1. What is contained in Annex IV of MARPOL 73/78? 2. What is crude oil? 3.

What is required for each scupper in an enclosed area, to prevent oil spill? 4. What is required to be carried by all ships of 400 gross tons and above (other than Oil tankers) to record machinery space operations in compliance with MARPOL 73/78 Annex 1, regulation 20? 5. What is the meaning IOPP Certificates issued by any government? 6. What is the minimum distance of a vessel subject TO the requirements of Annex V to Marpol 73/78 must be located from nearest land to legally discharge paper trash? 7. What is the objective of MARPOL 73/78? 8. What must an ocean going vessel of 100 GT be fitted to discharge oily mixtures? 9. When bunker fuel oil is accidentally pump overboard, an entry is required in the ships _____________. 10. When oily ballast has been pumped overboard an entry must be made in the: 11. When oily ballast water is discharge by a tanker, from cargo tanks, an entry must be entered in the _________ stating the Date and Position of the ship when discharge started, the ships speed and position of the ship when discharge started, the ships speed and the date aNd position of the ship when discharge was completed. 12. When ships are on short voyages, how often is the quantity residue recorded in the Machinery Space Oil Record Book? 13. When vessel violates the oil pollution laws, who may be held responsible? 14. Whenever a serious accident occurs on a Philippine flag oil tanker in a Philippine port, and the integrity of the ships equipment required by Annex 1 to Marpol 73/78 becomes questionable, who can decide whether a survey of the ship as required by par. (1) of Reg.4 of Annex 1 to Marpol 73/78 is necessary? 15. Where do you record the discharged at sea of bilge water containing any oil from machinery spaces of a dry cargo vessel? 16. Which circumstances below is an exception to the garbage discharge requirements in Annex V to Marpol 73/78? 17. Which of the following do not fall under the meaning of major conversion as defined by regulation 1, par. 8 (a) of Marpol 73/78? 18. Which of the following need not be recorded in the Oil Record Book of a tanker? 19. Which of the following will be inspected and surveyed during an INTERMEDIATE SURVEY of an oil tanker and other types of

regulations by the prevention of pollution by sewage any liquid hydrocarbon mixture occurring naturally in the earth treated or not to make it suitable for transportation by oil tankers mechanical means of closing Oil record book

International Oil Pollution Prevention Certificate 12 nautical miles

all of these a fixed system to discharge oily mixtures to a reception facility oil record book

oil record book cargo oil record book

Once a week

Any individual connected with the vessel involved in the operation Marine Surveyor responsible for issuing IOPP certificate

oil record book

a person falls overboard, and a plastic ice chest is thrown for flotation A ship whose load line is repositioned

disposal of residues

oily water separation equipment and oil filtering system

20. 21.

22. 23.

24. 25.

26.

27. 28.

29.

30.

31.

32.

33.

34.

35.

vessels issued an IOPP certificate and has fully complied with the applicable requirements of Annex 1 to Marpol 73/78? Which statement is true concerning small oil spills? Which statement is true concerning the placard stating discharge of oil is prohibited? Which statement is true in a gasoline spill? While leaving post, your vessel is involved in a collision resulting in a small spill of oil. What is true regarding the spill of the oil? Who signed the oil record book on board? Who signs theCertificate or declaration of Inspection carried out before oil transfer operations starts. Why is it important for the Master to obtain from the operator of a shore reception facility a receipt or a certificate detailing the quantity of tank washing, dirty ballast, residues, or oily mixtures transferred ashore, together with the time and ate of transfer? With reference to MARPOL 73/78, what does Regulation mean? Within the special areas, the discharge of oil or oily mixtures into the sea is prohibited except the discharge of _________. You are on board a bulk carrier of 8,400 gross tonnage. Subject to the provisions of regulation 10 and 11 of Annex I of the Marpol 73/78, you are prohibited to discharge oil or oily mixture from your ship except when certain conditions are satisfied. Which of the following conditions meets this exception? You are the Chief Mate of a 30,000 DWT tankship that is engaged in trade to another country signatory to MARPOL 73/78 . which of the following is true? Your ship is in the Baltic Sea with a special area listed in Annex V of Marpol. How many miles from the land must you be to discharge ground rags, glass and bottles into the sea? Your ship is in the North Sea, which is a special area listed in Annex V of Marpol. How many miles from land must you be to throw broken plywood dunnage over the side? The term used in Formal Safety Assessment (FSA) which a combination of the frequency and severity in formal of the consequence is the ______. The structural and systematic methodology aimed at enhancing maritime safety, including for use in IMO rule-making process by using risk analysis and cost benefit assessment is called ______. Which statement is CORRECT with respect to inserting an airway tube?

they may cause serious pollution as the effect to be commutative It is required in all ships

It does little harm to marine life small spills can cause danger to sea life

Chief Engineer and Master Person in charge of the oil transfer operation

to be attached to the ships oil record book

regulations contained in the Annexes to the present convention segregated or clean ballast

the ship is more than 12 nautical miles from the nearest land

an IOPP Certificate is invalidated if the ship carries cargoes outside the classes authorized thereon

must be retained aboard

Risk

Formal Safety Assessment

Only a trained person should attempt to insert an airway tube

36. Which statement is TRUE concerning carbon dioxide? 37. You are attempting to administer CPR to a victim. When you blow into his mouth it is apparent that no air is getting into the lungs. What should you do? 38. You are treating a shipmate with a compound fracture of the lower arm. Which action should you take? 39. A crew member has suffered frostbite to the toes of the right foot. Which is NOT an acceptable first aid measure? 40. A man has a burn on his arm. There is reddening of the skin, blistering, and swelling. Using standard medical terminology this is a ______________? 41. A person has suffered a laceration of the arm. Severe bleeding has been controlled by using a sterile dressing and direct pressure. What should you do next? 42. A seaman has a small, gaping laceration of the arm that is not bleeding excessively. What can be done as an alternative to suturing to close the wound? 43. A shipmate suffers a heart attack and stops breathing. You must _____. 44. A Treatments of heat exhaustion consist of ___________? 45. An average man at rest will breath every __________? 46. An unconscious person should NOT be _____________. 47. Drinking salt water will _____________? 48. First aid treatment for small cuts and open wounds is to ______________? 49. Heat caused skin injury is called ___________? 50. If the patient vomits during mouth-to mouth resuscitation, the rescuer should FIRST _____________? 51. In case a patient has to be moved after basic life support has been started, interruption time should not exceed __________? 52. Inflatable liferafts are less maneuverable than lifeboats due to their ________. 53. One of the most prevalent sickness of a seaman is sexually transmitted diseases. The most common medicine in the vessels medicine chest for this is ___________? 54. The FIRST concern in treating a person with extensive burns is ________. 55. The most important reason for taking antiseasickness pills as soon as possible after entering a life raft is to ___________? 56. The proper stimulant for an unconscious person is ____________? 57. The rescuer can best provide an airtight seal during mouth-to-mouth resuscitation by pinching the victim's nostrils and _____________. 58. The type of head injury in which the skull has received a heavy blow and

All of these are true Re-tip the head and try again

Apply a bulky, sterile, pressure dressing to control bleeding, then apply a temporary splint, and place the victim in bed Rub the toes briskly

second-degree burn

Apply a pressure bandage over the dressing

Apply butterfly strips, then a sterile dressing

check his pulse and start CPR All of the these 5 seconds given something to drink dehydrate you stop the bleeding, clean, medicate, and cover the wound Burns turn the patient's body to the side, sweep out the mouth and resume mouth-to mouth resuscitation 15 seconds

All of these Penicillin

treating for shock prevent loss of body moisture by vomiting

ammonia inhalant applying his mouth tightly over the victim's mouth

concussion of the brain

59. 60. 61.

62.

63.

64.

65.

characterized by momentary loss of consciousness is called __________? Universal antidote is used to neutralize a sick person with ____________? What is NOT a treatment for traumatic shock? Which is not a functional requirement embodied in the regulations in order to achive the fire safety objectives set out in SOLAS. One of the criteria that should be meet by "A" class divisions formed by bulkheads and decks is the capability to prevent passage of smoke and flame to the end of the__________. Which spaces may be excepted from protection by a fixed fire detection and fire alarm system? Who establishes and apply technical standards in relation to the design, construction and survey of marine related facilities including ships and offshore structures and publised these standards as rules. What does a class certificate imply?

poison Massage the arms and legs to restore circulation prohibits the use of combustible materials

60 min standard fire test

sanitary spaces

classification society

66. What is the practical purpose of ship classification? 67. How is the ship classification link with statutory certification?. 68. What is the consequence when a ship is suspended or withdrawn from class. 69. Requirements imposed by the society which must be met by the owner in order for the class to be maintained. 70. Special survey as related to classification surveys mean 71. When are intermediate surveys held? 72. What are endoresement of certificate of classification? 73. Certificates required by international conventions such as SOLAS and MARPOL and National legislations are commonly referred to as ________. 74. From what date is the validity of a ship certificate normally counted? 75. What is the period of validity of a Passenger Ship safety Certificate 76. What is the period of validity of a cargo ship safety equipment certificate 77. What is the period of validity of a cargo ship safety construction certificate 78. What are inspected in the Passenger Ship Safety Certificate 79. It is the load line which corresponds to the summer draught to be assigned to the ship 80. A waterline used in determining the subdivision of the ship. 81. A line drawn at least 76 mm below the upper surface of the bulkhead deck at the side. 82. Weathertight means that the water will

attestation that the ship is in compliance with the standards of the society issuing the certificate it is a requirement of the insurers as an evidence of compliance with 'statutory' requirements all of the above conditions of class

a class renewal survey three months before the second to three months after the third anniversary date an endorsement for periodical surveys when annual and intermediate surveys are satisfactorily completed statutory certificate

from the date of completion of the relevant survey 12 months 24 months 60 months all of the above deepest subdivision load line subdvision load line Margin Line

in any sea condition

83.

84.

85.

86.

87. 88.

89.

90. 91.

92.

93.

94.

95.

96.

97.

not penetrate the ship ______. The equipment by which orders are transmitted from the navigation bridge to the steering gear power units. Steering gear control systems comprise transmitters, receivers, hydraulic control pumps and their associated motors, motor controllers, piping and cables. The equipment other than any part of the main steering gear necessary to steer the ship in the event of failure of the main steering gear but not including the tiller, quadrant or components serving the same purpose. A condition under which any services needed for normal operational and habitable conditions are not in working order due to failure of the main source of electrical power. The condition under which the main propulsion plant, boilers and auxiliaries are not in operation due to the absence of power. Spaces in which the ships radio or main navigating equipment is centralized. All dedicated seawater ballast tanks shall have an _____________, such as hard protective coatings or equivalent. To prevent corrosion of seawater ballast tanks, where apropriate which should be used? An electrode through which direct current enters an electrolyte. What is the requirement that must be met by safe access to the bow provided to every tanker constructed on or after 1 July 1998 How many emergency towing arrangement is required for tankers not less than 20000 tonnes deadweight? For tankers of 20000 but less than 50000 tonnes deadweight, what should be the strength of the emergency towing arrangement/ The towing pennant of the emergency towing arrangement should have a length of at least twice the lightest seagoing ballast freeboard at the fairlead plus how many meters? The aft emergency towing arrangement should be pre-rigged and be capable of being deployed in a controlled manner in harbour conditions in not more than ______, The forward emergency towing arrangement should be capable of being deployed in harbour conditions in not more __________. The chafing chain should be long enough to ensure that the towing pennant remains outside the fairlead during the towing operation. A chain extending from the strongpoint to a point ____________

steering gear control system

auxialliary steering gear

Emergency condition

Dead ship condition

control station efficient corrosion prevention system

sacrificial anodes

anode gain safe access even in severe weather conditions

at least 1000 kN

50

15

60 minutes

at least 3 meters betond

the fairlead should meet this criterion. 98. For tankers of over 50000 deadweight, what should be the strength of the emergency towing arrangement 99. This is the method of launching a survival craft whereby the craft with its complement of persons and equipment on board is released and allowed to fall into the sea without any restraining apparatus. 100. This is the vertical distance measured from the top of the keel to the top of the freeboard deck beam at side. 101. There are two standards of classifiying fires as A, B, C, and D, according to the nature of the burning material. One standard is ISO 3941. the other is ________. 102. Class C is fires involving ___________. 103. International shore connection is a flange having a permanently attached coupling that will fit the ship's hydrant and hoses on one and a ________ on the other side. 104. The international shore connection flange is about how many inches. 105. Manually operated call points shall be installed throughout the accomodation spaces and controls stations. One manually operated call point shall be located at ____. 106. What is the farthest distance of any part of the corridor from a manually operated call point. 107. Which is not a requirement to detect a fire from a space of and to provide for alarm for safe escape and firefighting activity, 108. Which IMO convention, makes the ISM mandatory 109. A stuctured and documented system enabling company personnel to implement effectively the company safety and environmental protection policy 110. A statement of fact made during a safety management audit and substantiated by objective evidence. 111. Which is NOT the listed objective of the company as required by the ISM Code 112. Quantitative information, records or statements of fact pertaining to safety or to the existence and implementation of a safety management system element, which is based on observation, measurement or test and which can be verified 113. The ISM code requires that the company should ensure that each ship is manned with seafarer who are in accordance with national and international requirements ______.

at least 1000 kN

Free-fall

Moulded depth

IFPA 12

liquids or liquifible solids flat face

each exit

20 meters

fire teams

SOLAS Chapter XI SMS

observation

none of the above

objective evidence

all of the above

114. What document is issued to the ship after a successful audit as required by the ISM Code 115. The Document of Compliance expire after how many years? 116. To whom must proper familiarization of duties be given? 117. Establishment and maintenace of procedure for identifying training which maybe required in support of the SMS and ensure that such training is provide for all personnel concerned is the responsibility of the___. 118. What does the ISM Code mean by instructions prior to sailing? 119. Any crew member on board ship not assigned to emergency teams would prepare survival craft, render first aid and assistance, assemble passengers if applicable and _______. 120. This system divides the crew into teams which should be trained in their various functions so that when an emergency occurs, the whole crew swings into actions. 121. A suggested emergency team system is: overall control team (on bridge), support control team (at engine room controls), emergency team (emergency team H.Q.), back-up team (on poop deck) and reserve team _______. 122. What emergency team coordinates all operations, maintain internal and external communications, keep records and plan the overall strategy as the emergency develops? 123. This emergency team may be needed to provide support by carrying additional equipment to the fist team, to provide stretcher bearers and to relieve injured or tire men. 124. This emergency team is in charge of the engine room and is responsible for maintaining normal and emergency services. He will also advise the Master on mechanical matters and if necessary take charge of engine room emergencies. 125. Upon assembling on the boat deck, if weather conditions permit, this team should clear and prepare to launch the lifeboats and life rafts. If the incident poses a danger to the ship, the boats are then ready to take injured and uninvolved persons such as wives. If the incident is minor, then this team will have benefited from the boats in an emergency. 126. This team deals with the emergency at source. On arriving at the scene of the incident, the team takes the necessary corrective action and informs the control team of the situation. The Chief Officer is in charge of deck Emergencies. But if the incident occurs in

Safety Management Certificate (SMC)

5 new personnel company

instructions regarding fire and survival craft stations and responsibilities and LSA Training Manual available generally assist the emergency parties as directed

emergency team system

on boat deck

control team

back-up team

support control team

reserve team

emergency team

the engine room, the Second Engineer leads the team. 127. In case of emergencies the overall control team stationed on the bridge is normally composed of ________. 128. On board ship, the Master should ensure that lifeboat Muster lists should also be displayed and _______ held so as to ensure that everyone knows their abandon ship procedure. 129. Gently shelving beach of mud, sand or gravel should be chosen if possible when beaching a vessel. Beaching should be done at what speed? 130. When beaching a vessel and the vessel is heavily trimmed by the head, beaching ______ may be advantageous. 131. Wind or tide along the shore will quickly swing the ship ______ to the beach. 132. What would be your immediate action upon stranding your vessel? 133. To assess the damage of a beached vessel, what tanks or compartment should be sounded? 134. A Master who intentionally grounded his vessel will immediately order the sounding around the vessel to find out the _____ around the ship. 135. The Master should bear in mind that when beaching a ship to avoid immediate danger of foundering, the BEST type of beach is ______. 136. When beaching a ship to avoid immediate danger of foundering, it is ideal to do so at/on ______ so that the ship settles slowly, rather than drive her hard ashore and strain the bottom plating. 137. A damaged ship losing buoyancy rapidly, if beached, may well be able to refloat at a later high water after ______. 138. One of the dangers is beaching end on is that cross-winds or currents may swing the ship rapidly into a _____ on the shore, making re-floating very difficult. 139. The following are measures to be taken when a vessel is stranded, EXCEPT: 140. On stranding, the following are measures to be taken, EXCEPT: 141. When vessel is stranded, the engineers should be warned to: 142. Ref SOLAS Chapter III, Regulation 19, hydrostatic released must be put into serviced for a period of at least : 143. Ref SOLAS Chapter III, Regulation 26, an additional liferaft is required to be carried on cargo ships where survival crafts are stowed in a position which is more than ______ meters from the stem. 144. Ref SOLAS Chapter III, Regulation 27, what is the minimum number of lifebuoys of a vessel whose length is 150199.9 meters?

all of these

muster drills

slow speed

stern first

broadside-on

stop engine and put engine astern, if tide is falling all cargo tanks and compartments

depth and nature of bottom

all of these

high water or falling tide

all of these

broadside position

all ballast should be pumped out the engineers should not change to high level water intakes change from low level water intakes to high level water intakes 12 months

100

12

145. Ref SOLAS Chapter III, Regulation 27, how many immersion suits are required to be carried in each lifeboat? 146. Reference SOLAS III, Regulation 28, on cargo ships of 20000 and upwards, lifeboats shall be capable to be launched while the vessel is making headway of up to ___________. 147. Reference SOLAS III, Regulation 7, at least how many lifebuoy/s with buoyant lifelines is/are to be fitted in each side. 148. Reference SOLAS III, Regulation 31, grablines for lifebuoy shall have a diameter of at least 149. Reference SOLAS III, Regulation 31, smoke signals in lifebuoy shall emit orange colored smoke for a period of at least ______ minutes. 150. Reference SOLAS III, Regulation 32, a lifejacket shall not lose more than ________ percent of its buoyancy in 24 hours submersion in fresh water. 151. Reference SOLAS III, Regulation 32, a lifejacket light must illuminate the wearer for a period of _____ hours. 152. Reference SOLAS III, Regulation 34, thermal protective equipments must have a thermal conductivity of not more than _______ W(m.K.). 153. Reference SOLAS III, Regulation 35, the rocket parachute flare shall have a red color and luminous intensity 30,000 cd in a period of ___________ seconds. 154. Reference SOLAS III, Regulation 37, lifeboat smoke signal shall have orange color to be visible at a uniform rate for a period of ______ minutes 155. Reference SOLAS III, Regulation 38, the liferaft shall be so constructed that when it is dropped into the water at the height of ______ meters, the liferaft and equipment will operate satisfactorily. 156. Reference SOLAS III, Regulation 38, the liferaft when designed to be launched by a launching appliance shall have a mass of not more than 157. Reference SOLAS III, Regulation 38, on of the equipments of liferaft is rescue quiot, with buoyant line of not less than 158. Reference SOLAS III, Regulation 38, fresh water accommodated for each person in the liferaft is 159. Reference SOLAS III, Regulation 38, the hydrostatic release of a liferaft shall be able to be activated at a depth of not more than: 160. Reference SOLAS III, Regulation 39, the liferaft shall be inflated using: 161. Reference SOLAS III, Regulation 39, inflation of the liferaft shall take place within _______ minutes in ambient temperature of -30 deg C.

5 knots

9.5 mm

15

0.25

40

18

185 kgs

30 m

1.5 L

4 meters

non-toxic gas 3

162. Reference SOLAS III, Regulation 39, the container of the liferaft shall be marked with the following except: 163. Reference SOLAS III, Regulation 41, each person inside the life boat is computed at a mass of: 164. Reference SOLAS III, Regulation 41, Each cargo ship lifeboat shall be arranged that it can be boarded by its full complement of persons in not less than: 165. Reference SOLAS III, Regulation 41, each lifeboat shall be I. Powered by a compression ignition engine II. Be with engine whose fuel is equal or less than 43 deg C 166. Reference SOLAS III, Regulation 41, when the lifeboat is flooded up to the centerline of the crankshaft, the engine can not be started. 167. What ship certificate covers electrical intallation and equipment including emergency electrical power? 168. The provisions of the rules and regulations shall NOT apply to the following EXCEPT: 169. Medical advice should be sought and given in plaIn language whenever it is possible, but if language difficulties arises, the ____________ should be used. 170. Expiration of packed disposable syringe is __________? 171. Unless there is danger of further injury, a person with a compound fracture should not be moved until bleeding is controlled and ____. 172. Sign(s) of respiratory arrest requiring artificial respiration is(are) __________. 173. An injury in which a bone has been broken is: 174. In case there is no water produced, what liquid should NOT be taken when there is no water available? 175. What is a treatment for traumatic shock? 176. Which chemical is used to treat water in order to ensure its safety for drinking? 177. Which should NOT be a treatment for a person who has received a head injury and is groggy or unconscious? 178. You are administering chest compressions during CPR. Where on the victim's body should the pressure be applied? 179. The major cause of shock in burn victims is the ______________? 180. A patient in shock should NOT be placed in which position? 181. Compound fracture is a fracture in which ________. D 182. Changing rescuers while carrying out artificial respiration should be done

Vessel's name and Call sign

75kgs

3 min

Both I and II

false

Cargo ship safety construction certificate.

passenger ship of 500 GRT or more

Medical advice code

5 years or on expiry date on package, whichever comes first the fracture is immobilized

blue color and lack of breathing

fracture sea water

Administer fluids Chlorine

Give a stimulant

Lower half of the sternum

massive loss of fluid through the burned area Arms above their Head the bone may be visible without losing the rhythm of respiration

_______________. 183. Treatment of frostbite includes __________? 184. What substance neutralizes the effects of poison or prevents its absorption? 185. In towing, chocks are used to ____________? 186. First-, second-, and third-degree burns are classified according to the _______. C 187. A crew member is unconscious and the face is flushed. You should _____________? 188. A man has suffered a burn on the arm. There is extensive damage to the skin with charring present. How is this injury classified using standard medical terminology? 189. A person reports to you with a fishhook in his thumb. To remove it you should ______________? 190. Which is NOT a symptom of traumatic shock? 191. Two people are administering CPR to a victim. How many times per minute should the chest be compressed? 192. When administering artificial respiration to an adult, the breathing cycle should be repeated about ______. 193. Stimulant is given to person who is ____________? 194. An emergency life-saving procedure that consist of recognizing and correcting failure of the respiratory or cardiovascular systems is called __________? 195. Which is the most serious type of fracture? 196. Which Philippine Government Office issues Certificate of Ownership of a Philippine flag vessel? 197. Which of the following data is not recorded in the Certificate of Ownership of a Philippine flag vessel? 198. Which of the following data is not recorded in the Certificate of Ownership of a Philippine flag vessel? 199. How many toilets and bathroom is required under MARINA Regulation 65 for Interisland vessels? 200. Passenger ships are required to undergo fumigation once every. 201. What is the size of beds or bunks approved for a dormitory type cabin? 202. On a passenger vessel with stateroom accommodations, which of the following spaces would NOT be required to be checked by the patrol between 10 pm and 6 am? 203. Some of the grounds for investigation which may result to a professional license being revoked or

warming exposed parts rapidly antidote

protect the towline from chafing layers of skin affected

lay the crew member down with the head and shoulders slightly raised Third-degree burn

push the barb through, cut it off, then remove the hook

Slow, deep breathing 60

12 to 15 times per minute

fainting basic life support

Compound Maritime Industry Authority

Deadweight and displacement

engine cycle

1 per 50 passengers separate for men and women/children

12 months 6 feet x 2 feet double tiered bunks public spaces with an automatic fire detection system

failure to pay the allotments to his wife and children

suspended for varying periods of time, are listed below. Check one that do not fall as a violation subject to be heard by the Board of Examiners for Marine Deck Officers. 204. Who keeps the Original Certificate of Ownership of a Philippine flag vessel? 205. How many seats in a row is allowed by this regulations? 206. Which of the following data is not recorded in a Philippine Certificate of Vessel Registry? 207. Where are third class accommodations allowed to be located in Phil. Flag vessels in the interisland trade as prescribed by MARINA rules? 208. What is the size of portholes in enclosed passenger spaces and cabins? 209. What is the size of beds or bunks approved for a dormitory type cabin of Phil. Flag ships in the interisland trade prescribed by MARINA RULES? 210. The members of the Board of Marine Inquiry are appointed by __________. 211. If a Philippine flag vessel becomes involved in a collision, a report must be made out to ______ on arrival at a port in the Philippines. 212. The Board of Marine Inquiry in composed of 5 members. The Captain rank, two (2) Master Mariners and One (1) Chief Engineer of the Philippine Merchant Marine. The fifth member is a __________. 213. What is the maximum passengers allowed in airconditioned dormitory type cabins of Phil. Flag ships in the interisland trade prescribed by MARINA rules? 214. Which of the following data is not recorded in the Certificate of Vessel Registry for Philippine flag vessel? 215. Who issues Certificate of Vessel Registry for a Philippine flag vessel? 216. The requirement to provide passenger with seating accommodations only applies to vessels whose travel time between ports of call do not exceed how many hours? 217. What document is needed by Immigration Inspectors from a foreign flag vessel on arrival at Manila and how many copies is needed? 218. What is the approved seat dimensions for passengers in 3rd class accommodations of Phil. Flag vessels in the interisland trade as prescribed by MARINA rules? 219. What is the maximum passengers per cabin in first class? 220. What is the required space between rows of seats in the 3rd class accommodation of a Phil. Interisland

the Owner 4 seats per row Address of previous owner

in open decks single tiered bunks are installed within 6 ft. from the ships railings. Two tiered bunks not nearer than 8 feet from the ships railings not less than 12 inches in diameter 6 feet x 2 feet double tiered bunks

Secretary of National Defense

Philippine Coastguard

A member of the Philippine Bar

4 persons

type of radio equipment

Maritime Industry Authority Administrator 4 hours

6 visaed crew list

2.0 ft. W x 1.5 ft. D x 1.30 ft. height

2 persons 2.0 feet

vessel? 221. What type of accommodations is prescribed for first class passengers for category 1 vessels? 222. Which of the following data is not recorded in the Certificate of Ownership of a Philippine flag vessel? 223. Which of the following data is not recorded in the Certificate of Vessel Registry for Philippine flag vessels? 224. Which of the following data is not recorded in the Certificate of Vessel Registry for Philippine flag vessels? 225. What is the maximum number of persons allowed in an air-conditioned dormitory type cabins on interisland vessels? 226. There are how many Port district Offices throughout the Philippines? 227. Under the new Phil. Maritime Regulation. How many Port District office do we have in the Philippines? 228. Cancellation of special Dispensation of Certificates issued by PRC is under the Provision of Section ____________ of the R.A. 8544? 229. A vessel exhibiting Quarantine signals shall not be approach with other vessels within a minimum of _______ meters. 230. Category A high speed crafts as defined by Reg. XVII/2 of the PMMRR are passenger crafts carrying not more than _______ passengers. 231. What is the period of validity of Deratting Certificate issued locally? 232. Pursuant to Section 108B (4) of R.A. 8424, charges against the vessels engaged exclusively in international shipping shall be subject to: 233. As stipulated in the revised PMMRR, the capacity of required portable fire extinguishers not be more than _____. 234. Periodical survey is carried out on passenger ships every _____. 235. The scheduled drydocking period of classedPassenger/Passenger-Cargo Ships is on the ______ month after the last drydocking. 236. Fishing vessels of 500 GRT and below plying the international waters shall have a Master onboard who is a licensed _____. 237. As stipulated in the revised PMMRR, a 5,000 GRT vessel shall carry how many firemans outfit? 238. The Third Mate acting as Master of fishing vessel with GRT over 500 1600 shall be with experience of not less than _____ as Master of a ship. 239. As stipulated in the revised PMMRR, the ships registration, documentation and licensing covers all

air conditioned cabin with single or double tiered beds and private toilet and bathrooms Date and place of last hull and machinery survey

Service speed

Marina Administrator

5 5

24

200

450

6 months 0% VAT

13.5 liters

12 months 24th

3rd Mate and/or a Major Patron

3 sets

5 years

3 GRT

types of motorized ships of domestic ownership whose GRT is more than _____. 240. What is the age limit requirement for vessels in order that it will be exempted from VAT upon importation? 241. In the domestic trade, where a ship has a voyage duration of over 12 hours, how many passengers are there onboard if there are one medical practitioner and one paramedic onboard? 242. The Third Mate acting as Master of a fishing vessel with GRT over ______ shall be with experience of not less than 5 years. 243. In sleeping room for officers where no private sitting room is provided, the floor area per person of 3,000 GRT and above shall not be less than _____. 244. The drydocking of classed Passenger/Passenger-Cargo Ships may be extended to a period not exceeding ______. 245. As stipulated in the revised PMMRR, a firemans outfit shall consist of the following personnel equipment, EXCEPT; 246. Tonnage tax is officially based upon the figure obtained from the _____. 247. A Phil. Flag vessel which is not normally engaged in international voyage but which is required to undertake a single voyage in exceptional circumstances may be exempted from the requirements of SOLAS 74/78 provided the ship________________. 248. A shipowner intending to register his ship under Philippine Registry must secure first: 249. The Administration shall require all ships registered in the Philippines except those mentioned in Chapter I Regulation I/3 of the PMMRR, the following certificates, EXCEPT: 250. The Administration shall require all ships registered in the Philippines except those mentioned in Chapter I Regulation I/3 of the PMMRR, the following certificates, EXCEPT: 251. What kind of certificate is issued by MARINA to qualified domestic ship operators? 252. As stipulated in the revised PMMRR, every ship documented in the Philippines shall be assigned a/an ______. 253. Who sets the safety standards for vessels in the domestic trade in accordance with 254. For the purpose of R.A. 9295 this term means the sale, barter or exchange of goods within the Philippines. 255. For the purpose of R.A. 9295, this term means the exchange of materials or products within the Philippines ?

15 years for passenger vessels

over 2,000

500 1600

7.5 sqm

6 months

an electric lamp with a minimum burning period of one hour

Admeasurement certificate adopts safety requirements that MARINA considers adequate for the voyage.

Ships Identification Number

Certificate of Survey

Certificate of Registration

Certificate of Public Convenience

official number

MARINA

Domestic trade

Domestic Trade

256. Pursuant to Reg. 1/6 par. 1 of the 1997 PMMRR, inspections of hull, boilers, machinery, fire fighting , life saving appliances, shall be done ______. 257. Which of the following investment incentives is provided in R.A. 9295 to insure the continued viability of domestic shipping? 258. The scheduled drydocking for cargo and other ships may be extended twice but not to exceed _____ months each extension. 259. Reg. I/4 of the revised PMMRR defines as the uppermost deck of a ship to which the transverse watertight bulkheads are carried: 260. Under R.A. 8981, the chairperson of the Professional Regulation Commission: I. shall be at least 40 years of age II. has had at least 5 years of executive and management experience 261. The Maritime Safety Committee adopted the comprised amendment 2 (2001) to the present STCW Code in _______. 262. When did the SOLAS Protocol 1978 enter into force? 263. It is a specialized Agency of the United Nations dealing with maritime affiars 264. The conventions, protocols and agreements adopted under the auspices of the International Maritime Organization are ___________. 265. When does the IMO Convention enter into force? 266. In implenting the convention, the IMO as and organization has__________. 267. Certain type or class of ships such as warships, pleasure craft not engage in trade, that the conventions do not apply to in any way, fall under the __________. 268. An IMO instrument which makes major modification to a convention which has been adopted but is not yet enforce. 269. Many IMO conventions included a procedure for amending certain provisions of the convention known as ______________. 270. The ammendment to the convention enter into force within a specified time unless objections are received by IMO from a specified number of States. 271. The final document resulting from the agrrement by the IMO Assembly or a main committee of some matter. 272. An IMO instruments which is nonmandatory that provides more specific guidelines in framing national regulations and requirements. 273. It is required by a specified

yearly

All these exemptions are provided for in R.A. 9295 as investment incentive Exemption from VAT on the importation of communication and navigational safety equipment three

bulkhead deck

I & II

Dec. 1998

May 1, 1981 IMO

treaties

After a specific number of States have ratified them and the convined number of fleets of these States constitute a certain proportion of the world tonnage no authority or means to act against individual states to enforce or implement the convention exceptions

protocol

tacit acceptance

tacit acceptance

resolution

recommendations

ratification

number of IMO Member states in order to bring an IMO instrument into force. 274. A rational and systematic process for assessing the risks associated with any sphere of activity, and for evaluating the cost and benefits of different options for reducing risks. 275. IMO Members states wishing to approve, accept, and implement the instruments after its entry into force 276. The enforcement of international regulations by the Administration of a port State visited by a ship flying any flag other than that of the Port State 277. Which IMO Convention deals with subdivision of ships? 278. Which IMO Convention deals with electrical installations 279. Which IMO Convention deals with freeboard and reserve buoyancy? 280. Which IMO Convention greatly affects the operation of ships? 281. A line drawn at least 76 mm below the upper surface of the bulkhead deck at side. 282. It is the proportion of the immersed volume of that space which can be occupied by water. 283. Which of the Code provides international specific engineering standards for fire fighting equipments. 284. Breathing apparatus shall be capable of functioning for at least how many minutes 285. What is the required length of the lifeline that must be provided for each breathing apparatus 286. A face covering that is designed to form a complete seal around the eyes, nose and mouth which is secured in posiition by suitable means 287. A head covering which completely covers the head, neck and may cover portions of the shoulders 288. Each powder or carbon dioxide fire extinguisher shall have a capacity of at least how many kilograms. 289. Each foam extinguisher shall have a capacity of at least how many liters? 290. The discharged extinguishing medium froim this type of fire extinguisher forms a local inert atmosphere which isolates the burning of material from the surrounding air. 291. Which type of fire extinguisher is subject to windage which may limit their effectiveness in open air or in ventilated spaces. 292. Which type of fie extinguisher is best to use in the presence of electrical hazards. 293. Which type of fire extinguisher has a disadvantage and danger of malfunction

FSA

accede

Port State Control

SOLAS SOLAS LOADLINE (LL) MARPOL 73/78 Margin Line

floodable length

FSS

30 minutes

30 meters

face piece

hood

9 powder

carbon dioxide

carbon dioxide

mechanical foam

that may result to dangerous overpressure 294. There are currently two standards of classifiying fires as A, B, C, and D, according to the nature of the burning material. One standard is ISO 3941. the other is ________. 295. Class C according to International Organization for Standardization is fires involving ___________. 296. International shore connection is a flange having a permanently attached coupling that will fit the ship's hydrant and hoses on one and a ________ on the other side. 297. The flange of the international shore connection is about how many inches. 298. What makes the U.S. Oil Pollution Act of 1990 (OPA-90) different from other international recognized laws? 299. With regards to OPA-90, what may be the consequences of unlimited liability? 300. Term used to describe accident casualty when cause is attributed to the behavior of an indiviual or organization 301. Term used to describe accident casualty when cause is attributed to the mistakes of an indiviual or organization. 302. Specific acts of an individual or organization that either directly or indirectly cause an incident. 303. Is a type of human error when an operator is distracted or preoccupied with another task and allows a mistake to occur. 304. Is a type of humam error when an operator applied an incorrect rule and allows a mistake to occur. 305. An operator's attention may not stray far from the problem but problemsolving failures may occur due to lack of familiarity with the problem. 306. A type of human factor that contribute to operators commiting "error" because of their work environment 307. Factors that contribute to the occurance of mistakes due to relationships among individuals. 308. Human characteristics and behaviors are ____________ with the functioning of technology people design, build, maintain and operate. 309. Investigations revealed that MOST of the serious pollution incidents involving sea valves are directly due to _________. 310. Humam performance breakdowns resulting to accident are more likely a result of ________. 311. Mechanical device specifically designed for the removal of oil or oily mixture from the surface of water without altering its physical and/or chemical

IFPA 12

liquids or liquifible solids

flat face

the possibility of unlimited liability

that P & I will only cover USD 500 + 200 million and additional expenses will be charged the owner/operator of the vessel, if necessary by taking legal action to bring in the funds. human factor

human error

human error

skills-based

rule-based

knowledge-based

organizational factors

group factor

intrinsically linked

incorrect setting or handling

poor conscious choice or decisions

skimmers

characteristics 312. Oleophillic skimmers work by; 313. Which is NOT a type oil skimmer 314. Thes are used to prevent from oil spreading 315. Booms are held upright by 316. Type of boom that is made of fibres that absorb oil but not water 317. Which type of boom have largest freeboard 318. Which type of boom have good stability, and good for shallow water and tidal interface 319. Which type of boom have foam floation 320. Which type of boom has the largest freeboard, most robust and heavy duty inflatable boom 321. Which type of skimmer is dsigned for maximum oil collecting effeciency when water drift between 1-3 knots 322. This reduces the size of oil droplets and the wave action keeps the tiny droplets in the water column eventually breaking down naturally. 323. Which oil spill clean-up technique remove the oil from the surface of the water by "mixing" it into the water column 324. This valve consists of a disc shape blade which rotates on axis formed by a spindle set diametrically within the disc 325. Valve comprising a wedge shaped blade fitting into a mating slot formed within the valve body 326. When this valve is opened, a disc mounted on a threaded spindle is raised from the seat that allow flow through the valve aperture 327. Which of these valve is robust and less susceptable to damage 328. MOST of the serious pollution incidents involving sea valves are directly due to _________. 329. These valves are normally situated near the bottom shell and are use to control intake and discharge of ballast water 330. These valves are at a higher level in the ship on the discharge side of the pump and are the route for pumping ballast water to the sea 331. The outboard valves in any pair of sea valves are frequently fitted with which valve. 332. To provide early indication of leakage through inboard and outboard valves, a pressure or pressure vacuum gauge and a drain cok is installed in suitable locations in the pipework _________ the two valves. 333. When loading ballast water, opening the sea valves should be _______. 334. Sea valves are always duplicated in

attracting oils Fence booms tension member and ballast sorbent type ro type land/sea boom

fence type ro type

dynamic inclined plane type

dispersant

disperse

butterfly valve

gate valve

globe valve

gate valve incorrect setting or handling

sea valves

overboard discharge valves

gate valve

between

after starting the ballast pump any of these

series with a run of pipe between them. The valve farther from the sea is called "inboard" sea vales. These are fitted with which valve? 335. Any release caused from the ship and includes any escape, disposal, spillage, leakage and pumping 336. The term slop tank as used in the oil Pollution Regulation means a tank specifically designated for the collection of: 337. The Unified Interpretation of terms used in Marpol Convention is in Annex 1 of Marpol 73/78. What does SBT mean? 338. The use of sinking and dispersing agents for removal of surface oil is _________. 339. The water washing of cargo tanks and slop tanks containing residues of certain substances may produce dangerous reaction and should be carefully considered. 340. Three of the activities listed below are essential entries in the Oil Record Book of an oil tanker during discharge of dirty ballast of a tanker. Which need not be included? 341. Three of the following is essential to be recorded in the oil record book of a dry cargo vessel in discharging dirty ballast or cleaning water from fuel oil tanks. Which one is not? 342. To ensure that there are not leakage of bilge of water contaminated by oil from machinery spaces, it is required by regulations that the transfer of bilge water to slop tanks or holding tanks be recorded in the Machinery space oil record book. Listed are four information data. Which one is not required? 343. Two signatures are essential in the Oil Record Book of a dry-cargo vessel. These are ________. 344. Under Annex V to Marpol 73/78, garbage discharged from vessels that are located between 3 and 12 nautical miles from the nearest land must be ground to less than ___________. 345. Under International Convention for the Prevention of Pollution from ships 1973, it means the inter-govermental maritime consultative Organization. 346. Under MARPOL 73/78 Annex 1 of prevention pollution by oil when discharging oily mixtures from the cargo tank area tanker must have in operation: 347. Under Marpol Annex V requirements, the Master or person-incharge of an Ocean going vessel that intends to discharge medical or hazardous wastes ashore, must notify a receiving port or terminal in advance by at least

Discharge

all of these

segregated ballast tank

generally harmful to sea life

reactivity hazard

Date and time inert gas started and duration of operation

quantity of polluted water transferred to slop tanks

state quantity incinerated at reception facilities and port

the Master and the Officer in charge of the operations

25 mm

Organization

oil discharge monitoring and control system

24 hours

__________. 348. Under the International Convention for the Prevention of Pollution from Ships,1973, it means the government of the state whose authority the ship is operating 349. Under the Unified Interpretation of Annex I of MARPOL 73/78 CBT means what? 350. Under the Unified Interpretation of Annex I of Marpol 73/78 IGS means what? 351. Under the Unified Interpretation of Annex I of Marpol 73/78 PL means what? 352. Under the unified interpretation of Annex I of MARPOL 73/78 the abbreviation "CBT" means ___. 353. Under the Unified Interpretation of Marpol 73/78. Reg. 1 (6) what is a New Ship? 354. Useless and unneeded superfluous matter which is to be discarded: 355. Waste oil from the lube oil sumps of machinery may not be 356. What is crude oil? 357. What is instantaneous rate of discharge of oil content? 358. What is Segregated Ballast? 359. What is a product carrier as defined by Marpol 73/78? 360. What is a slop tank? 361. What is contained in Annex II of MARPOL 73/78? 362. What is contained in Annex III of MARPOL 73/78? 363. What is contained in Annex IV of MARPOL 73/78?

Administration

clean ballast tanks

Inert gas systems

Protection location (of segregated ballast tanks)

Clean Ballast tank

Any ship constructed and delivered after Dec. 31, 1979

waste drained into the vessel's bilges any liquid hydrocarbon mixture extracted from the earth whether treated or not to render it suitable for transportation rate of discharge of oil in liters per hour at any instant divided by the speed of the ship in knots at the same instant Ballast water loaded in a tank which is separate from the fuel oil and cargo oil system. An oil tanker engaged in the transportation of oil other than crude oil A tank designated for the collection of tank washing, drainage and oil mixture regulations for the control of pollution by Noxious liquid substances regulations for the prevention of pollution by garbage regulations by the prevention of pollution by sewage