given in two

columns which have to be matched. Statements (A, B, C, D) in Column I have to be

matched with statements (p, q, r, s) in Column II. The answers to these questions

have to be appropriately bubbled as illustrated in the following example.

If the correct matches are A-p, A-s, B-q, B-r, C-p, C-q and D-s, then the correctly

bubbled 4 × 4 matrix should be as follows:

p q r s

A p q r s

B p q r s

C p q r s

D p q r s

2

64. The normals drawn at P, Q, R on y = 8x are concurrent at (6, 0).

Column I Column II

4

(B) Circumcentre of ∆PQR (q) , 0

3

(C) Area of ∆PQR (r) 5

23

(A) The number of the points of discontinuity of (p) infinite

f(x) = [cos x + sin x], where [ ] is greatest integer

function and 0 < x < 2π is

2

(B) Let f(x) = x − |x − x |, x ∈ [− 1, 1]. Then the (q) 0

number of points at which f(x) is discontinuous is

(C) The number of points of discontinuity of (r) 1

2n

2 sin x

f x = lim is

n 2n

n→∞ 3 B 2 cos x

(D) The number of points of discontinuity of (s) 4

xA2

f x = xA is

|x A 2|

66. Column I Column II

(A) If 3 sin x + 5 cos x = 5, then the value of (p) 0

5 sin x − 3 cos x is

(B) The number of values of x for which (q) 4

tan 3x B tan 2x

= 1 is

1 A tan 3x tan 2x

(C) With usual notation in ∆ABC, if b + c = 3a, then (r) 2

B C

cot cot is

2 2

(D) In ∆ABC, tan A, tan B are the roots of (s) 3

2 2 2 2 2

abx − c x + ab = 0. Then sin A + sin B + sin C is

24

25

Name: . Enrollment No.:

Please read the instructions carefully. You are allotted 5 minutes specifically for this purpose.

13. The question paper consists of 3 parts (Physics, Chemistry and Mathematics). Each part has 4 sections.

14. Section I contains 9 multiple choice questions. Each question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and (D), out of

which only one is correct.

15. Section II contains 4 questions. Each question contains STATEMENT-1 (Assertion) and STATEMENT-

2 (Reason).

Bubble (A) if both the statements are TRUE and STATEMENT-2 is the correct explanation of

STATEMENT-1.

Bubble (B) if both the statements are TRUE but STATEMENT-2 is not the correct explanation of

STATEMENT-1.

Bubble (C) if STATEMENT-1 is TRUE and STATEMENT-2 is FALSE.

Bubble (D) if STATEMENT-1 is FALSE and STATEMENT-2 is TRUE.

16. Section III contains 2 paragraphs. Based upon each paragraph, 3 multiple choice questions have to be

answered. Each question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and (D), out of which only one is

correct.

17. Section IV contains 3 questions. Each question contains statements given in 2 columns. Statements in

the first column have to be matched with statements in the second column. The answers to

these questions have to be appropriately bubbled in the ORS as per the instructions given

at the beginning of the section.

D. Marking scheme:

18. For each question in Section I, you will be awarded 3 marks if you darken only the bubble

corresponding to the correct answer and zero mark if no bubble is darkened. In all other cases, minus

one (−1) mark will be awarded.

19. For each question in Section II, you will be awarded 3 marks if you darken only the bubble

corresponding to the correct answer and zero mark if no bubble is darkened. In all other cases, minus

one (−1) mark will be awarded.

20. For each question in Section III, you will be awarded 4 marks if you darken only the bubble

corresponding to the correct answer and zero mark if no bubble is darkened. In all other cases, minus

one (−1) mark will be awarded.

21. For each question in Section IV, you will be awarded 6 marks if you darken ALL the bubbles

corresponding ONLY to the correct answer. No negative mark will be awarded for an incorrectly

bubbled answer.

1

IIT-JEE 2008

STS VIII/PCM/P(I)/SOLNS

BRILLIANTS

HOME-BASED FULL-SYLLABUS SIMULATOR TEST SERIES

FOR OUR STUDENTS

TOWARDS

PAPER I - SOLUTIONS

PHYSICS − CHEMISTRY − MATHEMATICS

PART A : PHYSICS

SECTION I

1

1. (C) S = ut + at2

2

1

102.9 = u × 3 + × 9.8 × 9

2

u = velocity of body at the top of tower

= 19.6 m/s

2

For a freely falling body u = 2gh

2

19.6 = 2 × 9.8 × h

h = 19.6 m

The height above the top of the tower from which it should have started

falling is 19.6 m.

2. (C) When the stone falls on the pan of the frame the impact is completely

inelastic.

2

velocity given by

V= =

200 A 200 2

1 2gh

Kinetic energy of stone and pan = × 400 ×

2 4

= 100 gh

= 3000 g

spring to stretch it from elongation 10 cm to (10 + x) cm must be equal to

kinetic energy of stone + frame + the loss of potential energy of (stone +

frame)

1 2 1 2

If k is spring constant, work done = k 10 A x B × k × 10

2 2

200 g

k= = 20 g

10

1

× 20 × g [(10 + x)2 − 102] = 3000 g + 400x g

2

x2 − 20x − 300 = 0

Solving, x = 30 cm

dy

3. (C) Volumetric strain in a gaseous medium =

dx

dy

Volume strain = = − am cos (ωt − mx)

dx

stress

By Hookes law volume elasticity of gas E =

strain

B p change in pressure

=

dy

dx

dy

p=B E⋅

dx

◊ Brilliant Tutorials Pvt. Ltd. IIT/STS VIII/PCM/P(I)/Solns - 2

3

Adiabatic elasticity = Ep = γp

∴ p = γPatmosphere am cos (ωt − mx)

π

= γp a am sin ω t B mx A

2

π

This shows that pressure is out of phase with displacement.

2

π

∴ phase difference =

2

4. (B) When the power in the external circuit is maximum, the current is maximum

i.e., when R = r.

E

= 3 ampere

R A R

∴ maximum power = 9 W

9 9

i2R = 9 or R = = = 1 ohm

2 9

i

∴ E = 3 or E = 6 V

1A1

µ i

0

5. (C) B =

2a

When it is reshaped radius = r

2πa = 2 ⋅ 2πr

a

r=

2

µ ni µ ni µ × i ×2 2µ i

0 0 0 0

B′ = = = =

2a 2r a a

2 ×

2

B′ = 4B

λ D λ D

1 1 2 2

6. (A) β = =

d d

1 2

D λ d 2 2 4

1 2 1

= = × =

D

2

λ d 1 1 1

1 2

Ratio = 4 : 1

4

7. (A) Power of reactor = 100 MW = 100 × 106 watt = 100 × 106 J/s

6

100 × 10

Number of uranium atoms splitting per second =

B 19 6

1.6 × 10 × 200 × 100

23

100 × 10

=

6

3.2 × 10

17

100 × 10 18

Number of nucleus liberated = × 2.5 = 7.8 × 10

3.2

1 2 1 2

8. (B) For mass m: mu = kA , u2 = kA2

2 2

When M is added at mean position, mu = (m + M) V

u

V = .

4

(K.E.) at mean = (P.E.) at extreme

1 2 1 2

∴ mA M V = kA ′

2 2

2

u 2

∴ = kA ′ (P.E = 0at mean)

4

A

A′ = = 5 cm

2

9. (C) Angular acceleration = 2 rad/s2

1

Time = s

2

Initial angular velocity = 0

1

Final angular velocity = 0 + × 2 = 1 rad/s

2

Linear velocity = rω = 1 × r m/s

2 2

Normal acceleration = v = r = r

r r

Tangential acceleration = r × 2

2 2

Total acceleration = r A 2r = r 5 ; r 5 = 13.6

13.6

∴r= = 6.1 m

5

5

SECTION II

10. (D)

µ

1

11. (A) Critical angle ic is given by sin ic =

µ

2

µ

in 4 2 8

When it travels from glass to water = = × =

µ 3 3 9

g

1

When it travels from glass to air =

µ

g

sin i′c = 2

3

∴ ic > i′c

12. (D) There must be a variation in the magnetic field with time so that there is a

change in magnetic flux with time which is responsible for induced e.m.f.

E

13. (D) The dielectric constant of a medium = where the electric field E is

E′

reduced to E′ in the presence of dielectric. If the conductor is placed in the

electric field the intensity inside the conductor is zero. Therefore the

dielectric constant of the conductor is infinite.

SECTION III

14. (A) Since the collision of disc with rod is elastic, linear momentum, angular

momentum and energy are conserved. Let v′ and V be the velocities of disc and

centre of mass of rod after collision and ω the angular velocity of rod about its

centre of mass.

m

1

m1v = m1v′ + m2V or V = v B v′

m

2

m 1

1

If = η, V = v B v′ ... (1)

m η

2

2

l l m l

m v ⋅ = m v ′ ⋅ A Iω , where I = 2

1 1

2 2 12

1

lω = 6(v − v′) ... (2)

η

6

1 2 1 2 1 2 1 2

m v = m v ′ A m V A Iω

1 1 2

2 2 2 2

2

2 2

m 2

From (1) and (2), m1 (v − v′ ) = 4 1

v B v′

m

2

v 4 B η

v′ = ... (3)

4 A η

15. (A) From (2) and (3) in the above problem

ω= 12v

l 4 A η

16. (A) The disc will reverse its direction of motion if v′ becomes negative i.e., when

4 < η or η > 4.

m

2

>4

m

1

a

E= ∫ dE = ∫ Bω x dx

0

1

= Bωa2

2

The positive charges of the rod will be pushed

towards O by the magnetic field. Thus the rod

may be replaced by a battery by e.m.f 1 Bωa

2

2

with the positive terminal towards O. The

equivalent circuit diagram is shown.

The circular loop forming A to C by a

resistanceless path.

2

E Bωa

∴ current in resistance R = i = =

R 2R

18. (A) The force on the rod due to magnetic field = Bia

2 2 3

∴F= B⋅

Bωa B ωa

⋅a =

2R 2R

7

19. (A) As the force is uniformly distributed over OA it may be assumed to act at the

mid part of OA. The torque is therefore

2 4

a B ωa

τ = ia B = in clockwise direction

2 4R

2 4

B ωa

To keep the rod rotating at uniform angular speed an external torque

4R

in anticlockwise direction is needed.

SECTION IV

20. (A) − (q); (B) − (p); (C) − (r); (D) − (s)

(A) The motion of the centre of mass of a system of two particles is unaffected by

their internal forces irrespective of the actual direction of internal forces. The

velocity of centre of mass of system is zero.

(B) Let A and B be particles of mass M and m. The Figures below are indicated

the situation before collision and after collision.

2M

v′ = ⋅v if M >> m

MAm

v′ = 2v; v = ω ∴ v′ = 2ω

The speed of mass m = 2ω

(C) Applying the principle of conservation of momentum, we get the speed of C

after collision is ω.

(D) Applying the principle of conservation of momentum and Newtons law, we

get the velocity of A after impact is at right angles to that of B

π 3.14

θ = = = 1.57 rad .

2 2

21. (A) − (p); (B) − (q); (C) − (r); (D) − (s)

Refer text book

22. (A) − (r); (B) − (p); (C) − (q); (D) − (s)

Refer text book

8

PART B : CHEMISTRY

SECTION I

23. (B)

A4 B1 A2

0

24. (A) Pb O A H O → PbO A H O A O

2 s 2 2 aq s 2 l 2 g

25. (A) Due to inert pair effect, +1 oxidation state of Tl is more stable in TlI , it is

3

A B

thallium triiodide Tl I 3 .

MnO2

26. (A) C6H5CH2OH → C6H5CHO

27. (B)

on either side.

28. (C)

A2 A4

Mn SO → Mn O

4 2

M

Equivalent weight of MnSO =

4

2

9

Molecular weight

Normality of MnSO4 = Molarity ×

Equivalent weight

M

= 0.2 × = 0.4 N

M ⁄2

0.05 × V1 = 0.4 × 20

(KMnO4) (MnSO4)

0.4 × 20

V = = 160 mL

1

0.05

PM

30. (C) d =

RT

dA = 2dB

M

B

M =

A

2

d RT d RT

A B

P = ; P =

A B

M M

A B

P d RT M d × M

A A B A B

= × =

P M d RT M ×d

B A B A B

2d × M

= B B 4

=

M 1

B

d ×

B

2

PA : PB = 4 : 1

31. (A) For a I order reaction,

1 a

k = log

t a B x

a

kt = log

a B x

kt a

e =

a B x

B kt a B x x

e = =1B

a a

x B kt

Degree of dissociation = =1 Be

a

10

SECTION II

32. (A)

33. (B)

formation of 2-methyl-but-2-ene.

35. (B)

SECTION III

N

38. (D) Haloalkanes are insoluble in water, due to the absence of formation of H-bonding.

1 1 1

39. (B) pH = pK A pK A log c

w a

2 2 2

1 1 1 B2

= 14 A 4.73 A log 10

2 2 2

= 7 + 2.365 − 1 = 8.365

K B 14

w 10 B 10

40. (A) K h = = Y 5.45 × 10

K B5

a 1.85 × 10

K

h

41. (C) α =

c

B 10

5.45 × 10 B4

= = 2.34 × 10

B2

10

SECTION IV

42. (A) − (p), (s); (B) − (q), (r), (s); (C) − (r), (s); (D) − (p), (s)

11

43. (A) − (r), (s); (B) − (q); (C) − (q); (D) − (p)

−

Ion Configuration Unpaired e µ

2+ 6

(A) Fe 3d 4 4.9

2+ 9

(B) Cu 3d 1 1.73

2+ 10

(D) Zn 3d 0 0.0

µ = n n A2

If n = 1, µ = 13 = 3 = 1.73

n = 2; µ = 2 4 = 2.83 etc .

44. (A) − (r); (B) − (p), (s); (C) − (p), (s); (D) − (q)

12

PART C : MATHEMATICS

SECTION I

1 2π 4π 6π

45. (C) The series = 1 B cos A 1 B cos A 1 B cos A ... 14 terms

2 7 7 7

1 2π 4π

= 14 B cos A cos A ... 14 terms

2 7 7

2π π 14π

cos A 13 ⋅ sin

1 7 7 7

= 7 B

2 π

sin

7

1

= 7B ⋅ 0 =7

2

46. (C)

From the Figure, it is clear that (0, 0) and (a2, a + 1) lie on the same side of

both the lines.

2

3a − (a + 1) + 1 > 0

2 1

3a − a > 0 ⇒ a < 0 or a >

3

2

a + 2 (a + 1) − 5 < 0

2

a + 2a − 3 < 0

a ∈ (− 3, 1)

Shaded portion is the required region

1

∴ a ∈ (− 3, 0) ∪ , 1

3

13

47. (A) a1 + 5d = 2

Now, P = a1 a4 a5

= a1 (a1 + 3d) (a1 + 4d)

= (2 − 5d) (2 − 2d) (2 − d)

2 3

= 2 [4 − 16d + 17d − 5d ]

Consider, S = − 5d3 + 17d2 − 16d + 4

2

S′ = − 15d + 34d − 16

2 8

S′ = 0 ⇒ d = ,

3 5

S″ = − 30d + 34

At 2 , S″ = − 20 + 34 = +ve

3

2

∴d= gives minimum value.

3

48. (B) Expression

n A1 3 3 4

= C A2 C A C A C A ...

2 3 2 2

n A1 4 4

= C A2 C A C A ...

2 3 2

n A1 5 5 n

= C A2 C A C A ... A C

2 3 2 2

n A1 nA 1

= C A2 C ultimately

2 3

n A1 nA 1 nA 1

= C A C A C

2 3 3

n A 2 n A 1

= C A C

3 3

n A2 n A1 n n A 1 n n B1

= A

6 6

n n A1

= n A2 A n B1

6

n n A1 2n A 1

= = ∑n2

6

49. (C) S = 7 = (07, 16, 25, 34, 43, 52, 61, 70)

P = 0 = {00, 01, 02, ..., 09, 10, 20, 30, ..., 90}

S = 7 ∩ P = 0 = {07, 70}

P′ S = 7 ∩ P = 0

P′ {S = 7/P = 0} =

P′ P = 0

2

=

19

14

we get 2 0 sin x

0 2 B cos x

B sin x cos x 0

2 2 2

= 2 (cos x) + sin x (2 sin x) = 2 (cos x + sin x) = 2

x p

51. (A) = = p 2

sin A 1

2

x

= q 2

sin B

A A B A B B

2 cos ⋅ sin

p sin B q B p 2 2

= ⇒ =

q sin A q A p A A B A B B

2 sin ⋅ cos

2 2

π C A B B

= cot B ⋅ tan

2 2 2

=1⋅k

q B p

⇒ = k

q A p

p 1B k

∴ =

q 1A k

52. (B) Put p = 1, q = 1

f(2) = (f(1))2 = 1

Put p = 2, q = 1

f(3) = f(2) f(1) = 1 ⋅ 1 = 1

−1 −1 −1 3π

From sin x + sin y + sin z= ,

2

π

we get each =

2

⇒x=y=z=1

1 1 1 x A y Az

∴ expression = x + y + z −

x A y Az

=3−1=2

15

−1

53. (B) f(x) = x3 − x2 + 4x + 2 sin x

2 2

f′(x) = 3x − 2x + 4 +

2

1B x

2

For 3x − 2x + 4,

2

coefficient of x = 3 > 0

Discriminant = 4 − 48 is − ve

2

∴ 3x − 2x + 4 is always positive.

2

⇒ is always positive.

2

1 B x

⇒ f ′ (x) > 0 for all real x.

⇒ f(x) is increasing.

Range [f(0), f(1)] = [0, 4 + π]

SECTION II

54. (A)

5 A 2x B 5

= 0 ⇒ x =

3 2

4 A 2y

= 0 ⇒ y=−2

3

2 A 2z

= 0 ⇒ z=−1

3

5

∴ position vector of circumcentre is B i A2j A k

2

55. (A) l, m, n are in A.P.

⇒ 2m = l + n

⇒ l − 2m + n = 0

⇒ l (1) + m (− 2) + n = 0

⇒ (1, − 2) is a point on lx + my + n = 0

3

56. (A) P(A) + P(B) − P (A ∩ B) ≥

4

3 1

P(A) + P(B) ≥ A

4 8

7

i.e., ≥

8

16

Also P (A ∪ B) ≤ 1

P(A) + P(B) − P (A ∩ B) ≤ 1

3

P(A) + P(B) ≤ 1 +

8

11

i.e., ≤

8

4 12 4 12

57. (D) A A tan C = ⋅ tan C

3 5 3 5

56 16

A tan C = tan C

15 5

56

⇒ tan C =

33

33

cos C =

65

SECTION III

58. (D) The expression

a A b ⋅ b ×c

= ∑

b c a

a b c

= ∑ = ∑1

a b c

=1+1+1=3

59. (A) The expression = a b c a B 0

A b c a b B0

A c a b c B0

= a b c a A b Ac

1 1

60. (A) Given equation is a ⋅ c b B a ⋅ b c = b A c

2 2

Because of the given conditions,

1, 1

a ⋅c = a ⋅b = B

2 2

Since a, b, c are unit vectors, the above implies

17

3

3

2π π 3π

∴α+β= A = = π

3 3 3

61. (C) Required limit

97 97 97

1 1 2 n

= Lt A A ... A

n → ∞

n n n n

1

1 98

x 1

=

∫x 97

dx =

98

=

98

0 0

1

62. (C) Required limit = ∫sin 6

π x dx

0

Put y = πx.

π

= ∫sin y dyπ 6

π /2

=

2

π

∫ sin y dy 6

2 5 3 1 π

= ⋅ ⋅ ⋅ ⋅

π 6 4 2 2

5

=

16

1 1 1

63. (B) Lt A A ... A

2 2 2 2

n → ∞ 4n B0 4n B 1 4n B n B 1

n B1

1

= Lt ∑ 2 2

n→ ∞ r = 0 4n B r

n B1

1

= Lt ∑

n→ ∞ r = 0 2

r

n 4 B

n

18

1

dx

= ∫ 2

dx

0 4 B x

1

= sin B 1 x

2 0

π π

= B0 =

6 6

SECTION IV

64. (A) − (q); (B) − (p); (C) − (s); (D) − (r)

Equation to the normal at t is

y + xt = 4t + 2t3.

It passes through (6, 0)

3

2t − 2t = 0

3

t − t = 0 ⇒ t = 0, 1, − 1

∴ P is (0, 0) and Q is (2, 4), (2, − 4)

4

(A) Centroid of ∆PQR = , 0

3

2 2

x + y + 2gx + 2fy = 0

4g + 8f = − 20

4g − 8f = − 20

1

(C) Area of ∆PQR = 2B 4 B 2 4

2

1

= B 8 B8

2

= 8

(D) Radius = 5 2 = 5

19

π

(A) cos x + sin x = 2 cos x B

4

π

f x = 2 cos x B

4

[x] is discontinuous at all integral values.

π

Now, 2 cos x B is an integer in 0 < x < 2π

4

π π π π 3π π

at x = , A , π A , A

2 2 4 4 2 4

Points of discontinuity are 4 in number.

(B) f(x) = x − |x| |1 − x|

Since x, |x| |1 − x| are continuous everywhere,

f(x) is discontinuous at no point in [− 1, 1].

(C) The function is discontinuous if

3n − (2 cos x)2n = 0

n

2

(cos x)

n

= 3

4

cos x = 3

2

4

π

x = nπ ±

4

There are infinite number of points of discontinuity.

y

(D) = 1 if y > 0

|y |

= − 1 if y < 0

At x = − 2,

h

Right limit = Lt B 2 A h A

h→ 0

|h|

=−2+1=−1

20

B h

Left limit = Lt B 2 B h A

h→0

|B h|

=−2−1=−3

Right limit ≠ left limit

∴ x = − 2 is the only point of discontinuity.

66. (A) − (s); (B) − (p); (C) − (r); (D) − (r)

(A) 3 sin x + 5 cos x = 5

Squaring,

2 2

9 sin x + 25 cos x + 30 sin x cos x = 25

2 2

9 (1 − cos x) + 25 (1 − sin x) + 30 sin x cos x = 25

2 2

9 cos x + 25 sin x − 30 sin x cos x = 9

2

(5 sin x − 3 cos x) = 9

5 sin x − 3 cos x = 3

(B) tan (3x − 2x) = 1

tan x = 1

π π

x = nπ + . This value does not satisfy the equation, because tan 2x = tan = ∞.

4 2

There is no value of x satisfying the equation.

(C) From the result,

sin B + sin C = 3 sin A

B A C BB C A A

2 sin cos = 6 sin cos

2 2 2 2

B B C A

cos = 3 sin

2 2

B B C B AC

cos = 3 cos

2 2

B C B C B C B C

cos cos A sin sin = 3 cos cos B 3 sin sin

2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2

B C B C

2 cos cos = 4 sin sin

2 2 2 2

B C

cot cot = 2

2 2

21

2

(D) tan A + tan B = c , tan A tan B = 1

ab

tan A = cot B = tan (90° − B)

A + B = 90°, C = 90°

∴ triangle is right-angled.

b

sin A = a , sin B =

c c

2 2 2

a +b =c

a b

tan A = , tan B =

b a

2 2 2

tan A + tan B = a A b =

c

ab ab

2 2 2

Now, sin A + sin B + sin C

2 2 2 2 2

a b a A b Ac

= A A1 =

2 2 2

c c c

2

2c

= =2

2

c

IIT-JEE 2008

STS VIII/PCM/P(II)/QNS

BRILLIANTS

HOME BASED FULL-SYLLABUS SIMULATOR TEST SERIES

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PAPER II

PHYSICS − CHEMISTRY − MATHEMATICS

QUESTION PAPER CODE 8

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2

PART A : PHYSICS

SECTION I

has four choices (A), (B), (C) and (D), out of which ONLY ONE is correct.

angular velocity ω so that it becomes a taut circle of radius R.

A kink develops in the whirling string as shown in Figure.

What is the tension in the string?

2

2 mω R 2

(A) mω R (B) mrω (C) (D) mω R

2

wire of frequency 512 Hz when sounded together produces 5 beats per second

with the organ pipe emitting its fundamental note. If a slight reduction in

tension of sonometer wire is made it produces resonance between the notes what

change in the temperature of air in organ pipe would have produced resonance

with the vibrating of sonometer wire with 512 Hz?

moment of inertia of the molecule, the angular mean square velocity of a rotating

molecule in terms of Boltzmann constant k is

(A) (B) (C) (D)

I I I I

3

magnetic field 1.2 tesla parallel to the principal axis. A

charged particle of mass 20 mg and charge 2 milli coulomb

is projected perpendicular to the plane of diagram with a

speed of 4.8 m/s. The particle moves along a circle with

centre on the principal axis at a distance 18 cm from lens.

The radius of the image circle formed by lens is

5. What is the equivalent resistance between points a and b of the circuit shown

below?

6 −1

charge when operated at 1200 volt. The dielectric strength of air is 3 × 10 Vm .

What is the minimum area of the plates of capacitor?

2 2 2 2

(A) 1 m (B) 0.45 m (C) 1.5 m (D) 1.2 m

2

7. A 40 cm long wire having a mass 3.2 g and area of cross section 1 mm is

stretched between supports 40.05 cm apart. In its fundamental note it vibrates

with a frequency 220 Hz. What is the Youngs modulus of the wire?

11 2 11 2

(A) 1.98 × 10 N/m (B) 2.2 × 10 N/m

11 2 11 2

(C) 3.96 × 10 N/m (D) 8.2 × 10 N/m

4

planet of mass M and mean density ρ, for a low altitude orbit (r = rp) will be

3π π

(A) (B) 3πGρ (C) (D) 2Gρ

Gρ Gρ

9. It takes one minute for a person standing on an escalator to reach the top from

the ground. If the escalator is not moving it takes him 3 minute to walk on the

steps to reach the top. How long will it take for the person to reach the top if he

walks up the escalator while it is moving?

(A) 2 minute (B) 1.5 minute (C) 0.75 minute (D) 1.25 minute

SECTION II

Assertion and Reason Type

This section contains 4 questions numbered 10 to 13. Each question contains

STATEMENT 1 (Assertion) and STATEMENT 2 (Reason). Each question has 4

choices (A), (B), (C) and (D), out of which ONLY ONE is correct.

(A) Statement 1 is True, statement 2 is True; statement 2 is a correct

explanation for statement 1.

explanation for statement 1.

(D)Statement 1 is False, statement 2 is True.

10. Statement 1: A sail boat can be propelled by air blown at the sails from a fan

attached to the boat.

because

Statement 2: The force applied being internal to the system cannot change the

state of motion of the system.

5

apparent weight of the floating block is zero.

because

Statement 2: The entire weight of the block is supported by the buoyant force

(upward thrust) due to water.

12. Statement 1: The velocity, wavelength and frequency all undergo a change

when a wave travels from one medium to another medium.

because

Statement 2: The frequency of a wave does not change when a wave travels

from one medium to another.

13. Statement 1: The self induced emf produced by a variable current in a coil

always tends to decrease the current.

because

decrease the current and vice versa according to Lenzs law.

SECTION III

Linked Comprehension Type

This section contains two paragraphs. Based upon each paragraph three multiple

choice questions have to be answered. Each question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and

(D), out of which ONLY ONE is correct.

Paragraph for Question Nos. 14 to 16

battery.

14. What is the magnitude of final charge?

6

15. How long after the capacitor is connected to the battery will it be charged to half

the maximum value?

(A) 15 millisecond (B) 10.5 millisecond

(C) 7.5 millisecond (D) 12.5 millisecond

16. How long will it take the capacitor to be charged to 90% of maximum value?

(A) 34.5 millisecond (B) 17.25 millisecond

(C) 68 millisecond (D) 90 millisecond

Paragraph for Question Nos. 17 to 19

A uniform rod of mass m and length 2l stands vertically on a rough horizontal

floor and it is allowed to fall, the slipping has not occurred during the motion.

17. What is the angular velocity of the fall when the rod makes an angle θ with

vertical?

3g g

(A) 1 B cos θ (B) 1 B cos θ

2l 2l

2g

(C) 1 B cos θ (D) 3g l 1 B cos θ

3l

18. What is the normal force exerted by the floor on the rod in this position when it

makes an angle θ with vertical?

2 2

(A) mg (3 − 4 sin θ) (B) mg (4 − 3 sin θ)

mg 2 mg 2

(C) (4 − 3 sin θ) (D) (4 − 3 sin θ)

3 4

19. If slipping occurs at an angle θ = 30°, what is the coefficient of friction between

rod and floor?

(A) 0.4 (B) 0.3 (C) 0.48 (D) 0.6

7

SECTION IV

Matrix-Match Type

This section contains 3 questions. Each question contains statements given in two

columns which have to be matched. Statements (A, B, C, D) in Column I have to be

matched with statements (p, q, r, s) in Column II. The answers to these questions

have to be appropriately bubbled as illustrated in the following example.

If the correct matches are A-p, A-s, B-q, B-r, C-p, C-q and D-s, then the correctly

bubbled 4 × 4 matrix should be as follows:

Column I Column II

(p) B 1

δP

(A) The speed of sound in a gas is v. The R.M.S.

velocity of the molecules is c. The ratio of v to c γ P

will be

fixed mass of gas changes by δP and the volume 3

δV

changes by δV. The value of will be equal to

V

1−γ γ

(C) The pressure-temperature relation for an (r) P T = constant

adiabatic expansion is

(D) If γ denotes the ratio of specific heats of a gas the (s) γ

ratio of slopes of adiabatic and isothermal P-V

curves at their point of intersection is

8

10

(A) A cylinder is released from rest from the (p) g l sin θ

7

top of an incline of inclination θ and length

l. If the cylinder rolls without slipping its

speed when it reaches the bottom is

4

(B) A solid sphere of mass M and radius R rolls (q) g l sin θ

3

down an inclined plane of length l and

inclination θ without slipping from the top.

The speed of its centre of mass when it

reaches the bottom is

v

(C) A circular disc rotates in a vertical plane (r)

2

about a fixed horizontal axis which passes

through a point X on the circumference of

the disc, when the centre of mass moves

with speed v the speed of the opposite end

of the diameter through X will be

inclined plane and reaches the bottom with

a velocity v. If the same mass is in the form

of a ring which rolls down without slipping

on identical but rough inclined plane, the

velocity of the ring at the bottom will be

9

plate capacitor of capacity 10 µF having air

between the plates is filled with mica of

dielectric constant K = 2, what will be the

new capacity?

connected in parallel to this combination at

fourth capacitor of capacitance 1 µF is

connected in series. The resultant capacity

will be

a potential difference of 200 V. After

disconnecting from battery it is connected in

parallel with another uncharged capacitor.

The common potential becomes 20 V. The

capacitance of second capacitor is

the effective capacitance between P and Q?

10

PART B : CHEMISTRY

SECTION I

Straight Objective Type

This section contains 9 multiple choice questions numbered 23 to 31. Each

question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and (D), out of which ONLY ONE is correct.

23. As the p - character decreases, the bond angle in hybrid orbitals formed by s and

p - atomic orbitals

(C) doubles (D) remains unchanged

24. In OF2 molecule, the total number of bond pairs and lone pairs of electrons

present respectively are

(A) 2, 6 (B) 2, 8 (C) 2, 10 (D) 3, 10

25. In electrorefining of copper, some gold is deposited as

(A) anode mud (B) cathode mud

(C) cathode (D) electrolyte

26. Tautomerism is not exhibited by

(A) (B)

(C) (D)

11

PhCOOH o - NO2C6H4COOH p - NO2C6H4COOH m - NO2C6H4COOH

I II III IV

Which of the following order is correct?

(A) I > II > III > IV (B) II > IV > III >I

(C) II > IV > I > III (D) II > III > IV > I

28. Which of the following will not yield tartaric acid?

(A) Hydrolysis of glyoxal cyanohydrin.

(B) Oxidation of fumaric acid with KMnO .

4

(C) Treatment of argol first with Ca(OH)2 , then with CaCl2 and finally with

H2SO4 .

29. The value of k for the reaction, 2A(g) B(g) + C(g) at 750 K and 10 atm pressure

is 2.86. The value of k at 750 K and 20 atm is

(A) 28.6 (B) 5.72 (C) 2.86 (D) 11.4

30. When equal volumes of the following solutions are mixed, precipitation of AgCl

−10

(Ksp of AgCl is 1.8 × 10 ) will occur only in

−4 + −4 − −5 + −5 −

(A) 10 M Ag and 10 M Cl (B) 10 M Ag and 10 M Cl

−6 + −6 − −10 + −10 −

(C) 10 M Ag and 10 M Cl (D) 10 M Ag and 10 M Cl

12

− −

31. For the reaction, NH + OCl → N H + Cl occurring in basic medium, the

3 2 4

coefficient of N2H4 in the balanced equation is

SECTION II

Assertion - Reason Type

This section contains 4 questions numbered 32 to 35. Each question contains

STATEMENT 1 (Assertion) and STATEMENT 2 (Reason). Each question has 4

choices (A), (B), (C) and (D), out of which ONLY ONE is correct.

(A) Statement 1 is True, statement 2 is True; statement 2 is a correct

explanation for statement 1.

(B) Statement 1 is True, statement 2 is True; statement 2 is not a correct

explanation for statement 1.

(C) Statement 1 is True, statement 2 is False.

(D)Statement 1 is False, statement 2 is True.

32. Statement 1: Lithium is the best reducing agent in aqueous solution.

because

+

Statement 2: Hydration energy of Li ion is appreciably high.

33. Statement 1: Equivalent conductance of acetic acid at infinite dilution cannot

be experimentally determined.

because

Statement 2: Acetic acid being an organic acid is not soluble in water.

34. Statement 1: The reaction, PCl5(g) PCl3(g) + Cl2(g) is favoured by

temperature rise.

because

Statement 2: ∆S is positive for the above reaction.

13

because

Statement 2: Phenol is acidic but cyclohexanol is neutral.

SECTION III

Linked Comprehension Type

This section contains 2 paragraphs. Based upon each paragraph, 3 multiple choice

questions have to be answered. Each question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and (D), out of

which ONLY ONE is correct.

Paragraph for Question Nos. 36 to 38

Consider a solution of Ba(NO3)2 containing 11.0 g in 100 g of water which boils at

−1 −1

373.6 K. (Given: Kb for water = 0.52° molal ; Molar mass of Ba(NO3)2 = 259.34 g mol )

36. The calculated value of elevation in boiling point of water in the above system is

(A) 0.22 K (B) 0.6 K (C) 1.0 K (D) 0.0 K

37. van’t Hoff factor i is

(A) 1.0 (B) 2.73 (C) 0.366 (D) 0.0

38. Percentage dissociation of Ba(NO3)2 is

Paragraph for Question Nos. 39 to 41

The zero (or 18) group of periodic table consists of six gaseous elements namely He,

Ne, Ar, Kr, Xe, and Rn. On account of their highly stable ns2p6 configuration in the

14

valence shell, these gases have little tendency to undergo any reaction, hence they

were called inert gases. However, due to finding of number of reactions of these

elements, these are correctly called noble gases.

39. The following noble gas not present in the atmosphere is

(A) Ne (B) Xe (C) Rn (D) Ar

40. Xe forms more number of compounds than the other noble gases

(A) due to its lower ionization potential.

(B) due to its higher electron affinity.

(C) due to its electronic structure.

(D) none of these

41. Charcoal at 100°C absorbs

(A) Ne and Kr (B) He and Ne (C) He and Ar (D) Ar, Kr and Xe

SECTION IV

Matrix-Match Type

This section contains 3 questions. Each question contains statements given in two

columns which have to be matched. Statements (A, B, C, D) in Column I have to be

matched with statements (p, q, r, s) in Column II. The answers to these questions

have to be appropriately bubbled as illustrated in the following example.

If the correct matches are A-p, A-s, B-q, B-r, C-p, C-q and D-s, then the correctly

bubbled 4 × 4 matrix should be as follows:

p q r s

A p q r s

B p q r s

C p q r s

D p q r s

15

(A) KMnO4 (p) Bleaching action

2+

(B) K2Cr2O7 (q) Fe

2(g)

PV

(A) Boyle temperature (p) =1

RT

a

(D) Ideal gas (s)

bR

16

PART C : MATHEMATICS

SECTION I

Straight Objective Type

This section contains 9 multiple choice questions numbered 45 to 53. Each

question has four choices (A), (B), (C), (D) out of which ONLY ONE is correct.

2 6 8

45. The radius of a circle that touches the parabola 75y = 64 (5x − 3) at , and

5 5

also x-axis is

(A) 1 (B) 2 (C) 3 (D) 5

46. F , F , F , F are the faces of a tetrahedron, V , V , V , V are the vectors

1 2 3 4 1 2 3 4

whose magnitudes are respectively equal to the areas of F , F , F , F and whose

1 2 3 4

directions are perpendicular to their faces in outward direction, then

V A V A V A V is equal to

1 2 3 4

2 2 2

47. In a triangle ABC, a + b + c = ca + ab 3, then the triangle is

(A) equilateral (B) right angled and isosceles

(C) with A = 90°, B = 60°, C = 30° (D) with A = 90°, B = 30°, C = 60°

π

48. The value of ∫ esec x sec3 x [sin2 x + cos x + sin x + sin x cos x] dx is

0

1 1

(A) 0 (B) e A (C) B e A (D) e

e e

2/3

49. The critical points of the function f(x) = (x − 2) (2x + 1) is

1

(A) 2 and 3 (B) 1 and 2 (C) −1 and 2 (D) 1 and −

2

SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK

17

sin θ − cos θ

50. The minimum value of 2 +2 is

1 1 1

1A 1 B B1 B

2 2 2

(A) 2 (B) 2 (C) 2 (D) 1

2 2 2 2

51. If the latus rectum of the ellipse x tan α + y sec α = 1 is 1 , then α is equal to

2

(where 0 < α < π),

π π 2π 5π

(A) (B) (C) (D)

6 3 3 12

k 2

n cos n

52. The value of Lim , where 0 < k < 1; is

n→∞ nA1

(A) 0 (B) 1 (C) infinity (D) does not exist

1 1 1

x Bx 2 x Bx 2 x Bx 2

53. The value of 3 A 3 4 A 4 5 A5 is

x Bx 2 x Bx 2 x Bx 2

3 B3 4 B 4 5 B5

x −x

(A) 1 (B) 0 (C) 60 (D) 60

SECTION II

Assertion-Reason Type

This section contains 4 questions numbered 54 to 57. Each question contains

STATEMENT 1 (Assertion) and STATEMENT 2 (Reason). Each question has 4

choices (A), (B), (C) and (D), out of which ONLY ONE is correct.

(A) Statement 1 is True, statement 2 is True; statement 2 is a correct

explanation for statement 1.

(B) Statement 1 is True, statement 2 is True; statement 2 is not a correct

explanation for statement 1.

18

(D)Statement 1 is False, statement 2 is True.

54. Statement 1: The number of common tangents to the circles

2 2 2 2

x + y + 2x + 8y − 23 = 0 and x + y − 4x − 10y + 19 = 0 is 1.

because

Statement 2: If two circles touch internally, the number of common tangent is 1.

55. Statement 1: Two regular polygons have their number of sides in the ratio

5 : 4, and the difference between their angles is 6°. Then the

number of sides are 15 and 12 respectively.

because

2n B 4

Statement 2: Each interior angle of regular polygon of n sides is right

n

angle.

B1 12 B1 3 B1 63

56. Statement 1: tan A tan A tan =π

5 4 16

because

B1 B1 B1 xA y

Statement 2: tan x A tan y = π A tan , if x, y > 0 and xy > 1.

1 B xy

α α 2α 2α

57. Statement 1: If f α = cos A i sin cos A i sin ....

k 2 2 2 2

k k k k

α α

cos A i sin , then the value of Lim f π is 0.

k k n

n → ∞

because

Statement 2: If n is positive, (cos θ1 + i sin θ1) (cos θ2 + i sin θ2) ... (cos θn + i sin θn)

= cos (θ1 + θ2 + ... + θn) + i sin (θ1 + θ2 + ... + θn).

19

SECTION III

Linked Comprehension Type

This section contains 2 paragraphs. Based upon each paragraph, 3 multiple choice

questions have to be answered. Each question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and (D), out of

which ONLY ONE is correct.

Paragraph for Question Nos 58 to 60

From any external point P two tangents can be drawn to a circle with centre C.

PT and PT are the two tangents.

1 2

θ

If the angle between the two tangents is θ, then T PC = T PC = .

1 2 2

2 2

58. From the origin O, the tangents are drawn to the circle x + y + 4x − 8y + 7 = 0,

meeting at P and Q, then the circumradius of ∆ OPQ is

(A) 5 (B) 3 (C) 2 (D) 2

59. From a point P on the line 4x − 3y = 6; tangents are drawn to the circle

2 2 B1 24 . Then P can be

x + y − 6x − 4y + 4 = 0, inclined at an angle tan

7

(A) (6, 0) (B) ( − 6, 0) (C) (6, 6) (D) (2, 0)

2 2

60. Tangents are drawn from point P ( − 8, 0) to the circle x + y = 16 meeting at A

and B. Then, the area of the quadrilateral PAOB is

20

If E1, E2, E3 ... En are n mutually exclusive and exhaustive events and A is an event

which takes place in conjunction with any one of E , then the probability of the event

i

A

P E P

i E

E i

i

E happening when the event A takes place is given by P =

i n

A A

∑ P E

i

P

i = 1 E

i

61. In a factory, the machines A, B and C produce 25%, 35%, 40% products

respectively. Of their total output 5, 4 and 2% are defective. A product is chosen

and is found to be defective. The probability that it was manufactured by

machine C is

16 25 13 1

(A) (B) (C) (D)

69 69 69 69

62. There are two boxes. First box contains 4 white and 5 black balls. Second box

contains 6 white and 5 black balls. One box is selected at random, a ball is chosen

and is found to be white. The probability that it has come from 2nd box is

17 23 12 27

(A) (B) (C) (D)

49 49 49 49

63. A letter is known to have come from either MAHARASHTRA or RAJASTHAN.

On the postal mark, only consecutive letters RA can be read clearly. The chance

that the letter come from MAHARASHTRA is

8 5 12 1

(A) (B) (C) (D)

13 13 13 13

SECTION IV

Matrix-Match Type

This section contains 3 questions. Each question contains statements given in two

columns which have to be matched. Statements (A, B, C, D) in Column I have to be

21

matched with statements (p, q, r, s) in Column II. The answers to these questions

have to be appropriately bubbled as illustrated in the following example.

If the correct matches are A-p, A-s, B-q, B-r, C-p, C-q and D-s, then the correctly

bubbled 4 × 4 matrix should be as follows:

p q r s

A p q r s

B p q r s

C p q r s

D p q r s

a b c

(A) If a, b, c are positive, then A A is (p) 3

bAc cAa aA b

greater than or equal to

−1 −2 −4 3

(B) The sum to ∞ of the product (1 + 3 ) (1 + 3 ) (1 + 3 ) (q)

−8 2

(1 + 3 ) ... is

2 3 4 5 6

(C) If (1 − p) (1 + 2x + 4x + 8x + 16x + 32x ) = 1 − p , then (r) 4

p

the value of is

x

(D) If the second, third and sixth terms of an A.P. are (s) 2

the consecutive terms of a G.P., then the common ratio

of the G.P. is

xf 3 B 3f x

(A) If f (3) = 4, f ′(3) = 1, then Lim is (p) 6

x → 3 xB3

(B) If f (x + y) = f (x) f(y) for all x, y and f(4) = 2 and (q) 1

f ′(0) = 3, then f ′(4) is equal to

22

1

(C) When 8 sec θ + cosec θ is minimum, (r)

tan θ is equal to 3

(s)

(D) If f x = 3 A 4 cos x 3 4 cos x , 2

1 A cos x cos x 1

π⁄2

then ∫f x dx is equal to

0

(A) A has 5 different books and B has 8 different (p) 14400

books. The number of ways they can

exchange their books so that each keeps his

initial number of books, is

(B) 5 boys and 3 girls are to be seated in a row. (q) 56

The number of ways in which they can be

seated in a row, such that no two girls sit

together is

(C) The number of ways in which 5 prizes can be (r) 1286

given to 4 boys, given that each boy is

eligible for all the prizes is

(D) There are 3 bags each containing unlimited (s) 1024

number of balls of colour white, black, red

and green. The number of ways in which 9

balls can be selected when every coloured

variety is represented in the selection is

23

Name: . Enrollment No.:

Please read the instructions carefully. You are allotted 5 minutes specifically for this purpose.

13. The question paper consists of 3 parts (Physics, Chemistry and Mathematics). Each part has 4 sections.

14. Section I contains 9 multiple choice questions. Each question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and (D), out of

which only one is correct.

15. Section II contains 4 questions. Each question contains STATEMENT-1 (Assertion) and STATEMENT-

2 (Reason).

Bubble (A) if both the statements are TRUE and STATEMENT-2 is the correct explanation of

STATEMENT-1.

Bubble (B) if both the statements are TRUE but STATEMENT-2 is not the correct explanation of

STATEMENT-1.

Bubble (C) if STATEMENT-1 is TRUE and STATEMENT-2 is FALSE.

Bubble (D) if STATEMENT-1 is FALSE and STATEMENT-2 is TRUE.

16. Section III contains 2 paragraphs. Based upon each paragraph, 3 multiple choice questions have to be

answered. Each question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and (D), out of which only one is

correct.

17. Section IV contains 3 questions. Each question contains statements given in 2 columns. Statements in

the first column have to be matched with statements in the second column. The answers to

these questions have to be appropriately bubbled in the ORS as per the instructions given

at the beginning of the section.

D. Marking scheme:

18. For each question in Section I, you will be awarded 3 marks if you darken only the bubble

corresponding to the correct answer and zero mark if no bubble is darkened. In all other cases, minus

one (−1) mark will be awarded.

19. For each question in Section II, you will be awarded 3 marks if you darken only the bubble

corresponding to the correct answer and zero mark if no bubble is darkened. In all other cases, minus

one (−1) mark will be awarded.

20. For each question in Section III, you will be awarded 4 marks if you darken only the bubble

corresponding to the correct answer and zero mark if no bubble is darkened. In all other cases, minus

one (−1) mark will be awarded.

21. For each question in Section IV, you will be awarded 6 marks if you darken ALL the bubbles

corresponding ONLY to the correct answer. No negative mark will be awarded for an incorrectly

bubbled answer.

1

IIT-JEE 2008

STS VIII/PCM/P(II)/SOLNS

BRILLIANTS

HOME-BASED FULL-SYLLABUS SIMULATOR TEST SERIES

FOR OUR STUDENTS

TOWARDS

PAPER II - SOLUTIONS

PHYSICS − CHEMISTRY − MATHEMATICS

PART A : PHYSICS

SECTION I

1. (A) As shown in Figure, we assume

ACB to be a small unkinked

section of rope subtending an

angle ∆θ at O. We choose C at the

midpoint of an arc. The centripetal

force is provided by the sum of two

tension forces FA and FB.

Fnet = FA + FB

In order that the force be directed towards O we must have |FA| = |FB| = F.

∆θ

The net inward radial force = 2F sin = F ⋅ ∆θ, where ∆θ is small.

2

Equating this to the required centripetal force, we have

2

(mR∆θ) ω R = F ⋅ ∆θ

since, mR (∆θ) is the mass of this section.

2

∴ F = mω R

2

Number of beats = 5

Frequency of pipe = 517 or 507 Hz

Since the frequency of sonometer is reduced because of reduction in tension

and since it produces unison after change in tension with organ pipe the

frequency of organ pipe = 507 Hz.

Frequency at 15°C = 507 Hz

Let the temperature be raised to x°C so that the frequency becomes 512.

v 273 A 15 288

15

= =

v 273 A x 273 A x

x

v v 507

x 15

= 512 ∴ =

2l v 512

x

507 288

=

512 273 A x

Solving, x = 20.7°C

3. (A) A diatomic molecule has 5 degrees of freedom. Each degree of freedom has

kT

energy (3 translational and two rotational).

2

kT

Two degrees of rotational motion = 2 ⋅ = kT

2

1 2

∴ rotational kinetic energy = Iω

2

1 2

Iω = kT

2

ω= 2kT

I

2 B6

mv 20 × 10 × 4.8

4. (B) Bev = mv

−2

or r = = = 4 × 10 m

Be B3

r 1.2 × 2 × 10

1 1 1

A =

v u f

3

1 1 1

A =

v 18 12

v = 36 cm

v 36

Magnification = = =2

u 18

−2

Radius of image circle = 2 × 4 × 10 m = 8 cm

5. (C)

Applying Kirchhoffs law, Va − Vb = (Va − Ve) + (Vc − Vd)

we eliminate i1 5(Va − Vb) = 35i

V BV

a b

=7

i

Equivalent resistance = 7 Ω

R R A R R A 2R R 10 × 5 A 5 × 5 A 2 × 10 × 5

1 3 2 3 1 2

Aliter: R = =

AB

R A R A 2R 10 A 5 A 2 × 5

1 2 3

175

=

25

=7Ω

4

−6

6. (B) Q = 12 × 10 C, V = 1200 V

B6

Q 12 × 10 −8

Capacitance = = = 10 farad

V 1200

If t is thickness and operating voltage is 1200 V and x is the distance between

plates

1200

= 3 × 106

x

−4

or x = 4 × 10 m

ε A 4 × 10

B4

× 10

B8

0

Capacitance = or A =

t B 12

8.85 × 10

A = 0.45 m2

B3

7. (A) l = 40 cm = 0.4 m, m = 3.2 × 10

0.4

1 T 1 T

n= =

2l m 2l B3

3.2 × 10

0.4

1 0.4T

220 =

2 × 0.4 B3

3.2 × 10

2

8 × 176

T=

3

10

2

T 8 × 176 11 2

Y= = = 1.98 × 10 N/m

A × strain 3 B6 0.05

10 × 1 × 10 ×

40

2

mv GMm 2π r

8. (A) = ,v=

r 2 T

r

2 2 3⁄2

4π r GMm 2π r

m⋅ = or T =

2 2

rT r GM

5

4 3

M= πr ρ and r = rp

3

3⁄ 2

2π r 3π

p

T= =

4 3 Gρ

G⋅ πr ρ

p

3

9. (C) Let the distance from ground to top be d. The ground is frame at rest and

moving escalator is a moving frame. If v1 is the velocity of person for walking

d

time, t1 = . This is true when escalator is at rest. When it is moving with

v

1

velocity v the time taken by person = d (t2). Finally the person walks on

v

steps while it is moving.

Velocity of person with respect to ground = v1 + v

d v Av v

1 1 1 v 1 1

The time, t3 = or = = A = A

v Av t d d d t t

1 3 1 2

t t 3 × 1 = 0.75 minute

1 2

t3 = =

t At 3A1

1 2

SECTION II

10. (D)

11. (A) The loss of weight in water is just equal to the total weight of the block.

12. (D) The frequency remains unchanged, the wavelength as well as the velocity

undergo a change depending upon the refractive index of the medium.

13. (D) If the change in current is positive (increase), the self induced emf will tend

to decrease the current. If the current is decreasing the self induced emf will

tend to increase the current.

SECTION III

− t/RC

14. (B) In charging, q = q0 (1 − e )

q0 = CV

−6

q0 = 50 × 10 × 12 = 600 µC

6

−6

15. (B) Time constant = RC = 300 × 50 × 10 = 15 millisecond

q

From the formula, we see that the charge reaches a value 0 in time t such that

2

= 1

− t′/RC

e

2

t′

= loge 2 = 0.693

RC

t′ = RC × 0.693 = 15 × 0.693 = 10.5 millisecond

− t′/RC 90 1

16. (A) Similarly, e = 1B =

100 10

t ′ = log 10 = 2.303 × 1

e

RC

t′ = 2.303 × 1 × 15 = 34.5 millisecond

17. (A) The forces acting on the rod are the weight mg acting downwards and normal

force N and frictional force, F = µN.

The net torque, τ = Iα, where I is the moment of

inertia of rod.

4

∴ τ = mgl sin θ = ml2 ⋅ α

3

3g

α= sin θ

4l

dω dω dθ dω 3g

α= = ⋅ = ω⋅ = sin θ

dt dθ dt dθ 4l

ω θ

∫ω dω = ∫ 34 gl sin θ dθ

0 0

θ

2

ω 3 g

= B cos θ

2 4 l 0

2 3g

ω = 1 B cos θ

2l

3g

ω= 1 B cos θ

2l

7

18. (D) Linear acceleration is lα at right angles to the direction of rod. Resolving it

horizontally and vertically, the components are lα cos θ and lα sin θ. The

horizontal acceleration of centre of gravity due to force mg and N is

3 2

By Newtons law, mg − N = mlα sin θ = mg sin θ

4

4

3 2 mg 2

∴ N = mg − mg sin θ = (4 − 3 sin θ)

4 4

19. (A) When θ = 30° slipping starts. At this F has its maximum value.

3

F mg sin θ cos θ

max 4 3 sin θ cos θ 3 3

µ= = = = = 0.400

N mg 2 2 13

4 B 3 sin θ 4 B 3 sin θ

4

SECTION IV

20. (A) − (q); (B) − (p); (C) − (r); (D) − (s)

γP 3P

(A) v = ;c=

ρ ρ

v γ

=

c 3

γ

(B) For adiabatic change PV = constant

γ−1 γ dP

Differentiating P ⋅ γ ⋅ V +V =0

dV

dV 1 dP

=B ⋅

V γ P

PV = RT

Eliminating V between these equations, we get P1 − γ T γ = constant

(D) γ

21. (A) − (q); (B) − (p); (C) − (s); (D) − (r)

(A) In the case of cylinder, v = =

2 2 3

K ⁄R A 1

8

gl sin θ

(B) Velocity of the sphere is given by

2 2

K ⁄R A 1

where K is the radius of gyration of sphere, R is the radius.

10g l sin θ

∴v=

7

(C) Speed of opposite end of diameter = 2v

1

Ratio =

2

22. (A) − (q); (B) − (p); (C) − (s); (D) − (r)

ε A

(A) Capacity of air capacitor = 0

D

Kε A

If the space is filled with dielectric of constant K = 0

D

∴ capacity = 20 µF

(B) Capacitors in parallel capacity = 1 + 1 + 1 = 3 µF

3

When 1 µF is connected in parallel with this C = µF = 0.75 µF

4

(C) Charge given to the first capacitor = 200 × 2 = 400 µC

The common potential is 20 volts after connecting it in parallel.

∴ the capacity of the uncharged capacitor connected in parallel = 18 µF

(D) When capacitors are connected in parallel,

the effective capacity = C1 + C2 + C3 + .....

1 1 1 1

the effective capacity = = A A A ...

C C C C

1 2 3

◊ Brilliant Tutorials Pvt. Ltd. IIT/STS VIII/PCM/P(II)/Solns - 8

9

PART B : CHEMISTRY

SECTION I

3 2

23. (B) s-character increases in the order sp (25%), sp (33%), sp (50%). p-character

decreases as sp3 (75%), sp2 (66%), sp (50%). Bond angle increases in the order

sp3 (109°28′), sp2 (120°), sp (180°). Thus as p-character decreases, bond angle

increases.

24. (B) In OF2 molecule, there are two bond pairs and eight lone pairs (two from O

atom and three from each F atom) of electrons.

25. (A) In electrorefining of copper, impure copper is made as anode while pure

copper plate is made as cathode. On passing current, impurities like Fe,Zn,

Ni, Co dissolve in the solution and Au, Ag, etc., settle down at the bottom as

anode mud.

26. (B)

27. (D)

28. (D) • Cream of tartar itself is potassium acid tartarate, and on heating it does not

give tartaric acid.

−

30. (A) In (A), [Ag+] [Cl ] > Ksp .

− −

31. (A) 2NH3 + 2OH → N2H4 +2H2O + 2e

− −

2NH3 + OCl → N2H4 + Cl + H2 O.

SECTION II

32. (A)

33. (C)

34. (B) This is an endothermic reaction. Hence, the reaction is favoured with

increase in temperature.

35. (B)

10

SECTION III

b 2

36. (A) ∆T = = = 0.22 K

b

w M 100 × 259.34

1 2

∆ T obs

b

37. (B) vant Hoff factor, i =

∆ T cal

b

0.6

=

0.22

= 2.727 Y 2.73

B

38. (D) Ba(NO3)2 Ba2+ + 2NO (3 species)

3

i B1 2.727 B1 1.727

α = = = = 0.8635

n B1 3 B1 2

39. (C)

40. (A)

41. (D)

SECTION IV

42. (A) − (q), (r),(s); (B) − (q), (r); (C) − (p), (r); (D) − (p), (r)

43. (A) − (s); (B) − (q), (r) ,(s); (C) − (q), (r), (s); (D) − (p)

11

PART C : MATHEMATICS

SECTION I

2

75y = 32 (10x − 6)

Tangent at (x1, y1) is

6 8

Put x 1 = , y =

1

5 5

The equation to the tangent is

3y = 4x

4

Slope =

3

3

Slope of common normal = B

4

Equation to the common normal is

6 8

x B y B

5 5

= = r.

4 3

B

5 5

8

r B

5

∴ = r ⇒ r = 4

3

5

Put r = − r in RHS

8

r B

5

=B r

3

5

⇒r=1

∴ one radius is 4 and the other radius is 1

12

Let OA = a, OB = b, OC = c

Then V = 1 a × b

1

2

1

V = b ×c

2

2

1

V = c ×a

3

2

1

V = c B a × b B a

4

2

1

= c × b B c × a B a × b

2

∴ V A V A V A V =0

1 2 3 4

⇒ V A V A V A V = 0

1 2 3 4

a2 + b2 + c2 − ca − ab 3 = 0

2 2

a 3 a

B b A Bc = 0

2 2

This is possible if

a 3 a

B b = 0 and B c = 0.

2 2

3a = 2b; a = 2c

k k c = k

⇒a = ; b = ; k is a constant.

3 2 2 3

2

2 2 2 1 1 2 4 k 2

b A c = k A = k ⋅ = = a

4 12 12 3

A = 90°

b 3

sin B = =

a 2

∴ B = 60° ⇒ C = 30°

13

π π π

sec x 2 sec x 2

48. (C) ∫e tan x sec x dx A ∫e sec x dx A ∫ e sec x sec 2 x tan x dx

0 0 0

π

A ∫ e sec x sec x tan x dx

0

π π π

sec x 2 sec x sec x

= ∫ e tan x sec x dx A ∫ e d tan x dx A ∫ sec x d e dx

0 0 0

π

A ∫ e sec x sec x tan x dx

0

π π π

sec x 2 sec x

= ∫e tan x sec x dx A e tan x 0

B ∫ tan x e sec x ⋅sec x tan x dx

0 0

π π π

sec x sec x

A e sec x 0

B ∫e sec x tan x dx A ∫ e sec x sec x tan x dx

0 0

π

sec x

= e sec x 0

−1

=e ( − 1) − e1 ⋅ 1

1

=− e A

e

2/3 2 −1/3

49. (B) f ′(x) = (x − 2) ⋅ 2 + (2x + 1) ⋅ ⋅ (x − 2)

3

2 3 x B 2 A 2x A 1

=

1⁄ 3

3 x B2

2 5x B 5

=

1⁄ 3

3 x B2

f ′(x) = 0 ⇒ x = 1

The point at which f ′(x) does not exist is also a critical point.

So x = 2 is also a critical point.

14

sin θ B cos θ

2 A2 sin θ B cos θ

≥ 2 ⋅2

2

1

sin θ B cos θ

sin θ B cos θ 1 2

2 A 2 ≥ 2 ⋅2

1 π

1 A 2 sin θ B

2 4

≥2

1 π

1 A sin θB

2 4

≥2

π

For minimum value, sin θ B =−1

4

1

1B

2

∴ minimum value = 2

51. (D) The equation of the ellipse

2 2

x y

A = 1.

2 2

cot α cos α

2

Latus rectum = 2b =

1

a 2

4b2 = a

4 cos2 α = cot α

1 π

4 cos α = Q α ≠

sin α 2

2 sin 2 α = 1

1

sin 2 α =

2

n π

2 α = n π + ( − 1)

6

π

Put n = 0 ⇒ 2α =

6

π

⇒α =

12

15

π

Put n = 1 ⇒ 2α = π −

6

5π

=

6

5π

α =

12

k 2

n cos n

52. (A) Lim

n → ∞ 1

n 1A

n

1 2

= Lim cos n

n → ∞

1 B k 1

n 1A

n

2

cos n is a bounded function and 0 < k < 1.

∴ above limit = 0.

53. (B) Applying R2 → R2 − R3 we get

1 1 1

x Bx x Bx x Bx

Det = 2 ⋅ 2 ⋅ 3 ⋅ 3 2 ⋅2 ⋅4 ⋅4 2 ⋅2 ⋅5 ⋅5

2 2 2

x Bx x Bx x Bx

3 B3 4 B 4 5 B 5

1 1 1

1 1 1

= 4

2 2 2

x Bx x Bx x Bx

3 B 3 4 B 4 5 B5

=4⋅0=0

SECTION II

54. (B) Centre A of I circle = ( − 1, − 4)

Radius r1 of I circle = 1 A 16 A 23 = 40 = 2 10

Centre B of II circle = (2, 5)

Radius r2 of II circle = 4 A 25 B 19 = 10

Distance between the centres = 9 A 81 = 90 = 3 10

∴ distance = r1 + r2

The two circles touch externally. Number of common tangents = 3.

16

55. (A) Let n1 and n2 be the number of sides of the two regular polygons.

n 5

1

=

n 4

2

2n B 4 2n B 4

1 2

Also 90° B 90° = 6°

n n

1 2

B4 4 1

A =

n n 15

1 2

1 1 1

B =

n n 60

2 1

1 1 1

B =

4 n 60

n 1

1

5

1 1 1

=

4 n 60

1

n1 = 15

4

n = × 15 = 12

2

5

12 3

56. (A) ⋅ >1

5 4

12 3

A

−1 12 −1 3 B1 5 4

∴ tan + tan = π A tan

5 4 12 3

1B ⋅

5 4

B1 B 63

= π A tan

16

B1 63

= π B tan

16

∴ L.H.S = π

17

π π 2π 2π nπ nπ

57. (D) fn(π) = cos A i sin cos A i sin ... cos A i sin

2 2 2 2 2 2

n n n n n n

π A 2π A ... A nπ π A 2π A ... A nπ

fn(π) = cos A i sin

2 2

n n

n n A1π n n A1π

= cos A i sin

2 2

2n 2n

2 1 2 1

n 1 A π n 1A π

n n

= cos A i sin

2 2

2n 2n

1 π 1 π

= cos 1 A A i sin 1 A

n 2 n 2

π π

∴ Lt f π = cos A i sin

n

n → ∞

2 2

=0+i⋅1=i

SECTION III

58. (A) Centre C is ( − 2, 4)

Evidently O, the origin is an external point of the

circle.

OPC = 90° = OQC.

∴ P and Q lie on the circle on OC as diameter.

It is the circumcircle of ∆ OPQ.

2 2

∴ OC = 2 A 4 = 20

1 1

Circumradius = 20 = ×2 5 = 5

2 2

59. (C) Centre C is (3, 2)

Angle between them

B1 24

2α = tan

7

24

tan 2 α =

7

18

2 tan α 24

=

2 7

1 B tan α

(8 tan α − 6) (3 tan α + 4) = 0

6 3 4

∴ tan α = = ; ∴ tan α = − , not possible α is acute.

8 4 3

CT1 = Radius = 9 A 4 B 4 = 3

∴ PT2 = 4

∴ PC = 5

If P is (α, β), then (α − 3)2 + (β − 2)2 = 25 and 4α − 3β = 6.

Solving, α = 6 or 0

β = 6 or − 2

P can be (6, 6)

60. (B) Radius OA = 4

PO = 8

4 1

sin θ = = ; θ = 30°

8 2

∴ A O P = 60°

1

Area of ∆ OAP = OA ⋅ PO sin 60°

2

1 3

= × 4 ×8 ×

2 2

=8 3

= 16 3

25

61. (A) P(E1) → P (A is production) =

100

35 40

P E = , P E3 =

2

100 100

E − Probability that the product is defective

P(E/E1) = 5

100

P(E/E2) = 4

100

19

P(E/E3) = 2

100

P E P E⁄E

3 3

P(E3/E) =

P E P E⁄E AP E P E⁄E AP E P E⁄E

1 1 2 2 3 3

40 2

⋅

100 100

=

25 5 35 4 40 2

⋅ A ⋅ A ⋅

100 100 100 100 100 100

16

=

69

62. (D) E1 - I box is chosen; E2 → II box is chosen

1 1

P E = P E =

1 2

2 2

E - ball is white

P(E/E1) = 4 ; P E⁄E =

6

2

9 11

P E P E⁄E

2 2

P E ⁄E =

2

P E P E ⁄E A P E P E⁄E

1 1 2 2

1 6 6

⋅

2 11 11

= =

1 4 1 6 98

⋅ A ⋅

2 9 2 11 99

6 ×9 54 27

= = =

98 98 49

63. (A) E1 − MAHARASHTRA chosen

E2 − RAJASTHAN chosen

1 1

P E = P E =

1 2

2 2

E → Consecutive letters are R and A

M A H A R A S H T R A

(1) (2) (3) (4) (5) (6) (7) (8) (9) (10) → Favourable = 2

Exhaustive = 10

P(E/E1) = 2 = 1

10 5

20

R A J A S T H A N Favourable = 1

(1) (2) (3) (4) (5) (6) (7) (8) Exhaustive = 8

P(E/E2) = 1

8

1 1

P E ⋅ P E ⁄E ⋅

1 1 2 5

P E ⁄E = =

1

P E ⋅ P E⁄E A P E P E ⁄E 1 1 1 1

1 1 2 2 ⋅ A ⋅

2 5 2 8

1

5 8

= =

1 1 13

A

5 8

SECTION IV

64. (A) − (q); (B) − (q); (C) − (s); D − (p)

1

a b c a b c 3

(A) Applying A.M. ≥ G.M. A A ≥3 ⋅ ⋅

bAc cAa aAb b Ac cAa aAb

1

Also b A c A c A a A a A b ≥ 3 b A c ⋅ c A a ⋅ a A b

3

a b c a b c

Also b A c A c A a A a A b = b

A

a

A

c

A

a

A

b

A

c

a b c a b a c c b

which is ≥ 2 + 2 + 2

i.e., ≥ 6

a b c 1

∴ we get A A ≥ 9×

b Ac c Aa a A b 6

3

i.e., ≥

2

(B) Upto n terms,

n

−1 −2

product P = (1 + 3 ) (1 + 3 ) ... 1 A 3 B 2

−1 −2 −2

P(1 − 3 ) = (1 − 3 ) (1 + 3 )

−4

= (1 − 3 )

21

Ultimately

B1 1

P1B 3 = 1B

2n A 1

3

1 1

P = 1 B

1 2n A 1

1 B 3

3

3 1

= 1 B

2 2n A 1

3

3

As n → ∞ the above =

2

6

2 3 4 5 1 B 2x

(C) 1 + 2x + 4x + 8x + 16x + 32x =

1 B 2x

6

1 B p

=

1B p

Comparing; p = 2x is a solution

p

⇒ = 2

x

a A 2d a A 5d 3d

(D) Now = ; each = =3

a A d a A 2d d

∴ common ratio = 3

65. (A) − (q); (B) − (p); (C) − (s); (D) − (r)

f 3 B 3f ′ x

= Lt

x → 3

1

4 B 3 ⋅1

= =1

1

(B) Put y = 0

∴ f(x + 0) = f(x) ⋅ f(0), ∀x

⇒ f(0) = 1

22

f 4 A h B f 4

f′ 4 = Lt

h → 0

h

f 4 f h B f 4

= Lt

h → 0

h

f h B f 0

= f 4 Lt

h → 0

h

= f(4) ⋅ f ′(0) = 2 ⋅ 3 = 6

(C) f(θ) = 8 sec θ + cosec θ

f ′(θ) = 8 sec θ tan θ − cosec θ cot θ

f ′(θ) = 0 ⇒ tan3 θ = 1

8

1

⇒ tan θ =

2

For this f ″(θ) is +ve.

1

∴ tan θ = gives minimum.

2

(D) In the determinant, applying C1 = C1 − (C2 + C3)

we get f x = 0 3 4cos x

0 cos x 1

2

= cos x (3 − 4 cos x)

= − cos 3x

π π

2 2

∫f x dx = ∫ B cos 3x dx

0 0

π

sin 3x 2

=B

3 0

1 1

=B B B 0 =

3 3

23

(A) On the whole there are 5 + 8 = 13 books. Then A can select 5 books in

13

C5 ways.

∴ required number of ways

= 13C5 − 1 = 1286.

Number of spaces for girls = 4 + 2 = 6 [4 gaps 2 extremes]

6

3 girls can be arranged in P3 ways = 120

(C) Any one prize can be given to any one of the 4 boys.

For each prize there are 4 choices and there are 5 prizes.

= Coefficient of t9 in t4 (1 + t + ... )4

−4

= Coefficient of t5 in (1 − t)

= (4 + 5 − 1)C5

8 8

= C5 = C3 = 56

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