CCS#7

I.Fill in the blanks

1. The signals which operate throughout the duration of a call is known as _____________ signals.( Line Signals) 2. If the speech channel and the corresponding signaling channel are rigidly in association with each other, the signaling system is ______(CAS) 3. If the signaling link and the speech circuit group run along different routes, that mode of CCS is known as ____________(Quasi associated) 4. In a CCS#7 network, the actual signaling information pertaining to a call is sent through ______________________________signaling unit.(Message) 5. The bit pattern for flag in CCS#7 is _________(01111110) 6. The two types of Inter exchange digital signaling are _____________ & _____________(CCS#7 ,CAS) 7. The bottommost three layers of CCS No7 node is known as _____________ (MTP)
8. In CCS7 signalling, the source and destination of signalling traffic are called _____________.(Signaling Point) 9. The length indicator(LI) for FISU is _____________ (0) 10. The length indicator(LI) for LSSU is _____________ (1or 2) 11. The length indicator(LI) for MSU is _____________ (3 to 63)

Choose the correct Answer 1. The signals exchanged between two different nodes mainly for sending the address information during the phase of setting up are (a. Register signals b. PTS signals c. Line signals d. All the above) 2. The signal unit which carries information for the operation of signaling links is (a. MSU b. LSSU c. FISU) 3. The specific field in the CCS#7 packet which is used to differentiate between the three signal units is (a. SIF b. LI c. CK)

4. The Signal unit which contains the address of the destination exchange to which the C7 message is to be transferred (routing label) is

(a. MSU

b. LSSU

c. FISU d. MTP) State True/False

1. No charging

2. unit charging

3. higher rate charging

IN Service key 1800 - FPH (Free phone service) 1801 - VPN (Virtual private network) 1802 ITC/ VCC 1803 Televoting no charge 1804 (ACC)Account card calling 1805 FLPP direct 1806 FLPP remote 1807 - (UAN)Universal Access number(mgmt) 1808 (UPN)Universal Personnel number (mgmt) 1860 (UAN)Universal Access number(local &distant) 1869 (UAN)Universal Access number(Revenue sharing) 1867 PRM (Premium rate call) 1861- Televoting unit charge rate 1862- Televoting 2unit charge rate 1863 - Televoting different charge rates IN SCP CODE( ALCATEL ) Bangalore - 425 Calcutta - 345 Hydrabad - 424 Lucknow - 180 Ahmedabad - 233
Alcatel IN system SCP capacity of 4 lakhs BHCA which can grow up to 12 lakhs

1. CSMF is a digital signaling system(F) 2. Quasi-associated mode of signaling is preferable in routes with heavy traffic conditions.(F) 3. CCS#7 is having a fixed length frame format.(T) Expand the following: 1. MTP- Message Transfer part 2. PSTN- Public switched telephone network 3. CSMF Compelled sequence multi frequency 4. FISU-Fill in signal units 5. DPC- Destination point code 6. STP Signal transfer point 7. MSU Message signal unit 8. LSSU Link status signal unit

50 lakhs VCC data storage capacity IN

1.The service logic in IN is concentrated in a central node called -----------( SPC) 2.The most popular service in IN is ----------------(ITC) 3.The mass calling IN platform is located at --------------(HYDRABAD)ISDN 1.The interface between NT & ISDN exchange is called -------------------(U) 2.The two rates of access in ISDN are __________ & __________ ( BRA(144 Kbps) ,PRA(2Mbps) 3.The Interface between NT1 & NT2 ( T) 4.__________is used to carry data on ISDN B-channels(LAP-B (Link Access Protocol B) 5. BRI D-channel service operates at ____________Kbps(16 kbps ) 6. ISDN BRA offers ____________(two B channels and one D channel (2B+D)) 6. IN traffic analysis is carried out by (SCP, STP, SMP) 7. Subscriber and Network data base is available in (SCP, SSP, SMP) 8. Billing center is located in (SCP, SMP, IP) 9. What are the three different categories of charging for IN services 7. BRI B-channel service operates at _________ kbps (64) 8.ISDN PRA offers ____(30 B channels and 1 D channel )a total bit rate of 2.048Mbps 10. BRA D-channel service operates at ____________Kbps(64) 11. Interface between non ISDN terminal and TA ( R) 12. Interface between ISDN terminal and NT2 (S)

4. A call to the IN is detected by (SCP, SSP, SMP)

5. Announcements to subscriber is generated by (ROI, IP, SCP)

13. Interface between NT1 and NT2(T) 14. non ISDN terminal is connected to ISDN via _____________ (TA) 15. T/S is a physical interface of ___________ wires (4)

16. U is a physical interface of ___________ wires (2)

E-10B

I. Fill in the blanks.

1. Subscribers are connected to ___________________ rack(URA or CSE) 2. 2MB digital streams are connected to ________________rack(URM) 3. One XEJ16 card can accommodate __________ number of subscribers(16) 4. Frequency Receivers are equipped in _____________________rack (ETA) 5. Maximum number of MR racks in E-10B Exchange is _____________(6) 6. There are ________number of call processing registers available in one MR (256) 7. Subscribers/ Trunk /Analysis Data are stored in ________________unit(TR) 8. Load and traffic observations are performed by ________________unit(TX) 9. All the units in E-10B are connected to the unit OC by __________link(LC) 10. During the failure of data link the detailed billing data is stored in _____ (DSF) 11. LU links connect all Connection units to ___________________rack(MQ) 12. Recorded announcement machine is equipped in _______________rack(BDA)

4. One GUR contains ____________________URs (12, 16, 18, 24) 5. In an E-10B Exge. the maximum number of UR is _____________ (192, 384, 1024, 2028) 6. CSED is connected to URM by means of maximum _______PCMs ( 2, 4, 8, 16) 7. UR number of BDA is _____________ (32, 16, 8, 1 ) 8. MQ racks are installed in _____________ suit ( K, L, M, C ) 9. UGCX is associated with ___________________ rack ( OC, TR, MR, MQ) 10. Capacity of one module in the MATR of TR rack is ______K Words ( 64, 128, 256, 512) 11. Subscribers meter accounts are stored in _______________ file in TX ( FIHTX, FITAX, FITTX, FICLX) 12. Terminals like TTY, CV are connected to ________________ ( BDA, OC, DSF, OMC ) 13. LM link is used to interconnect ______________________________ ( MR to UGCX, TX to UGCX, MQ to UR, All control units) 14. UR 48 will be always a ______________ ( URM, CSE, ETA, BDA) 15. The hard disk in the OMC is __________________ ( UD-80, ETM, MAE, LP55)

III. Answer the following

1. Name the functional blocks of CSE(Subscriber terminal I/F ,Concentration network , Control network) 2. What is the significance of URM-48(Data link is connected from PMC) 3. Write down the functions of BDA( Announcements and Alarm transmission module) 4. What is ELS-48 ?(Control logic 48 bit dataprocessor logic)

13. In the Time Base ________MHz oscillator is used for signal generation 5. What is the maximum number of TR files ?(523) 14. One switch module can connect _______________ number of LRs(16) 6. List the basic signal generated by BT 15. Detailed billing data are stored in a _______________in the OMC(Magnetic tape) 7. List the peripherals of OMC (TTY,IR,MAE ,CV,Hard disk ,MTU) Choose the correct answer 1. Maximum number of LR connectivity in the Switch is ____________ ( 192, 384, 512, 1024) 2. Traffic handling capacity of E-10B is____________________Erlangs ( 1024, 2048, 4000, 5120 ) 3. Switching principle used in E-10B is ____________ ( Analogue switch, TST switch , single T switch, single Space switch) 8. write down the phases of call processing (Pre selection ( Dial tone),Sellection (Ringing)and Call connection) IV. Match the following Column A Column B A B 4

1. BT 2. URM 3. ETA 4. DSF 5. TX

a. b. c. d. e.

Magnetic Tape 3 Tone generator 2 2MB PCM 5 Subs meter account 1 6.144 Mhz. 9. Console is connected to _____________________ Board.ACFTD 10. AL 01 and AL 09 are normally used for connecting ____________ terminal.(PCWAM) 11. The main alarm coupler is ._____________________ .(ACRAL) 12. Each ACTUJ Board can connect maximum ________________ number of terminals.(8) 13. Switching network of an OCB-283 exchange is capable of terminating a maximum of ________________ LRs.(2048) 14. RCMT board consists of ______________ number of 64X64 matrices.(4) 15. SMX works in ____________________ mode.(Active Active) 16. The maximum number of PCM terminations in SMT2G is __________________(128) 17. The time base generation board in STS is ______________.(RCHOR) 18. From STS the synchronization cable is terminated in ________________ station.(SMX) 19. The clock from SDH ring for external synchronization of the Switch is terminated in _________________ coupler in STS.(RCHIS) 20. The board, which is triplicated in STS is ________________.(RCHOR) 21. The type of redundancy employed in PUPE is _______________.(N+1) 22. The PUPE functionality is implemented using the hardware entity __________________ in SMA. 23. The clock board of SMA is _____________________.(ICHOR) 24. Tones are generated in SMA by ___________________.(ICTSS) 25. The two levels of concentration in the CSN are in the _________________ and _____________________.(CN level and RCX level) 26. A maximum of _______ LRIs (Internal Matrix links )are used to connect a CNL to the RCX.(4) 27. The UCX breaks down into two parts namely ________________ and ________________.(UC and RCX) 28. The ICNE allows connection of a maximum of ______ PCM links.(42) 29. The _________ board selects the Pilot/Reserve logic and generates the P/R signal.(TSUC) 30. CSN communicates with OCB Switch in _______________ signaling mode.(CCS7) 8. Interface controlling SCSI peripheral device is ______________. ACBSG

OCB-283
1. The Switching Matrix of OCB-283 is a ____________switch.(T) 2. In OCB-283 ,external PCMs are terminated in ---------------- unit.(SMT) 3. The CCS7 protocol handler is---------& CCS7 protocol controller is------------------- in OCB System(PUPE , PC) 4. ____________ multiplex carries out interchange of information between SMM and SMC.(MIS) 5. _____________________ is the alarm multiplex.(MAL) 6. Subscriber in OCB is getting dial tone from ____________ station(SMA) 7. ____________ unit is providing synchronisation pulses in OCB(STS) 8. The subscriber connection unit in OCB is ____________(CSN) 9. In one SMT2G ____________nos. of LRs can be terminated(128) 10. The central control of OCB system is ____________(SMC) 11. ____________ multiplex carries out interchange of information between Functional units of SMC.(MIS) Fill in the Blanks:

1. The Switching Matrix of OCB-283 is a ______________ switch.(T)

2. OCB-283 Switching Network can carry a maximum traffic of ______________ Erlangs.(25000) 3. Type of redundancy employed in SMC is ______________________.(N+1) 4. Redundancy of PC is ________________.(Active standby) 5. The operating system loaded in OCB-283 is _________________.(RTOS Hypavisor and supervisor) ) 6. The software implementation of a function unit is called ______________________.(ML) 7. Maximum number of MRs possible in the OCB-283 system is ______________.(7)

5. -------------------------- provides control message communication within a base

31. The converter board in CSNL sub racks is ___________.(TCRMT) 32. The _________ board allows the connection of 16 analog subscribers with remote metering application. 33. GTA is always created as CN__________.(CN20) 34. In the new version of subscriber connection unit CSN MM, MM stands for __________________.(Multimedia Multi service) 35. In a TCTRS board , _________ number of PCMs can be terminated.(16) Answer the following 36. The SMCs communicate each other over which Ring?(MIS) 37. The type of redundancy employed in Token ring operation? 38. Which station acts as the Primary Ring Manager? 39. Which is the only station in OCB that terminates MIS and MAS token rings?(SMC) 40. Secondary storage devices are available in which station?(SMM)

module.(BMS) 6. CDOT MAX-XL provides connectivity to ---------------- BMs.(32) 7. Maximum --------------PCMs can be provided between RSU and main exchange.(16) 8. One multiframe has ----------------- frames.(32) 9. Only --------------------- numbered BMs can be configured as RSU.(even) 10. In DTU, one set of --------------------- and ---------------- provide one E1 interface.DTC and DTS) 11. Ideally traffic handling capacity of MAX-XL is -------------------- Erlangs.(8000) 12. The concentration ratio between TU and time switch is ----------------(1:4) 13. IOP to IOP link speed is --------------------------------. 14. The cards used to generate clock in CM-L and CM-XL are ---------------------- and ---------------------- respectively.(FCK,CCK) 15. RESBC stands for ---------------.(Respiration utility for base cartridge) 16. The command for creating the new exchange code is -----------------(MOD-XCOD) 16. ------------------ processes are created at the time of system initialization and remain alive

II.Draw a neat schematic of Hardware configuration of OCB-283 System, showing all the interconnection links between units. II. Say TRUE or FALSE

throughout the life of the system.(ETERNAL)

17. A line module can terminate ------------------- analog subscribers.(768) 18. A space switch card in CM takes care of switching of ------------ number of BMs and handles switching of ---------------- timeslots.(4, 2048) 19. The CMS that interface with AP are --------------and --------------.(1, 2) 20. To get a free subscriber directory number ---------------------------command is used.(DSPL DIRN) State true or false. If false correct the underlined word. a. Provision of special circuits like announcement is done in AM. b. ATU/DTU can be used in concentration with ISTU. c. Network synchronization is done by AM. d. With one ISTU a maximum of 128 bearer channels can be provided.

1. Digital subscribers can be connected to the CSN of OCB (T) 2. In large configurations, number of MIS rings can go up to 4.(F ,Only one) 3. SMX follows a T-S-T architecture.(F,T) 4. Time distribution in OCB is triplicate(T) 5. The system terminals are connected to SMC. F (SMM)
CDOT 1. CDOT MBM system employs -------------------------- switching configuration.(TST) 2. CDOT SBM system employs -------------------------- switching configuration.(T) 3. --------------------------- is the basic growth module in CDOT DSS.(BM) 4. Clock and synchronization is provided on a centralized basis by -----------------------------------.(CM)

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e. BPU is implemented as a duplicated controller. f. Hunt group is used for both PSTN and ISDN sub but DDI is used only for ISDN subscribers g. CDOT DSS MAX cannot be configured as TAX. h. BHCA handling capacity of BP can be enhanced by upgrading the processor card. i. PSM card is used for connecting BMs in MAX-XL. j. PSS cards are used for space switching.

3) Maintenance Panel (MP) interacts with --------- card in the 256 RAX . 4) The line test card used in 256P RAX is -------. 5) ADP & IOP are connected to------------------- in MBM switch. 6) Inter-BM calls are switched by ------------------- in MBM system. 7) BPC has got -----------------------HDLC links. 8) The signalling protocol used between LE & AN RAX is ------------9) The maximum concentration possible in the case of AN RAX with LE is-----

k. SCIC and TIC are of the same hardware.

10) The PCM links from the LE will be terminated in-------------card in AN RAX.

l. HDLC link is used between BPU and BMS. m. BME has a capacity of 8 MB. n. PSU II is used inTSU frame. o. It should be ensured that operator is added in both the IOPs at the same time. p. The maximum value of PSWD-TAMP-THRS is 10. q. Hotline is a terminating facility.
VI

11) The feature that allows automatic selection of a free line from a group of serving lines is called . 12) Conference card can be equipped in the . slot of master frame in 256p RAX switch. STATE TRUE OR FALSE 1) LCC depends on SPC for Voice Switching. 2) HDB3 interface circuits are available in RDC . 3) Control message is available in the 2nd TS of MUX stream towards TSU in a BM.

r. The directory numbers should have been created and its status should be OOS-OPR before they become member of the hunt group q. The priority assigned for CCB is 8. r. NSC card forms interface between DTS & CCK. Expand the following:1. RSU2. FAW3. ATU 4. ASIO 5. HDLC 6. SCIC 7. BMDC 8. ISUP 9. MSN 10. DTS II.
1) Level 1 routes ----------------type of calls. 2) CCM card provides home metering frequency of ------ for -------number of subscribers.

4) Prefixing of digits is an O/G parameter for Trunk administration. 5) CCB cards can be used in place of Line cards. 6) The Ring cadence timings are 0.2s ON 0.4s OFF 0.2s ON and 0.2s OFF. 7) The CDOT MAX L switch can accommodate maximum 8 RSUs. 8) AN RAX will provide third level of remoting.

9) The AN RAX will support 248 subscribers. 10) Only odd numbered BMs can be configured as RSU. 11) The maximum number of RDTs that can be put in a 256p RAX is limited to 8 12) In 256p RAX the MF/DTMF tones are generated by RMF card EXPAND THE FOLLOWING HDLC RAP-

11

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ADP RSURATDTUKEY II.

subscriber is --------------------------. 3. The parameter values of LIN-TYP as PTM & PTP are used for --------------subscribers. 4. Maximum number of SHM cards in a SUM is -------------------------. 5. Sig-inf parameter in TGP for CCS7 Data creation is ---------------------6. A system implemented between the local exchange and user replacing part or whole of the local line distribution network is called ---------------7. CDOT MAX-L exchange supports a maximum of --------------- V5.2 interfaces per BM. 8. A trunk group is identified by a number between ------------- to ----------in MAX-L. 9. The position in the received digit sequence from which digits are to be outpulsed on an OG trunk is called --------------------------------. 10. --------------------------- command displays all active traffic reports. 12. The command to be executed before taking printout of meter readings is ----------13. Subscriber individual charge counters are stored in --------------------------- in a BM and dumped to -------------------------- at a regular periodicity. 14. In CDOT, there is provision for -------- different day types. 15. In exchanges which support CCS7 signalling, for charging ------------------------is received from TAX. 16. A device is connected to 4th ASIO port of IOP. The terminal name for this device is ------------------------------------. 17. The two types of detailed billing records generated in CDOT are ------------------and -------------------------. 18. CDOT AN RAX will provide the ------------------------- level of remoting. 19. ARC and ARI cards are connected by ------------------- cable. 21. There are ------------ number of calling and called subscriber categories in CDOT. 22. The maximum number of entries possible in a command file is --------------. III 23. The priority assigned for CCB is --------------------. II) State True or False. 1. It is not possible to change the TEN keeping the same directory number. 2. Hunt group is used for both PSTN and ISDN sub but DDI is used only for ISDN sub. 14

1. Special service 2. 16 KHZ,2 3. RAP 4. RTC 5. AM 6. CM 7. 6 8. V 5.2 9. 8:1 10. ANC 11. Line Hunting (Hunting) 12. 7th 1. False 2. False 3. False 4. False 5. True 6. False 7. True 8. False 9. True 10. Fasle 11. True 12. True 1. 2. 3. 4. 5. 6. HDLC-High level data link control RAP-RAX administrative processor ADP-Alarm display panel RSU-Remote Switch Unit RAT-RAX Announcement & Tones DTU- Digital Trunk Unit

I.

Fill in the blanks:1. To get a free subscriber directory number -------------- command is used. 2. Any subscriber data modification is possible only when the status of the

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3. The directory numbers should have been created and its status should be OOS-OPR before they become member of the hunt group. 4. 5. 6. 7. 8. Hardware of VU is same as that of SU. SUB-TRFINF counters are getting reset at 00:00 hours daily. To interrogate the tariff zone for a day type Displ-Day-Typ command is used. It should be ensured that operator is added in both the IOPs at the same time. While displaying the traffic observation reports, TO-DATE should be greater than or equal to FRM-DATE. 9. The maximum length of route code is 10 digits. 10. Charge rate numbers have 127 possible values. 11. For displaying entries made in the calendar on specific date, key- in command "DISPL-CAL-LOG" 12. Hotline is a terminating facility. 13. 4 counters are associated with a subscriber at the time of creation. 14. A trunk group cannot be put under billing observation. 15. Command file can execute a set of commands at one stretch. 16. SU and VU can be concentrated together. III. Expand the following:MSNLSBSTPRGENARCAnswer the following:1. Mention any 3 advantages of MSN facilities for ISDN subscribers. 2. Calculate the internal threshold and No.7 threshold for the following parameters. a) b)

7. 8.

Differentiate the commands MOD-OPR-PWD and SET-PWD. A CDOT SBM is connected to TAX through Digital trunks. DTK 1 provided in TU21 is used. Write down the TENs of the first fifteen circuits used as O/G. Explain briefly with example a) Special route b) DID route 10. An O/G trunk group is to created from CDOT to OCB exchange with route code as 512. Taking the charge rate number as 18,tgp-cat as 1 and tgp number as 21, what values will you give for the following parameters in cre-rout command. Route code: Route flag : Charge rate number: Digit length: Trunk group choice: 11. In the above question, if the trunk group is created as CAS , using the 3rd digital trunk circuit in the DTU frame available in BM1 in 1st frame, what values you will give for the following parameters. TGP-STA: LIN-SIG : REG-SIG: TGP-TYP: TGP-CAT: RNK-DGT: DGT-SZFD: TEN: 12. Explain the architecture of VU frame in CDOT. 13. List out any four different types of traffic reports that can be taken in CDOT exchange. 14. Briefly explain the architecture of AN RAX. 15. The local calls between main exchange and RSU are to be restricted as the RSU is located in an area of different code. How this is possible? EWSD

9.

BPC card with 4 SHM cards. One Home BM and 3 other Trunk BMs having CCS7 trunk circuits. 1. Write the commands in order for CCS7 data creation. 4. Write the No.7 ten format 5. What are the two types of supervisions with respect to traffic measurement? 6.Write any 4 operations by which a commercial billing record is generated?

1.The DLUs are connected to the Switching Network via-------------( LTG(B-function) 2. the local DLUs are connected to the ________________ by____________ (LTG(B) by 4 Mbps carriers.) 3. The remote DLUs are connected to the ______________ by __________(LTG(B) , 2 Mbps carriers.)

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4.____________ is used for signaling between a DLU and the Group Processor (GP) in the two LTGs.( CCS#7) 5.________________serve to connect analog subscribers to the system. (subscriber line modules, analog (SLMA)

bus for common memory (BCMY) common memory (CMY) input/output processors (IOP):

20. The ________________connects all processors (BAP, CAP), including the input/output controls (IOC), with each other and with the common memory .( bus for common memory (BCMY)

6.Digital subscribers are connected via___________( subscriber line modules, digital (SLMD)) 7. . ___________ is used in each DLU of a remote control unit (SASCE) 8. The remote control unit, (RCU ) consist of up to ___________ DLUs.(6) 9. DLU no. 10. LTG no. : 10 to 2550 (in steps of 10) : tsg-ltg where tsg = 0 to 7 (Time Stage Group on which the associated LTG is terminated) ltg = 1 to 63 11. DLU creation CR DLU : DLU= dlu no., Shelf=A, DLUC0 = tsg-ltg-diu0 <-diu 1> DLUC1 = tsg-ltg-diu2 <-diu 3>; 12.The transfer rate on the secondary digital carrier (SDC) from the LTG to the SN and vice versa is ______________Mbps. ( 8) 13.Each of the SDCs has 128 time slots of 64 kbit/s each, out of which _________ time-slots are used for user information and _____ time slot for messages. ( 127 , 1 ) 14.The CP, sends __________to the GP. (commands) 15. The GP sends___________s to the CP. (message) 16. A GP exchanges with other GPs,( reports)
17. With the common channel signaling network control (CCNC), the GP uses ___________________ (orders. )

21. The unit functions as the Message Transfer Part (MTP) of CCS#7is ___________________( Common Channel Signaling Network Control (CCNC) Unit)

22. The User Part (UP) is incorporated in ______________( LTG) 23. ______________controls the functional units of the LTG(Group Processor (GP)) 24.Tthe EWSD switching network has _____________and _____________ to connect 504 LTGs and has a traffic - handling capacity of 25,200 erlang ( 8 TSGs ,4 SSGs)

II
1. The two main components of DLU system are DLUC & DIUD 2. The DLUC 0 & 1 works on LOAD SHARING basis. 3. SLMA & SLMD cards are connected to 4096 network bus & control network bus 4. During emergency operation SASCE/SASC card in remote DLU controls the call processing function 5. The DLUC & CP communicate on time slot TS 16 of PDC for message exchanging where as GP sends information to CP on timeslot TS0 of SDC. 6. The metering information during speech phase is stored in GP 7. In maximum configuration 504 number of LTGs can be connected to SN. 8. 6 CAPs are provided in the basic configuration of CP. 9. The functions of CCS7 level 2 are implemented in the SILTG of CCNC. 10. MB-0 & MB-1 works on Load Sharing basis. LEN DLU NO SHELF NO CARD NO PORT NO 10<2550 - 0<3 0<15 0<31 II. Answer the following 1. Name the functional units of CP 113. 1) BAP 2) CAP 3) iop:- I/P O/P CONTROLLER & PROCESSOR 4) CMY 5)BCMY

18. A can be installed to connect an Access Network AN via V5.2 interface(PHMA card) 19.The CP113 comprises the following hardware functional units base processors (BAP) call processors (CAP) input/output controls (IOC)

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True 2. The CCG contains three modules: 2. During SA operaticn , DTMF subs cant make outgoing call ( false) 1) CCUXXA 2) CCUB 3) CCUD 3. Mention the functional unit of SN TSU:- LIL, TSM, LIS, LIM SSU:- LIS, SSM 15/8, SSM 16/16, LIM SUC 4. Explain Cross Office (COC) condition. 5. Explain RM:CTC function: III. Draw the block diagram of EWSD exchange. Mention the names of each functional units and mark the links. 1. The main components of DLU System are & (DIUD and DLUC) 2. The SLMA & SLMD Cards are connected to (The control bus andThe 4096 kbps bus ) 3. What is the difference between DIUD and DIU: LDID modules (Remote DLU interface and local DLU interface) 4. In R-DLU on which card, alarm are external .(ALEX)

5ESS
I. Fill up the blanks: 1. The COMDAC operates Active-Active mode. 2. FACLTP will accommodate SIX number of AIUs 3. The designated two time slots for carrying control messages in the NCT link is TS0 & TS1 4. The PIDB carries 32 time slots. 5. During call processing space time slots are allotted by AM

3. DLUC0 & DLUC1 work on ----------------------------------------------basis. ( load sharing ) 5. The CCS messages sent on PDC0 are duplicated over -------------------( PDC2) 6. When PDC2 fails, the signaling for PDC3 will be carried in ----------( PDC0) II. 7. List out the additional modules required for RDLU.(SASCE,ALEX) 8. What is the EMSP module used for? (Frequency receiver) 9. (True/ False) In an R-DLU, under normal operation the intra-DLU calls ( Calls within the DLU) will be handled by SASC (Stand-alone service controller).(F) 10. How many DTMF receivers are available in one EMSP module?(8) 11. How many external alarms can be terminated in R- DLU? In which card?

6. For fast transfer of control messages the overlay network called QLPS is used. 7. The most important HMI terminal in 5 ESS is MCC. 8. OS of 5ESS software is called UNIX RTR 9. The DBM software subsystem in 5 ESS consists of Relational & Dynamic. 10. The capacity of the Hard Disk in 5 ESS is 1GB X4 MATCH THE FOLLOWING: A TMS DLI MMP TLWS MH 3B21D B AP QGP SM 2000 Space switch Time switch SM classis HMJ drive MAIL BOX

1 2 3 4 5 6

a b c d e f g h

1. If DLUC0 fails DLUC1 will process the information for DIU D0 also

1-d 2f 3h 4---g 5---c 6---a

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2. BORSHT functions are done by --------------- ( Ans:Line interface/ine circuits )

III. Draw the hardware architecture of 5ESS switching system marking clearly the (i) modules (ii) UNITS in each module (iii) the links interconnecting the modules.

3. The two types of switching systems are -------------------&----------------- (space division & time division)

ADDITIONAL QUESTIONS: 1) What are the 4 fields required for finding out LEN? aaabbbccdd aaa-SM No(1<192) bbb-AIU No(1<104) cc-Circuite pack No (0<19) dd-Port No(0<31) 2) What are the PCBs used for terminating the ordinary Analog subscriber STD PTs and ISDN BRA subscriber in the AIU? LPZ 122B(32 connections) , LPP 100 (24 connections,LPU112( 12 connections) 3.What is the latest generic version of 5 ESS switch ---16(1) (For Main Paper) 3) What is the function of FPC in the MSGS of CM? 4) What is the maximum number of SM 2000 that could be connected to a full fledged CM3? (23) 5) What is meant by Q-Pipe ion a QLPS network? 6) What is the function of TG and TD in the DSU during call processing? 7) What are the important functions of SMP? 8) What are the three stages in call processing and what is the cut off point for each stage? 9) What are the two minimum parameters required for subscriber creation? 10) What are the different cirucuits/subscriber terminations in the DLTU of peripheral unit in SM 2000? 11) What is meant by FAST PUMP FEATURE in 5 ESS? 12)What is the latest generic version of 5 ESS switch? What are the 2 features additionally available in this version?

4. ------------------ is a high speed data processing unit which controls the operation of the switching network. (Central control) 5. The information in the ----------------store changes continuously with origination and termination of each call. (Data Store) 6. ------------------- detects and informs CC of all significant events/signals on subscriber lines and trunks. 7. The physical setup and release of paths through the switching network is performed by ------------------ under the control of CC.(Marker)
1) Which of the following is an electronic exchange a) AXE b) C DOT c) EWSD d) All the above 2) Which of the following facility enable a subscriber to setup connection to more than one subscriber. a) Call waiting b) Hot line c) Conference call d) Call forwarding 3) The telephone traffic is measured in a) Erlangs b) Busy hour c) Holding time

d) Hertz

4) The maximum termination capacity of C DOT SBM exchange is a) 256 b) 128 c) 2K d) 8 5) Which of the following is the basic module in C DOT MAX a) Base module b) Central module c) Input output module d) All the above 6) A subscriber line card in C DOT RAX interfaces ___________ number of subscriber lines. a) 1 b) 8 c) 128 d) 256

GSM I
Switching
1. An exchange which can switch pairs of trunks towards different exchanges is called a ----------- exchange. (Ans:Transit)
21 22 I. Fill in the Blanks 1. Cellular systems employ limited frequency spectrum. .. to compensate for the

2. Cells using the same frequencies are called

c. WCDMA d. SMS e. RACH

3. A group of cells in which the same frequencies are not reused is called .. 4. works as an incoming transit exchange for GSM PLMN. 5. . is a part of MSC/VLR area where the mobile can move freely without location updation. . Is the access method used in GSM N/w . . is the ITU vision for the third generation mobile systems.

f.

PDTCH

6. 7.

g. MSRN h. IMSI i. j. SIM EDGE

8. The switching functions of the GSM network are carried out by . 9. The theoretical maximum speed supported by GPRS network is 10. acts as the MSC of the GPRS network. .. V.

Answer the following:

11. In . Class of GPRS mobile , the GSM &GPRS can be simultaneously activated. 12. Network. 13. In EDGE network .. type of modulation is used. . .. is implemented to support data on Abis interface in the GPRS

1. Define a cell? What do you mean by sectorisation of cells? 2.Mention any 3 advantages of third generation systems? 3. Mention the following with respect to GSM: a. Duration of burst period: . b. No: of RF Carriers inGSM 900: . .

c. Frequency Bands for uplink & downlink: d. TDMA Frame duration: e Modulation Method:

14. 3G System is capable of providing data rate upto 15. The core band of IMT 2000 is II.Match the Following: 1 2. 3. 4. 5. 6. IMT2000 Burst Period IMSI TRAU GPRS HLR

f. No: of timeslots per RF Carrier: a. Reference database for sub parameters[ ] b. Rate Adapatation from 13kb/s to 64 kb/s[ ] c. packet data technology [ ] d. future standard for 3G services. [ ] e. 577 microsec [ ] f. Absolute identity of the subscriber[ ]

4.Mention any four functions of CSR ? 5. List the different stages in the network attachment process of a Mobile Station? 6 .Draw the schematic of migration of GSM network in BSNL towards 3G? 7.Define GPRS? What are the network elements of GPRS?

III.Expand the Following a. GPRS b. GMSC

Answer keys

23

24

I. Fill in the Blanks VI. 1. Frequency Reuse 2. Cochannel Cells 3. Cluster 4. GMSC 5. Location Area 6. FDMA/TDMA 7. IMT2000 8. MSC 9. 171.2KB/S 10. SGSN 11. Class A 12. PCU 13. 8PSK 14. 384Kb/s (slow moving) or 2Mb/s (stationary) 15. 1885-2025MHz , 2110-2200MHz II. Match The Following: 16. d 17. e 18. f 19. b 20. c 21. a III. Expand the Following a.GPRS b. GMSC c. WCDMA d. SMS e.RACH f. PDTCH g.MSRN h.IMSI i. SIM j EDGE General Packet Radio Service Gateway Mobile Switching Centre Wideband Code Division Multiple Access Short Message Service Random Access Channel Packet Data Traffic Channel Mobile Subscriber Roaming Number International Mobile Subscriber Identity Subscriber Identity Module Enhanced Data for GSM Evolution 4. 1.Customer Care Activities:Receipt of order forms and feeding them,/ Handling customer queries for services/ sale of prepaid cards/issuance of duplicate bills/Trouble ticketing. 2. Facility Provisioning and counseling on tariff plans. 3. Billing 4 Service provisioning aspects,Activation 5. Network Attachment process is the process of selecting an appropriate cell by the MS to provide available servicesand make its location known to the network. The different stages in the network attachment process are: 1.Cell Identification 2 PLMN Selection 1. Answer the following: A cell is the basic geographical unit of a cellular system. A cell represents the coverage area of BTS. Cells are represented in the shape of hexagons. Sectorisation of cells: Cells are further divided into smaller units called sectors. Each sector behaves as an independent cell. Directional antennas are made use of in sectored cells 2. a.More Bandwidth ,security and reliability/Fixed & Variable data rates./Backward compatibility of devices with existing networks b.New radio spectrum to relieve overcrowding in existing systems./ c.Rich Multimedia services/Asymmetric Data rates 3 b. Duration of burst period: 577 microseconds

b. No: of RF Carriers inGSM 900: 124 g. Frequency Bands for uplink & downlink: 890-915 MHz(U/L) 935-960 MHz(D/L) h. TDMA Frame duration: i. 4.615millisec

Modulation Method : GMSK

j. No: of timeslots per RF Carrier: 8

25

26

3. Cell Selection 6. GSM GPRS EDGE WCDMA

7. GPRS is a packet data technology which provides mobile data service to users of GSM mobile phones. GPRS system consists of additional network elements as mentioned below added to an existing GSM Network 1.PCU 2.SGSN 3.GGSN 4.BG 5.CG 6.DNS 7.Firewalls

2. EDGE uses ___________ modulation. 3. ITU vision of 3G standard is called ________________. Answers: 1IMT-2000 is the ITUs vision for 3G mobile system. Efficient use of the radio spectrum. Single Unified Standard. Anywhere Anytime Communication High speed packet data access. (144Kb/s, 384Kb/s& 2Mbps) Global Seamless Roaming. Integration of Terrestrial & Satellite components. Wide Range of Telecommunication Services.( Voice, Data, Multi-media, Internet ). Increased network efficiency and capacity. Backward compatibility with second generation(2G) systems. 2. 8PSK IMT 2000.

II
1.The maximum data rate of ___________ could be achieved with GPRS network a) 115kbps b) 171.2kbps c) 384kbps d) 2mbps 2.The GPRS user related data to perform routing is stored in _____________. a) SGSN b) GGSN c) HLR d)PCU 3.In GPRS _____________ provides the subscriber management and mobility management. a) OMC-G b)SGSN c)GGSN d) VLR 4.The translation between IP and IMSI is carried out by ___________ in GPRS network a) GGSN b) PDN c)GMSC d) PCU 5.Remote PCU means, the PCU implemented in _____________. a) BTS b)SGSN c)MSC d)BSC 6.The _____________ interface is introduced to provide packet data transport between BSS and GPRS backbone. a) Gb b)Abis c)Gn d)Gi 7.Call related CDRs are produced at some interval during the call, if ___________ a)Call hold b)CLIP c) LDC d)MOSMS 1.What are the 3 basic categories of CDR supported by MSC 2.Draw the network architecture of GPRS Key: 1.b, 2.c, 3.b, 4.a, feature is used.

III
1. GSM belongs to ______________________ generation of mobile systems. 2. The logical channel which acts as beacon is ____________________ 3. The interface between BSC and BTS is called _______________________ 4. In GSM, each RF carrier carries _____________________ timeslots. 5. An example of bearer service in GSM is ____________________________ 6. The modulation scheme used in EDGE is ___________________________ 7. The database that stores IMEI numbers of all registered mobile subscribers is called __________________________ 8. In WCDMA _______________________________________ feature is used to overload 9. The permanent identity of the user stored in the SIM and HLR is avoid system

___________________________ 10. WCDMA uses radio carrier having bandwidth of _____________________ State True/False 1. TMSI reallocation procedure is used to protect the user identity in the air interface. 2. The traffic handling capacity of a cellular system is large if the cluster size is large.

5.d,

6.a,

7.c

3. UMTS network uses only packet switching technology. 4. The logical channel RACH in GSM operates in the Downlink.

1. Write 3 features of 3G mobile communication.

27

28

5. RNC is connected to the core network using Iur interface. 6. The provisioning of services is the function of Basic Level CSR. 7. When MS moves from one location area to another a periodic location procedure is invoked by the system. 8. RF Band allocated for GSM downlink is 890 MHz 915 MHz 9. In softer handover a mobile station communicates with two or more base stations 10. Frequency Hopping is used in GSM to increase transmission quality and spectral efficiency Match the Following:

3.

The modulation technique used in GSM is (a) GMSK (b) QPSK (c) QAM The interface between MS and BTS is (a) A (b) A bis

(d) BPSK

4.

(c) Um

(d) B

5.

The identity which guarantees the integrity of a mobile on radio interface is (a) LMSI (b) TMSI (c) IMSI (d) MSRN The access technique used in GSM is (a) TDMA (b) FDMA MSRN is allocated by (a) MSC/VLR (b) HLR

6.

(c) CDMA

(d) FDMA/TDMA

7. 1. TDMA Frame 2. Location Area 3. TRAU 4. Burst Period 5. HLR 6. IMT 2000 a. packet data technology b. 577 micro sec c. Reference database d. 4.615 milli sec e. Single unified standard f. Rate Adaptation from 13 kbps to 64 kbps 7. SCH 8. GPRS g. Consists of many cells h. Used for synchronization 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8

(c) EIR

(d) AuC

Answer Key
1. 2. 3. 4. 5. 6. 7. d b a c b d a

Expand the Following 1. GPRS 2. IMEI 3. EDGE 4. WCDMA 5. BCCH 1. The channel bandwidth in GSM is (a) 25 KHz (b) 50 KHz

Write full form of following. 1. TRAU 2. TMSI 3. MSISDN 4. EIR 5. MSRN 6. UMTS 7. SGSN (c) 100 KHz (d) 200 KHz 8. CDR 9. EDGE 10. SDCCH 29 :

: : :

: : : : : : 30

2.

A group of cells where the available frequency spectrum is consumed is called (a) BTS site (b) Cluster (c) Location area (d) MSC area

b) BSC to MSC Fill in the Blank 1. UP link frequencies band in GSM-1800MHz ( 890-915/1805-1880/1710-1785 ) 2. Speech encoding $ decoding is performed in.( MS/BTS/BSC) 3. UMTS will support the data rate upto.Mbps ( 2/8/16) 4. Modulation Technique in GSM is ( BPSK/GMSK/QPSK) 5. HLR contains the Data base of subscriber ( Permanent/Temporary/None) 6. level CSR generates the duplicate bills ( 1st /2nd / None) 7. GPRS isbased switching ( Circuit/ Packet) 8. Duplex spacing in GSM 1800 isMHz ( 20/ 45/75 ) 9. EIR is connected to( HLR/ VLR/MSC) 10. GSM works on ..( TDMA+FDMA/ TDMA/ CDMA/ FDMA) Match the following 1. AGCH 2. GMSK 3. UMTS 4. Speech coder 5. OMC-R Tick the correct Answer 1. Down link frequency in GSM is a) 935-960 MHz b) 890-915 MHz c) 824-849 MHz d) 860-894 MHz 2. Up link is between a) BTS to MS d) 3G b) HLR e) is used in down link direction c) HLR & Visited VLR d) MSC 6. Echo cancel equipment is used between a) MSC-MSC b) MSC-PSTN c) MSC-BSC d) None of the above 7. In one burst of GSM the number of information data bits are a) BSS d) None of the above b) RPE-LTP 5. Location information of a subscriber is available in c) Method of Modulation a) VLR c) MS to BTS d) MSC to HLR 3. Total number of RF channels per carries available in GSM a) 124 b) 50 c) 8 d) None of the above 4. BSS consists of a) MS & BTS b) BTS & BSC c) BSC & MSC

31

32

a) 57 b) 2 c) 114 d) 8 8. The duration of a burst is a) 4.165 ms b) 0.577 ms c) 3.9 ns d) 125 ms

4. EIR- Equipment Identity Register 5. MSRN- Mobile Subscriber Roaming Number 6. UMTS- Universal Mobile Telecommunication System 7. SGSN- Service / serving GPRS Support Node 8. CDR- Call Detailed Record 9. EDGE- Enhanced Data rate for GSM Evolution 10. SDCCH- Standalone Dedicated Control channel Fill in the Blank. 1. 1710-1785 2. MS

9. Maximum data rate achieved in GPRS is 3. 2 a) 144 kbps 4. GMSK b) 171.2 kbps 5. Permanent c) 384 kbps 6. 2nd d) 2 Mbps 7. Packet 10. The Maximum allowed output power of GSM portable terminal 8. 75 a) 0.2 Watt 9. MSC b) 2 Watt 10. FDMA+TDMA c) 8 Watt d) 20 Watt
ANSWER. Write full form of following.

Match the following 1- e 2- c 3- d 4- b 5- a Tick the following 1. a 33 34

1. TRAU- Transcoder Rate Adapter Unit 2. TMSI- Temporary Mobile Subscriber Identity 3. MSISDN- Mobile Station International subscriber directory Number

2. c 3. c 4. b 5. c

5. Down link is from .to( MS to BTS, BTS to MS ) 6. Down link in GSM 900 is to..MHz ( 824/849, 935/960, 890/915 ) 7. Number of Time slots per carrier is .( 8, 12, 42 ) 8. The CCS 7 protocol stack comprises of layers ( 4,9,3) 9. Types of Modulation in GSM( QPSK, PSK, GMSK) 10. UMTS is Generation ( 2, 2.5 , 3 ) QC. Write True or False ( 10 Marks)

6. b 7. c 8. b 9. b 10. c Questions Write full form of following. 1. ISDN : 2. GMSC 3. PSTN 4. OMC 5. IMSI 6. SIM 7. AUC 8. UMTS 9. CDR 10. GGSN : : : : : : : : 11. Trans power in GSM-BTS is 20 W 12. Interface between BSC & OMC is X.25 13. Handover of cells within BSC is controlled by the same BSC 14. BSC is a main switching center of GSM 15. Adjacent cells use the same frequency in GSM 16. Maximum cell Radius is 25 KMs in GSM 17. The AUC is used for security purposes 18. Wireless billing information is available in CDR 19. Up link is from BTS to MS 20. Spacing between two adjacent RF is 0.2 MHz QD Answer all the questions 1. Write types of cells 2. Write different types of interfaces 3. Write different types of Handover in GSM 4.Write BW, UL, DL and no. of carriers in GSM 900 and GSM 1800 5. Write different types of frames in GSM 6. What are the different types of services in GSM 7. Write different types of Protocols in GSM 8.Write two entities of GPRS 9. What is the difference between CAS & CCS? 10.Write the different types of signaling units QB. Fill in the Blank

11.what is the advantages of LI ?

1. BSC and BTS are connected withlink ( E1,X.25, Abis) 2. SIM card is protected by a digit PIN ( 2,4,6 ) 3. A is the area served by network operator ( CGI, L.A.I, PLMN) 4. Frequency BW in GSM 900 is MHz ( 25, 30, 25 ) QE Match the following 1. GSM a. 2.5 G

35

36

2. Co Channel interference 3. UMTS 4. MCC 5. GPRS 6. Cluster 7. UL 8. Ki 9. GSM 1800 10. Duration of Timeslot Tick the correct Answer

b. c. d. e. f. g. h. i. j.

75 MHz MS to BTS GMSK AUC 3 digital code 0.577 msec D/R 7 cells 2 Mbps

1. GSM uses the following Technique a. CDMA b. FDMA c. TDMA d. FDMA & TDMA 2. Down link frequency in GSM is a. 935-960 MHz b. 890-915 MHz c. 824-849 MHz d. 860-894 MHz 3. Channel Bandwidth in GSM is a. 1.25 MHZ b. 0.2 MHz c. 200 GHz d. 800 MHz 4. Up link is between a. BTS to MS b. BSC to BSC c. MS to BTS d. MSC to HLR 5. Total number of RF Channels per Carrier available in GSM a. 124 b. 50 c. 8 d. None of the above 6. BSS consists of a. MS & BTS b. BTS & BSC c. BSC & MSC d. None of the above 7. Location information of a subscriber is available in a. VLR b. HLR c. HLR & Visited VLR

d. MSC 8. Type of Modulation used in GSM a. QPSK b. BPSK c. GMSK d. GFSK 9. Echo cancel equipment is used between a. MSC-MSC b. MSC-PSTN c. MSC-BSC d. None of the above 10. The typical cluster contains a. 13 cells b. 7 cells c. 8 cells d. 9 cells 11. In one burst of GSM the number of information bits are a. 57 b. 2 c. 114 d. 8 12. The duration of a burst is a. 4.165 ms b. 0.577 ms c. 3.9 us d. 125 ms 13. Frequency hopping in GSM system a. Increases the effect of co- channel interface b. Reduces the effect of co- channel interface c. Neutralize the effect of co- channel interface d. None of the above 14. In GSM system, OMC-R is the a. Centralized maintenance and diagnostic heart of the MSC b. Centralized maintenance and diagnostic heart of the NSS c. Centralized maintenance and diagnostic heart of the BSS d. Centralized maintenance and diagnostic heart of the BTS 15. Maximum data rate achieved in GPRS is a. 144 Kbps b. 171.2 Kbps c. 384 Kbps d. 2 Mbps 16. CCS systems transfer signals at the rate of a. 64 Kbps b. 144 Kbps c. 171.2 Kbps d. 384 Kbps

37

38

17. In CCS 7 protocol stack comprises of a. 4 layers b. 5 layers c. 6 layers d. 3 layers 18. Area served by one network operator a. PLMN b. LAI c. CGI d. MSC Area . Write full form of the following
1) 2) 3) 4) 5) 6) 7) 8) 9) 10) ISDN GMSC PSTN OMC IMSI SIM AUC UMTS CDR GGSN : Integrated Services Digital Network : Gateway Mobile services Switching Center : Public switched Telephone Network : Operation and Maintenance Centre : International Mobile Subscriber Identity : Subscriber Identity Module : Authentication Center: : Universal Mobile Telecommunications System : Call Detail Record : Gateway GPRS Support Node

Answer all the questions 1.Micro, selective ,umbralla , large,small,pico 3.

2.Um, Abis, M ,A, B, C , D , E ,F,G, X.25 a. Handover of channels in the same cell b. Handover of cells in the same BSC c. Handover of BSC in the same MSC

d.Handover of MSC 4. GSM 900 GSM1800 BW 25MHz 75MHz UL 890-915MHz 1710-1785MHz DL 935-960MHz 1805-1880MHz No.of Carriers 124 374 a.TDMA frame b. Multiframe c. Superframe d. Hyperframe a.Tele services b.Bearer Services c. Supplementary services LAPDm,LAPD & DTAP and MAP 1) SGSN 2) GGSN In CAS speech and signaling follows the same path whereas in CCS, Speech and signaling follows in different paths. MSU,FISU,LSSU. To identify MSU,FISU & LSSU

5.

6.

7. 8. 9. 10. 11.

Fill in the Blank 1. Abis 2. 4 3. PLMN 4. 25 5. BTS to MS 6. 935 to 960 7. 8 8. 4 9. GMSK 10. 3 Write True or False 1. T 2. T 3. T 4. F 5. F 6. F 7. T 8. T 9. F 10. T

Match the following 1.d 2.h 3.j 4.f 5.a 6.i 7.c 8.e 9.b 10.g Tick the correct Answer 1. D 2. A 3. B 4. C 5. C 6. B 7. C 8. C 39 40

9. B 10. B 11. C 12. B 13. B 14. C 15. B 16. A 17. A 18. A

2. The value of S./N required for CDMA system is low.(T) 3. In reverse link the channels are separated by long codes. .(T) 4. The down link frequency range in 800 MHZ is 869-894 Mhz.(T) 5. DIU will function as a local exchange using R2MF signaling.(T) C) Give the expansion for the following: 1. IWF (Interworking function) 2. RBF 3. SACFA

CDMA WLL I A) FILL UP THE BLANKS WITH SUITABLE WORDS: 1. The spread spectrum signal rate is __________________ Mbps.(1.2288) 2. Maximum data rate in IS 95A network is ______________ Kbps.(14.4) 3. The digital modulation method used in CDMA system is _______________.(QPSK) 4. Non CDMA calls are routed through _______________________.(MSC) 5. Voice coding rate used in Cor Dect system __32_____________ Kbps. 6. Maximum number of CBS connected to one BSD is _________4__________. 7. LG system will function as a Access Network when the BSC is connected to PSTN using ___V5.2 signaling. 8. Fixed wireless stations whose mast / tower height does not exceed _____________ meters comes undermost height category. 9. OMC used for the mtce of MSS is _____________________.(OMC-S) 10. Forward Link traffic channels ----(Walsh code) 11. Cell sector identification 12. Sub identification -----(PN short code) ------(PN long code)

4. DJU 5. ESN(Electronic serial number) D) Answer the following questions: 1. What are the informations provided by HLR ? Sub parameters like MDN,MIN,IMSI,ESA,LAI,services offered. 2. Draw the schematic route connection for a fixed subscriber when calls to mobile subscriber. Telephone LE TAX MSC BSC BTS MS

3. Mention the codes used in CDMA system and their use. Walsh code, PN short code, PN long code E. Draw the schematic diagram CDMA cellular mobile communications system.

II
1. Forward link power control command bits are punctured in the _______. a. F-FCH b. F-PCH c. R-FCH d. R-PICH

2. Application form for full siting category stations is done in _______. a. WPC S-1 b. WPC S-4 c. WPC S-2 d. None of these

3. Fundamental Channel F-FCH can support data, voice or signaling multiplexed with one another at any rate from ___________ to ___________. a. 750 bps to 14.4 kbps c. 14.4 kbps to 153.6 kbps b. 750 bps to 9.6 kbps d. 14.4 kbps to 307.2 kbps

13. Reverse Link traffic channels ------( PN long code) B) STATE TRUE OR FALSE IF FALSE CORRRECT THE UNDERMENTIONED PORTION:

1. CDMA 2000 IX supports Voice and Data.(T)

4. Which of the following is not an enhanced feature of CDMA2000 1X ? a. Quick Paging channel

41

42

b. Synchronisation of base station to Universal Coordinated Time c. Reverse link gated transmission d. Forward Pilot channel 5. Which is the method adopted for assigning a Supplemental Channel for a very large duration to users that need to download a large amount of data and release that SCH as soon as the user becomes idle? a. Infinite duration c. Pseudo finite assignment b. Pseudo infinite assignment d. Fixed assignment

3. P S P D N 4. B T S 5. B S M 6. PN 7. FEC 8. HO 9. IMSI 10. EVDO

Fill up the blanks with correct Answer

1. BSC and BTS are connected with Link ( E1, FATM, X.25 ) 2. BSC works on volt DC ( -12, -48, -64 )

Fill up the blanks: 1. The number used to identify a WLL Handset is _____________. 2. If the antenna height is less than 20 meters and distance from Air port is more than 7 km, No Objection is to be obtained from __________________ ________________________________ 3. In CDMA, channel bandwidth is ___________________________ 4. The power on reverse link is controlled by ________________________ and

3. Number of Active Channels between BTS to MS are .to.. per sector per RF carrier(12to24, 20to40) 4. Traffic channels are separated by code ( Walsh, Short, Long ) 5. CDMA IS-95 can support Maximum.BTS ( 12/20/48)

Write True or False

1. One BSC can control max. 48 BTS in cdma-IS-95. 2. Interface between BSC & OMC is X.25. 3. Softer hand off is between the BTSs. 4. BSC may be a switching center in IS-95. 5. Adjacent cells are in forward link 6. Walsh codes are Traffic Channel codes 7. Access channels are in Forward CDMA channel 8. Short code is known as users address mask 9. Up link is from BTS to MS

________________________mechanisms. 5. A single SCH provides a data rate of upto ___________ FCH in CDMA2000 Release 0 and upto _____________ FCH in CDMA2000 Release A. 6. The database used for storing the data of all the subscribers who are entering the coverage area is ______________________. 7. The Downlink Frequency band in CDMA _____________________. 8. The validity of a WLL subscriber is checked by _____________________. 9. The common time reference due to synchronization of _________________ in a network has improved the acquisition of channels and hand off procedures. 10. The OMC terminal connected to the switch is called ___________________ and that connected to BSS is called _____________________

10. Spacing between adjacent RF is 0.2 MHz Match the following

1. Walsh Code 2. Spacing in RF a) Short Code b) c) d) e) China Made BTS 1.25 MHz Forward Channel

Write full form of following.

1. I W F 2. M S C

3. ZTE 4. Identity of Cell & Sector 5. HPA

43

44

b. 70 Kbps

Answer the following

1. Write types of Codes in CDMA? 2. Write different types of interfaces in CDMA 2000 ? 3. Write different variants ( flavor ) of CDMA? 4. Write the Advantages of CDMA? 5. Write services provided in CDMA 2000?

c. 144 Kbps d. 171.2 Kbps 4. Frequency Band for cor-DECT in BSNL is a. 1800 to 1820 MHz b. 1840 to 1860 MHz c. 1880 to 1900 MHz d. 1940 to 1960 MHz 5. Distance between a CBS & RBS is a. 4 Kms b. 10 Kms c. 25 Kms d. 50 Kms Fill in the Blanks 1. Maximum number of .OMC in one DIU ( 1/2/5) 2. Transmit power of CBS is..( 250mW/ 20 W/ 40 W ) 3. In cor-DECT WLL.. Modulation is used ( GFSK/ GMSK/ QPSK) 4. Maximum number of ..subscribers in one DIU ( 10/ 100/ 1000 ) 5. Internet Access is supported at .Kbps in cor-DECT ( 35/ 70/ Both )

cor-DECT WLL Write the full form of following

1. WS 2. DIU 3. RBS 4. RAS 5. BSD

Tick the correct Answer.

1. Cor- DECT System works on a. 16 Kbps b. 32 Kbps c. 64 Kbps d. 128 Kbps 2. One CBS can handle Maximum a. 10 simultaneous voice calls b. 11 simultaneous voice calls c. 12 simultaneous voice calls d. 15 simultaneous voice calls 3. Maximum Data Rate possible for a subscriber is a. 35 Kbps

Write full form of the following

1. IWF: Inter Working Function 2. MSC: Mobile Switching Centre 3. PSPDN: Packet Switched Public Data Network 4. BTS: Base Transceiver Subsystem 5. BSM: Base Station Manager 6. PN: Pseudo random Noise

45

46

7. FEC: Forward Error Correction 8. HO: Hand off/ Handover 9. IMSI: International Mobile Subscriber Identity 10. EVDO: Evolution for Data Only

3. When a mobile terminal is traveling in a network, if the pilot strength from a BTS falls below the Drop Threshold, it is added to the Active set. 4. In the CDMA transmission system, soft handoff technology refers to the inter-cell handoff using connecting to the new cell after disconnecting the original one. 5. Long PN Codes differentiate base stations. Expand the following: 4. Walsh 5. 48 20 to 40

Fill up the blanks with correct Answer

1. E1 2. -48 3.

1. TADD 2. EVDO 3. TLDN

True or False 1.T 2.T 3.F Match the following 1-e 2-d Answer the Following
1. A. Walsh .

4.T

5.T

6.T

7.F

8. F

9.F 10.F

3- b

4- a

5-c

4. MIN 5. NID 1.
D. W CDMA

B. Long.

C. Short.

D. PN

2. Abis, A, B, C, D, E, F, N, X 25, CCS#7, Um 3. A. CDMA IS-95A, IS-95B B. CDMA 20001X:EVDO,EVDV C.CDMA 2000

4. Large Capacity, Vocoder & Variable data rate, Less power per cell, Seamless Handoff, High Tolerance to interference, No frequency planning, Multiple diversity. 5. Provide wire line voice quality, FAX, SMS, VMS, Internet at 144 Kbps.

The bandwidth required for a single CDMA channel is (a) 1.2288 MHZ (b) 2.048 MHZ (c) 5 MHZ (d) 25 MHZ The BSC will function as Local Exchange, when it is connected to PSTN using (a) V 5.1 interface (b) V 5.2 interface (c) R2MF signalling (d) Proprietary Signalling The Multiple Access Method used in CDMA Technology is (a) FDMA (b) TDMA (c) FDMA/TDMA (d) CDMA The bandwidth used for CDMA Technology is (a) 864 868 MHZ (b) 1427 1525 MHZ (c) 824 849 MHZ & 869 894 MHZ (d) 1880 1900 MHZ The concentration facility is performed in (a) BTS (b) BSC

2.

Cor-DECT WLL ( Answer) Write the full form of following 1. WS: Wall Set 2. DIU: DECT Interface Unit 3. RBS: Relay Base Station 4. RAS: Remote Access Switch 5. BDS: Base Station Distributor Tick the correct Answer. 1.b, 2.c , 3.b, 4.c, 5.c Fill in the blanks.
1. 2 , 2. 250mW, 3. GFSK, 4. 1000, 5. Both

3.

4.

11.

State True or False 5.

1. The basic frame length of 20 ms is divided into 16 equal power control groups. 2. The reverse link power control command bits are punctured into R-FCH or R-DCCH.

47

48

(c) MSC (d) NMS KEY:1-a,2-c,3-d,4-c,5-b.

1 BSC and OMC are connected with . Link 2. BSC works on .. Volt DC. 3 . .Hand Off is between sectors in the same BTS. (E1, X.25, A) (24,- 48, -64 ) (Soft, Softer, Hard) (25, 30, 50) (0.2, 1.25, 45 MHz) (824/849, 869/894, 890/915)

a) Frequency band is .. to. ..MHz b) Transmit power during burst is mw c) DECT works on . multiple access. d) Number of time slots per carrier is e) DECT can support more than data rates .

4. WLL can work on maximum . Degree Centigrade Temperature. 5. R F spacing is MHz 6. Forward Frequency ...to MHz 7. Number of Active channels between BTS & MS are,..to 8. Modulation technique in CDMA is . 9. Traffic channels are separated by Code. 10. Long code is based on .. characteristic polynomials.

f) One BSD can support ..number CBS g) Maximum distance between CBS & WS is Km. h) Maximum distance between BSD & CBS is .. Km

(12/24, 20/40,40/60) i) Maximum distance between CBS & RBS is Km

(GFSK, QPSK, GMSK) j)A built in-battery provides hrs talk time for voice call. ( Walsh, Long, Short) (15,42,64) a) b) c) d) e) One DIUs can support 1000 subscribers. Maximum 5 CBS can be connected to one BSD. One Carrier can supports maximum 10 channels at a time. Voice coding is 32 kbps ADPCM . One DIU can support max. 20 CBSs. T F F T T

ANSWER
1. BSC and OMC are connected with X.25. Link 2.BSC works on -48.. Volt DC. 3.Softer .Hand Off is between sectors in the same BTS. (24,- 48, -64 ) (Soft, Softer, Hard)

4.WLL can work on maximum 50. Degree Centigrade Temperature. (25, 30, 50) 5.R F spacing is 1.25 MHz (0.2, 1.25, 45 MHz)

write full form : a) WS = Wall Set b) DIU = DECT Inter face Unit c) RBS= Relay Base Station d) RAS = Remote Access Switch e) BSD= Base Station Distributor Fill up blank :a) Frequency band is 1880.. to1900. MHz b) Transmit power during burst is 250mw c) DECT works on Time Division multiple access. d) Number of time slots per carrier is 12. e) DECT can support more than 32 data rates .

6.Forward Frequency 869 ...to 894MHz (824/849, 869/894, 890/915) 7. Number of Active channels between BTS & MS are, 20..to40 (12/24, 20/40,40/60) 8. Modulation technique in CDMA is QPSK. (GFSK, QPSK, GMSK) 9.Traffic channels are separated by Walsh Code. (Walsh, Long, Short) 10.Long code is based on 42.. characteristic polynomials. (15,42,64) (1) State True / False :5 Marks a) One DIUs can support 1000 subscribers. b) Maximum 5 CBS can be connected to one BSD. c) One Carrier can supports maximum 10 channels at a time. d) Voice coding is 32 kbps ADPCM . e) One DIU can support max. 20 CBSs. Q. (2) Write full form : a) WS : b) DIU : c) RBS : d) RAS : e) BSD : Q. (3) Fill up blanks :5 Marks

f) One BSD can support 4..number CBS 10 Marks g) Maximum distance between CBS & WS is 10Km.

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16. The frame FO carries ..in TS16.(MFAW)

h) Maximum distance between BSD & CBS is 1.. Km i) Maximum distance between CBS & RBS is 25Km

17. The 30 channel system follows .. interleaving method.(Bit)

j) A built in-battery provides 3hrs talk time for voice call.

Answer the following: 1.Mention the processing steps involved in the formation of a PCM signal from an analog signal? Filtering,Sampling,Quantising,Encoding,&Line coding

PCM
I. Fill in the Blanks 1. The process of translating individual speech circuits into preassigned frequency slots within the bandwidth of the medium is called (FDM) 2. The sharing of transmission medium by a number of circuits in the time domain by making use of time slots is called (TDM) 3. . is a measure of the amplitude of a signal evaluated over a small duration over which the value of the signal changes over a negligible amount.(Sampling) 4. The sampling frequency is . .> 2f max 5. The process of breaking down a continous amplitude into a number of discrete levels is called (Quantisation) 6. There are .. number of quantising intervals in PCM.(256) 7. The two methods of quantisation are and (Linear and non linear) 8. The stepsize varies according to signal levels in . type of quantisation.( non linear) 9. CCITT has recommended .. law for companding for 30 channel PCM.(A) 10. There are . Number of timeslots in s 30 channel PCM.(32) 11. The duration of one timeslot in PCM is ..3.9micro seconds 12. The bit duration is .. and frame duration is (488 nanoseconds ,125 microseconds) 13. timeslot is reserved for carrying signaling and . is reserved for carrying synchronization information.(TS16 , TS 0) 14. Duration of Multiframe is .(2 milliseconds) 15. In even frames TS0 carries . and odd frames TS0 carries ..(FAW and Alarm signal)

2. Answer the following with respect to a PCM frame?

a. Total number of bits per frame : 256 b. Total number of frames per second:8000 c. Total number of bits per second:2048 Kbps d. Duration of a PCM Frame :125 micro seconds e. Duration of one timeslot: 3.9 micro seconds f. Duration of PCM multiframe:2 milli seconds 3. Mention the format of 8 bit en coded signal indicating the purpose of the bits? P ABC WXYZ P-Polarity bit ,ABC Segment code , WXYZ level in that segment State true or false 1. The first bit of the encoded signal indicates the polarity of the signal.(T) 2. Timeslot zero of every frame carries the FAW.(F) 3. The duration of multiframe is 125 microseconds. .(F) 4. Linear quantization method is used to realize segmented quantization in PCM.(F) 5. Timeslot 16 is used to carry signaling information. .(T)

OFC & S
FILL IN THE BLANKS CHOOSING THE APPROPRIATE ANSWER FROM THE BRACKET

1)

For optical fibre transmission the range of wavelength used is ___________ in the infrared

region. (0.8 to 1.6 m, 0.5 to 1.3 m, 1.6 to 2 m) 2) Velocity of light in optical fibre is _________ compared to that in air. (more, less, same)

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3) Refractive index of core is _________ that of cladding. (same as, greater than, less than) 4) ____________ fibre propagate light through a number of paths within the core. (single mode, multimode) 5) Spreading of light pulse in fibre is caused by ____________(attenuation, dispersion) 6) Single mode fibre has ________ bandwidth. ( large, small) 7) For connections inside the equipment room __________ fibre is used. (loose tube, tight tube) 8) In the OF cable used by BSNL, the diameter of the core is ________ and the diameter of the cladding is ______(50 m, 125 m, 8 m, 140 m) 9) Jelly is filled in the jacket to protect from _____________ (moisture, chemical action) 10) The standard depth of OF cable trench is ____________(1.4m, 1.5m, 1.65m)

b) A heavily doped intrinsic layer separates a lightly doped p-type and n-type materials

c) None of the above 4) Pumping threshold is required for the operation of a) b) c) LED Laser Diode Both LED and Laser Diode

5) Spectral width of Laser is a) b) c) More than that of LED Less than that of LED Equal to that of LED

6) In PIN diode the absorption of photos takes place in I.

MATCH A SIDE WITH APPROPRIATE CHOICE FROM B SIDE

a) b) c)

P region I region N region

a) Numerical aperture b) Modal dispersion c) Dispersion shifted fibre d) Minimum attenuation e) Spectral width f) Rayleigh scattering g) Wave guide dispersion III

1) 2) 3) 4) 5) 6) 7)

Triangular profile Light gathering ability Multimode Source Single mode fibre Wavelength dependent 1550nm

7) In APD secondary carriers are carried in a) b) c) a) b) c) High field region Drift region Diffusion region A/W W/A A simple ratio

Answer the following questions by putting a tick mark to the most appropriate answer.

8) Responsivity is expressed as

1) When a LED or a LD is used as the optical source, it should be --------------. a) Forward biased b) Reverse biased c) Either forward biased or reverse biased depending upon signal strength. 2) Concentration of radiation and improved coupling efficiency are provided by a) Surface emitter LED b) Edge emitter LED c) Both are equally efficient 3) In PIN diodes
a) A lightly doped intrinsic layer separates the more heavily doped p-type and n-type materials

9) To be adequately detected, the optical signal should be at least a) b) Twice the noise current Four times the noise current

10) Optical line code is a) b) Unipolar Bipolar

11) 5B 6B code should not contain more than a) 5 identical bits

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b) c)

6 identical bits 11 identical bits

4) In the 2nd order D-MUX frames a) b) c) a) b) c) d) VI. Bits from 4 primary PCM streams are interleaved PCM words (8 bits) from primary PCM systems are interleaved. Samples of speech from 120 channels are interleaved. Multiplexer unit Demultiplexer unit Alarm unit Interface unit

12) If the RDS = +2, the change of state is from a) b) c) State 1 to state 2 State 2 to state 1 Continues to remain in state 1

5) The alarm bit in bit position No:11 in the frame structure is detected in

13) When the decoder in the uncertain state receives the next word with RDS equal to zero a) It continues to remain in the uncertain state b) It goes to state 1 c) It goes to state 2 IV Say True or False. If False correct the underlined portion.(w.r.to 30 Chl PCM) 1) The duration of a frame is 125 micro sec 2) Sampling rate of VF channel is 8000 times/sec 3) Sampling rate of signaling information is 1000 times/sec 4) Line code used for 2.048 mb/s is HDB3 5) Frame alignment word is sent in TS0 of even frames V. Answer the following questions with respect to 2nd order digital mux by putting a tick mark against the most appropriate answer. 1) Time slot 161 in the frame always contain a) b) c) a) b) c) a) b) c) Four justification bits per tributary A justification control bit per tributary Justification bit or information bit, one per tributary 8 1 4 Writing the tributary data into the buffer memory of the multiplexer Reading the data from the buffer memory in the demultiplexer unit Writing the data into the buffer memory of the demultiplexer unit 55 III II.

Fill in the blanks suitably by choosing most appropriate choice from the brackets

( w.r.to 140 Mb HFCL System) 1) HFCL 140 Mb/s uses _________ window on single mode fibre. ( 1st , 2nd , 3rd ) 2) The interface line code used for the 2/34 muldex unit is ______ (HDB3, CMI, AMI) 3) In an HFCL cabinet, a maximum of _____ systems can be equipped. (2,4,6) 4) The output of the power supply unit are _________ (+10v,+5v, -10v,-5v) 5) The signal code used for 140 Mb/s is _________ (HDB3, CMI, 5B 6B). OFC & S (KEY) I. 1. 2. 3. 4. 5. a) b) c) d) 0.8 TO 1.6 m Less Greater than Multimode dispersion 2 3 1 7 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 a b a b b b a e) f) g) 4 6 5 6. large 7. tight tube 8. 8 m, 125 m 9. moisture 10. 1.65 M

2) The number of 11-bit elastic store per multiplexer unit is

3) Perforated clock of 2112kb/s is used for

8. 9. 10. 11. 12. 13.

a a a a a a

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IV 1 2 3 4 5 V 1 2 3 4 5 VI 1. 2. 3. 4. 5. c c c a b 2nd HDB3 4 +5v & -5v CMI True True False, 500 True True

a-variable a-3rd b-4th

b-constant c-5th

c-a and b both d-6th

d-none of these

11. AU pointer bytes are available in .row of STM frame structure 12. SNCP method is providing a. a-line protection b-path protection c-both line & path protection 13. Bit rate of STM-16 is aboutGb/s 14. SDH can not accommodate mbps PDH signal 15. In BSNL only .. fiber ring mechanism is being adopted a- 1 b- 2 c- 3 d- 4 16. DWDM stands for. 17. DWDM system operates in.window a- 1st b- 2nd c- 3rd d- none of these 18. Wavelength range of C-conventional band and L-long band is ..and .. respectively

II
. 1 Fill in the Blanks and tick the correct answer

19. Wavelength used for supervisory channel is.nm in DWDM system a-1510 b-1530 c-1565 d-1625 20. Channel spacing of 32 channel DWDM system is Ghz 21. .fibre is recommended for DWDM system by ITU-T a- G.652 a- CDFA b- G.653 b- DDFA c- G.654 c EDFA d- G.655 d- FDFA 22. Most popular amplifier used in DWDM

1. SDH stands for . 2. No. of rows and columns in STM-1 frame are . and . a- 9 and 270 b- 10 and 270 c- 9 and 260 d- 8 and 280 3. Frame duration of STM-1 frame ismicroseconds 4. Multiplex section is the section between. a- Terminal and regenerator equipment c- Two regenerator equipment a-more than b-less than c-exactly b- Two Terminal equipment d- b and c b-none of these

5. Bit rate of STM-16 is 16 times of STM-1 6. Pointer is an indicator whose value defines frame .of a VC 7. C-3 container can not accommodate ..mbps bit rate a- 140 b- 34 c-45 d-none of these c-parity check d-protection c-parity check d-protection 8. K-1 & K-2 bytes in STM frame structure are used for . a-frame alignment a-frame alignment b-order wire b-order wire 9. E-1 & E-2 bytes in STM frame structure are used for . 10. GFP is a mechanism of mapping bit rate data into SDH

23. A satellite link is similar to a terrestrial M/W link with two hops, the satellite playing role of . 24. The frequency used from satellite to earth station is known as 25. The uplink freq. of C-band is ...to.GHz 26. The Geo-stationary satellite is at about.Km from earth. 27. The center of a communication network is called 28. Hub station for Ku band services located at 29. Downlink frequency used in Sat. Com in C- band a- 4 GHz a. Bangalore b- 6 GHz b- Kolkata c- 8 GHz c- Hasan d- 2 GHz d- Sikandrabad 30. Hub station for DSPT located at 31. VSAT is not known as-

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a-Micro E/S b- Mini E/S c-Roof Top Terminal d-Main E/S 32. DSPT stands for .. 33. The hub station for DSPT is located at 34. LNB is a part of .in Ku band VSAT a- outdoor unit b- indoor unit c- none of these 35. Period of revolution of Geostationary satellite is. Answer 1 1. Synchronous Digital Hierarchy 2. a 3. 125 4. b 5. c 6. location 7. a 8. d 9. b 10. c 11. b 12. b 13. 2.5 14. 8 15. b 16. dense wavelength division multiplexing 17. c 18. 1530-1565 and 1565-1625 19. a 20. 100 21. d 22. c 23. repeater 24. down link 25. 5.925 to 6.425 26. 36000 27. hub 28. Bangalore 29. a 30. d 31. d 32. Digital Satellite Phone Terminal 33. Sikandrabad (UP) 34. a 35. 24 hrs Choose the correct answer 1.One PCM stream has _________ VF channels 1) 24 2) 32 3) 30 2.Output of the PCM line coder is ______________code. 1) HDB3 2) AMI 3) CMI 3.STM1 frame is represented by a matrix of _____________________________ 1) 9 rows & 270 columns 2) 270 rows & 9 columns 3) 9 rows & 261 columns 4.When diffraction increases ,band width of fibre ________ 1) decreases 2) increases 3) remains the same 5.Each byte in SDH payload represents a 1) 2Mbps 2) 64Kbps 3) 8bps 6.Bit rate of STM1 Signal is _________________________. 1) 155.52 Mbps 2) 155.52 Gbps 3) 155.52 Kbps 7.STM1 can accommodate _____________ number of 2 Mbps tributaries. 1) 64 1) same 2) more 3) less 9.Jelly filled in buffer tube is to protect from _________________ 59 60 2)63 3)21 8.Spectral width of LASER is _________________ than that of LED

1) Rodents 2) Acidity 3) Moisture 10.The tool used to remove the primary coating of fibre 1) Cleaver 2) Stripper 3) Sheath remover 11.For connections inside equipment room _____________ cable is used 1) Tight buffered 2) Loose buffered 3) Unbuffered 12.Standard depth of OF Cable Trench is ______________ 1) 1 m 2) 1.5 m 3) 1.65 m 13.OTDR uses the following principle for its working 1) back scattering 2) dispersion 3) diffraction
14.Part of optical connector used for alignment of fibre is 1) Ferrule 2) Adapter 3) Connector body 15.Light gathering capacity of fibre is expressed as 1) dispersion 2) attenuation 3) numerical aperture

BROAD BAND 1.What are the elements in Broadband Multiplay aggregation network? 1. BNG (Broadband Network gateway) 2. RPR Tier1/Tier2 switch 3. OC LAN switch 2.What are the components of PMS? Motive and Metasolv 3.Write any one multicasting protocol supported by BNG? PIM (Protocol Independent Multicasting), IGMP (Internet group management protocol) and Multicast routing. Choose the Correct answer 4.Which device is acting as the gateway of the Broadband traffic towards the MPLS core? BNG, OCLAN Switch, DSLAM 5.The OC LAN switch is deployed as (Tier 2) network device in the BSNL Multi play DSLAM, Tier 1, Tier 2, BNG Fill in the Blanks 6.The application system responsible to present a web portal to the eligible subscribers to enable request for various Multi play services is Subscriber Service Selection System (SSSS). 7.The (RADIUS based server) server will authenticate subscriber credentials with the help of LDAP. 8.RPR technology is optimized for robust and efficient packet networking over (fiber ring) topology. 9.Provisioning of services on the network elements using the EMS is facilitated by ASAP(Automated Service Activation Program ) application. Question Bank of NIB-II PROJECT SERVICES 1) 2) 3) 4) 5) 6) 7) 8) All A2,A3 nodes of NIB-II Project-I are dual mesh to A1 using . ( STM-16) All B1,B2 nodes of NIB-II Project-I are dual mesh to A using . ( STM-1) NIB-II Project-1 is for(MPLS VPN or MPLS based IP infrastructure) NIB-II Project-2.1 is for (Access Gateway Platform for Narrowband internet) NIB-II Project-2.2 is for(Access Gateway Platform for Broadband internet) NIB-II offers fully managed services to customers. (TRUE) NIB-II offers Bandwidth on demand over the same network. (TRUE) List out any four services offered by NIB-II project. Internet access, VPN, VAS, Messaging, BB services through DSL and Direct Ethernet.

II.Expand the following HDB3 CMI STM DWDM

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9) What are the services offered in NIB-II Project-3 Messaging and storage service Provisioning, Billing and Customer care Enterprise Management Systems Security systems 10) What are the components of narrow band access network in NIB-II Narrow band RAS LAN switch EMS Server (Element Management System) NIB-ISP 1.NIB_II has been implemented in --- projects (3) 2.NIB1 is connected to NIBII under ---project ( Project2.1) 3.---------router is used in the core network( CISCO 12416) 4.Core A1 nodes are available ---- locations (5) 5.Data center of NIB_II is at ---------( Bangalore)

4.What are the components of DNS? 5.Name 4 commonly used top domain names? 6.Explain how DNS works? True/False (1 each) 1. DNS servers, also called as name servers 2. DNS traces its origins to ARPANET Network Security 1.Define what is network security ? 2.What is social engineering ? 3.What are the methods of social engineering ? 4.Name the three broad categories of attach ? 5.What is firewall? 6.What is tunneling? 7.Name the two categories of tunneling? True/False 1. Virus can spread without human help (F) 2. Worms need a software port to act (F) 3. Trojens need a software port to act (T) Expand the following 1.SSSS 2.SSSC 3.LDAP 4.AAA

Write the expansion of the following

MPLS : Multi Protocol Label Switching VPN :Virtual Private Network. NAT : Network Address Translation. NOC : Network Operation Center. EMS : Enterprise Management System. PMS : Provisioning Management System.

Answer the following

1.What are the NIB_II projects? Project-1 , Project-2.1, Project-2.2 and Project-3 2.What are the services planned from NIB_II? 1) Narrow band and broad band internet services. 2) MPLS_VPN services 3) Value added services and 4) Messaging services. 3.What are the value added services from NIB_II? 1)Encryption services 2)Firewall services and 3) NAT services
1.

Data communication & Networking

The OSI model consists of _______ layers.(7) The error detection method involving polynomials is ___CRC_____ A router functions in the _______ layer of OSI model.(3) The cell size of ATM is ______ bytes.(576) The end-to-end delivery of the entire message is the responsibility of the _____________ layer(4)

2. 3. 4. 5.

DNS
1.What is DNS ? 2.Why DNS is needed ? 3. What are three types of TLDs ?

II. Tick the correct answer from the given choices 1. ____ are rules that govern a communication exchange (a) Media

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(b) Criteria (c) Protocols (d) All of the above 2. (a) (b) (c) (d)
3.

(a) (b) (c) (d) 9. (a) (b) (c) (d) 10. (a) (b) (c) (d) 11. (a) (b) (c) (d) 12. (a) (b) (c) (d) 13. (a) (b) (c) (d) 14. (a) (b) (c) (d)

VRC LRC CRC Checksum In cyclic redundancy checking, the divisor is ___ the CRC The same size as One bit less than One bit more than Two bits more than In CRC, there is no error if the remainder at the receiver is _____ Equal to the remainder at the sender Zero Nonzero The quotient at the sender In a ____ connection, more than two devices can share a single link. Point-to-point Multipoint Primary Secondary Analog signals are characterized by Amplitude and signal Amplitude and frequency Frequency and phase Amplitude, frequency and phase PCM is an example of _____ conversion Digital-to-digital Digital-to-analog Analog-to-analog Analog-to-digital Which of the following is most affected by noise? PSK ASK FSK QAM

Communication between a computer and a keyboard involves ________ transmission Simplex Half-duplex Full-duplex None of these In the ____ layer, the data unit is called a frame

(a) Physical (b) Data link (c) Network (d) Transport 4. (a) (b) (c) (d) 5. (a) (b) (c) (d) 6. (e) (f) (g) (h) 7. (a) (b) (c) (d) 8. Decryption and encryption of data are the responsibility of the ______ layer Presentation Data link Network Transport Node-to-node delivery of the data unit is the responsibility of the _____ layer Physical Data link Transport Network Error detection is usually done in the ____ layer of the OSI model Data link Network Physical Any of the above Which error detection method uses ones complement arithmetic? VRC LRC CRC Checksum Which error detection method involves polynomials?

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15. (a) (b) (c) (d) 16. (a) (b) (c) (d) 17.

The standard modulation protocol(s) for high-speed modems V.32 V.32bis V.21 Both a and b 22. The maximum compression ratio for a V.42bis modem is 4:1 1:4 2:5 None of these 23. In sliding window flow control, if the window size is 63, what is the range of sequence numbers?

(a) (b) (c) (d)

Piggybacking Backpacking Piggypacking A good idea

Which of the following uses the greatest number of layers in the OSI model? (a) (b) (c) (d) Bridge Repeater Router Gateway Which topology requires a central controller or Hub? (a) (b) (c) (d) Mesh Star Bus Ring Which LAN has the highest data rate? (a) (b) (c) (d) 10BASE5 10BASE-T twisted-pair token ring FDDI The ____ register holds the amount of time a station has to send its synchronous data (a) (b) (c) (d) Synchronous allocation (SA) Target token rotation time (TTRT) Absolute maximum time (AMT) Token rotation time (TRT) The X.25 operates in the _____ of the OSI model (a) (b) (c) (d) Physical layer Data link layer Network layer All the above

(a) (b) (c) (d) 18. (a) (b) (c) (d) 19.

0 to 63 0 to 64 1 to 63 1 to 64 When a primary device wants to send data to a secondary device, it needs to first send ____ frame. An ACK A poll A SEL An ENQ An ACK3 in sliding window flow control (window size of 8)means that frame ___ is next expected by the receiver.

24.

25.

(a) (b) (c) (d) 20. (a) (b) (c) (d) 21.

2 3 4 8 In stop-and wait ARQ, if data 1 has an error, the receiver sends a ______ frame. NAK 0 NAK 1 NAK 2 NAK When data and acknowledgment are sent on the same frame,this is called __________

26.

III. Say whether the following statements are True or False. If it is false correct the underlined word. 1. The node-node delivery of the data unit is the responsibility of the Physical Layer. (F) Data link layer

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2. The retransmission of damaged frames in the data link layer is known as Flow control. (F) Error control 3. In go-back-n ARQ, if frames 4,5,6 are received successfully, the receiver may send an ACK- 6 to the sender.(F) ACK-7 4. A de-facto standard is one which has been legislated by an officially recognized body. 6. In the Token Ring frame format the block which is specifying that the frame is a data frame or a token frame is (a) SA (b) FC (c) FCS (d) None of the above.

7. The Media Access method used in Star Topology is (a) Distributed (b) Star Control (c) Centrally Controlled (d) None of the above. 8. In which if the following CSMA methods stations wait for a specific interval of time before checking the media. (a)Non Persistent (b)P-Persistent (c) 1-Persistent (d) None of the above.

IV. Expand the following. 1. HDLC -High level data link control protocol 2. ISO - International Organisation for Standards 3. ATM - Asynchronous transmission mode 4. LAPB Link access Protocol Balanced 5. ITU - International Telecommunication Union 6. PPP - Point to Point Protocol

9. Register insertion is a Media Access control method in which topology (a) Bus (b) Ring (c) Star (d) None of the above)

10. Which of the following is not a contention access method. (a) Pure Aloha (b) Token Ring State True or False (c) 1- Persistent CSMA (d) CSMA

11. In Bus Topology nodes need not be intelligent

II
1. In which of the following LAN topologies the data flow is unidirectional (a) Bus (b) Ring (c) Star (d) None of the above)

12. For interconnecting 2 Bus topology LANs repeater is not required. 13. In token ring passing media access method all the stations are in broadcasting mode. 14. In P-Persistent not all the stations are allowed to transmit simultaneously. 15. In CSMA/CD stations do not listen to the channel while they are transmitting. Fill in the Blanks

2. Which of the following LAN topologies requires more media. (a) Bus (b) Ring (c) Star (d) None of the above)

16. In Ring topology the interconnecting nodes are called 3. Token Ring passing is not the Media Access method in which of the following topologies. ? (a) Bus (b) Ring (c) Star (d) None of the above) 17. In Bus topology data flow is directional. 18. CSMA/CD is a media access method for .. topology. 19. A is used to by pass a failed node in Ring topology. 20. In . CSMA stations starts transmitting the data immediately when the channel is found free.

4. In which of the following topologies there is no sharing of media? (a) Bus (b) Ring (c) Star (d) None of the above)

5. For implementing Ring topology the preferred media is Key II (a) Optical Fiber (b) Twisted pair cable (c) Coaxial (d) None of the above.

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1. b 2. c 3. c 4. c 5. a

6. b 7. c 8. a 9. b 10. b

11. F 12. F 13. T 14. T 15. F

16. Ring Interface Units (RIU) 17. Bi 18. Bus 19. Dead Man Relay 20. 1-Persistent

2. 1001P/F011 3. 1011P/F011 4. 1000P/F100 5. 10100000P/F0001111 6. 11xxP/Fxxx 7. 01000011P/F0001100

III
Error Detection Correction, Data Link Control and Protocol 1. CRC is based on parity checking. (T/F) F 2. In CRC, the divisor is the redundant bit. (T/F) F 3. Hamming Code is a Reverse Error Correction mechanism. (T/F).F 4. The number of disagreements between two code words is known as Hamming Distance 5. Define: Code word, Data Word, Hamming Distance and Weight. 6. Distinguish between Content Error and Flow Integrity Error. 7. Explain any one Error Detection Method. 8. Mention three Error correction methods. 9. State the encoder representations of Convolutional Coding. 10. Regulation of the rate of transmission of data frames is known as 11. In sliding window of Modulo 128 working, if the frames are numbered from 0 to 127, the window size is 127 12. In go-back-n ARQ, if frames 5, 6, and 7 are received successfully, the receiver may send an ACK _8___ to the sender. 13. In go back nwhen a NAK is received, all frames sent since the last frame acknowledged are retransmitted 14. What are the three functions of the Data link control? 15. Mention the categories of Sliding Window Error Control. 16. Mention the methods of ARQ. 17. Mention the full name of any three data link layer protocol. 18. To ensure the uniqueness of flag Zero bit stuffing in HDLC protocol. 19. Explain the frame format of HDLC protocol. 20. Mention the types of frames used in HDLC protocol 21.If the HDLC Control Field looks like this, what would you infer? 1. 0111P/F110.

Answers
1. False, Binary Division or Modulo 2 division. 2. False, Remainder. 3. False, Forward Error correction. 4. Hamming Distance. 5. Code Word: The bigger block containing redundant bits.(Data word+ Redundant bits) Data Word: Block of data bits to which redundant bits are added. Hamming Distance: The number of disagreements between two code words. Weight : The number of 1s in a code word.

6. Content Error: Error in the content of a block of data. It can be bit error or burst error. Bit error is common in parallel transmission and burst error depends on data rate and noise duration. Flow Integrity Error: Missing block of data due to reasons like delivery to a wrong destination. 7. Parity Check : In parity check, at the sending end, a single redundant bit is added by counting the number of 1s in the data word, to make the parity either odd or even including the parity bit and at the receiver, the checking function detects the parity bit accordingly and finds out errors if any. CRC;Cyclic redundancy check : In CRC, for each protocol there is a pre-defined divisor in the form of a polynomial. The data to be sent is divided into manageable blocks and each block is divided by the pre-defined divisor. The remainder is appended to the data block and sent. At the receiver when the incoming codeword is divided by the same divisor, if no remainder is got, it is assumed that there is no error. CRC bits(Remainder) will be always one bit less than the divisor. Using XOR gate and Shift registers the circuit is implemented so that the division performed is Modulo 2. (shifting right, comparing) Checksum: This is an error detection mechanism employed by upper layers. Here the data word is arranged in the form of a matrix, each row containing n bits and modulo 2 addition is performed so that the sum is also having n bits (Ignoring the carry) . The sum is then complemented. This is the checksum field. This is appended to the data unit and sent. At the receiver, again the data after arranging in the form of a matrix,(including checksum bits) modulo 2 addition is performed. If the sum is all 1s, it is assumed that data is intact. 8. Hamming Code, Block Parity, Convolutional Code. 9. State Transition Diagram, Trellis Diagram. 10. Flow Control. 72

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11. 127. 12. ACK 8. 13. Go Back n ARQ. 14. Media Access Control (Line Discipline), Flow Control, Error Control. 15. Go back n and Selective Reject. 16. Stop and Wait and Sliding Window. 17. HDLC: High Level Data Link Control SDLC: Synchronous Data Link Control ADCCP: Advanced Data Communication Control Procedure. BSC/Bisynch: Binary Synchronous Data Link Control Ethernet, Token Ring. PPP:Point to Point Protocol. LAP B :Link Access Procedure Balanced. 18. Bit stuffing. 19. FLAG DATA FCS CONTROL FLAG

1. The secondary device in a multipoint configuration sends data in [ ] response to ______ (a) an ACK (b) an ENQ (c) a poll (d) a SEL 2. In sliding window flow control, if the window size is 63, what is the range of sequence numbers? [ ] (a) 0 to 63 (b) 0 to 64 (c) 1 to 63 (d) 1 to 64 3. In sliding window flow control, the frames to the left of the receiver window are frames _______ [ ] (a) received but not acknowledged (b) received and acknowledged (c) not received (d) not sent 4. Regulation of the rate of transmission of data frames is known as (a) line discipline (b) flow control (c) data rate control (d) switch control 5. ____ decides the role (sender or receiver) of a device on a network (a) line connection (b) link connection (c) line discipline (d) link decision 6. The retransmission of damaged or lost frames in the data link layer is known as _______ (a) error control (b) error conditioning (c) line discipline (d) flow control 7. When a primary device wants to send data to a secondary device, it needs to first send ____ frame. (a) an ACK (b) a poll (c) a SEL (d) an ENQ 8. When a secondary device is ready to send data, it must wait for ____ frame. (a) an ACK (b) a poll

Flag: One byte 01111110, Used for synchronization. Bit stuffing guarantees the uniqueness of flag. Address: one byte. Indicates the address of the secondary station. Control: One byte or 2 bytes. Begins with 0 for Information frame, begins with 10 for Supervisory frame and begins with 11 for Unnumbered frame. Data: Variable. FCS: Frame Check Sequence. For Error detection. 2 byte CRC is used here. 20. Information frame (I ) : For data, piggy bcked acknowledgements. Supervisory frame ( S ) :For Control (Flow/Error) information. Unnumbered frame ( U ): For Link Mangement. 21. 1.Information frame, frame 7 is sending, ACK 6. 2. Supervisory frame, NAK 3/ Rej 3. (Go back n error control) 3. Supervisory frame, NAK 3/ Rej 3. (Selective Reject error control) 4. Supervisory frame, Receiver Ready, ACK 4. 5. Supervisory frame, Receiver Not Ready Ack 15. (Flow Control)(Extended) 6. Unnumbered frame. 7.Information frame, frame 67 is sending, ACK 12 (Extended)

IV
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(c) a SEL (d) an ENQ 9. In a peer-to-peer system, when one device wants to send data to another device, it first sends _____ frame. (a) an ACK (b) a poll (c) a SEL (d) an ENQ 10. Flow control is needed to prevent_____ (a) bit errors (b) overflow of the sender buffer (c) overflow of the receiver buffer (d) collision between sender and receiver. 11. In go-back-n ARQ, if frames 4, 5, and 6 are received successfully, the receiver may send an ACK _____ to the sender. (a) 5 (b) 6 (c) 7 (d) any of the above 12. For a sliding window of buffer size n, there can be a maximum of ___ frames sent but acknowledged. (a) 0 (b) n-1 (c) n (d) n+1 13. An ACK3 in sliding window flow control (window size of 8) means that frame ___ is next expected by the receiver. (a) 2 (b) 3 (c) 4 (d) 8 14. In stop-and wait ARQ, if data 1 has an error, the receiver sends a ___ frame. (a) NAK 0 (b) NAK 1 (c) NAK 2 (d) NAK 15. In ____ ARQ, when a NAK is received, all frames sent since the last frame acknowledged are retransmitted. (a) stop-and-wait (b) go-back-n (c) selective-reject (d) a and b 16. In ___ ARQ, if a NAK is received, only the specific damaged or lost frame is retransmitted. (a) stop-and-wait

(b) go-back-n (c) selective-reject (d) a and b 17. ARQ stands for _____ (a) automatic repeat quantization (b) automatic repeat request (c) automatic retransmission request (d) acknowledge repeat request. 18.Which of the following is not a Layer 2 function a.error control b.Encription c.line discipline d.flow control

Key IV [ ] 1. c 15. d 2. a 3. b 4. b 5. c 6. a 7. c 8. b 9. d 16. c 17. b 18.b 10. c 11. c 12. c 13. b 14. d

Choose the correct answer [ ] 1. Which of the following is most affected by noise? a) Amplitude Shift Keying b) Frequency Shift Keying c) Phase Shift Keying d) None of the above 2. Modulation of an analog signal can be accomplished through changing the ___________ of the carrier signal. a) Amplitude b) Frequency c) phase d) all of the given 3. In_____________ transmission, bits are transmitted simultaneously, each across its dedicated wire. a) Asynchronous serial b) Synchronous serial c) Parallel d) Asynchronous & Synchronous serial 4. In_____________ transmission, bits are transmitted over a single wire, one at a time. [ ] a) Asynchronous serial b) Synchronous serial

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c) Parallel d) Asynchronous & Synchronous serial 5. As per Shannons capacity theorem, every transmission medium has a _______________ data rate. a) Minimum b) Maximum c) Zero d) Infinite FILL UP THE BLANKS 1. For error detection , an extra bit called the _____________ is added to each word in a data transmission. 2. In ____________ transmission, we have to synchronize the source and destination for each character. 3. The _________________of a composite signal is the difference between the highest and the lowest frequencies contained in that signal. 4. The most widely used data code ASCII consists of 8 bits of which 7 are ______________bits and one ______________ bit.

2. Name a routing protocol.(RIP) 3. What is DHCP?(Dynamic host configuration pr0t0col) 4. Write a class C private IP address.(200.12.22.123) 5. Expand CSMA / CD

II. Fill up the blanks 1. Decryption and encryption of data are the responsibility of the . layer.(Presentation) 2. Maximum segment length in case of 10base5 LAN will be.(500m) 3. When a secondary device is ready to send data, it must wait for frame.(Poll) 4. Router works in . layer of OSI model.(3) 5. In go-back-n ARQ, if frames 4, 5, and 6 are received successfully, the receiver may send an ACK to the sender.(7) 6. IP address 01101100.10001111.11100110.00100011 belongs to ----------(A) 7. If a carrier signal has 4 levels then the Bit rate will be --------------that of Baud rate. 8. IPv6 address consists of ---------- bits.(128) III. Answer the following questions briefly 1. What do you understand by the term protocol? 2. Write the specific responsibilities of Network layer 3. What is differential Manchester coding

True/False
1. Half Duplex Transmission is two way Simultaneous Communication 2. The problem of synchronization is solved in NRZ codes which ensure sufficient transitions in the data signal.

3. In the analog transmission of digital data, the baud rate is less than or equal to the bit rate. 4. The Nyquist theorem states that a signal must be sampled at a rate greater than twice the lowest frequency component of the signal to accurately reconstruct the waveform. 5. Multiplexing technique allows multiple users to share total capacity of a transmission medium. Short questions 1. An analog signal carries 4 bits per signal element. If 1000 signal elements are sent per second, find the bit rate and baud rate. 2. Calculate the maximum data rate permissible for transmission if the B.W. of a channel is 3003400 Hz and S/N ratio is 127. 3. Calculate the number of levels required for transmission if the B.W. of a channel is 300-3300 Hz and data rate is 24kbps.
I. Answer the following questions.

4. Distinguish between TCP and UDP. 5. Compare between Go-Back-n and Selective-Reject. 6.For the IP address 201.222.5.121/28 , find the following a. Subnet address b. Host addresses I. Fill in the blanks 1. The minimum Bandwidth offered for a normal subscriber through Broadband is ---------------------.

1.What is ARQ? (Automatic repeat request)

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2. In broadband network of BSNL DSLAM is placed between ..and 3. Type II CPE provided under Multiplay project is having ---------------Ethernet ports. 4. The technology used in the T2-T1 switch traffic aggregation in Multiplay network is ________________. 5. The customer premises equipment in project 2.2 is also known as . 6. The protocol used in NIB II for routing the packets is .. 7. BRAS in conjunction with -------------------- authenticates the customer. 8. The NAT function in ADSL modem is for ---------------------9. Tier I and Tier II switches are doing -------------- layer functions of OSI 10. In Router mode of configuration, the BRAS will be allotting IP address to --------------------II. Expand the following a. PMS b. BNGc. SSSSd. OSSe. VRFf. DMTIII. Answer the questions briefly 1. Name any two network elements required for implementing Wi-Fi. 2. Explain the technology behind ADSL . 3. Give any two functions of the following networking elements of Broadband. (a) BRAS (b)DSLAM

7. ---- exists in the core of the provider network in MPLS VPN architecture. Key 1. 2. 3. 4. 5. 6. 7. Overlay model & Peer to Peer model Customer n/w, CE Routers, Provider network, PE Routers, P Routers Virtual Routing and Forwarding Table multiprotocol BGP 96 bits Customer Edge Router (CE Router) Provider Router (P Router)

Internet Account Tariff, Dial Up networking, Modems Proxy server. 1. The access no: of CLI based internet service is . (a). 172233 (b) 172225 (c) 172227 (d) 172222

2. Modem standard which is used now a days is (a). V 95 (b) V 91 (c) V 99 (d) V 90 3. Internal modems can be installed on which of the following slots (a). COM (b) USB (c) PCI (d) PCMCIA

4. Which of the following port numbers can be used for a Proxy server. (a). 80 (b) 21 (c) 3128 (d) None of the above

5. Which of the following is an advantage of using Proxy servers (a). B/Wenhancement (b) B/W Conserving (c) QOS reduction (d) All the above State True or False 6. Proxy is secure from data theft. 7. Request filtering is possible in Proxy servers. 8. Home 250 is a leased line package 9. Surfing pattern of users is a concern in determining the QOS of proxy servers. 10. Modem can act both as an A/D converter and D/A converter.

4. Draw the architecture of MPLS VPN network and mark all elements involved. 5. Is it possible for two MPLS VPN customers to use the same IP address for connecting to the MPLS network ?. Explain 6. Draw the network archtecture of NIB II project 2.2 in A cities and mark the various network elements . MPLS Questions 1. 2. 3. 4. 5. 6. List the 2 broad classifications of VPN implementations. List the main components of MPLS VPN architecture Expansion of VRF? Expansion of MP-BGP ? Length of VPNv4 address ? ---- in the customer network interfaces with the service provider. 79

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Key 1. d 2. d 3. c 4. c 5. b 6. F 7. T 8. F 9. T 10. T Expand 1. URL 2. RADSL. 3. DIAS.

5.MAC address is used in --- layer (2) 6.MAC address is of --- bits length (48 bits) 7.what are the IP address versions? (IPV4 and IPV6) 8.what is the data speed of fast Ethernet (100 mbps) 9.Application port number is to identify -------(different applications in application layer) 10.Diat up modem belongs to which layer of TCP/IP suit (L-1)

Write the expansion of the following

http: Hypertext Transfer Protocol ftp: File Transfer Protocol TCP: Transmission Control Protocol IP: Internet Protocol UDP: User Datagram Protocol ARP: Address Resolution Protocol ICMP: Internet Control Message Protocol DHCP: Dynamic Host Configuration protocol RARP: Reverse Address resolution Protocol FDDI: Fiber distributed data interface

Answer the following: 1. 2. Mention any 3 browser software. Give any 3 options for providing user connectivity to the Internet.

State True or false

1.ARP is used to resolve physical address (T) 2.RARP is used to resolve logical address (T) 3.UDP is an application layer protocol (F) 4.IPV4 is 128 bits address (F) 5.Sourse and Destination IP address is added by a computer (T) 6.TCP is a connection-oriented protocol (T) 7.IP is a connection less protocol (T)

KEY Expand

1. 2. 3.

Uniform Resource Locator. Rate Adaptive Digital Subscriber Line. Direct Internet Access System.

Write the name of all the 5 layers of TCP/IP suit

Application Transport Network Datalink Physical

Answer the following: 1. Internet Explorer, Mozilla Firefox, Opera, Safari, Lynx, Netscape Navigator. 2. Dial-up connections, DIAS, Broadband, Using Cable Modem, Leased Line.

Worksheet for TCP/IP 1. First 24 bits of MAC address represents ---------------( Identity of manufacture) 2.TCP is in the --- layer of TCP/IP suit (4) 3.IP is in the --- layer of the TCP/IP suit (3) 4.Name two application layer protocols http and ftp

Resilient Packet Ring Choose the correct answer

1. Give the IEE standard for RPR a. 802.11 b. 802.16

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c. 802.17 d. 802.13 Ans. 802.17 2. The recovery time of RPR to achieve protection against fibre cut is a. Less than 50ms. b. Less than 60 ms. c. Less than 125s d. None of these Ans. Less than 50ms 3. Maximum number of RPR stations supported in an RPR ring.. a. 164 b. 16 c. 255 d. 200 Ans. 255 4. The mandatory protection scheme employed in RPR a. Wrapping b. Topology discovery c. Steering d. Multicasting Ans. Steering Answer the following: 1. Give the three packet handling activities of a RPR node? Insertion(Adding a packet into the ring) Forwarding (Sending packet onward for transit traffic) Stripping or dropping(taking out the packet off the ring. 2. Give the two packet delivery modes of RPR Stict mode & Relaxed mode 3. Give the classification based on traffic priority 1) Class A or premium quality (low latency, low jitter) sub-class A0(reserved) & A1(opportunistic ie if not used given class B &C ) 2) Class B or medium quality (predictable latency & jitter), B-CIR (committed information rate-non fe but used if free) & B-EIR (Excess information rate-fe) Class C or low priority traffic (best effort class)

Introduction to DWDM
I. Choose the correct answer:1. The Long band of Optical spectrum ranges from ________________________________. (1450 to 1550nm, 1565 to 1620 nm , 1310 to 1550 nm). Ans-1565 to 1620 nm 2. The losses caused by various effects on the signal limits the usable wavelength in the range ____________________________. (1200 to 1550 nm, 1310 to 1550 nm, 1280 to 1650 nm). Ans-1280 to 1650 nm 3. A Transponder is basically a _____________________converter. (O-E-O, O-E, E-O) Ans-O-E-O 4. In DWDM routes for boosting up the signals for long distance transmission, ___________________________ is used. (Transponder, OADM, Optical Amplifier) Ans- Optical Amplifier 5. In BSNL _______________spacing ITU Grid is used for DWDM channel selection. (50GHz, 100GHz, 200GHz) Ans-100GHz 6. In DWDM, adding and dropping of signals at any point along the span of transmission is possible using __________________. (Optical Amplifier, OADM, Transponder) Ans- OADM 7. An Optical Amplifier does __________ regeneration. (1R, 2R, 3R) 8. In the Conventional band DWDM operation __________is used as a supervisory channel. (1565nm,1510 nm, 1560 nm) II. Answer the following: a. What is a Transponder? Mention its Advantages.

3) -

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b. Name the optical network elements used in DWDM? c. Give the advantages of DWDM? d. Mention some methods for Optical Multiplexing? e. Mention the different ways by which WDM can act as a Multi Service Provisioning platform? Answers:a. A Transponder is a device that adapts to the arbitrary bit rate of the incoming optical signal and maps its wavelength to the chosen WDM channel. Its main function is OEO. It converts wavelength coming from user equipment to electrical signal and then the electrical signal is converted into optical signal of a specific wavelength, which forms an optical channel for particular user. Advantages 1. 2. 3. 4. Greatly enhanced transmission capacity. New services offered Transmission of restructured signals. Use of devices and interfaces form other vendors.

3.

b. Optical Multiplexer Optical Demultiplexer Optical Amplifiers Transponders Regenerators OADM Optical cross connects c. Multiple use of fibers. Extremely high transport capacity at lost. Format and bit rate independency. d. Using Prism, Using Diffraction Grating e. SDH over WDM IP over WDM Lambda services

What are 3 configurations of ZXWM M900 ( ZTE DWDM system)? Ans :- 1)OTM 2) OADM 3) OLA 4. The wavelength of the optical signal which carries supervisory channel of ZXWM M900 ( ZTE DWDM system) ? a) 1500nm b)1490 nm c) 1510nm d) 1520nm (Ans: c ) 5. The main control processor card of ZXWM M900 ( ZTE DWDM system) is known as __________ (Ans : NCP) 6. The main control processor card of ZXWM M900 ( ZTE DWDM system) is located in __________ Subrack (Ans : OA) a) OTU b) OA c) Power Alarm d) None of these 7. The Optical Supervisory channel board of ZXWM M900 ( ZTE DWDM system) is located in __________ Subrack (Ans : OA) a) OTU b) OA c) Power Alarm d) None of these 8. The Optical Multiplexer and demultiplexer of ZXWM M900 ( ZTE DWDM system) is located in __________ Subrack (Ans : OTU) a) OTU b) OA c) Power Alarm d) None of these 9. A maximum of _________ fibres can be connected to an ODF board of ZXWM M900 ( ZTE DWDM system). (Ans :- 42) a) 34 b) 40 c) 28 d) 42 10. ________ Board performs the processing of order wire in a supervisory channel. a) OP b) OA c) OHP 5) OSC (Ans : c) 11. One NCP of ZXWM M900 ( ZTE DWDM system) manages _______ Racks at most. a) 1 b) 2 c) 3 d) 4 (Ans : d)

EXTERNAL PLANT FILL UP THE BLANKS:1. The depth of the trench for laying local cable should be 1.2 METER. 2. The inner zone limit for a Telephone exchange is 500 METER. 3. In an LCU customer pair to network pair is 96/16. 4. Pillars are given two digit numbering scheme from 21 to 99. 5. The V/2 value for PIJF cable in APLAB fault locator is 88 6. Parallelism exceeding 800 METER with 11KV and above should be referred to PTCC

CHL DWDM Systems .

1. 2. The Working wavelength range of ZTE 32Chl DWDM System _____nm to ________ . (Ans : 1529nm to 1565nm ) The channel interval of ZTE 32Chl DWDM System? a) 50 GHz b)100 GHz. C)150GHz d) 25 GHz (Ans: b)

7. The color of 375th pair of a 400 pair PIJF cable is 2ND LAYER-LAST SUPER UNIT (BLACK COLOR BINDER)- 3RD UNIT (GREEN COLOUR BINDER) A WIRE WHITE & B WIRE-SLATE

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8. The marking 200/0.5/248 over the sheath of a cable indicates 200 PAIR/0.5 MM DIAMETER/ MEASURED AT 248TH METER LENGTH. 9. The PTCC recommends THREE ELECTRODE type of GD Tubes. 10. In ducted cable system UNARMOURED type cables are used for reducing cost IV) Decode:1. DP 4802/07 : TERMINAL NO.7 OF DP NO.2 CONTROLLED BY PILLAR NO.48

2. A telephone exchange is to be ideally situated at the ______________. 3. Pillars are given two digit numbers from ____ to ____ 4. A 200 pair cable of 500m length (Skm) is equivalent to __________ckm. 5. The software that is used for customer relationship management in BSNL are_____________ and ___________. 6. The software that deals with the management of redressal of public complaints is-------7. Project estimates can be prepared and sanctioned using the software called __________. 8. The three parts of the resource management software are ________, and ____________. 9. _______________ Software deals with the service records of the staff. 10.Management decisions on the free phone services, IN cards are taken on the basis of data maintained by _________ software. 11.Vehicle management is done using _________ software in BSNL.

2. MDF 176/29 : TERMINAL NO.29 OF FUSE STRIP 6 ON VERTICAL 17

V)

Draw the symbols a) Pillar

b)

Straight Joint

VI)

ANSWER THE QUESTIONS a) Write Four advantages of Computerised FRS. ANY 4 ADVANTAGES AS GIVEN IN PAGE 133 OF HANDOUT VOLUME 2. b) What are the advantages of Optical Fibre cables over PIJF cables ? AS GIVEN IN PAGE 15 OF HANDOUT VOLUME 2 c) What are the different types of cards, kept as cable records? 1) PLAN OR MAPS: EXGE AREA LAYOUT MAP, CABINET/PILLAR AREA LAY OUT MAP. 2) LINE DIAGRAM: PRIMARY, SECONDARY, DISTRIBUTION, JUNCTION, PRESSURISATION

12.ATOMS is the acronym for_______________. 13.Minimum download speed of Broadband in India--------------------14.Wi-Fi is the technology used for ----------------------------------15.Usually a PSTN (b-Fone) line is working at -------------------bps. 16.Aggregation point at service providers end from various customers ADSL line is---------------------17.Maximum distance between DSLAM and TIER 2 Switch, if connected by means of dark fibres------------------------.
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CARDS:

DP, CABINET, PILLAR, MDF, SUBSCRIBER INDEX

I. Fill up the blanks: 1. The overprovision of distribution cable is ______________.

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18.ADSL stands for------(Asymmetrical digital subscriber line) 20. Technology used in the backbone core Network of Broadband is------(MPLS)

10) MIS on IN

11) Fleet Management 13) 256 KBPS 15) 64 K 16) DSLAM

12) AT Offering Management System 14) WIRELESS LAN

Match the following. A. Abbreviated Dialing B. Call Transfer C. On line Meter reading D. Bar calls to up to 95 level E. Bar ISD Calls alone 1. Dial 124 xxxx 4 2. Dial 124 xxxx 3 3. Dial 124 xxxx 2 4. Dial 114 / 115 5. Dial 110 / 111 6. 1501 IV. Match the following. A. ISDN B. DIAS C. PRI D. MLLN E. BRI
FILL UP THE BLANKS 1) 30 % 4) 200 ckm Inventory Management 8) Cash, Works Account, Asset, Inventory 9) HR Management 2) Load Centre 3) 21 to 99 6) PGRMS 7) V III II

17) 10 km

18) Asymmetrical Digital Subscriber Line 19) MPLS

FILL UP THE BLANKS: 1) 70% 68% 2) 12 25 3) 96% 4) 5 10

CHOOSE THE CORRECT ANSWER 1) a 2) d 3) b 4) d 5) c

IV

MATCH THE FOLLOWING A5 B4 C6 D1 E2

MATCH THE FOLLOWING A4 B1 C5 D3 E2

1.Digital Sub unit (DSU)

POWER PLANT

2. 144 kbps 3. NTU-STU 160/CTU.S 4.Terminal Adapter 5. 2048 Kbps

Fill up the blanks: 1- The capacity of Large Exchange Power Plant is greater than 50 A. 2- In the conventional 3 piece power plant the FR output is regulated with in the range of -51.5 0.5 V irrespective of input voltage variations of 12 %. 3- The Psophometric noise of Exchange power supply with a battery of appropriate capacity connected across the output is within 2 mv 4- Minimum Insulation resistance of components w.r.t. earth in power plant is 5 MEGHA OHMS 5- In the conventional 3 piece power plant, to limit the charging current variations BALLAST CHOKES are provided in the Battery charger 6- The FR current is shared by EXCHANGE LOAD & BATTERY SET

5) SSA NET and DOT SOFT

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7- The two power converters in SMPS module are BOOST CONVERTER & DC-DC CONVERTER 8- Output voltage of SMPS module in float mode is -54 0.5 V and in charge mode is -55.2 0.5 V 9- In SMPS modules, to reduce the switching losses of the semiconductors due to non-zero switching times SNUBBER CIRCUIT is provided 10- In SMPS, the current signals are monitored continuously to ensure equal sharing of current is performed by POWER SYSTEM CONTROLLER (PSC) card in MAIN rack 11- The capacity of the battery increases with INCREASE in temperature 12- In parallel battery float scheme of working, the end point for the discharge of the cells has to be limited to 1.92 volt per cell 13- The type of charger suitable for charging VRLA battery is CONSTANT VOLTAGE CURRENT LIMITING CHARGER OR CONSTANT VOLTATE CHARGER. 14- VRLA battery works on OXYGEN RECOMBINATION Principle and the recommended float voltage of VRLA battery is 2.25 VPC at 27o C Answer the following: 1- What are the points to be considered for deciding the capacity of power plant needed for an exchange? 1. 2. BATTERY CHARGING CURRENT (BATTERY CAPACITY AT THE RATE OF 6 HR BACKUP) BUSY HOUR LOAD (HOW LONG BATTERY IS REQUIRED TO SUPPLY DURING MAINS FAILURE.

2- Weak cell 3- DC shunt 4- Current transformer

b) Battery charging c) Low S.G & p.d d)Measuring DC current e) monitoring the input current f) SCR firing circuit g) Error Amplifier

Answer:

1- [ b], 2- [ c ], 3- [ d ], 4- [e] Choose the correct answer from among the choices

1.

What is the auto charge level in the SMPS system? a) 54.0 V b) 55.2 V c) 65.0 V d) None of these.

2. The positive electrode in the VRLA battery is made of: a) PbO2 b) Pb c) H2SO4 b) No noise d) None of these. d) AGM

3. Which advantage is not applicable to SMPS? a) Higher efficiency c) Reduced transformer size

4. PSC card is connected to module using: a) 8 pin flat cable c) bunch of wires b) 4 pin flat cable d) None of these.

5. Which indication represents a faulty condition? a) Mains available b) FR/FC on float c) FR/FC on charge d) Load voltage low

6. The principle behind VRLA battery is: a) Lead Sulphate deposition b) Oxygen recombination cycle c) Osmosis d) None of these

2- Mention important four alarms displayed in Switching Cubicle. MAINS FAIL, PHASE FAIL, OUTPUT FUSE FAIL, RECTIFIER ELEMENT FUSE FAIL, SMOOTHERING FILTER FUSE FAIL, CIRCUIT BREAKER TRIP, HIGH/LOW VOLTAGE ALARM, OVER LOAD ALARM 3.What is meant by efficiency of a power plant? RATIO OF DC OUTPUT WATTS TO AC INPUT WATTS AT THE NORMAL INPUT VOLTAGE (NOT LESS THAN 75% IN LARGE EXCHANGE FRs UPTO 200 AMPS AND 80% IN CASE OF HIGHER OUTPUT CAPACITIES) Match the following: 1- Knife switches a) Corrosion

7. In a thyristor controlled power plant when the O/P voltage goes higher, the firing pulse of thyristor is: a) Retarded c) Advanced b) Neither advanced nor retarded d) None of these.

8. The circuit element used in power plant to read the input current of RYB phases is: a) Shunt c) Current transformer b) Synchronisation transformer d) Photo coupler

9. Wave form across the capacitor in the emitter circuit of an UJT is: a) Square wave b) Sine wave c) Triangular wave d) Saw tooth wave

10. PWM technique makes use of: a) Constant pulse width c) Variable frequency b) Constant switching frequency d) Variable cycle oscillator.

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11. Boost converter works on the principle of: a) Full bridge topoly c) Phase shift PWM b) Boost topology d) Switching regulator

23. Which among the following wave forms is not applicable to UPS? a) Sine wave b) Square wave c) Quasi sine wave d) Saw tooth wave.

12. Isolation transformer in DC ~ DC converter stage is a must. a) It is true c) It is partially correct b) It is false d) Can work even without a transformer

24. Which among the following is not a protective device? a) GD tube b) MOV c) Fuse d) Retrieval diode 25. If the float voltage is 53.35 at 27C what will be the voltage at 30C? a) 53.13 V b) 53.0 V c) 52.9 V d) 53.2 V

13. The output voltage of a Basic Boost Cell is: a) 400 volts AC c) 400 volts stabilized DC b) 400 volts unregulated DC d) 450 volts stabilized DC

14. Which one of the following is not a function of PSC?

a)Equal current sharing c) pulse width control

b) Control the operation of the module d) Shutting of the faulty modules

AC PLANT & ENGINE ALTERNATORS Fill in the blanks with suitable word/words. 1.Air conditioning is the simultaneous control of -TEMPERATURE ,HUMIDITY &--DUST. d) 2.The type of cooling resorted to, in the condensers of large air conditioning systems of capacity greater than 15 T is WATER COOLING

15. In UPS, for fast change over of primary and secondary sources, the best choice is: a) A sensitive relay A thyristor
16. In on line UPS the inverter will be ON only during mains fail.

b) A high speed relay

c) A triac

a) True

b) False

c) During system failure

d) None of the above

3. Alternator converts MACHANICAL ENERGY to ELECTRICAL energy. Answer in two or three sentences: a. Mention the different types of A/C systems used in our Department?

17. The earth connection for the inveter is: a) From the EB earth c) From the equipment earth b) to be done separately for inverters d) none of these.

18. Stand alone inverters used in Exchanges provide AC voltage with a frequency of: a) 65 Hz. b) 45 Hz. c) 50 Hz d) Can be anything b.

PACKAGE TYPE, SPLIT TYPE, WINDOW TYPE, CENTRALISED AC What is the function of governor in a Diesel engine? IT REGULATES THE AMOUNT OF FUEL SUPPLIED AT EACH STROKE AND THIS CONTROLS THE ENGINE SPEED AND POWER EARTHING & MEASUREMENT / FIRE FIGHTING

19. Which one of the following is not applicable to VRLA batteries? a)No satisfaction b) Environment friendly c)Stackable nature d) Frequent topping up 20. As compared to conventional batteries, VRLA batteries have: a) Greater self discharge c) Low self discharge b) No self discharge d) Intermittent self discharge

21. The output stage of an SMPS module makes use of: a) Power transistors b) SCRs c) Triacs d) Power MOSFETs

1.What is the earth resistance of the earth electrode system for electronic exchanges ? < 0.5 OHMS 2. What type of fire extinguisher is used to quench oil fires? FOAM TYPE 3. Name the Three types of Earth Electrode systems.

22. As the ambient temperature increase the recommended voltage for VRLA batteries: a) Increases c) Decreases b) Neither increases nor decreases d) None of the above 93

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SPIKE EARTH,

PLATE EARTH,

LEAD STRIP EARTH

(a) DC to DC conversion (b) AC to DC conversion (c) DC to AC conversion

POWERPLANT,AC PLANT & ENGINE ALTERNATORS CHOOSE THE CORRECT ANSWER:

10. During power stroke of a diesel engine which valve remains closed? ( a) Inlet valve (b) out let valve (c) Both the valves

1. Among the following which is not a function of float rectifier a) Stepping up (b) Rectification (c) Regulation 2. What is the basic working principle of SMPs ? (a)AC to DC conversion (b) Switching regulation (c) Rectification 3. In ITI 50 V 200 0A power plant (multi rack type) the voltage float mode is (a) -40 to -60 v (b) 48 to 56v (c) -48 to 52v 4. 4. If a 100AH battery is connected across a 50 A Exchange load, how long it can take the Exchange load? (a) 2 hours (b) 24 hours (c) 50 hours 5. 6. 7. 8. 9. The EMI and RFI are suppressed in a SMPS by FILTERING circuit. In a lead acid battery DILUTED SULPHURIC ACID (H2SO4) is used as electrolyte. To quench fire on burning oil, FOAM TYPE fire extinguisher is used. In a four stroke Diesel engine the first stroke is called SUCTION. For expressing the capacity of an AC System TR is the unit used. Once SCR starts conduction it can be switched off by bringing CURRENT below the thresh hold . adjustment range on Fill up the blanks : 1. 2. 3. Air conditioning is the simultaneous control of TEMPERATURE, HUMIDITY, DUST & FRESH AIR. VRLA Battery should never discharged below 42 Volt. In VRLA battery, MICROPORUS GLASS / ABSORTIVE GLASS MATRIX (AGM) is the separator used .

5. At 20 % depth of discharge what is the life expectancy of a VRLA battery (a)5000 charge discharge cycle, (b) 4000 charge discharge cycle (c) 6000 charge discharge cycle. 6.The earth resistance earth electrode system for electronic exchanges should be (a) < 0.5 (b) < 1 (c) < 2

10. For a fully charged VRLA battery at 27 0 C, 2.15 V is the open circuit voltage. ANSWER THE FOLLOWING QUESTIONS:1. What are the four processes involved in the refrigeration cycle? EVAPORATION, COMPRESSION, CONDENSATION, EXPANSION

7. In VRLA battery what should be the float voltage per cell? (a) 2.15V (b) 2.25 V (c) 2.3 V 2. What are the different types of AC systems used in BSNL? PACKAGE TYPE, SPLIT TYPE, WINDOW TYPE, CENTRALISED A/C 9. What is the function of governor in a Diesel engine?

8. In a Power plant, if the Mains on battery discharge alarm glows them what is the cause for the alarm? (a) Battery failed and mains on (b) Mains on (c) Power plant voltage is less than the battery voltage 9.In SMPS which type of voltage conversion takes place in power converter stage?

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IT REGULATES THE AMOUNT OF FUEL SUPPLIED AT EACH STROKE AND THIS CONTROLS THE ENGINE SPEED AND POWER package used in BSNL 1. The package used in BSNL for inventory is called ______________________ 2. A package used in BSNL to generate PSTN bills from the meter reading of the individual exchanges is ______________________________ 3. The package designed for management of the vehicles in BSNL is called _________________________ 4. The package used in BSNL to avoid the delay in provisioning of leased lines, all over the country is .. 5. The management information of BSNL is maintained as a separate database using the package called as _____________ . KEY 1. 2. 3. 4. 5. package used in BSNL IMP (Inventory Management Package) Trichur Billing Package Fleet Management system TVARIT MIS (management Information System)

KEY
1. c 2. b 3. b 4. c 5. b Additional questions 1. ---------------- is the software package developed for management of vehicle inventry. 2. Write any four features of HR Package? 3. Mention any four features of DoTSoft? 4. ------------------- is the package used for the management of leased lines. 5. 6. Name three System tools available in windows 7. Name four functions used in MS Excel with suitable syntax? 8. What are the various types of Cell reference? 9. What are the steps involved in making a Chart in MS Excel? 10. How do you set margins on a page? 11. In MS Excel----------- operator is having the highest priority? 12. Only one data series can be plotted in -----------Chart? 13. What is the shortcut keystroke to allow you to quickly toggle text case from UPPERCASE to lowercase to TitleCase? 14. A filename can contain a maximum of -----------Characters? 15. How do you see the extensions of all files? 16. ------------------- function adds the cells specified by a given criteria 17. Mention four important items in Control panel. 18. Write the steps to include headers ,footers,page-numbers in your document. 19. Mention the steps to setup the spelling Checker. 20. --------is used in linux to run commands at scheduled times . 21. Mention four advantages of oracle? 22. Mention four advantages of DBMS? 23. ---------------used in oracle for defining structures such as staring and shutting down database 24. Mention any four Codd Rules.? ------- allows to load data stored in a variety of formats into an oracle database.

1. One of the software which is used for customer relationship management in BSNL are ------------------(a) SSANET (b) DOTSOFT (c) Both (d) None of the choices 2. The software which deals with the management of redressal of public complaints is called -------------------(a) HR Package (b) PGRMS (c) BSNLRMS (d) MIS 3. Project estimates can be prepared and sanctioned using the software called -------(a) PGRMS (b) BSNLRMS (c) ATOMS (d) None 4. ------------- software deals with the service records of the staff. (a) BSNLRMS (b) PGRMS (c) HR Package (d) SSANET 5. Management decisions on the free phone services, ITC cards are taken on the basis of date maintained by -------------- software. (a) MIS (b) INMIS (c) Both (d) None of the above

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