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IIT-JEE 2008
STS VIII/PCM/P(I)/QNS
BRILLIANT’S
HOME-BASED FULL-SYLLABUS SIMULATOR TEST SERIES
FOR OUR STUDENTS
TOWARDS
IIT-JOINT ENTRANCE EXAMINATION, 2008
PAPER I

PHYSICS − CHEMISTRY − MATHEMATICS

QUESTION PAPER CODE 8


Time: 3 Hours Maximum Marks: 243
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2

PART A : PHYSICS

SECTION I
Straight Objective Type
This section contains 9 multiple choice questions numbered 1 to 9. Each question has
4 choices (A), (B), (C) and (D) out of which ONLY ONE is correct.

1. A freely falling object crosses a T.V. tower of height 102.9 m in three seconds.
Find the height above the top of the tower from which it would have started
falling.
(A) 122.5 m (B) 102.9 m (C) 19.6 m (D) 82.3 m
2. A frame of mass 200 gms, when suspended from a coil
spring is found to stretch by 10 cms. A stone of mass 200 gms
is dropped from rest on to the pan of the frame from a
height 30 cm as shown in Figure. Find the maximum
distance moved by frame downwards.
(A) 20 cm (B) 10 cm
(C) 30 cm (D) 40 cm

3. A plane harmonic acoustic wave y = a sin (ωt − mx) is travelling in a gaseous


medium. Find the phase difference between pressure and displacement.

π π
(A) 0 (B) (C) (D) π
4 2

4. A battery of e.m.f. E and internal resistance r is connected to an external


resistance R, the maximum power in the external circuit is 9 watts. The current
flowing in the circuit under the conditions is 3 ampere. What is the value of E?
(A) 4 V (B) 6 V (C) 8 V (D) 3 V

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5. A single turn circular coil produces at its centre a magnetic induction B when a
current is passing through it. It is reshaped into a circular coil of 2 turns and if
the same current is passed through it what is the magnetic induction at the
centre?

(A) 2B (B) 3B (C) 4B (D) 0.5B

6. In two separate setups of Young’s double slit experiment fringes of equal width
are observed when light of wavelength in the ratio 1 : 2 are used. If the ratio of
slit separation in the two cases is 2 : 1 the ratio of distances between the plane of
slits and screen are in the ratio

(A) 4 : 1 (B) 1 : 1 (C) 1 : 4 (D) 2 : 1

7. Find the number of neutrons generated per unit time in a uranium reactor whose
thermal power is 100 MW if the average number of neutrons liberated per fission
is 2.5. Each fission releases energy 200 MeV.

18 5
(A) 7.8 × 10 (B) 7.8 × 10

10 12
(C) 7.8 × 10 (D) 7.8 × 10

8. A 1 kg block is executing S.H.M. of amplitude 0.1 m on a smooth horizontal


surface under the restoring force of a spring constant 100 N/m. A block of mass 3 kg is
gently placed on it as it passes through the mean position. Assuming that the
blocks move together, find the amplitude of motion.

(A) 4 cm (B) 5 cm (C) 6 cm (D) 3 cm

2
9. A wheel rotates with constant angular acceleration a = 2 rad/sec . If t = 0.5 s
2
after motion begins, the total acceleration of the wheel becomes 13.6 m/s .
Determine the radius of wheel.

(A) 5.1 m (B) 4.1 m (C) 6.1 m (D) 21. m

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SECTION II

Assertion and Reason Type

This section contains 4 questions numbered 10 to 13. Each question contains


STATEMENT 1 (Assertion) and STATEMENT 2 (Reason). Each question has 4 choices
(A), (B), (C) and (D), out of which ONLY ONE is correct.

(A) Statement 1 is True, statement 2 is True; statement 2 is a correct


explanation for statement 1.

(B) Statement 1 is True, statement 2 is True; statement 2 is not a correct


explanation for statement 1.

(C) Statement 1 is True, statement 2 is False.

(D) Statement 1 is False, statement 2 is True.

10. Statement 1: The trajectory followed by electron, when subjected to a magnetic


field acting at right angles to its direction of motion is a parabola.

because

Statement 2: A charged particle subjected to a magnetic field perpendicular to


its direction of motion moves entirely in the plane perpendicular
mv
to the magnetic field in a circular radius .
eB

11. Statement 1: The critical angle for total internal reflection at glass water
interface is greater than the critical angle at glass air interface.

because

Statement 2: The refractive index of glass is greater than the refractive index of
water.

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12. Statement 1: A coil of metal wire is kept stationary in a non-uniform magnetic


field. An e.m.f is induced in the coil.

because

Statement 2: There must be a variation in magnetic field with time if the e.m.f
is to be generated.

13. Statement 1: The dielectric constant of a conductor is zero.

because

Statement 2: If a conductor is placed in the electric field the intensity inside the
conductor is zero.

SECTION III

Linked Comprehension Type

This section contains 2 paragraphs. Based upon each paragraph, 3 multiple choice
questions have to be answered. Each question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and (D), out of
which ONLY ONE is correct.

Paragraph for Question Nos. 14 to 16

A small disc of mass m1 and a thin uniform rod of mass m2 and length l lie on a
smooth horizontal plane. The disc is set in motion in horizontal direction and
perpendicular to the rod with velocity v after which it elastically collides with the end
m
2
of the rod. The ratio of = η.
m
1

14. What is the velocity of disc after collision?

v 4B η v 4A η v v
(A) (B) (C) (D)
4A η 4B η 4A η 4B η

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15. What is the angular velocity of rod after collision?

12v v
(A) ω = (B) ω =
l 4A η l 4A η

6v 6v
(C) ω = (D) ω =
l 4A η l ηB 4

m
2
16. For what ratio of (= η) the disc will reverse its direction of motion?
m
1

(A) η > 4 (B) η > 3 (C) η < 4 (D) η < 3

Paragraph for Question Nos. 17 to 19

Figure shows a conducting circular loop of radius ‘a’ placed in a uniform


perpendicular magnetic field B. A metal rod OA is pivoted at the centre O of loop. The
other end A of the rod touches the loop. The rod and loop have no resistance. A resistor
R is connected between O and a fixed point C on the loop. The rod OA is made to
rotate anticlockwise with a small angular velocity ω by an external force.

17. What is the current flowing in the resistance R?

2 2 2
Bωa
(A) Bω a (B) Bωa (C) (D) B ωa
R 2R R 2R

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18. What is the force on the rod due to magnetic field?

2 3 2 2 2 2
Bωa
(A) B ωa (B) B ωa (C) B ωa (D)
2R 2R R 2R

19. Find the torque of external force needed to keep the rod rotating with constant
angular velocity ω.

2 4 2 2 2 3 2 4
(A) B ωa (B) B ωa (C) B ωa (D) B ωa
4R 2R 2R R

SECTION IV

Matrix-Match Type

This section contains 3 questions. Each question contains statements given in two
columns which have to be matched. Statements (A, B, C, D) in Column I have to be
matched with statements (p, q, r, s) in Column II. The answers to these questions
have to be appropriately bubbled as illustrated in the following example.

If the correct matches are A-p, A-s, B-q, B-r, C-p, C-q and D-s, then the correctly
bubbled 4 × 4 matrix should be as follows:

p q r s
A p q r s
B p q r s
C p q r s
D p q r s

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20. Column I Column II


(A) A loaded spring gun of mass M fires a shot of mass m (p) 2.0
with a velocity ω at an elevation θ. The gun is initially
at rest on the frictionless horizontal surface. After firing
the velocity of the centre of mass of system is (in terms of ω)
(B) A body of mass M moving with speed ω makes head on (q) zero
collision with another body of mass m initially at rest.
If M > m, the speed of mass m is (in terms of ω)
(C) Three masses each of mass m are located at the corners (r) 1.0
of an equilateral triangle ABC. They start moving with
equal speed ω along the medians and collide at centroid.
After collision A comes to rest and B retraces its path.
What is the speed of C after collision? (in terms of ω)
(D) A particle A undergoes oblique impact with particle B (s) 1.57
that is at rest initially. If their masses are equal the
velocity of A after collision, makes an angle with that
of B equal to (in radian)
21. Column I Column II
Physical Quality Name of units
(A) Angle in a plane (p) Radian
(B) Solid angle (q) Steradian
(C) Electric dipolemoment (r) Coulomb metre
(D) Electric field intensity (s) Volt per metre
22. Column I lists the physical quantities associated with photon and Column II lists
the formulae for calculating them. Match them properly.
Column I Column II
(A) The momentum of a moving particle is p and the (p) E/p
wavelength of associated matter wave will be
2
(B) The energy of the photon is E and its momentum is p. (q) hν/c
The velocity of photon will be
(C) A photon in motion of energy E has a mass equal to (r) h/p
(D) The mass of photon at rest is (s) zero
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PART B : CHEMISTRY

SECTION I
Straight Objective Type
This section contains 9 multiple choice questions numbered 23 to 31. Each
question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and (D), out of which ONLY ONE is correct.
23. Matte in metallurgy is
(A) artificially produced oxides
(B) artificially produced sulphides
(C) natural sulphides
(D)none of these
24. In which of the following reactions, H2O2 acts as a reducing agent?

(A) PbO2(s) + H2O2(aq) → PbO + H2O(l) + O2(g)


(s)
(B) Na2SO3(aq) + H2O2(aq) → Na2SO4(aq) + H2O(l)

(C) 2KI(aq) + H2O2(aq) → 2KOH(aq) + I2(s)

(D)KNO2(aq) + H2O2(aq) → KNO3(aq) + H2O(l)

25. TlI3 is a black coloured sparingly soluble ionic compound. In its aqueous solution,
it will give
A B 3+ −
(A) Tl and I ions (B) Tl and I ions
3
+ − + −
(C) Tl , I ions and I2 (D) Tl and I ions

26. Which of the following compounds can be oxidised by MnO2?

(A) C6H5CH2OH (B) CH3CH2CH = CHCH2OH

(C) C6H5CHOHCH2CH2OH (D) All are correct

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27. Which of the following has the most acidic hydrogen?


(A) 3-hexanone (B) 2, 4-hexanedione
(C) 2, 5-hexanedione (D) 2, 3-hexanedione
28. Which of the following will be most readily dehydrated in acidic conditions?

(A) (B)

(C) (D)

29. 20 mL of 0.2 M MnSO4 solution was oxidised by 0.05 N KMnO4. MnO2 is formed
as one of the product. Find out the volume of KMnO4 required for this reaction.

(A) 160 mL (B) 100 mL (C) 200 mL (D) 250 mL


30. Two separate bulbs contain ideal gases A and B. The density of the gas A is twice
that of gas B. The molecular weight of A is half that of gas B. Both the gases are
at the same temperature. The ratio of the pressure of A to that of B is

(A) 2 (B) 1 (C) 4 (D) 1


2 4
31. For a I order reaction, identify the correct statement.
−kt
(A) the degree of dissociation is equal to (1 − e ).
(B) a plot of reciprocal concentration vs time gives a straight line.
(C) the time taken for the completion of 75% reaction is thrice the t1/2 of the
reaction.
2
(D)the pre-exponential factor in the Arrhenius equation has dimensions of T .

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SECTION II
Assertion-Reason Type
This section contains 4 questions numbered 32 to 35. Each question contains
STATEMENT 1 (Assertion) and STATEMENT 2 (Reason). Each question has 4
choices (A), (B), (C) and (D), out of which ONLY ONE is correct.
(A) Statement 1 is True, statement 2 is True; statement 2 is a correct
explanation for statement 1.
(B) Statement 1 is True, statement 2 is True; statement 2 is not a correct
explanation for statement 1.
(C) Statement 1 is True, statement 2 is False.
(D)Statement 1 is False, statement 2 is True.
32. Statement 1: Standard free energy change of a reaction (∆G°) is not affected
by catalyst.
because
Statement 2: Kp of a reaction is also not changed by a catalyst.
+ +
33. Statement 1: K ion is a weaker acid than Na ion.
because
Statement 2: E° value of K is less than that of Na.
34. Statement 1: Neopentyl alcohol on acid catalysed dehydration gives
2-methyl-2-butene.
because
A
Statement 2: Neopentyl Me C B CH carbocation is the stable intermediate.
3 2

35. Statement 1: Pure chloroform does not produce a white precipitate with aqueous
AgNO3.

because
Statement 2: Chloroform is not easily miscible with water.
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SECTION III
Linked Comprehension Type
This section contains 2 paragraphs. Based upon each paragraph, 3 multiple choice
questions have to be answered. Each question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and (D), out of
which ONLY ONE is correct.

Paragraph for Question Nos. 36 to 38


Nucleophilic substitution reactions: Due to the electronegativity difference, the

δ+ δ− δ+ δ−
− C − X bond is highly polarized bond ( − C − X ). Thus the carbon centre of C −X

bond becomes prone to attack by a nucleophile.


− −
R − X + Nu → R − Nu + X

These nucleophilic substitution reactions may take place by SN1 and SN2 mechanism.

36. X; X is

(A) (B)

(C) (D)

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37. Which is SN2 mechanism?

− −
(A) C2H5Br + OH → C2H5OH + Br

B −
(B) CH CH I A NH → CH CH NH + I
3 2 2 3 2 2

− −
(C) (CH3)3 C − Br + OH → (CH3)3C − OH + Br

(D)Both A and B
38. Which is the correct statement?
(A) Haloalkanes are insoluble in water.
(B) CH − CH − I is more reactive than CH − CH − Br towards nucleophilic
3 2 3 2
substitution reactions.
(C) Haloarenes are less reactive than haloalkanes towards nucleophilic
substitution reactions.
(D)All are correct.
Paragraph for Question Nos. 39 to 41
Consider an aqueous 0.01 M sodium acetate solution. Given: log 1.85 = 0.27, Ka of
−5
acetic acid = 1.85 × 10 at 298 K.
39. pH of the solution is
(A) 7.0 (B) 8.36 (C) 9.2 (D) 6.0
40. The hydrolysis constant is
−10 10
(A) 5.45 × 10 (B) 5.45 × 10
8 −10
(C) 54.5 × 10 (D) 54.5 × 10
41. Degree of hydrolysis is
4 −4 −4 4
(A) 23.4 × 10 (B) 23.4 × 10 (C) 2.34 × 10 (D) 2.34 × 10
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SECTION IV

Matrix-Match Type

This section contains 3 questions. Each question contains statements given in two
columns which have to be matched. Statements (A, B, C, D) in Column I have to be
matched with statements (p, q, r, s) in Column II. The answers to these questions
have to be appropriately bubbled as illustrated in the following example.

If the correct matches are A-p, A-s, B-q, B-r, C-p, C-q and D-s, then the correctly
bubbled 4 × 4 matrix should be as follows:

p q r s
A p q r s
B p q r s
C p q r s
D p q r s

42. Column I Column II


2+ +
(A) Zn | Zn ∥ Ag | Ag (p) Redox system

− −
(B) Pt, Cl2 | Cl ∥ Cl | Cl , Pt (q) Gas electrode
2
P1 atm P2 atm

2+ 2+
(C) Cu | Cu ∥ Cu | Cu (r) Concentration cell
c1 c2

3+ 2+ −
(D) Pt, Fe |Fe ∥ OH | O2, Pt (s) ∆G° = − nE°F

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43. Column I Column II

(Ion) µ(B.M)
2+
(A) Fe (p) 0
2+
(B) Cu (q) > 1.5 but less than 3
3+
(C) Ti (r) > 3 but less than 6
2+
(D) Zn (s) four unpaired electrons

44. Column I Column II

(A) Freon (p) Catalyst

(B) SbCl5 (q) Camphor substitute

(C) AlCl3 (r) Refrigerant

(D) C2Cl6 (s) Lewis acid

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PART C : MATHEMATICS

SECTION I

Straight Objective Type


This section contains 9 multiple choice questions numbered 45 to 53. Each question
has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and (D), out of which ONLY ONE is correct.

2π 2 2π 2 3π
45. The sum to 14 terms of sin A sin A sin A ... is
7 7 7
(A) 0 (B) 14 (C) 7 (D) 21
2
46. If (a , a + 1) is a point on the angle between the lines 3x − y + 1 = 0, x + 2y − 5 = 0
containing the origin, then
(A) a ≥ 1 or a ≤ − 3 (B) a ∈ (0, 1)

1
(C) a ∈ (− 3, 0) ∪ ,1 (D) no real value of ‘a’ exists
3

47. The sixth term of an A.P. a1, a2, .... is 2. The common difference of the A.P., such
that a1 a4 a5 is minimum is given by

2 8 1 2
(A) (B) (C) (D)
3 5 3 9

48. The value of the expression n A 1 2 3 4 n is


C A2 C A C A C A ... A C
2 2 2 2 2

3 2 nA1
(A) ∑n (B) ∑n (C) ∑n (D)
2

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49. One ticket is selected at random from 100 tickets numbered 00, 01, 02, ..., 99.
Suppose S and P are the sum and product of the digits found on the ticket. Then
the probability that S = 7 given P = 0 is

2 1 2 1
(A) (B) (C) (D)
3 50 19 19

50. The value of the determinant

2
2cos x sin2x sinx
2
sin2x 2 sin x B cos x
B sinx cos x 0 is

(A) 1 (B) 2 (C) 3 (D) 0

51. In a right angled triangle ABC, the bisector of the right angle C, divide AB into
A B B
segments of lengths p, q. Also tan = k. Then p : q is
2

2
1B k k 1
(A) (B) k (C) (D)
1A k 1 2 2

−1 −1 −1 3π
52. If sin x + sin y + sin z = and f (p + q) = f(p) ⋅ f(q) for all p, q ∈ R and f(1) = 1,
2
f 1 f 2 f 3 xA yAz
then the value of x A y Az B is
f 1 f 2 f 3
x A y Az

(A) 0 (B) 2 (C) 3 (D) 1

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53. The range of the function,


3 2 −1
f : [0, 1] → R ; f(x) = x − x + 4x + 2 sin x is

(A) [2, 3] (B) [0, 4 + π] (C) [0, 2 + π] (D) [− π − 2, 0]

SECTION II

Assertion and Reason Type

This section contains 4 questions numbered 54 to 57. Each question contains


STATEMENT 1 (Assertion) and STATEMENT 2 (Reason). Each question has 4 choices
(A), (B), (C) and (D), out of which ONLY ONE is correct.

(A) Statement 1 is True, statement 2 is True; statement 2 is a correct


explanation for statement 1.

(B) Statement 1 is True, statement 2 is True; statement 2 is not a correct


explanation for statement 1.

(C) Statement 1 is True, statement 2 is False.

(D)Statement 1 is False, statement 2 is True.

54. Statement 1: In a triangle, centroid is the origin and 5 i A 4 j A 2 k is the


position vector of the orthocentre, then the position vector of the
5
circumcentre is B i A 2j A k .
2

because

Statement 2: S, the circumcentre, G, the centroid and H, the orthocentre are


collinear and SG : GH = 1 : 2.

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55. Statement 1: If l, m, n are consecutive positive even integers, then the family
of lines lx + my + n = 0 are concurrent at (1, − 2).

because

Statement 2: Three consecutive positive even integers are in A.P.

3 1 3
56. Statement 1: For any two events A and B, P (A ∪ B) ≥ and ≤ P (A ∩ B) ≤
4 8 8
7 11
then ≤ P(A) + P(B) ≤ .
8 18

because

Statement 2: For any two events E and F, P(E ∪ F) = P(E) + P(F) − P(E ∩ F).

3 5
57. Statement 1: In ∆ABC, cos A = , cos B = , then the value of cos C can be
5 13
7
.
13

because

Statement 2: In ∆ABC, tan A + tan B + tan C = tan A tan B tan C.

SECTION III

Linked Comprehension Type

This section contains 2 paragraphs. Based upon each paragraph, 3 multiple choice
questions have to be answered. Each question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and (D), out of
which ONLY ONE is correct.

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Paragraph for Question Nos. 58 to 60

a × b ⋅ c is called scalar triple product of 3 vectors. It is denoted as a b c .

Properties: 1) In scalar triple product dot and cross can be interchanged.

2) Value is unaltered for cyclic permutation of vectors.

3) If two vectors are equal, value is zero.

Vector triple product

a × b × c = a⋅c b B a⋅b c

58. If a, b, c are non - coplanar vectors and p, q, r are defined as

b×c c×a a× b
p = , q = , r = ,
b c a c a b a b c

then a A b ⋅ p A b A c ⋅ q A c A a ⋅ r is

(A) 0 (B) 1 (C) 2 (D) 3

59. If a, b, c are non-coplanar, non-zero vectors, then


a × b × a × c A b × c × b × a A c × a × c × b is equal to

2
(A) a b c aA bAc (B) a b c aA bAc

(C) 0 (D) 3a

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1
60. If a, b, c are non-coplanar unit vectors such that a × b × c = b A c and if
2
α, β are the angles between a and b and a and c , then α + β is

π 2π
(A) π (B) (C) 2π (D)
2 3

Paragraph for Question Nos. 61 to 63


Let f(x) be a continuous function defined on the closed interval [a, b].
nB1 1
1 r
Then lim ∑
n
f
n
= ∫f x dx.
n → ∞ r =0 0

97 97 97
1 A2 A ... A n
61. lim is
98
n→∞ n
98 1 1 1
(A) (B) (C) (D)
100 99 98 100
n
62.
6 πr 1 is
lim ∑ sin
n→∞ r=1 n n

5 5 5 5
(A) (B) (C) (D)
4 8 16 32

63. lim 1 1 1 1 is
A A A ... A
n→∞ 2n 2 2 2
4n B 1 4n B 4 3n A 2n B 1

π π π π
(A) (B) (C) (D)
3 6 4 2

SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK

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22

SECTION IV

Matrix-Match Type

This section contains 3 questions. Each question contains statements given in two
columns which have to be matched. Statements (A, B, C, D) in Column I have to be
matched with statements (p, q, r, s) in Column II. The answers to these questions
have to be appropriately bubbled as illustrated in the following example.

If the correct matches are A-p, A-s, B-q, B-r, C-p, C-q and D-s, then the correctly
bubbled 4 × 4 matrix should be as follows:

p q r s
A p q r s
B p q r s
C p q r s
D p q r s

2
64. The normals drawn at P, Q, R on y = 8x are concurrent at (6, 0).

Column I Column II

(A) Centroid of ∆PQR (p) (5, 0)

4
(B) Circumcentre of ∆PQR (q) , 0
3
(C) Area of ∆PQR (r) 5

(D) Circumradius of ∆PQR (s) 8

SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK

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23

65. Column I Column II


(A) The number of the points of discontinuity of (p) infinite
f(x) = [cos x + sin x], where [ ] is greatest integer
function and 0 < x < 2π is
2
(B) Let f(x) = x − |x − x |, x ∈ [− 1, 1]. Then the (q) 0
number of points at which f(x) is discontinuous is
(C) The number of points of discontinuity of (r) 1
2n
2 sin x
f x = lim is
n 2n
n→∞ 3 B 2 cos x
(D) The number of points of discontinuity of (s) 4
xA2
f x = xA is
|x A 2|
66. Column I Column II
(A) If 3 sin x + 5 cos x = 5, then the value of (p) 0
5 sin x − 3 cos x is
(B) The number of values of x for which (q) 4
tan 3x B tan 2x
= 1 is
1 A tan 3x tan 2x
(C) With usual notation in ∆ABC, if b + c = 3a, then (r) 2
B C
cot cot is
2 2
(D) In ∆ABC, tan A, tan B are the roots of (s) 3
2 2 2 2 2
abx − c x + ab = 0. Then sin A + sin B + sin C is

SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK

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SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK

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SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK

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Name: . Enrollment No.:

Please read the instructions carefully. You are allotted 5 minutes specifically for this purpose.

C. Question paper format:


13. The question paper consists of 3 parts (Physics, Chemistry and Mathematics). Each part has 4 sections.
14. Section I contains 9 multiple choice questions. Each question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and (D), out of
which only one is correct.
15. Section II contains 4 questions. Each question contains STATEMENT-1 (Assertion) and STATEMENT-
2 (Reason).
Bubble (A) if both the statements are TRUE and STATEMENT-2 is the correct explanation of
STATEMENT-1.
Bubble (B) if both the statements are TRUE but STATEMENT-2 is not the correct explanation of
STATEMENT-1.
Bubble (C) if STATEMENT-1 is TRUE and STATEMENT-2 is FALSE.
Bubble (D) if STATEMENT-1 is FALSE and STATEMENT-2 is TRUE.
16. Section III contains 2 paragraphs. Based upon each paragraph, 3 multiple choice questions have to be
answered. Each question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and (D), out of which only one is
correct.
17. Section IV contains 3 questions. Each question contains statements given in 2 columns. Statements in
the first column have to be matched with statements in the second column. The answers to
these questions have to be appropriately bubbled in the ORS as per the instructions given
at the beginning of the section.
D. Marking scheme:
18. For each question in Section I, you will be awarded 3 marks if you darken only the bubble
corresponding to the correct answer and zero mark if no bubble is darkened. In all other cases, minus
one (−1) mark will be awarded.
19. For each question in Section II, you will be awarded 3 marks if you darken only the bubble
corresponding to the correct answer and zero mark if no bubble is darkened. In all other cases, minus
one (−1) mark will be awarded.
20. For each question in Section III, you will be awarded 4 marks if you darken only the bubble
corresponding to the correct answer and zero mark if no bubble is darkened. In all other cases, minus
one (−1) mark will be awarded.
21. For each question in Section IV, you will be awarded 6 marks if you darken ALL the bubbles
corresponding ONLY to the correct answer. No negative mark will be awarded for an incorrectly
bubbled answer.

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1
 

IIT-JEE 2008
STS VIII/PCM/P(I)/SOLNS

BRILLIANT’S
HOME-BASED FULL-SYLLABUS SIMULATOR TEST SERIES
FOR OUR STUDENTS
TOWARDS

IIT-JOINT ENTRANCE EXAMINATION, 2008

PAPER I - SOLUTIONS
PHYSICS − CHEMISTRY − MATHEMATICS

PART A : PHYSICS

SECTION I

1
1. (C) S = ut + at2
2

1
102.9 = u × 3 + × 9.8 × 9
2
u = velocity of body at the top of tower
= 19.6 m/s
2
For a freely falling body u = 2gh
2
19.6 = 2 × 9.8 × h
h = 19.6 m
The height above the top of the tower from which it should have started
falling is 19.6 m.
2. (C) When the stone falls on the pan of the frame the impact is completely
inelastic.

At the instant of impact the stone has a velocity = 2gh = 2g × 30 .

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2

By principle of conservation of momentum the stone plus frame will have a


velocity given by

200 2gh 2gh


V= =
200 A 200 2

1 2gh
Kinetic energy of stone and pan = × 400 ×
2 4

= 100 gh

= 3000 g

If the maximum stretching of spring due to impact is x the work done in


spring to stretch it from elongation 10 cm to (10 + x) cm must be equal to
kinetic energy of stone + frame + the loss of potential energy of (stone +
frame)

1 2 1 2
If k is spring constant, work done = k 10 A x B × k × 10
2 2

200 g
k= = 20 g
10

1
× 20 × g [(10 + x)2 − 102] = 3000 g + 400x g
2

x2 − 20x − 300 = 0

Solving, x = 30 cm

dy
3. (C) Volumetric strain in a gaseous medium =
dx

dy
Volume strain = = − am cos (ωt − mx)
dx

stress
By Hooke’s law volume elasticity of gas E =
strain

B p change in pressure
=
dy
dx

dy
p=B E⋅
dx
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3

Adiabatic elasticity = Ep = γp
∴ p = γPatmosphere am cos (ωt − mx)

π
= γp a am sin ω t B mx A
2

π
This shows that pressure is out of phase with displacement.
2
π
∴ phase difference =
2
4. (B) When the power in the external circuit is maximum, the current is maximum
i.e., when R = r.
E
= 3 ampere
R A R
∴ maximum power = 9 W
9 9
i2R = 9 or R = = = 1 ohm
2 9
i

∴ E = 3 or E = 6 V
1A1
µ i
0
5. (C) B =
2a
When it is reshaped radius = r
2πa = 2 ⋅ 2πr
a
r=
2
µ ni µ ni µ × i ×2 2µ i
0 0 0 0
B′ = = = =
2a 2r a a
2 ×
2
B′ = 4B
λ D λ D
1 1 2 2
6. (A) β = =
d d
1 2

D λ d 2 2 4
1 2 1
= = × =
D
2
λ d 1 1 1
1 2

Ratio = 4 : 1

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4

7. (A) Power of reactor = 100 MW = 100 × 106 watt = 100 × 106 J/s
6
100 × 10
Number of uranium atoms splitting per second =
B 19 6
1.6 × 10 × 200 × 100
23
100 × 10
=
6
3.2 × 10
17
100 × 10 18
Number of nucleus liberated = × 2.5 = 7.8 × 10
3.2
1 2 1 2
8. (B) For mass m: mu = kA , u2 = kA2
2 2
When M is added at mean position, mu = (m + M) V
u
V = .
4
(K.E.) at mean = (P.E.) at extreme
1 2 1 2
∴ mA M V = kA ′
2 2
2
u 2
∴ = kA ′ (P.E = 0at mean)
4
A
A′ = = 5 cm
2
9. (C) Angular acceleration = 2 rad/s2
1
Time = s
2
Initial angular velocity = 0
1
Final angular velocity = 0 + × 2 = 1 rad/s
2
Linear velocity = rω = 1 × r m/s
2 2
Normal acceleration = v = r = r
r r
Tangential acceleration = r × 2
2 2
Total acceleration = r A 2r = r 5 ; r 5 = 13.6
13.6
∴r= = 6.1 m
5

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SECTION II
10. (D)
µ
1
11. (A) Critical angle ic is given by sin ic =
µ
2

µ
in 4 2 8
When it travels from glass to water = = × =
µ 3 3 9
g

1
When it travels from glass to air =
µ
g

sin i′c = 2
3
∴ ic > i′c

12. (D) There must be a variation in the magnetic field with time so that there is a
change in magnetic flux with time which is responsible for induced e.m.f.
E
13. (D) The dielectric constant of a medium = where the electric field E is
E′
reduced to E′ in the presence of dielectric. If the conductor is placed in the
electric field the intensity inside the conductor is zero. Therefore the
dielectric constant of the conductor is infinite.
SECTION III
14. (A) Since the collision of disc with rod is elastic, linear momentum, angular
momentum and energy are conserved. Let v′ and V be the velocities of disc and
centre of mass of rod after collision and ω the angular velocity of rod about its
centre of mass.
m
1
m1v = m1v′ + m2V or V = v B v′
m
2

m 1
1
If = η, V = v B v′ ... (1)
m η
2

2
l l m l
m v ⋅ = m v ′ ⋅ A Iω , where I = 2
1 1
2 2 12

1
lω = 6(v − v′) ... (2)
η

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By principle of conservation of energy,


1 2 1 2 1 2 1 2
m v = m v ′ A m V A Iω
1 1 2
2 2 2 2
2
2 2
m 2
From (1) and (2), m1 (v − v′ ) = 4 1
v B v′
m
2

v 4 B η
v′ = ... (3)
4 A η
15. (A) From (2) and (3) in the above problem

ω= 12v
l 4 A η
16. (A) The disc will reverse its direction of motion if v′ becomes negative i.e., when
4 < η or η > 4.
m
2
>4
m
1

17. (B) The e.m.f between the ends of rotating rod is


a

E= ∫ dE = ∫ Bω x dx
0

1
= Bωa2
2
The positive charges of the rod will be pushed
towards O by the magnetic field. Thus the rod
may be replaced by a battery by e.m.f 1 Bωa
2
2
with the positive terminal towards O. The
equivalent circuit diagram is shown.
The circular loop forming A to C by a
resistanceless path.
2
E Bωa
∴ current in resistance R = i = =
R 2R
18. (A) The force on the rod due to magnetic field = Bia
2 2 3
∴F= B⋅
Bωa B ωa
⋅a =
2R 2R

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19. (A) As the force is uniformly distributed over OA it may be assumed to act at the
mid part of OA. The torque is therefore
2 4
a B ωa
τ = ia B = in clockwise direction
2 4R
2 4
B ωa
To keep the rod rotating at uniform angular speed an external torque
4R
in anticlockwise direction is needed.
SECTION IV
20. (A) − (q); (B) − (p); (C) − (r); (D) − (s)
(A) The motion of the centre of mass of a system of two particles is unaffected by
their internal forces irrespective of the actual direction of internal forces. The
velocity of centre of mass of system is zero.
(B) Let A and B be particles of mass M and m. The Figures below are indicated
the situation before collision and after collision.

Applying the principle of conservation of momentum, we get

2M
v′ = ⋅v if M >> m
MAm
v′ = 2v; v = ω ∴ v′ = 2ω
The speed of mass m = 2ω
(C) Applying the principle of conservation of momentum, we get the speed of C
after collision is ω.
(D) Applying the principle of conservation of momentum and Newton’s law, we
get the velocity of A after impact is at right angles to that of B

π 3.14
θ = = = 1.57 rad .
2 2
21. (A) − (p); (B) − (q); (C) − (r); (D) − (s)
Refer text book
22. (A) − (r); (B) − (p); (C) − (q); (D) − (s)
Refer text book

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PART B : CHEMISTRY

SECTION I
23. (B)
A4 B1 A2
0
24. (A) Pb O A H O → PbO A H O A O
2 s 2 2 aq s 2 l 2 g

25. (A) Due to inert pair effect, +1 oxidation state of Tl is more stable in TlI , it is
3
A B
thallium triiodide Tl I 3 .

MnO2
26. (A) C6H5CH2OH → C6H5CHO

27. (B)

In B, the methylene group is most active due to the presence of C = O group


on either side.

28. (C)

Conjugated system is formed, which is stable.

29. (A) In the conversion,


A2 A4
Mn SO → Mn O
4 2

There is a change in oxidation state of Mn by two units.

M
Equivalent weight of MnSO =
4
2

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Molecular weight
Normality of MnSO4 = Molarity ×
Equivalent weight
M
= 0.2 × = 0.4 N
M ⁄2
0.05 × V1 = 0.4 × 20
(KMnO4) (MnSO4)

0.4 × 20
V = = 160 mL
1
0.05
PM
30. (C) d =
RT
dA = 2dB

M
B
M =
A
2
d RT d RT
A B
P = ; P =
A B
M M
A B

P d RT M d × M
A A B A B
= × =
P M d RT M ×d
B A B A B

2d × M
= B B 4
=
M 1
B
d ×
B
2
PA : PB = 4 : 1
31. (A) For a I order reaction,
1 a
k = log
t a B x
a
kt = log
a B x
kt a
e =
a B x
B kt a B x x
e = =1B
a a
x B kt
Degree of dissociation = =1 Be
a

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SECTION II

32. (A)

33. (B)

34. (C) Neopentyl carbocation formed undergoes rearrangement leading to the


formation of 2-methyl-but-2-ene.

35. (B)

SECTION III

36. (B) At high temperature, allylic substitution takes place.

37. (D) 1° - haloalkanes undergo S 2 mechanism.


N

38. (D) Haloalkanes are insoluble in water, due to the absence of formation of H-bonding.

1 1 1
39. (B) pH = pK A pK A log c
w a
2 2 2

1 1 1 B2
= 14 A 4.73 A log 10
2 2 2

= 7 + 2.365 − 1 = 8.365

K B 14
w 10 B 10
40. (A) K h = = Y 5.45 × 10
K B5
a 1.85 × 10

K
h
41. (C) α =
c

B 10
5.45 × 10 B4
= = 2.34 × 10
B2
10

SECTION IV

42. (A) − (p), (s); (B) − (q), (r), (s); (C) − (r), (s); (D) − (p), (s)

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43. (A) − (r), (s); (B) − (q); (C) − (q); (D) − (p)

Ion Configuration Unpaired e µ
2+ 6
(A) Fe 3d 4 4.9
2+ 9
(B) Cu 3d 1 1.73

(C) Ti3+ 3d1 1 1.73


2+ 10
(D) Zn 3d 0 0.0

µ = n n A2

If n = 1, µ = 13 = 3 = 1.73

n = 2; µ = 2 4 = 2.83 etc .

44. (A) − (r); (B) − (p), (s); (C) − (p), (s); (D) − (q)

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PART C : MATHEMATICS
SECTION I

1 2π 4π 6π
45. (C) The series = 1 B cos A 1 B cos A 1 B cos A ... 14 terms
2 7 7 7

1 2π 4π
= 14 B cos A cos A ... 14 terms
2 7 7

2π π 14π
cos A 13 ⋅ sin
1 7 7 7
= 7 B
2 π
sin
7

1
= 7B ⋅ 0 =7
2

46. (C)

From the Figure, it is clear that (0, 0) and (a2, a + 1) lie on the same side of
both the lines.
2
3a − (a + 1) + 1 > 0

2 1
3a − a > 0 ⇒ a < 0 or a >
3
2
a + 2 (a + 1) − 5 < 0
2
a + 2a − 3 < 0
a ∈ (− 3, 1)
Shaded portion is the required region

1
∴ a ∈ (− 3, 0) ∪ , 1
3

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47. (A) a1 + 5d = 2
Now, P = a1 a4 a5
= a1 (a1 + 3d) (a1 + 4d)
= (2 − 5d) (2 − 2d) (2 − d)
2 3
= 2 [4 − 16d + 17d − 5d ]
Consider, S = − 5d3 + 17d2 − 16d + 4
2
S′ = − 15d + 34d − 16
2 8
S′ = 0 ⇒ d = ,
3 5
S″ = − 30d + 34
At 2 , S″ = − 20 + 34 = +ve
3
2
∴d= gives minimum value.
3
48. (B) Expression
n A1 3 3 4
= C A2 C A C A C A ...
2 3 2 2
n A1 4 4
= C A2 C A C A ...
2 3 2
n A1 5 5 n
= C A2 C A C A ... A C
2 3 2 2
n A1 nA 1
= C A2 C ultimately
2 3
n A1 nA 1 nA 1
= C A C A C
2 3 3
n A 2 n A 1
= C A C
3 3
n A2 n A1 n n A 1 n n B1
= A
6 6
n n A1
= n A2 A n B1
6
n n A1 2n A 1
= = ∑n2
6
49. (C) S = 7 = (07, 16, 25, 34, 43, 52, 61, 70)
P = 0 = {00, 01, 02, ..., 09, 10, 20, 30, ..., 90}
S = 7 ∩ P = 0 = {07, 70}
P′ S = 7 ∩ P = 0
P′ {S = 7/P = 0} =
P′ P = 0
2
=
19

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50. (B) Applying R1 → R1 − 2R3 sin x, R2 → R2 + 2 cos x R3.

we get 2 0 sin x
0 2 B cos x
B sin x cos x 0
2 2 2
= 2 (cos x) + sin x (2 sin x) = 2 (cos x + sin x) = 2
x p
51. (A) = = p 2
sin A 1
2
x
= q 2
sin B

A A B A B B
2 cos ⋅ sin
p sin B q B p 2 2
= ⇒ =
q sin A q A p A A B A B B
2 sin ⋅ cos
2 2

π C A B B
= cot B ⋅ tan
2 2 2
=1⋅k
q B p
⇒ = k
q A p
p 1B k
∴ =
q 1A k
52. (B) Put p = 1, q = 1
f(2) = (f(1))2 = 1
Put p = 2, q = 1
f(3) = f(2) f(1) = 1 ⋅ 1 = 1
−1 −1 −1 3π
From sin x + sin y + sin z= ,
2
π
we get each =
2
⇒x=y=z=1

1 1 1 x A y Az
∴ expression = x + y + z −
x A y Az
=3−1=2

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−1
53. (B) f(x) = x3 − x2 + 4x + 2 sin x
2 2
f′(x) = 3x − 2x + 4 +
2
1B x
2
For 3x − 2x + 4,
2
coefficient of x = 3 > 0
Discriminant = 4 − 48 is − ve
2
∴ 3x − 2x + 4 is always positive.
2
⇒ is always positive.
2
1 B x
⇒ f ′ (x) > 0 for all real x.
⇒ f(x) is increasing.
Range [f(0), f(1)] = [0, 4 + π]
SECTION II

54. (A)

5 A 2x B 5
= 0 ⇒ x =
3 2
4 A 2y
= 0 ⇒ y=−2
3
2 A 2z
= 0 ⇒ z=−1
3
5
∴ position vector of circumcentre is B i A2j A k
2
55. (A) l, m, n are in A.P.
⇒ 2m = l + n
⇒ l − 2m + n = 0
⇒ l (1) + m (− 2) + n = 0
⇒ (1, − 2) is a point on lx + my + n = 0
3
56. (A) P(A) + P(B) − P (A ∩ B) ≥
4
3 1
P(A) + P(B) ≥ A
4 8
7
i.e., ≥
8

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Also P (A ∪ B) ≤ 1
P(A) + P(B) − P (A ∩ B) ≤ 1
3
P(A) + P(B) ≤ 1 +
8
11
i.e., ≤
8
4 12 4 12
57. (D) A A tan C = ⋅ tan C
3 5 3 5
56 16
A tan C = tan C
15 5
56
⇒ tan C =
33
33
cos C =
65
SECTION III
58. (D) The expression
a A b ⋅ b ×c
= ∑
b c a

a b c
= ∑ = ∑1
a b c
=1+1+1=3
59. (A) The expression = a b c a B 0

A b c a b B0

A c a b c B0

= a b c a A b Ac
1 1
60. (A) Given equation is a ⋅ c b B a ⋅ b c = b A c
2 2
Because of the given conditions,
1, 1
a ⋅c = a ⋅b = B
2 2
Since a, b, c are unit vectors, the above implies

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Angle between a and c is π .


3

Angle between a and b is 2π .


3
2π π 3π
∴α+β= A = = π
3 3 3
61. (C) Required limit
97 97 97
1 1 2 n
= Lt A A ... A
n → ∞
n n n n
1
1 98
x 1
=
∫x 97
dx =
98
=
98
0 0
1
62. (C) Required limit = ∫sin 6
π x dx
0
Put y = πx.
π
= ∫sin y dyπ 6

π /2

=
2
π
∫ sin y dy 6

2 5 3 1 π
= ⋅ ⋅ ⋅ ⋅
π 6 4 2 2
5
=
16
1 1 1
63. (B) Lt A A ... A
2 2 2 2
n → ∞ 4n B0 4n B 1 4n B n B 1
n B1
1
= Lt ∑ 2 2
n→ ∞ r = 0 4n B r
n B1
1
= Lt ∑
n→ ∞ r = 0 2
r
n 4 B
n

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1
dx
= ∫ 2
dx
0 4 B x
1

= sin B 1 x
2 0

π π
= B0 =
6 6

SECTION IV
64. (A) − (q); (B) − (p); (C) − (s); (D) − (r)
Equation to the normal at ‘t’ is

y + xt = 4t + 2t3.
It passes through (6, 0)
3
2t − 2t = 0
3
t − t = 0 ⇒ t = 0, 1, − 1
∴ P is (0, 0) and Q is (2, 4), (2, − 4)

4
(A) Centroid of ∆PQR = , 0
3

(B) Let the equation of the circle be


2 2
x + y + 2gx + 2fy = 0
4g + 8f = − 20
4g − 8f = − 20

Solving, we get g = − 5, f = 0 ⇒ centre (5, 0)

1
(C) Area of ∆PQR = 2B 4 B 2 4
2

1
= B 8 B8
2

= 8

(D) Radius = 5 2 = 5

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19

65. (A) − (s); (B) − (q); (C) − (p); (D) − (r)

π
(A) cos x + sin x = 2 cos x B
4

π
f x = 2 cos x B
4
[x] is discontinuous at all integral values.

π
Now, 2 cos x B is an integer in 0 < x < 2π
4

π π π π 3π π
at x = , A , π A , A
2 2 4 4 2 4
Points of discontinuity are 4 in number.
(B) f(x) = x − |x| |1 − x|
Since x, |x| |1 − x| are continuous everywhere,
f(x) is discontinuous at no point in [− 1, 1].
(C) The function is discontinuous if
3n − (2 cos x)2n = 0
n
2
(cos x)
n
= 3
4

cos x = 3
2

4
π
x = nπ ±
4
There are infinite number of points of discontinuity.
y
(D) = 1 if y > 0
|y |
= − 1 if y < 0
At x = − 2,
h
Right limit = Lt B 2 A h A
h→ 0
|h|

=−2+1=−1

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20

B h
Left limit = Lt B 2 B h A
h→0
|B h|

=−2−1=−3
Right limit ≠ left limit
∴ x = − 2 is the only point of discontinuity.
66. (A) − (s); (B) − (p); (C) − (r); (D) − (r)
(A) 3 sin x + 5 cos x = 5
Squaring,
2 2
9 sin x + 25 cos x + 30 sin x cos x = 25
2 2
9 (1 − cos x) + 25 (1 − sin x) + 30 sin x cos x = 25
2 2
9 cos x + 25 sin x − 30 sin x cos x = 9
2
(5 sin x − 3 cos x) = 9
5 sin x − 3 cos x = 3
(B) tan (3x − 2x) = 1
tan x = 1
π π
x = nπ + . This value does not satisfy the equation, because tan 2x = tan = ∞.
4 2
There is no value of x satisfying the equation.
(C) From the result,
sin B + sin C = 3 sin A
B A C BB C A A
2 sin cos = 6 sin cos
2 2 2 2

B B C A
cos = 3 sin
2 2

B B C B AC
cos = 3 cos
2 2

B C B C B C B C
cos cos A sin sin = 3 cos cos B 3 sin sin
2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2

B C B C
2 cos cos = 4 sin sin
2 2 2 2

B C
cot cot = 2
2 2

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21

2
(D) tan A + tan B = c , tan A tan B = 1
ab
tan A = cot B = tan (90° − B)
A + B = 90°, C = 90°
∴ triangle is right-angled.

b
sin A = a , sin B =
c c
2 2 2
a +b =c
a b
tan A = , tan B =
b a
2 2 2
tan A + tan B = a A b =
c
ab ab
2 2 2
Now, sin A + sin B + sin C
2 2 2 2 2
a b a A b Ac
= A A1 =
2 2 2
c c c
2
2c
= =2
2
c

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 

IIT-JEE 2008
STS VIII/PCM/P(II)/QNS
BRILLIANT’S
HOME BASED FULL-SYLLABUS SIMULATOR TEST SERIES
FOR OUR STUDENTS
TOWARDS

IIT-JOINT ENTRANCE EXAMINATION, 2008


PAPER II
PHYSICS − CHEMISTRY − MATHEMATICS
QUESTION PAPER CODE 8
Time: 3 Hours Maximum Marks: 243
Please read the instructions carefully. You are allotted 5 minutes specifically for this purpose.
INSTRUCTIONS:

A. General:
DO NOT BREAK THE SEALS ON THIS BOOKLET, AWAIT INSTRUCTIONS FROM THE INVIGILATOR

1. This booklet is your Question Paper containing 66 questions. The booklet has 24 pages.
2. This question paper CODE is printed on the right hand top corner of this sheet and on the back page
(page no. 24) of this booklet.
3. This question paper contains 1 blank page for your rough work. No additional sheets will be provided for
rough work.
4. Blank papers, clipboards, log tables, slide rules, calculators, cellular phones, pagers and electronic
gadgets in any form are not allowed to be carried inside the examination hall.
5. Fill in the boxes provided below on this page and also write your Name and Enrollment No. in the

SEAL
space provided on the back page (page no. 24) of this booklet.
6. The answer sheet, a machine-readable Objective Response Sheet (ORS), is provided separately.
7. DO NOT TAMPER WITH/MUTILATE THE ORS OR THE BOOKLET.
8. Do not break the seals of the questions-paper booklet before being instructed to do so by the invigilators.
B. Filling the ORS:
9. On the lower part of the ORS, write in ink, your name in box L1, your Enrollment No. in box L2 and
Name of the Centre in box L3. Do not write these anywhere else.
10. The ORS has a CODE printed on its lower and upper parts.
11. Make sure the CODE on the ORS is the same as that on this booklet and put your signature in ink in
box L4 on the ORS affirming that you have verified this.
12. IF THE CODES DO NOT MATCH, ASK FOR A CHANGE OF THE BOOKLET.

C. Question paper format: Read the instructions printed on the back page (page no. 24) of this booklet.
D. Marking scheme: Read the instructions on the back page (page no. 24) of this booklet.

Name: . Enrollment No.:


SEAL

I have read all the instructions I have verified all the informations
and shall abide by them. filled in by the Candidate.

............................................... ...............................................
Signature of the Candidate Signature of the Invigilator

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2

PART A : PHYSICS

SECTION I

Straight Objective Type

This section contains 9 multiple choice questions numbered 1 to 9. Each question


has four choices (A), (B), (C) and (D), out of which ONLY ONE is correct.

1. A loop of string whose linear density is m is whirled at a high


angular velocity ω so that it becomes a taut circle of radius R.
A kink develops in the whirling string as shown in Figure.
What is the tension in the string?

2
2 mω R 2
(A) mω R (B) mrω (C) (D) mω R
2

2. An open organ pipe in which air is at a temperature of 15°C and a sonometer


wire of frequency 512 Hz when sounded together produces 5 beats per second
with the organ pipe emitting its fundamental note. If a slight reduction in
tension of sonometer wire is made it produces resonance between the notes what
change in the temperature of air in organ pipe would have produced resonance
with the vibrating of sonometer wire with 512 Hz?

(A) 20.7°C (B) 5.7°C (C) 15.7°C (D) 3.7°C

3. A gas containing only rigid diatomic molecules is at temperature T. If I is the


moment of inertia of the molecule, the angular mean square velocity of a rotating
molecule in terms of Boltzmann constant k is

2kT kT 3kT 5kT


(A) (B) (C) (D)
I I I I

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4. A convex lens of focal length 12 cm lies in a uniform


magnetic field 1.2 tesla parallel to the principal axis. A
charged particle of mass 20 mg and charge 2 milli coulomb
is projected perpendicular to the plane of diagram with a
speed of 4.8 m/s. The particle moves along a circle with
centre on the principal axis at a distance 18 cm from lens.
The radius of the image circle formed by lens is

(A) 18 cm (B) 8 cm (C) 4 cm (D) 12 cm

5. What is the equivalent resistance between points a and b of the circuit shown
below?

(A) 15 Ω (B) 5 Ω (C) 7 Ω (D) 7.5 Ω

6. An air filled parallel plate capacitor is constructed which can store 12 µC of


6 −1
charge when operated at 1200 volt. The dielectric strength of air is 3 × 10 Vm .
What is the minimum area of the plates of capacitor?
2 2 2 2
(A) 1 m (B) 0.45 m (C) 1.5 m (D) 1.2 m
2
7. A 40 cm long wire having a mass 3.2 g and area of cross section 1 mm is
stretched between supports 40.05 cm apart. In its fundamental note it vibrates
with a frequency 220 Hz. What is the Young’s modulus of the wire?
11 2 11 2
(A) 1.98 × 10 N/m (B) 2.2 × 10 N/m

11 2 11 2
(C) 3.96 × 10 N/m (D) 8.2 × 10 N/m

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8. The orbital period of a satellite in a circular orbit of radius r about a spherical


planet of mass M and mean density ρ, for a low altitude orbit (r = rp) will be

3π π
(A) (B) 3πGρ (C) (D) 2Gρ
Gρ Gρ

9. It takes one minute for a person standing on an escalator to reach the top from
the ground. If the escalator is not moving it takes him 3 minute to walk on the
steps to reach the top. How long will it take for the person to reach the top if he
walks up the escalator while it is moving?
(A) 2 minute (B) 1.5 minute (C) 0.75 minute (D) 1.25 minute
SECTION II
Assertion and Reason Type
This section contains 4 questions numbered 10 to 13. Each question contains
STATEMENT 1 (Assertion) and STATEMENT 2 (Reason). Each question has 4
choices (A), (B), (C) and (D), out of which ONLY ONE is correct.
(A) Statement 1 is True, statement 2 is True; statement 2 is a correct
explanation for statement 1.

(B) Statement 1 is True, statement 2 is True; statement 2 is not a correct


explanation for statement 1.

(C) Statement 1 is True, statement 2 is False.


(D)Statement 1 is False, statement 2 is True.
10. Statement 1: A sail boat can be propelled by air blown at the sails from a fan
attached to the boat.
because
Statement 2: The force applied being internal to the system cannot change the
state of motion of the system.

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11. Statement 1: A block of wood is floating in a tank containing water. The


apparent weight of the floating block is zero.
because
Statement 2: The entire weight of the block is supported by the buoyant force
(upward thrust) due to water.
12. Statement 1: The velocity, wavelength and frequency all undergo a change
when a wave travels from one medium to another medium.

because
Statement 2: The frequency of a wave does not change when a wave travels
from one medium to another.

13. Statement 1: The self induced emf produced by a variable current in a coil
always tends to decrease the current.

because

Statement 2: If there is an increase in current, the self induced emf tend to


decrease the current and vice versa according to Lenz’s law.
SECTION III
Linked Comprehension Type
This section contains two paragraphs. Based upon each paragraph three multiple
choice questions have to be answered. Each question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and
(D), out of which ONLY ONE is correct.
Paragraph for Question Nos. 14 to 16

A 50 µF capacitor initially uncharged is connected through a 300 Ω resistor to a 12 V


battery.
14. What is the magnitude of final charge?

(A) 500 µC (B) 600 µC (C) 400 µC (D) 300 µC

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15. How long after the capacitor is connected to the battery will it be charged to half
the maximum value?
(A) 15 millisecond (B) 10.5 millisecond
(C) 7.5 millisecond (D) 12.5 millisecond
16. How long will it take the capacitor to be charged to 90% of maximum value?
(A) 34.5 millisecond (B) 17.25 millisecond
(C) 68 millisecond (D) 90 millisecond
Paragraph for Question Nos. 17 to 19
A uniform rod of mass m and length 2l stands vertically on a rough horizontal
floor and it is allowed to fall, the slipping has not occurred during the motion.
17. What is the angular velocity of the fall when the rod makes an angle θ with
vertical?

3g g
(A) 1 B cos θ (B) 1 B cos θ
2l 2l

2g
(C) 1 B cos θ (D) 3g l 1 B cos θ
3l
18. What is the normal force exerted by the floor on the rod in this position when it
makes an angle θ with vertical?
2 2
(A) mg (3 − 4 sin θ) (B) mg (4 − 3 sin θ)

mg 2 mg 2
(C) (4 − 3 sin θ) (D) (4 − 3 sin θ)
3 4

19. If slipping occurs at an angle θ = 30°, what is the coefficient of friction between
rod and floor?
(A) 0.4 (B) 0.3 (C) 0.48 (D) 0.6

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SECTION IV
Matrix-Match Type
This section contains 3 questions. Each question contains statements given in two
columns which have to be matched. Statements (A, B, C, D) in Column I have to be
matched with statements (p, q, r, s) in Column II. The answers to these questions
have to be appropriately bubbled as illustrated in the following example.
If the correct matches are A-p, A-s, B-q, B-r, C-p, C-q and D-s, then the correctly
bubbled 4 × 4 matrix should be as follows:

20. Match the quantities in Column I and Column II correctly.


Column I Column II

(p) B 1
δP
(A) The speed of sound in a gas is v. The R.M.S.
velocity of the molecules is c. The ratio of v to c γ P
will be

(B) During an adiabatic process, the pressure P of a (q) γ


fixed mass of gas changes by δP and the volume 3
δV
changes by δV. The value of will be equal to
V
1−γ γ
(C) The pressure-temperature relation for an (r) P T = constant
adiabatic expansion is
(D) If γ denotes the ratio of specific heats of a gas the (s) γ
ratio of slopes of adiabatic and isothermal P-V
curves at their point of intersection is

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21. Column I Column II

10
(A) A cylinder is released from rest from the (p) g l sin θ
7
top of an incline of inclination θ and length
l. If the cylinder rolls without slipping its
speed when it reaches the bottom is

4
(B) A solid sphere of mass M and radius R rolls (q) g l sin θ
3
down an inclined plane of length l and
inclination θ without slipping from the top.
The speed of its centre of mass when it
reaches the bottom is

v
(C) A circular disc rotates in a vertical plane (r)
2
about a fixed horizontal axis which passes
through a point X on the circumference of
the disc, when the centre of mass moves
with speed v the speed of the opposite end
of the diameter through X will be

(D) A body of mass m slides down a frictionless (s) 2v


inclined plane and reaches the bottom with
a velocity v. If the same mass is in the form
of a ring which rolls down without slipping
on identical but rough inclined plane, the
velocity of the ring at the bottom will be

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22. Column I Column II

(A) The space between the plates of a parallel (p) 0.75 µF


plate capacitor of capacity 10 µF having air
between the plates is filled with mica of
dielectric constant K = 2, what will be the
new capacity?

(B) Three capacitors, each of capacity 1 µF are (q) 20 µF


connected in parallel to this combination at
fourth capacitor of capacitance 1 µF is
connected in series. The resultant capacity
will be

(C) A capacitor of capacitance 2 µF is charged to (r) 3 µF


a potential difference of 200 V. After
disconnecting from battery it is connected in
parallel with another uncharged capacitor.
The common potential becomes 20 V. The
capacitance of second capacitor is

(D) In the circuit diagram shown below, what is (s) 18 µF


the effective capacitance between P and Q?

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PART B : CHEMISTRY

SECTION I
Straight Objective Type
This section contains 9 multiple choice questions numbered 23 to 31. Each
question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and (D), out of which ONLY ONE is correct.
23. As the p - character decreases, the bond angle in hybrid orbitals formed by s and
p - atomic orbitals

(A) decreases (B) increases


(C) doubles (D) remains unchanged
24. In OF2 molecule, the total number of bond pairs and lone pairs of electrons
present respectively are
(A) 2, 6 (B) 2, 8 (C) 2, 10 (D) 3, 10
25. In electrorefining of copper, some gold is deposited as
(A) anode mud (B) cathode mud
(C) cathode (D) electrolyte
26. Tautomerism is not exhibited by

(A) (B)

(C) (D)

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27. Consider the acidity of carboxylic acids:


PhCOOH o - NO2C6H4COOH p - NO2C6H4COOH m - NO2C6H4COOH

I II III IV
Which of the following order is correct?
(A) I > II > III > IV (B) II > IV > III >I
(C) II > IV > I > III (D) II > III > IV > I
28. Which of the following will not yield tartaric acid?
(A) Hydrolysis of glyoxal cyanohydrin.
(B) Oxidation of fumaric acid with KMnO .
4

(C) Treatment of argol first with Ca(OH)2 , then with CaCl2 and finally with
H2SO4 .

(D) Heating of cream of tartar.


29. The value of k for the reaction, 2A(g) B(g) + C(g) at 750 K and 10 atm pressure
is 2.86. The value of k at 750 K and 20 atm is
(A) 28.6 (B) 5.72 (C) 2.86 (D) 11.4
30. When equal volumes of the following solutions are mixed, precipitation of AgCl
−10
(Ksp of AgCl is 1.8 × 10 ) will occur only in

−4 + −4 − −5 + −5 −
(A) 10 M Ag and 10 M Cl (B) 10 M Ag and 10 M Cl
−6 + −6 − −10 + −10 −
(C) 10 M Ag and 10 M Cl (D) 10 M Ag and 10 M Cl

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− −
31. For the reaction, NH + OCl → N H + Cl occurring in basic medium, the
3 2 4
coefficient of N2H4 in the balanced equation is

(A) 1 (B) 2 (C) 3 (D) 4


SECTION II
Assertion - Reason Type
This section contains 4 questions numbered 32 to 35. Each question contains
STATEMENT 1 (Assertion) and STATEMENT 2 (Reason). Each question has 4
choices (A), (B), (C) and (D), out of which ONLY ONE is correct.
(A) Statement 1 is True, statement 2 is True; statement 2 is a correct
explanation for statement 1.
(B) Statement 1 is True, statement 2 is True; statement 2 is not a correct
explanation for statement 1.
(C) Statement 1 is True, statement 2 is False.
(D)Statement 1 is False, statement 2 is True.
32. Statement 1: Lithium is the best reducing agent in aqueous solution.
because
+
Statement 2: Hydration energy of Li ion is appreciably high.
33. Statement 1: Equivalent conductance of acetic acid at infinite dilution cannot
be experimentally determined.
because
Statement 2: Acetic acid being an organic acid is not soluble in water.
34. Statement 1: The reaction, PCl5(g) PCl3(g) + Cl2(g) is favoured by
temperature rise.
because
Statement 2: ∆S is positive for the above reaction.

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35. Statement 1: and can be distinguished using neutral ferric chloride.


because
Statement 2: Phenol is acidic but cyclohexanol is neutral.

SECTION III
Linked Comprehension Type
This section contains 2 paragraphs. Based upon each paragraph, 3 multiple choice
questions have to be answered. Each question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and (D), out of
which ONLY ONE is correct.
Paragraph for Question Nos. 36 to 38
Consider a solution of Ba(NO3)2 containing 11.0 g in 100 g of water which boils at
−1 −1
373.6 K. (Given: Kb for water = 0.52° molal ; Molar mass of Ba(NO3)2 = 259.34 g mol )

36. The calculated value of elevation in boiling point of water in the above system is
(A) 0.22 K (B) 0.6 K (C) 1.0 K (D) 0.0 K
37. van’t Hoff factor ‘i’ is
(A) 1.0 (B) 2.73 (C) 0.366 (D) 0.0
38. Percentage dissociation of Ba(NO3)2 is

(A) 50 (B) 75 (C) 100 (D) 86.4


Paragraph for Question Nos. 39 to 41
The zero (or 18) group of periodic table consists of six gaseous elements namely He,
Ne, Ar, Kr, Xe, and Rn. On account of their highly stable ns2p6 configuration in the

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valence shell, these gases have little tendency to undergo any reaction, hence they
were called ‘inert gases’. However, due to finding of number of reactions of these
elements, these are correctly called ‘noble gases’.
39. The following noble gas not present in the atmosphere is
(A) Ne (B) Xe (C) Rn (D) Ar
40. Xe forms more number of compounds than the other noble gases
(A) due to its lower ionization potential.
(B) due to its higher electron affinity.
(C) due to its electronic structure.
(D) none of these
41. Charcoal at 100°C absorbs
(A) Ne and Kr (B) He and Ne (C) He and Ar (D) Ar, Kr and Xe
SECTION IV
Matrix-Match Type
This section contains 3 questions. Each question contains statements given in two
columns which have to be matched. Statements (A, B, C, D) in Column I have to be
matched with statements (p, q, r, s) in Column II. The answers to these questions
have to be appropriately bubbled as illustrated in the following example.
If the correct matches are A-p, A-s, B-q, B-r, C-p, C-q and D-s, then the correctly
bubbled 4 × 4 matrix should be as follows:

p q r s
A p q r s
B p q r s
C p q r s
D p q r s

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42. Column I Column II


(A) KMnO4 (p) Bleaching action

2+
(B) K2Cr2O7 (q) Fe

(C) SO2(g) (r) Oxidising agent

(D) Cl (s) Oxidation state = + 7


2(g)

43. Column I Column II

PV
(A) Boyle temperature (p) =1
RT

(B) NH3(g) (q) van der Waals’ equation

(C) HCl(g) (r) CP − CV ≠ R

a
(D) Ideal gas (s)
bR

44. Column I Column II

(A) CHCl3 (p) freon

(B) Cl2CF2 (q) white precipitate with alcoholic AgNO3

(C) CH2 = CH − CH2Cl (r) chlorine is least reactive

(D) CH3 − CH = CHCl (s) responds carbylamine test

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PART C : MATHEMATICS
SECTION I
Straight Objective Type
This section contains 9 multiple choice questions numbered 45 to 53. Each
question has four choices (A), (B), (C), (D) out of which ONLY ONE is correct.

2 6 8
45. The radius of a circle that touches the parabola 75y = 64 (5x − 3) at , and
5 5
also x-axis is
(A) 1 (B) 2 (C) 3 (D) 5
46. F , F , F , F are the faces of a tetrahedron, V , V , V , V are the vectors
1 2 3 4 1 2 3 4
whose magnitudes are respectively equal to the areas of F , F , F , F and whose
1 2 3 4
directions are perpendicular to their faces in outward direction, then
V A V A V A V is equal to
1 2 3 4

(A) 1 (B) 2 (C) 3 (D) 0


2 2 2
47. In a triangle ABC, a + b + c = ca + ab 3, then the triangle is
(A) equilateral (B) right angled and isosceles
(C) with A = 90°, B = 60°, C = 30° (D) with A = 90°, B = 30°, C = 60°
π

48. The value of ∫ esec x sec3 x [sin2 x + cos x + sin x + sin x cos x] dx is
0

1 1
(A) 0 (B) e A (C) B e A (D) e
e e
2/3
49. The critical points of the function f(x) = (x − 2) (2x + 1) is
1
(A) 2 and 3 (B) 1 and 2 (C) −1 and 2 (D) 1 and −
2
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sin θ − cos θ
50. The minimum value of 2 +2 is
1 1 1
1A 1 B B1 B
2 2 2
(A) 2 (B) 2 (C) 2 (D) 1
2 2 2 2
51. If the latus rectum of the ellipse x tan α + y sec α = 1 is 1 , then α is equal to
2
(where 0 < α < π),
π π 2π 5π
(A) (B) (C) (D)
6 3 3 12
k 2
n cos n
52. The value of Lim , where 0 < k < 1; is
n→∞ nA1
(A) 0 (B) 1 (C) infinity (D) does not exist

1 1 1
x Bx 2 x Bx 2 x Bx 2
53. The value of 3 A 3 4 A 4 5 A5 is
x Bx 2 x Bx 2 x Bx 2
3 B3 4 B 4 5 B5
x −x
(A) 1 (B) 0 (C) 60 (D) 60
SECTION II
Assertion-Reason Type
This section contains 4 questions numbered 54 to 57. Each question contains
STATEMENT 1 (Assertion) and STATEMENT 2 (Reason). Each question has 4
choices (A), (B), (C) and (D), out of which ONLY ONE is correct.
(A) Statement 1 is True, statement 2 is True; statement 2 is a correct
explanation for statement 1.
(B) Statement 1 is True, statement 2 is True; statement 2 is not a correct
explanation for statement 1.

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(C) Statement 1 is True, statement 2 is False.


(D)Statement 1 is False, statement 2 is True.
54. Statement 1: The number of common tangents to the circles
2 2 2 2
x + y + 2x + 8y − 23 = 0 and x + y − 4x − 10y + 19 = 0 is 1.
because
Statement 2: If two circles touch internally, the number of common tangent is 1.
55. Statement 1: Two regular polygons have their number of sides in the ratio
5 : 4, and the difference between their angles is 6°. Then the
number of sides are 15 and 12 respectively.
because
2n B 4
Statement 2: Each interior angle of regular polygon of n sides is right
n
angle.
B1 12 B1 3 B1 63
56. Statement 1: tan A tan A tan =π
5 4 16
because
B1 B1 B1 xA y
Statement 2: tan x A tan y = π A tan , if x, y > 0 and xy > 1.
1 B xy

α α 2α 2α
57. Statement 1: If f α = cos A i sin cos A i sin ....
k 2 2 2 2
k k k k
α α
cos A i sin , then the value of Lim f π is 0.
k k n
n → ∞

because
Statement 2: If n is positive, (cos θ1 + i sin θ1) (cos θ2 + i sin θ2) ... (cos θn + i sin θn)
= cos (θ1 + θ2 + ... + θn) + i sin (θ1 + θ2 + ... + θn).

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SECTION III
Linked Comprehension Type
This section contains 2 paragraphs. Based upon each paragraph, 3 multiple choice
questions have to be answered. Each question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and (D), out of
which ONLY ONE is correct.
Paragraph for Question Nos 58 to 60
From any external point P two tangents can be drawn to a circle with centre C.
PT and PT are the two tangents.
1 2

θ
If the angle between the two tangents is θ, then T PC = T PC = .
1 2 2
2 2
58. From the origin O, the tangents are drawn to the circle x + y + 4x − 8y + 7 = 0,
meeting at P and Q, then the circumradius of ∆ OPQ is
(A) 5 (B) 3 (C) 2 (D) 2
59. From a point P on the line 4x − 3y = 6; tangents are drawn to the circle
2 2 B1 24 . Then P can be
x + y − 6x − 4y + 4 = 0, inclined at an angle tan
7
(A) (6, 0) (B) ( − 6, 0) (C) (6, 6) (D) (2, 0)
2 2
60. Tangents are drawn from point P ( − 8, 0) to the circle x + y = 16 meeting at A
and B. Then, the area of the quadrilateral PAOB is

(A) 16 (B) 16 3 (C) 8 3 (D) 32

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Paragraph for Question Nos 61 to 63


If E1, E2, E3 ... En are n mutually exclusive and exhaustive events and A is an event
which takes place in conjunction with any one of E , then the probability of the event
i
A
P E P
i E
E i
i
E happening when the event A takes place is given by P =
i n
A A
∑ P E
i
P
i = 1 E
i

61. In a factory, the machines A, B and C produce 25%, 35%, 40% products
respectively. Of their total output 5, 4 and 2% are defective. A product is chosen
and is found to be defective. The probability that it was manufactured by
machine C is
16 25 13 1
(A) (B) (C) (D)
69 69 69 69
62. There are two boxes. First box contains 4 white and 5 black balls. Second box
contains 6 white and 5 black balls. One box is selected at random, a ball is chosen
and is found to be white. The probability that it has come from 2nd box is
17 23 12 27
(A) (B) (C) (D)
49 49 49 49
63. A letter is known to have come from either MAHARASHTRA or RAJASTHAN.
On the postal mark, only consecutive letters RA can be read clearly. The chance
that the letter come from MAHARASHTRA is
8 5 12 1
(A) (B) (C) (D)
13 13 13 13
SECTION IV
Matrix-Match Type
This section contains 3 questions. Each question contains statements given in two
columns which have to be matched. Statements (A, B, C, D) in Column I have to be

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21

matched with statements (p, q, r, s) in Column II. The answers to these questions
have to be appropriately bubbled as illustrated in the following example.
If the correct matches are A-p, A-s, B-q, B-r, C-p, C-q and D-s, then the correctly
bubbled 4 × 4 matrix should be as follows:
p q r s
A p q r s
B p q r s
C p q r s
D p q r s

64. Column I Column II


a b c
(A) If a, b, c are positive, then A A is (p) 3
bAc cAa aA b
greater than or equal to

−1 −2 −4 3
(B) The sum to ∞ of the product (1 + 3 ) (1 + 3 ) (1 + 3 ) (q)
−8 2
(1 + 3 ) ... is
2 3 4 5 6
(C) If (1 − p) (1 + 2x + 4x + 8x + 16x + 32x ) = 1 − p , then (r) 4
p
the value of is
x
(D) If the second, third and sixth terms of an A.P. are (s) 2
the consecutive terms of a G.P., then the common ratio
of the G.P. is

65. Column I Column II


xf 3 B 3f x
(A) If f (3) = 4, f ′(3) = 1, then Lim is (p) 6
x → 3 xB3
(B) If f (x + y) = f (x) f(y) for all x, y and f(4) = 2 and (q) 1
f ′(0) = 3, then f ′(4) is equal to

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22

1
(C) When 8 sec θ + cosec θ is minimum, (r)
tan θ is equal to 3

cos x A cos 2x A cos 3x cos 2x cos 3x 1


(s)
(D) If f x = 3 A 4 cos x 3 4 cos x , 2
1 A cos x cos x 1
π⁄2

then ∫f x dx is equal to
0

66. Column I Column II


(A) A has 5 different books and B has 8 different (p) 14400
books. The number of ways they can
exchange their books so that each keeps his
initial number of books, is
(B) 5 boys and 3 girls are to be seated in a row. (q) 56
The number of ways in which they can be
seated in a row, such that no two girls sit
together is
(C) The number of ways in which 5 prizes can be (r) 1286
given to 4 boys, given that each boy is
eligible for all the prizes is
(D) There are 3 bags each containing unlimited (s) 1024
number of balls of colour white, black, red
and green. The number of ways in which 9
balls can be selected when every coloured
variety is represented in the selection is

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SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK

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Name: . Enrollment No.:

Please read the instructions carefully. You are allotted 5 minutes specifically for this purpose.

C. Question paper format:


13. The question paper consists of 3 parts (Physics, Chemistry and Mathematics). Each part has 4 sections.
14. Section I contains 9 multiple choice questions. Each question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and (D), out of
which only one is correct.
15. Section II contains 4 questions. Each question contains STATEMENT-1 (Assertion) and STATEMENT-
2 (Reason).
Bubble (A) if both the statements are TRUE and STATEMENT-2 is the correct explanation of
STATEMENT-1.
Bubble (B) if both the statements are TRUE but STATEMENT-2 is not the correct explanation of
STATEMENT-1.
Bubble (C) if STATEMENT-1 is TRUE and STATEMENT-2 is FALSE.
Bubble (D) if STATEMENT-1 is FALSE and STATEMENT-2 is TRUE.
16. Section III contains 2 paragraphs. Based upon each paragraph, 3 multiple choice questions have to be
answered. Each question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and (D), out of which only one is
correct.
17. Section IV contains 3 questions. Each question contains statements given in 2 columns. Statements in
the first column have to be matched with statements in the second column. The answers to
these questions have to be appropriately bubbled in the ORS as per the instructions given
at the beginning of the section.
D. Marking scheme:
18. For each question in Section I, you will be awarded 3 marks if you darken only the bubble
corresponding to the correct answer and zero mark if no bubble is darkened. In all other cases, minus
one (−1) mark will be awarded.
19. For each question in Section II, you will be awarded 3 marks if you darken only the bubble
corresponding to the correct answer and zero mark if no bubble is darkened. In all other cases, minus
one (−1) mark will be awarded.
20. For each question in Section III, you will be awarded 4 marks if you darken only the bubble
corresponding to the correct answer and zero mark if no bubble is darkened. In all other cases, minus
one (−1) mark will be awarded.
21. For each question in Section IV, you will be awarded 6 marks if you darken ALL the bubbles
corresponding ONLY to the correct answer. No negative mark will be awarded for an incorrectly
bubbled answer.

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1
 

IIT-JEE 2008
STS VIII/PCM/P(II)/SOLNS
BRILLIANT’S
HOME-BASED FULL-SYLLABUS SIMULATOR TEST SERIES
FOR OUR STUDENTS
TOWARDS

IIT-JOINT ENTRANCE EXAMINATION, 2008

PAPER II - SOLUTIONS
PHYSICS − CHEMISTRY − MATHEMATICS

PART A : PHYSICS
SECTION I
1. (A) As shown in Figure, we assume
ACB to be a small unkinked
section of rope subtending an
angle ∆θ at O. We choose C at the
midpoint of an arc. The centripetal
force is provided by the sum of two
tension forces FA and FB.

Fnet = FA + FB

In order that the force be directed towards O we must have |FA| = |FB| = F.

∆θ
The net inward radial force = 2F sin = F ⋅ ∆θ, where ∆θ is small.
2
Equating this to the required centripetal force, we have
2
(mR∆θ) ω R = F ⋅ ∆θ
since, mR (∆θ) is the mass of this section.
2
∴ F = mω R

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2. (A) Frequency of sonometer wire = 512 Hz


Number of beats = 5
Frequency of pipe = 517 or 507 Hz
Since the frequency of sonometer is reduced because of reduction in tension
and since it produces unison after change in tension with organ pipe the
frequency of organ pipe = 507 Hz.
Frequency at 15°C = 507 Hz
Let the temperature be raised to x°C so that the frequency becomes 512.

v 273 A 15 288
15
= =
v 273 A x 273 A x
x

v v 507
x 15
= 512 ∴ =
2l v 512
x

507 288
=
512 273 A x
Solving, x = 20.7°C
3. (A) A diatomic molecule has 5 degrees of freedom. Each degree of freedom has
kT
energy (3 translational and two rotational).
2

kT
Two degrees of rotational motion = 2 ⋅ = kT
2

1 2
∴ rotational kinetic energy = Iω
2

1 2
Iω = kT
2

ω= 2kT
I
2 B6
mv 20 × 10 × 4.8
4. (B) Bev = mv
−2
or r = = = 4 × 10 m
Be B3
r 1.2 × 2 × 10

1 1 1
A =
v u f

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3

1 1 1
A =
v 18 12
v = 36 cm

v 36
Magnification = = =2
u 18
−2
Radius of image circle = 2 × 4 × 10 m = 8 cm
5. (C)

The current distribution is shown in Figure.


Applying Kirchhoff’s law, Va − Vb = (Va − Ve) + (Vc − Vd)

= 10i1 + 5(i − i1)

= 5i1 + 5i ... (1)

Va − Vb = (Va − Ve) + (Vc − Vd) + (Vd − Vb)

= 10i1 + 5(2i1 − i) + 10i1

= − 5i + 30i1 ... (2)

Multiplying equation (1) by 6 and subtracting equation (2),


we eliminate i1 5(Va − Vb) = 35i

V BV
a b
=7
i
Equivalent resistance = 7 Ω

R R A R R A 2R R 10 × 5 A 5 × 5 A 2 × 10 × 5
1 3 2 3 1 2
Aliter: R = =
AB
R A R A 2R 10 A 5 A 2 × 5
1 2 3

175
=
25
=7Ω

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4
−6
6. (B) Q = 12 × 10 C, V = 1200 V
B6
Q 12 × 10 −8
Capacitance = = = 10 farad
V 1200

Dielectric strength = 3 × 106 V/m


If t is thickness and operating voltage is 1200 V and x is the distance between
plates

1200
= 3 × 106
x
−4
or x = 4 × 10 m

ε A 4 × 10
B4
× 10
B8
0
Capacitance = or A =
t B 12
8.85 × 10

A = 0.45 m2
B3
7. (A) l = 40 cm = 0.4 m, m = 3.2 × 10
0.4

1 T 1 T
n= =
2l m 2l B3
3.2 × 10
0.4

1 0.4T
220 =
2 × 0.4 B3
3.2 × 10
2
8 × 176
T=
3
10
2
T 8 × 176 11 2
Y= = = 1.98 × 10 N/m
A × strain 3 B6 0.05
10 × 1 × 10 ×
40
2
mv GMm 2π r
8. (A) = ,v=
r 2 T
r
2 2 3⁄2
4π r GMm 2π r
m⋅ = or T =
2 2
rT r GM

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4 3
M= πr ρ and r = rp
3
3⁄ 2
2π r 3π
p
T= =
4 3 Gρ
G⋅ πr ρ
p
3

9. (C) Let the distance from ground to top be d. The ground is frame at rest and
moving escalator is a moving frame. If v1 is the velocity of person for walking
d
time, t1 = . This is true when escalator is at rest. When it is moving with
v
1

velocity v the time taken by person = d (t2). Finally the person walks on
v
steps while it is moving.
Velocity of person with respect to ground = v1 + v

d v Av v
1 1 1 v 1 1
The time, t3 = or = = A = A
v Av t d d d t t
1 3 1 2

t t 3 × 1 = 0.75 minute
1 2
t3 = =
t At 3A1
1 2

SECTION II
10. (D)
11. (A) The loss of weight in water is just equal to the total weight of the block.
12. (D) The frequency remains unchanged, the wavelength as well as the velocity
undergo a change depending upon the refractive index of the medium.
13. (D) If the change in current is positive (increase), the self induced emf will tend
to decrease the current. If the current is decreasing the self induced emf will
tend to increase the current.
SECTION III
− t/RC
14. (B) In charging, q = q0 (1 − e )

q0 = CV

−6
q0 = 50 × 10 × 12 = 600 µC

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−6
15. (B) Time constant = RC = 300 × 50 × 10 = 15 millisecond
q
From the formula, we see that the charge reaches a value 0 in time t such that
2

= 1
− t′/RC
e
2
t′
= loge 2 = 0.693
RC
t′ = RC × 0.693 = 15 × 0.693 = 10.5 millisecond
− t′/RC 90 1
16. (A) Similarly, e = 1B =
100 10
t ′ = log 10 = 2.303 × 1
e
RC
t′ = 2.303 × 1 × 15 = 34.5 millisecond
17. (A) The forces acting on the rod are the weight mg acting downwards and normal
force N and frictional force, F = µN.
The net torque, τ = Iα, where I is the moment of
inertia of rod.
4
∴ τ = mgl sin θ = ml2 ⋅ α
3
3g
α= sin θ
4l
dω dω dθ dω 3g
α= = ⋅ = ω⋅ = sin θ
dt dθ dt dθ 4l
ω θ

∫ω dω = ∫ 34 gl sin θ dθ
0 0

θ
2
ω 3 g
= B cos θ
2 4 l 0

2 3g
ω = 1 B cos θ
2l

3g
ω= 1 B cos θ
2l

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18. (D) Linear acceleration is lα at right angles to the direction of rod. Resolving it
horizontally and vertically, the components are lα cos θ and lα sin θ. The
horizontal acceleration of centre of gravity due to force mg and N is
3 2
By Newton’s law, mg − N = mlα sin θ = mg sin θ
4

Fmax = µN = mlα cos θ = 3 mg sin θ cos θ


4

3 2 mg 2
∴ N = mg − mg sin θ = (4 − 3 sin θ)
4 4
19. (A) When θ = 30° slipping starts. At this F has its maximum value.

3
F mg sin θ cos θ
max 4 3 sin θ cos θ 3 3
µ= = = = = 0.400
N mg 2 2 13
4 B 3 sin θ 4 B 3 sin θ
4
SECTION IV
20. (A) − (q); (B) − (p); (C) − (r); (D) − (s)

γP 3P
(A) v = ;c=
ρ ρ

v γ
=
c 3
γ
(B) For adiabatic change PV = constant

γ−1 γ dP
Differentiating P ⋅ γ ⋅ V +V =0
dV

dV 1 dP
=B ⋅
V γ P

(C) PVγ = constant


PV = RT
Eliminating V between these equations, we get P1 − γ T γ = constant
(D) γ
21. (A) − (q); (B) − (p); (C) − (s); (D) − (r)

gl sin θ 4gl sin θ


(A) In the case of cylinder, v = =
2 2 3
K ⁄R A 1

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gl sin θ
(B) Velocity of the sphere is given by
2 2
K ⁄R A 1
where K is the radius of gyration of sphere, R is the radius.

10g l sin θ
∴v=
7
(C) Speed of opposite end of diameter = 2v

(D) When it rolls, v = gl sin θ

When it slides, v = 2gl sin θ

1
Ratio =
2
22. (A) − (q); (B) − (p); (C) − (s); (D) − (r)

ε A
(A) Capacity of air capacitor = 0
D

Kε A
If the space is filled with dielectric of constant K = 0
D
∴ capacity = 20 µF
(B) Capacitors in parallel capacity = 1 + 1 + 1 = 3 µF

3
When 1 µF is connected in parallel with this C = µF = 0.75 µF
4
(C) Charge given to the first capacitor = 200 × 2 = 400 µC
The common potential is 20 volts after connecting it in parallel.
∴ the capacity of the uncharged capacitor connected in parallel = 18 µF
(D) When capacitors are connected in parallel,
the effective capacity = C1 + C2 + C3 + .....

When capacitors are connected in series,

1 1 1 1
the effective capacity = = A A A ...
C C C C
1 2 3

Using the two formulae, we get effective capacity = 3 µF


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PART B : CHEMISTRY

SECTION I
3 2
23. (B) s-character increases in the order sp (25%), sp (33%), sp (50%). p-character
decreases as sp3 (75%), sp2 (66%), sp (50%). Bond angle increases in the order
sp3 (109°28′), sp2 (120°), sp (180°). Thus as p-character decreases, bond angle
increases.

24. (B) In OF2 molecule, there are two bond pairs and eight lone pairs (two from O
atom and three from each F atom) of electrons.

25. (A) In electrorefining of copper, impure copper is made as anode while pure
copper plate is made as cathode. On passing current, impurities like Fe,Zn,
Ni, Co dissolve in the solution and Au, Ag, etc., settle down at the bottom as
anode mud.

26. (B)

27. (D)

28. (D) • Cream of tartar itself is potassium acid tartarate, and on heating it does not
give tartaric acid.

• Argol is potassium hydrogen tartarate.

29. (C) As temperature is the same, k is also the same.



30. (A) In (A), [Ag+] [Cl ] > Ksp .

− −
31. (A) 2NH3 + 2OH → N2H4 +2H2O + 2e

− −
2NH3 + OCl → N2H4 + Cl + H2 O.

The coefficient of N2H4 is 1.

SECTION II

32. (A)

33. (C)

34. (B) This is an endothermic reaction. Hence, the reaction is favoured with
increase in temperature.

35. (B)

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SECTION III

1000K w 1000 × 0.52 × 11


b 2
36. (A) ∆T = = = 0.22 K
b
w M 100 × 259.34
1 2

∆ T obs
b
37. (B) van’t Hoff factor, i =
∆ T cal
b

0.6
=
0.22

= 2.727 Y 2.73

B
38. (D) Ba(NO3)2 Ba2+ + 2NO (3 species)
3

i B1 2.727 B1 1.727
α = = = = 0.8635
n B1 3 B1 2

i.e., α = 86.35 Y 86.4%

39. (C)

40. (A)

41. (D)

SECTION IV

42. (A) − (q), (r),(s); (B) − (q), (r); (C) − (p), (r); (D) − (p), (r)

43. (A) − (s); (B) − (q), (r) ,(s); (C) − (q), (r), (s); (D) − (p)

44. (A) − (s); (B) − (p); (C) − (q); (D) − (r)

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PART C : MATHEMATICS
SECTION I

45. (A) Equation of the parabola is


2
75y = 32 (10x − 6)
Tangent at (x1, y1) is

75yy1 = 32 (5x + 5x1 − 6)

6 8
Put x 1 = , y =
1
5 5
The equation to the tangent is
3y = 4x
4
Slope =
3
3
Slope of common normal = B
4
Equation to the common normal is
6 8
x B y B
5 5
= = r.
4 3
B
5 5

Circle touches x-axis ∴ y-coordinate of the centre = radius.


8
r B
5
∴ = r ⇒ r = 4
3
5
Put r = − r in RHS
8
r B
5
=B r
3
5
⇒r=1
∴ one radius is 4 and the other radius is 1

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46. (D) Let OABC be the tetrahedron, O being the origin.


Let OA = a, OB = b, OC = c

Then V = 1 a × b
1
2
1
V = b ×c
2
2
1
V = c ×a
3
2
1
V = c B a × b B a
4
2
1
= c × b B c × a B a × b
2
∴ V A V A V A V =0
1 2 3 4

⇒ V A V A V A V = 0
1 2 3 4

47. (C) We have


a2 + b2 + c2 − ca − ab 3 = 0
2 2
a 3 a
B b A Bc = 0
2 2
This is possible if

a 3 a
B b = 0 and B c = 0.
2 2

3a = 2b; a = 2c
k k c = k
⇒a = ; b = ; k is a constant.
3 2 2 3
2
2 2 2 1 1 2 4 k 2
b A c = k A = k ⋅ = = a
4 12 12 3
A = 90°
b 3
sin B = =
a 2
∴ B = 60° ⇒ C = 30°

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π π π
sec x 2 sec x 2
48. (C) ∫e tan x sec x dx A ∫e sec x dx A ∫ e sec x sec 2 x tan x dx
0 0 0

π
A ∫ e sec x sec x tan x dx
0

π π π
sec x 2 sec x sec x
= ∫ e tan x sec x dx A ∫ e d tan x dx A ∫ sec x d e dx
0 0 0

π
A ∫ e sec x sec x tan x dx
0

π π π
sec x 2 sec x
= ∫e tan x sec x dx A e tan x 0
B ∫ tan x e sec x ⋅sec x tan x dx
0 0

π π π
sec x sec x
A e sec x 0
B ∫e sec x tan x dx A ∫ e sec x sec x tan x dx
0 0

π
sec x
= e sec x 0

−1
=e ( − 1) − e1 ⋅ 1

1
=− e A
e

2/3 2 −1/3
49. (B) f ′(x) = (x − 2) ⋅ 2 + (2x + 1) ⋅ ⋅ (x − 2)
3

2 3 x B 2 A 2x A 1
=
1⁄ 3
3 x B2

2 5x B 5
=
1⁄ 3
3 x B2
f ′(x) = 0 ⇒ x = 1
The point at which f ′(x) does not exist is also a critical point.
So x = 2 is also a critical point.

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14

50. (B) Applying A.M. ≥ G.M.


sin θ B cos θ
2 A2 sin θ B cos θ
≥ 2 ⋅2
2
1
sin θ B cos θ
sin θ B cos θ 1 2
2 A 2 ≥ 2 ⋅2

1 π
1 A 2 sin θ B
2 4
≥2

1 π
1 A sin θB
2 4
≥2

π
For minimum value, sin θ B =−1
4
1
1B
2
∴ minimum value = 2
51. (D) The equation of the ellipse
2 2
x y
A = 1.
2 2
cot α cos α

2
Latus rectum = 2b =
1
a 2

4b2 = a

4 cos2 α = cot α

1 π
4 cos α = Q α ≠
sin α 2
2 sin 2 α = 1

1
sin 2 α =
2

n π
2 α = n π + ( − 1)
6
π
Put n = 0 ⇒ 2α =
6
π
⇒α =
12

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15

π
Put n = 1 ⇒ 2α = π −
6

=
6

α =
12
k 2
n cos n
52. (A) Lim
n → ∞ 1
n 1A
n
1 2
= Lim cos n
n → ∞
1 B k 1
n 1A
n
2
cos n is a bounded function and 0 < k < 1.
∴ above limit = 0.
53. (B) Applying R2 → R2 − R3 we get

1 1 1
x Bx x Bx x Bx
Det = 2 ⋅ 2 ⋅ 3 ⋅ 3 2 ⋅2 ⋅4 ⋅4 2 ⋅2 ⋅5 ⋅5
2 2 2
x Bx x Bx x Bx
3 B3 4 B 4 5 B 5

1 1 1
1 1 1
= 4
2 2 2
x Bx x Bx x Bx
3 B 3 4 B 4 5 B5
=4⋅0=0

SECTION II
54. (B) Centre A of I circle = ( − 1, − 4)
Radius r1 of I circle = 1 A 16 A 23 = 40 = 2 10
Centre B of II circle = (2, 5)
Radius r2 of II circle = 4 A 25 B 19 = 10
Distance between the centres = 9 A 81 = 90 = 3 10
∴ distance = r1 + r2
The two circles touch externally. Number of common tangents = 3.

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55. (A) Let n1 and n2 be the number of sides of the two regular polygons.

n 5
1
=
n 4
2

2n B 4 2n B 4
1 2
Also 90° B 90° = 6°
n n
1 2

B4 4 1
A =
n n 15
1 2

1 1 1
B =
n n 60
2 1

1 1 1
B =
4 n 60
n 1
1
5

1 1 1
=
4 n 60
1

n1 = 15

4
n = × 15 = 12
2
5

12 3
56. (A) ⋅ >1
5 4

12 3
A
−1 12 −1 3 B1 5 4
∴ tan + tan = π A tan
5 4 12 3
1B ⋅
5 4

B1 B 63
= π A tan
16

B1 63
= π B tan
16

∴ L.H.S = π

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π π 2π 2π nπ nπ
57. (D) fn(π) = cos A i sin cos A i sin ... cos A i sin
2 2 2 2 2 2
n n n n n n
π A 2π A ... A nπ π A 2π A ... A nπ
fn(π) = cos A i sin
2 2
n n
n n A1π n n A1π
= cos A i sin
2 2
2n 2n

2 1 2 1
n 1 A π n 1A π
n n
= cos A i sin
2 2
2n 2n

1 π 1 π
= cos 1 A A i sin 1 A
n 2 n 2
π π
∴ Lt f π = cos A i sin
n
n → ∞
2 2
=0+i⋅1=i

SECTION III
58. (A) Centre C is ( − 2, 4)
Evidently O, the origin is an external point of the
circle.
OPC = 90° = OQC.
∴ P and Q lie on the circle on OC as diameter.
It is the circumcircle of ∆ OPQ.
2 2
∴ OC = 2 A 4 = 20
1 1
Circumradius = 20 = ×2 5 = 5
2 2
59. (C) Centre C is (3, 2)
Angle between them
B1 24
2α = tan
7
24
tan 2 α =
7

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2 tan α 24
=
2 7
1 B tan α
(8 tan α − 6) (3 tan α + 4) = 0
6 3 4
∴ tan α = = ; ∴ tan α = − , not possible α is acute.
8 4 3
CT1 = Radius = 9 A 4 B 4 = 3
∴ PT2 = 4
∴ PC = 5
If P is (α, β), then (α − 3)2 + (β − 2)2 = 25 and 4α − 3β = 6.
Solving, α = 6 or 0
β = 6 or − 2
P can be (6, 6)
60. (B) Radius OA = 4
PO = 8
4 1
sin θ = = ; θ = 30°
8 2
∴ A O P = 60°
1
Area of ∆ OAP = OA ⋅ PO sin 60°
2
1 3
= × 4 ×8 ×
2 2
=8 3

∴ area of the quadrilateral = 2 × 8 3


= 16 3
25
61. (A) P(E1) → P (A is production) =
100
35 40
P E = , P E3 =
2
100 100
E − Probability that the product is defective

P(E/E1) = 5
100

P(E/E2) = 4
100

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P(E/E3) = 2
100
P E P E⁄E
3 3
P(E3/E) =
P E P E⁄E AP E P E⁄E AP E P E⁄E
1 1 2 2 3 3

40 2

100 100
=
25 5 35 4 40 2
⋅ A ⋅ A ⋅
100 100 100 100 100 100
16
=
69
62. (D) E1 - I box is chosen; E2 → II box is chosen

1 1
P E = P E =
1 2
2 2
E - ball is white

P(E/E1) = 4 ; P E⁄E =
6
2
9 11
P E P E⁄E
2 2
P E ⁄E =
2
P E P E ⁄E A P E P E⁄E
1 1 2 2

1 6 6

2 11 11
= =
1 4 1 6 98
⋅ A ⋅
2 9 2 11 99
6 ×9 54 27
= = =
98 98 49
63. (A) E1 − MAHARASHTRA chosen
E2 − RAJASTHAN chosen

1 1
P E = P E =
1 2
2 2
E → Consecutive letters are R and A
M A H A R A S H T R A
(1) (2) (3) (4) (5) (6) (7) (8) (9) (10) → Favourable = 2
Exhaustive = 10

P(E/E1) = 2 = 1
10 5

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R A J A S T H A N Favourable = 1
(1) (2) (3) (4) (5) (6) (7) (8) Exhaustive = 8

P(E/E2) = 1
8
1 1
P E ⋅ P E ⁄E ⋅
1 1 2 5
P E ⁄E = =
1
P E ⋅ P E⁄E A P E P E ⁄E 1 1 1 1
1 1 2 2 ⋅ A ⋅
2 5 2 8
1
5 8
= =
1 1 13
A
5 8
SECTION IV
64. (A) − (q); (B) − (q); (C) − (s); D − (p)
1
a b c a b c 3
(A) Applying A.M. ≥ G.M. A A ≥3 ⋅ ⋅
bAc cAa aAb b Ac cAa aAb
1

Also b A c A c A a A a A b ≥ 3 b A c ⋅ c A a ⋅ a A b
3

a b c a b c

Also b A c A c A a A a A b = b
A
a
A
c
A
a
A
b
A
c
a b c a b a c c b
which is ≥ 2 + 2 + 2
i.e., ≥ 6
a b c 1
∴ we get A A ≥ 9×
b Ac c Aa a A b 6

3
i.e., ≥
2
(B) Upto n terms,
n
−1 −2
product P = (1 + 3 ) (1 + 3 ) ... 1 A 3 B 2

−1 −2 −2
P(1 − 3 ) = (1 − 3 ) (1 + 3 )
−4
= (1 − 3 )

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Ultimately

B1 1
P1B 3 = 1B
2n A 1
3

1 1
P = 1 B
1 2n A 1
1 B 3
3

3 1
= 1 B
2 2n A 1
3

3
As n → ∞ the above =
2
6
2 3 4 5 1 B 2x
(C) 1 + 2x + 4x + 8x + 16x + 32x =
1 B 2x
6
1 B p
=
1B p
Comparing; p = 2x is a solution

p
⇒ = 2
x

a A 2d a A 5d 3d
(D) Now = ; each = =3
a A d a A 2d d
∴ common ratio = 3
65. (A) − (q); (B) − (p); (C) − (s); (D) − (r)

(A) Applying L′ Hospital rule, the required limit

f 3 B 3f ′ x
= Lt
x → 3
1

4 B 3 ⋅1
= =1
1
(B) Put y = 0
∴ f(x + 0) = f(x) ⋅ f(0), ∀x

⇒ f(0) = 1

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f 4 A h B f 4
f′ 4 = Lt
h → 0
h

f 4 f h B f 4
= Lt
h → 0
h

f h B f 0
= f 4 Lt
h → 0
h
= f(4) ⋅ f ′(0) = 2 ⋅ 3 = 6
(C) f(θ) = 8 sec θ + cosec θ
f ′(θ) = 8 sec θ tan θ − cosec θ cot θ

f ′(θ) = 0 ⇒ tan3 θ = 1
8
1
⇒ tan θ =
2
For this f ″(θ) is +ve.
1
∴ tan θ = gives minimum.
2
(D) In the determinant, applying C1 = C1 − (C2 + C3)

cos x cos 2x cos 3x


we get f x = 0 3 4cos x
0 cos x 1
2
= cos x (3 − 4 cos x)
= − cos 3x
π π
2 2

∫f x dx = ∫ B cos 3x dx
0 0

π
sin 3x 2
=B
3 0

1 1
=B B B 0 =
3 3

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66. (A) − (r); (B) − (p); (C) − (s); (D) − (q)


(A) On the whole there are 5 + 8 = 13 books. Then A can select 5 books in
13
C5 ways.

This includes 1 way in which he can select his original books.


∴ required number of ways

= 13C5 − 1 = 1286.

(B) 5 boys can be seated in 5 ways = 120


Number of spaces for girls = 4 + 2 = 6 [4 gaps 2 extremes]
6
3 girls can be arranged in P3 ways = 120

Required number of ways = 120 × 120 = 14400


(C) Any one prize can be given to any one of the 4 boys.
For each prize there are 4 choices and there are 5 prizes.

Required number of ways = 45 = 1024

(D) The required number of ways = Coefficient of t9 in (t + t2 + ... )4

= Coefficient of t9 in t4 (1 + t + ... )4
−4
= Coefficient of t5 in (1 − t)

= (4 + 5 − 1)C5
8 8
= C5 = C3 = 56

◊ Brilliant Tutorials Pvt. Ltd. IIT/STS VIII/PCM/P(II)/Solns - 23