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Aggarw al Corporat e Height s, 3rd Floor, Plot No. A - 7, Net aji Subhash Place,
Pit am Pura, Delhi - 110034 Phone: 011-45221189 - 93. Fax : 25222953

EXTRA PREPARATORY M ATERI AL FOR AI EEE
PHYSI CS

Reynolds Number R
e
:
e
v d
R

q
= where density :
v : velocity of flow.
d : diameter of pipe
visocity of the liquid : q
* R
e
< 1000, the flow is stream line or laminar
* 1000 < R
e
< 2000, the flow is unsteady
* R
e
> 2000, the flow is turbulent.

Free forced and damped oscillations and Resonance:

Free oscillations: When a system is displaced from its equilibrium position and released, it oscillates with its
natural frequencye, and the oscillations are called free oscillations.

Damped Oscillation: All free oscillations are eventually die out because of the presence of the damping
(resistive) forces, and these oscillations are called damped oscillations.

Forced Oscillations: If an external agent maintains the oscillations, these are called forced or driven
oscillations
In general damping forces is proportion to velocity and suppose an external force F(t) of amplitude F
0
that
varies periodically with time is applied to damped oscillator is represented as
0 d
F F cos t e = where
d
e is
called driven frequency then equation of motion is given as

0 d
ma kx bv F cos t e = +
or
2
0
2
d
d x dx
m b kx F cos t
dt
dt
e + + = .
The oscillator initially oscillates with its natural frequencye , when we apply the external periodic force, the
oscillations with the natural frequency die out, and then the body oscillates with the angular frequency of the
external periodic force. Solution to above equation is given as ( )
d
x A cos t e | = +
Where
( ) { }
0 0
1 2
2 2 2 2 2
0
and
/
d
d d
F v
A tan
x
m b
|
e
e e e

= =
+

where v
0
and x
0
are velocity and displacement of the particle at time t = 0, which is the moment when we apply
the periodic force.

Resonance: The phenomenon of increase in amplitude when the driving frequency is close to the natural
frequency of the oscillator is called resonance.

Drift velocity: When potential difference is applied across the conductor electrons move with an average
velocity which is independent of time, although electrons are accelerated. This is the phenomenon of drift and
the velocity v
d
is called the drift velocity.

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d
I n e Av = (1) I : current in the wire
n : no. density of electrons
A : area of cross-section of the wire
v
d
: drift velocity
also
d
e E
v
m
t = (2) E : electric field
m : mass of e s

e : electronic charge
t : relaxation time.
From equation (1) and (2) we have current density
2
I ne
J E
A m
t = = and comparing it with microscopic from
of ohm Law i.e. J E o = , we have (whereo : conductivity)

2
ne
m
o t =
Mobility : An important quantity is the mobility is defined as the magnitude of the drift velocity per unit
electric field.

( )
d
d
v
e E
& v
E m
t = =

e
m
t
=

Colour Codes of resistance:




The resistors have a set of coaxial colourd rings on them whose significance is listed in table.

Colour Number Multiplier Tolerance (%)
Black 0 1
Brown 1 10
1

Red 2 10
2

Orange 3 10
3

Yellow 4 10
4

Green 5 10
5

Blue 6 10
6

Violet 7 10
7

Gray 8 10
8

White 9 10
9

Gold
1
10

5
Silver
2
10

10
Nocolour 20

Note: the order of the first letter of the colours can be learned as
has
0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9
of reat ritain a ery ood ife
B B R O Y G B V G W

The first two bands from the end indicate the first two significant figures of the resistance in ohms. The Third band
indicates the decimal multiplier. The Last band stands for tolerance or possible variation in percentage.

First band
2
nd
band
Third band
Last band
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Cyclotron: The working of the cyclotron is based on the fact that the time period of revolution of circular motion of a
changed particle inside the magnetic field is independent of the radius of the circular motion
1 2
and
m mv
T R
f qB qB
t
= = = and R is increased as velocity is increased by an oscillating electric field between the two
Dees, which has same oscillating frequency as the frequency of revolution of the charge particle.

Definition of Ampere: The ampere is the value of that steady current which, when maintained in each of the two very
long, straight, parallel conductors of negligible cross-section, and placed one meter about in vacuum, would produce on
each of these conductors a force equal to
7
2 10

Newtons per meter of length

Current sensitivity of the galvanometer: is defined as the deflection per unit length.


N AB
I K
u
= N : no. of turns
A : area of coil
B : magnetic field strength
K : torque constant of spring
Bar magnet as an equivalent solenoid:

0
3
2
4
m
B
r

t
=

m is magnetic moment of the bar,
2
m i a t = .
When a magnetic needle of magnetic moment m and moment of inertia I is allowed to oscillate in magnetic field B,
then time period of its oscillation is given as 2
I
T
mB
t =

Sharpness of resonance: It is also called the quality factor Q of the circuit.

0 0
0
1
2
L
Q
R CR
e e
Ae e
= = =
Where
0
e : resonance frequency and e is difference in two angular frequencies at which the amplitude of current is
1 2 / times the amplitude of current at resonance.

EM waves: Direction of propagation of em waves is along E B .
* speed of light in vacuum
0 0
1
C

=
e

* speed of light in medium whose electric permittivity is E and magnetic permeability is
1
v

=
e

* If total energy transferred to a surface in time t is U, then magnitude of the total momentum delivered to this
surface (for complete absorption) is
U
P
C
= .
The microscope:
* Simple microscope: linear magnification 1 ; 25
D
m D cm
f
= + =
f : focal length.
angular magnification when image formed at infinity
D
m
f
=
* Compound microscope:
0
0
e
e
L D
m m m
f f
| | | |
= =
| |
\ . \ .

a B
i
2
r
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* Telescope:
0
e
f
m
f
= if length of the telescope is f
0
+ f
e

* Diffraction is the phenomenon of bending of light round the sharp corners and spreading into the regions of
the geometrical shadow is called diffraction.
* Diffraction from a slit
(i) Angular position of the n
th
secondary minimum
n
n
u
o
=
(ii) Distance of the n
th
secondary maximum from the centre of the screen
n
nD
x

o
=
(iii) Angular positions of the n
th
secondary maximum
( ) 2 1
2
n
n
n

u
+
' =
(iv) Distance of the n
th
secondary maximum from the centre of the screen
( ) 2 1
2
n
n D
x

o
+
' =
(v) Width of a secondary maximum or minimum
D
|
o
=
(vi) Width of the central maximum
0
2D
|
o
=
* The phenomenon due to which vibrations of light are restricted in a particular plane is called polarization.
* Brewsters Law states that when light is incident at polarizing angle, the reflected and refracted rays are
perpendicular to each other
Mathematically
p
tani =
* Law Malus states that when a completely plane polarized light beam is incident on an analyzer the intensity of
the emergent light varies as the square of the cosine of the angle between the plane of transmission of the
analyzer and the polarizes
Mathematically
2
0
I I cos u =
* Doppler shift.
(A)
v
v v
c
=
(B)
v
c
=
*. A semiconductor is perfect insulator at 0 K.
*. Te energy band formed by a series of level containing valence electrons is called valence band and the lowest
unfilled energy band formed just above the valence band is called conduction band. The energy gap between
valence band and conduction band is called forbidden energy gap.
*. In intrinsic or pure semiconductors
b e
n n = .
*. the process of adding impurity atoms (heptavalent or trivalent) to a pure semiconductor so as to increase
conductivity in controlled manner is doping.
*. In extrinsic semiconductor if
e
n is the electron density and
b
n in the hole density the material will be n-type
if
e b
n n > . The material will be p-type if
b e
n n > .
*. In metals, valence band and conduction band overlap therefore, energy gap, 0
g
E = . In semiconductors
1
g
E eV and insulators have 6
g
E eV .
*. In n-type semiconductor, conductivity

n e e
n e o =
In p-type semiconductor conductivity

p b b
n e o =
In intrinsic semiconductor conductivity

int rinsic b b e e
n e n e o = +
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*. A p-n junction or a diode may be assumed ideal diode. It may be assumed to act like an ON switch when
forward biased and like an OFF switch when reverse biased. That is, diode shows full conduction (r = 0) when
forward biased and no conduction ( r = ) when reverse biased.
*. Zener diode is a highly doped p-n diode which is not damaged by high reverse current. It is always used in
reverse bias in breakdown voltage region and is chiefly used as voltage regulator.
*. For a sufficiently high reverse bias voltage the reverse current increases. This voltage is called zener voltage
or breakdown voltage or avalanche voltage.
*. A transistor is a combination of two p-n junctions joined in series. A junction transistor is known as bipolar
junction transistor (BJT)
Transistor are of two type
(i) n-p-n and (ii) p-n-p transistor
*. A transistor has three regions
(i) An emitter (ii) A base (iii) A collector
*.










*.









*. and
1 1
e c b
i i i
o |
| o
o |
= + : = =
+

*. Use the relations in order to simplify logical expressions.
(i) A + A = A its dual A . A = A
(ii) 1 A A + = its dual = 0 A. A =
(iii) A + 1 = A its dual A . 1 = A
(iv) A + AB = A + B its dual A (A + B) = A
(v) A AB A B + = + its dual
( )
A A B AB + =
(vi) ; A B A.B A . B A B + = = +
(vii) 1 1 1 0 0 A A = ; + = + =
1.0 = 0.1 : 1 = 1
* NAND and NOR gates are universal gates. NOT gate is unipolar. All other gates are bipolar.
* A single which has only two levels of voltage are called digital signals. The two levels of a digital singal are
represented as 0 and 1.
* The OR gate
(i) Its Booleans expenssion is Y = A + B. The truth table of OR gate is given below
Current gain 1
c
i
e
i
A
i
o = = <
Voltage gain
1
1
V
i
R
A
r
o = = >
Power gain
2 1
1
1
p
R
A
r
o = >
No phase shift between input
and output
In common base (CB)
Amplifier
FB
h o =
Current gain
1
1
r
p
i
A
i
| = = >
Voltage gain
1
1
V
i
R
A
r
| = = >
Power gain
1
1
1
p
R
A
r
| = >
Phase shift = 180 or t rad
In common base (CE)
Amplifier
FB
h | =
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A B Y
0 0 0
0 1 1
1 0 1
1 1 1

(ii) The AND gate
Its Boolean expression is Y = A . B. The truth table of AND gate is given below
A B Y
0 0 0
0 1 0
1 0 0
1 1 1

(iii) The NOT gate
Its Boolean expression is Y A = . The truth table of NOT gate is given below
A Y
0 1
1 0

1. A potential difference V is applied to a copper wire of length and thickness d. If V is doubled, the drift
velocity
(A) is doubled (B) is halved (C) remains same (D) becomes zero

2. In a region
19
10 o -particle and
19
10 protons move to the left, while
19
10 electrons move to the right per
second. The current is
(A) 3.2 towards left (B) 3.2 A towards right
(C) 6.4 towards left (D) 6.4 A towards right

3. Every atom makes one free electron in copper. If 1 A current is flowing in the wire of copper having 1 mm
diameter, then the drift velocity (approx.) will be (density of copper =
3 3
9 10 kg m

and atomic weight of

copper = 63)
(A)
1
0 1 . mms

(B)
1
0 2 . mms

(C)
1
0 3 . mms

(D)
1
0 2 . cms

4. A charge of
2
2 10

C move at 30 revolutions per second in a circle of diameter 80cm. The current linked
with the circuit is :
(A) 0.02 A (B) 20 A (C) 0.60 A (D) 60 A

5. The electron hydrogen atom is considered to be revolving round a proton in circular orbit of radius
2 2
/ me
with velocity
2
e / , where 2 h / t = . The current is :
(A)
2 5
2
4 me t

(B)
2 2
3
4 me t

(C)
2 2 2
3
4 m e t

(D)
2 5
3
4 me t

6. Assume that each atom of copper contributes one free electron. What is the average drift velocity of
conduction electron in a copper wire of cross-sectional area
7 2
10 m

, carrying a current of 1.5 A? (Given

density of copper =
3 3
9 10 kgm

; atomic mass of copper = 63.5 ; Avogadros number =

23
6 023 10 . per
gram atom)
(A)
2 1
1 1 10 . ms

(B)
3 1
1 1 10 . ms

(C)
2 1
2 2 10 . ms

(D)
3 1
2 2 10 . ms



7. A current through a wire depends on time t is I = 10 + 4t. The charge crossing through the section of the wire
in to s is:
(A) 50 C (B) 300 C (C) 400 C (D) 4 C

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8. In the above question if potential difference is applied, the drift velocity at temperature T is :
(A) Inversely proportional to T (B) proportional to T
(C) zero (D) finite but independent of T

9. Two wires of the same material but different diameters carry the same current i. If the ratio of their diameters
is 2 : 1 then the corresponding ratio of their mean drift velocity will be :
(A) 4 : 1 (B) 1 : 1 (C) 1 : 2 (D) 1 : 4

10. A straight conductor of uniform cross section caries a current i. If s is the specific charge of an electron, the
momentum of all the free electrons per unit length of the conductor, due to their drift velocity only is:
(A) is (B) i / s (C) i / s (D) ( )
2
i / s
11. The amount of charge Q passed in time t through a cross section of a wire is
2
5 3 1 Q t t = + + . The value of
current at time t = 5 s is :
(A) 9A (B) 49A (C) 53A (D) None of these

12. In a neon gas discharge tube Ne
+
ions moving through a cross section of the tube each second to the right is
18
2 9 10 . , while
18
1 2 10 . electrons move towards left in the same time ; the electronic charge being
19
1 6 10 . C

, the net electric current is :

(A) 0.27 A to the right (B) 0.66 A to the right
(C) 0.66 A to the left (D) zero

13. The speed at which the current travels, in a conductor, is nearly
(A)
4 1
3 10 ms

(B)
5 1
3 10 ms

(C)
6 1
4 10 ms

(D)
8 1
3 10 ms

14. If the electronic charge is
19
1 6 10 . C

, then the number of electrons passing through a section of wire per

second, when the wire carries a current of 2 A is :
(A)
17
1 25 10 . (B)
17
1 6 10 . (C)
19
1 25 10 . (D)
19
1 6 10 .

15. Constant current is flowing through a liner conductor of non-uniform area of cross-section. The charge
flowing per second through the area of conductor at any cross-section is
(A) proportional to the area of cross section
(B) inversely proportional to the area of cross section
(C) independent of the area of cross section
(D) dependent on the length of conductor

16. A metallic block has no potential difference applied across it, then the mean velocity of free electrons at
absolute temperature T is :
(A) Proportional to T (B) proportional to T
(C) zero (D) finite but independent of T

17. A metallic resistor is connected across a battery. If the number of collisions of the free electrons with the
lattice is some how decreased in the resistor (for example by cooling it), the current will.
(A) remains constant (B) increase
(C) decrease (D) become zero

18. Current flows through a metallic conductor whose area of cross section increases in the direction of the
current. If we move in this direction.
(A) the carrier density will change (B) the current will change
(C) The drift velocity will decrease (D) The drift velocity will increase

19. A steady current is set up in a metallic wire of non-uniform cross section. How is the rate of flow of
electrons (R) related to the area of cross section (A) ?
(A)
1
R A

(B) R A (C)
2
R A (D) R is independent of A
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20. A capacitor of 10 F has a potential difference of 40V across it. If it is discharged in 0.2 s, the average current
during discharge is :
(A) 2mA (B) 4mA (C) 1mA (D) 0.5 mA
21. There is a current of 0.21 A in a copper wire whose area of cross section is
6 2
10 m

. If the number of free

electrons per m
3
is
28
8 4 10 . , then find the drift velocity, (
19
1 6 10 e . C

= )
(A)
5 1
2 10 ms

(B)
5 1
1 56 10 . ms

(C)
5 1
1 10 ms

(D)
5 1
0 64 10 . ms



22. The current density (number of free electrons per m
3
) in metallic conductor is of the order of
(A) 10
22
(B) 10
24
(C) 10
26
(D) 10
28


23. The steady current flows in a metallic conductor of non-uniform cross-section. The quantity/quantities
constant along the length of the conductor is/are.
(A) Current, electric field and drift velocity (B) drift speed only
(C) current and drift speed (D) current only

24. Which of the following characteristics of electron determines the current in a conductor ?
(A) Thermal velocity alone (B) Drift velocity alone
(C) Both thermal velocity and drift velocity (D) None the above

25. A potential difference of V is applied at the ends of a copper wire of length l and diameter d. On doubiling
only d the drift velocity
(A) becomes two times (B) become half
(C) does not change (D) becomes one-fourth

26. In the circuit shown figure potential difference between X and Y will be :
(A) zero
(B) 20V
(C) 60 V
(D) 120 V
27. The area of cross section of three magnets of same length are A, 2 A and 6A respectively. The ratio of their
magnetic moments will be :
(A) 6 : 2 : 1 (B) 1 : 2 : 6 (C) 2 : 6 : 1 (D) 1 : 1 : 1

28. A bar magnet of length 3 cm has a point A and B along axis at a distance of 24 cm and 48 cm on the opposite
ends. Ratio of magnetic fields at these points will be :
(A) 8 (B) 3
(C) 4 (D) 1 2 2 /

29. Two magnets of equal magnetic moments M each are
placed as shown in figure. The resultant magnetic moment
is :
(A) M
(B) 3 M
(C) 2M
(D) 2 M /

30. A short bar magnet placed with its axis at 30 , with a uniform external magnetic field of 0.25T experiences a
torque of
2
4 5 10 . N m

. Magnetic moment of the magnet is :

(A)
1
0 36 . J T

(B)
1
0 72 . J T

(C)
1
0 18 . JT

(D) Zero

31. A large magnet is broken into two pieces so that their length are in the ratio 2 : 1. The pole strength of the two
pieces will have ratio
(A) 2 : 1 (B) 1 : 2 (C) 4 : 1 (D) 1 : 1

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32. A short bar magnet with the north pole facing north forms a neutral point at P in the horizontal plane. If the
magnet is rotated by 90 in the horizontal plane, the net magnetic induction at P is (Horizontal component of
earths magnetic field = B
H
)
(A) zero (B) 2B
H
(C)
5
2
H
B (D) 5
H
B
33. The earths magnetic induction at a certain point is
1 2
7 10 Wbm

. This is to be annulled by the magnetic
induction at the centre of a circular conducting loop of radius 15 cm. The required current in the loop is :
(A) 0.56 A (B) 5.6 A (C) 0.28 A (D) 2.8 A

34. At a certain place, horizontal component is 3 times the vertical component. The angle of dip at this place is
(A) zero (B) 3 / t (C) 6 / t (D) None of these

35. The angle of dip at a certain place where the horizontal and vertical components of the earths magnetic field
ae equal is :
(A) 30 (B) 90 (C) 60 (D) 45

36. A magnet is placed on a paper in a horizontal plane for locating neutral points. A dip needle placed at the
neutral point will be horizontal at the
(A) magnetic poles (B) magnetic equator (C) latitude angle 45 (D) latitude angle of
60

37. A dip needle which is free to move in a vertical plane perpendicular to magnetic meridian will remain
(A) horizontal (B) vertical (C) neither horizontal nor vertical
(D) inclined

38. The variation of the intensity of magnetization (I) with
respect to the magnetizing field (H) in a diamagnetic
substance is described by the graph in figure.
(A) OD
(B) OC
(C) OB
(D) OA

39. The space inside a toroid is filled with tungsten shoes susceptibility is
5
6 8 10 .

. The percentage increase in
the magnetic field will be :
(A) 0.0068% (B) 0 0068 . % (C) 0 68 . % (D) None of these

40. Liquid oxygen remain suspended between two poles of magnet become it is :
(A) diamagnetic (B) paramagnetic (C) ferromagnetic (D) antiferromagnetic

41. The time period of a thin bar magnet in earths magnetic field is T. If the magnet is cut into four equal parts
perpendicular to its length, the time period of each part in the same field will be :
(A) T/2 (B) T/4 (C) 2T (D) 2T

42. A magnet freely suspended in a vibration magnetometer makes 40 oscillations per minute at a place A and 20
oscillations per minute at a plane B. If the horizontal component of earths magnetic field at
6
36 10 T

, then
its value at B is
(A)
6
36 10 T

(B)
6
9 10 T

(C)
6
144 10 T

(D)
6
228 10 T

43. A magnet performs 10 oscillations per minute in a horizontal plane at a plane where the angle of dip is 45
and the total intensity is 0.707 CGS units. The number of oscillations per minute at a place where dip angle
60 and total intensity is 0.5 CGS units will be :
(A) 5 (B) 7 (C) 9 (D) 11

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44. The magnetic needle of a tangent galvanometer is deflected at an angle 30 due to a magnet. The horizontal
component of earths magnetic field
4
0 34 10 . T

is along the plane of the coil. The magnetic intensity is :

(A)
4
1 96 10 . T

(B)
4
1 96 10 . T (C)
5
1 96 10 . T

(D)
5
1 96 10 . T
45. A bar magnet is oscillating in the Earths magnetic field with a period T. What happens to its period of motion
if its mass is quadrupled?
(A) Motion remains SHM with time period = T/2
(B) Motion remains SHM and period remains nearly constant
(C) Motion remains SHM with time period = T/2
(D) Motion remains SHM with time period = 4T

46. The correct 1-H curve for a paramagnetic material is represented by, figure.







(A) (B) (C) (D)
47. Two bar magnets of the same mass, same length and breadth but having magnetic moments M and 3M are
joined together pole for pole and suspended by a string. The time period of assembly in a magnetic field of
strength H is 3s. If now the polarity of one of the magnets is reversed and the combination is again made to
oscillation in the same field, the time of oscillation is :
(A) 3s (B) 3 3s (C) 3 3 / s (D) 6s

48. The variation of magnetic susceptibility ( _ ) with temperature for a diamagnetic substance is best represented
by figure.





(A) (B) (C) (D)
49. An inductor of 10mH shows 50 mH when operated with a core made of ferrite. The susceptibility of ferrite is :
(A) 5 (B) 4 (C) 3 (D) None of these

50. A uniform magnetic field parallel to the plane paper existed in space initially directed from left to right. When
a bar of soft iron is placed in the field parallel to it, the lines of force passing through it will be represented by
figure.



(A) (B)



(C) (D)


51. The relative permeability of a substance X is slightly less than unity and that of substance Y is slightly more
than unity, then
(A) X is paramagnetic and Y is ferromagnetic (B) X is diamagnetic and Y is ferromagnetic
(C) X and Y both are paramagnetic (D) X is diamagnetic and Y is paramagnetic

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52. The magnetizing field required to be applied in opposite direction to reduce residual magnetism to zero is
called
(A) coercivity (B) retentivity (C) hysteresis (D) None of these

53. The magnifying power of a telescope is 9. When it is adjusted for parallel rays, the distance between the
objective and the eye piece is found to be 20 cm . The focal lengths of the lenses are
(A) 18 cm, 2 cm (B) 11 cm, 9cm (C) 10 cm, 10 cm (D) 15 cm, 5 cm

54. In compound microscope, magnifying power is 95 and the distance of object from objective lens is
1
3 8
cm
.
.
The focal length of objective lens is
1
4
cm . What is the magnification of eye piece?
(A) 5 (B) 10 (C) 100 (D) 200

55. The focal length of the objective and eyelenses of a microscope are 1.6 cm and 2.5 cm respectively. The
distance between the two lenses is 21.7 cm. If the final image is formed at infinity, the distance between the
object and the objective lens :
(A) 1.8 cm (B) 1.70 cm (C) 1.65 cm (D) 1.75 cm

56. Two points separated by a distance of 0.1 mm, can just be inspected on a microscope when light of
wavelength 6000 is used. If the light of wavelength 4800 is used, the limit of resolution is :
(A) 0.8 mm (B) 0.08 mm (C) 0.1 mm (D) 0.04 mm

57. The diameter of moon is
3
3 5 10 . km . The focal length of the objective and eye-piece are 4m and 10cm
respectively. The diameter of the image of the moon will be approximately
(A) 2 (B) 21 (C) 40 (D) 50

58. With diaphragm of the camera lens set at 2 f / , the correct exposure time is 1/100s. Then with diaphragm set
f/8, the correct exposure time is :
(A) 1/100s (B) 1/400s (C) 1/200s (D) 16/100s

59. An objective is viewed through a compound microscope and appears in focus when it is 5mm away from the
objective lens. When a sheet of transparent material 3 mm thick is place between the objective and the
microscope, the objective lens has to be moved 1 mm to bring the object back into the focus. The refractive
index of the transparent material is :
(A) 1.5 (B) 1.6 (C) 1.8 (D) 2.0

60. A hypermetropic person having near point at a distance of 0.75m puts on spectacles of power 2.5 D. The near
point now is at
(A) 0.75 m (B) 0.83 m (C) 0.26 cm (D) 0.26 m

61. An astronomical telescope has a converging eye-piece of focal length 5cm and objective of focal length 80 cm.
When the final image is formed at the least distance of distinct vision (25 cm), the separation between the two
lenses is :
(A) 75.0 cm (B) 80.0 cm (C) 84.2 cm (D) 85.0cm

62. The focal length of objective and eye lens of an astronomical telescope are respectively 2m and 5 cm. Final
image is formed at (1) least distance of distinct vision (2) infinity. Magnifying powers in two cases will be :
(A) 48 40 , (B) 40 48 , (C) 40 48 , + (D) 48 40 , +

63. A mans near point is 0.5 m and far point is 3m. Power spectacle lenses repaired for
(i) reading purposes (ii) seeing distance objects, respectively.
(A) 2 and 3 D D + (B) 2 and 3 D D + (C) 2 and 0 33 D . D + (D) 2 and 0 33 D . D +

64. A hypermetropic person has to use a lens of power +5D to normalize his vision. The near point of the
hypermetropic eye is
(A) 1 m (B) 1.5 m (C) 0.5 m (D) 0.66 m
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65. A compound microscope has an objective and eye-piece as thin lenses of focal length 1 cm and 5 cm
respectively. The distance between the objective and the eye-piece is 20 cm. The distance at which the
objective must be placed infront of the objective if the final image is located at 25 cm from the eye-piece, is
numerically.
(A) 95 6 / cm (B) 5 cm (C) 95 89 / cm (D) 25 6 / cm

66. The focal length of the objective and the eye-piece of a microscope are 4 mm respectively. If the final image is
formed at infinity and the length of the tube 16cm, then the magnifying power of microscope will be :
(A) 337 5 . (B) 3 75 . (C) 3 375 . (D) 33 75 .

67. A simple microscope consists of a concave lens of power 10D and a convex lens of power 20D + in contact.
If the image is formed at infinity, then the magnifying power CD = 25cm is :
(A) 2.5 (B) 3.5 (C) 2.0 (D) 3.0

68. The magnifying power of an astronomical telescope is 10 and the focal length of its eye-piece is 20 cm. The
focal length of its objective will be :
(A) 200 cm (B) 2 cm (C) 0.5 cm (D)
2
0 5 10 . cm

69. A parallel beam of light of wavelength 3141.59 is incident on a small aperture. After passing through the
aperture, the beam is no longer parallel but diverges at 1 to the incident direction. What is the diameter of the
aperture?
(A) 180 m (B) 18 m (C) 1.8 m (D) 0.18 m

70. To observe diffraction, the size of an aperture
(A) Should be of the same order as wavelength should be much larger than the wavelength
(B) should be much larger than the wavelength
(C) have no relation to wavelength
(D) should be exactly 2 /

71. Air has refractive index 1.003. The thickness of air column, which will have one more wave length of yellow
light ( 6000 ) then in the same thickness of vacuum is :
(A) 2 mm (B) 2 cm (C) 2 m (D) 2 km

72. The distance between the first and the sixth minima in the diffraction pattern of a single slit is 0.5 mm. The
screen is 0.5m away from the slit. If the wavelength of light used is 5000 , then the slit width will be :
(A) 5 mm (B) 2.5 mm (C) 1.25 cm (D) 1.0 mm

73. Plane microwave are incident on a long lit having width of 5 cm. The wavelength of the microwave if the first
minimum is formed at 30 is :
(A) 2.5 cm (B) 2 cm (C) 25 cm (D) 2 mm

74. A plane wave of wavelength 6250 is incident normally on a slit of width
2
2 10 cm

. The width of the

principal maximum on a screen distance 50 cm will be :
(A)
3
312 5 10 . cm

(B)
4
312 5 10 . cm

(C) 312 cm (D)

5
312 5 10 . cm

75. The main difference between the phenomena of interference and diffraction is that
(A) diffraction is caused by reflected wave from a source whereas interference is caused due to refraction
of wave from a source.
(B) diffraction is due to interaction of waves derived from the same source, whereas interference is that
bending of light from the same wavefornt
(C) diffraction is due to interaction of light from wavefront, whereas the interference is the interaction of
two waves derived from the same source.
(D) diffraction is due to interaction light from the same wavefront whereas interference is the interaction
of wave from two isolated sources.


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76. Light of wavelength 6000 is incident on a single slit. The first minimum of the diffraction pattern is
obtained at 4 mm from the centre. The screen is at a distance of 2m from the slit. The slit width will be :
(A) 0.3mm (B) 0.2mm (C) 0.15 mm (D) 0.1 mm

77. The Fraunholder diffraction pattern of a single slit is formed in the focal plane of a lens of focal length 1 m.
The width of slit is 0.3mm. If third minimum is formed at a distance of 5 mm from central maximum, then
wavelength of light will be :
(A) 5000 (B) 2500 (C) 7500 (D) 8500

78. What should be refractive index of a transparent medium to be invisible in vacuum?
(A) 1 (B) < 1 (C) > 1 (D) None of these

79. A slit 5 cm wide is irradiated normally with microwaves of wavelength 1.0 cm. Then the angular spread of the
central maximum on either side of incident light is nearly
(A) 1/5 rad (B) 4 rad (C) 5 rad (D) 6 rad

80. Which of the following phenomena is not to common to sound and light waves?
(A) Interference (B) Diffraction (C) Coherence (D) Polarisation

81. A beam of ordinary unpolarised light passes through a tourmaline crystal C
1
and then it passes through another
tourmaline crystal C
2
, which is oriented such that its principal plane is parallel to that of C
2
. The intensity of
emergent light is I
0
. Now C
2
is rotated by 60 about the ray. The emergent ray will have an intensity.
(A) 2I
0
(B) I
0
/2 (C) I
0
/4 (D)
0
I 2 /

82. A ray of light strikes a glass plate at an angle of 60 . If the reflected an refracted rays are perpendicular to
each other, the index of refraction of glass is
(A)
1
2
(B)
3
2
(C)
3
2
(D) 1 732 .

83. An unpolarised beam of intensity 2a
2
passes through a thin Polaroid. Assuming zero absorption in the
Polaroid, the intensity of emergent plane polarized light is :
(A)
2
2a (B)
2
a (C)
2
2a (D)
2
2
a

84. 80 g of impure sugar when dissolved in a liter of water gives an optical rotation of 9 9 . , when placed in a tube
of length 20cm. If the specific rotation of sugar is 66 , then concentration of sugar solution will be :
(A)
1
80 gL

(B)
1
75 gL

(C)
1
65gL

(D)
1
50gL

85. If for a calcite crystal and
o e
are the refractive indices of the crystal for O-ray and E-ray respectively, then
along the optic axis of the crystal
(A)
o e
= (B)
e o
= (C)
e o
= (D) None of these

86. and
a m
are the wavelength of a beam of light in air and medium respectively. If u is the polarizing single,
the correct relation between and
a m
u , is :
(A)
2
a m
tan u = (B)
2
m a
tan u =
(C)
a m
cot u = (D)
m a
cot u =

87. Ordinary light incident on a glass slab at the polarizing angle, suffers a deviation of 22 . The value of the
angle of refraction in glass in this case is :
(A) 56 (B) 68 (C) 34 (D) 22

88. At what angle should an unpolarised beam be incident on a crystal of 3 = , so that reflected beam is
polarized?
(A) 45 (B) 60 (C) 90 (D) 0



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89. An n-type semiconductor is
(A) negatively charged
(B) positively charged
(C) neutral
(D) negatively or positively charged depending upon the amount of impurity

90. The correct relation between
e
n and
h
n in an intrinsic semiconductor at ordinary temperature is
(A)
e h
n n > (B)
e h
n n < (C)
e h
n n = (D) 0
e h
n n = =

91. The resistivity of a semiconductor at room temperature is in between ?
(A)
2 5
10 to 10 cm

(B)
2 6
10 to 10 cm
(C)
6
10 108 to cm (D)
10 12
10 to 10 cm

92. The ratio of electron and hole current in a semiconductor is 7/4 and the ratio of drift velocities of electrons and
holes is 5/4, then ratio of concentration of electrons and hole will be :
(A) 5/7 (B) 7/5 (C) 25/49 (D) 49/25

93. p-type semiconductors are
(A) positively charged
(B) produced when boron is added as an impurity
(C) produced when phosphorus is added as an impurity to silicon
(D) produced when carbon is added as an impurity to germanium

94. A piece of copper and other of germanium are cooled from the room temperature to 80 K, then
(A) resistance of each will increase
(B) resistance of each will decrease
(C) the resistance of copper will increase, while that of germanium will decrease
(D) the resistance of copper will decrease, while that of germanium will increase

95. A donor impurity results in the
(A) production of n-semiconductor (B) production of p-semiconductor
(C) increase of resistance of the semiconductor (D) energy bands just above the filled valency band

96. Electrical conductivity of a semiconductor
(A) increases with the rise in its temperature (B) decrease with the rise in its temperature
(C) does not change with the rise in its temperature
(D) first increase and then decreases with the rise in its temperature

97. An n-type and a p-type silicon semiconductor can be obtained by doping pure silicon with
(A) sodium and magnesium (B) phosphorus and boron respectively
(C) boron and phosphorus respectively (D) indium and sodium respectively

98. A silicon specimen is made into a p-type semiconductor by doping, on an average, one indium atom per
7
5 10 silicon atoms. If the number density of atoms in the silicon specimen in
28
5 10 atoms
3
m

, then
the number of acceptor atoms in silicon per cubic centimeter will be :
(A)
30 3
2 5 10 atoms . cm

(B)
35 3
2 5 10 atoms . cm

(C)
13 3
1 0 10 atoms . cm

(D)
15 3
1 0 10 atoms . cm

99. The typical ionization energy of a donar in silicon is
(A) 10.0 eV (B) 1.0 eV (C) 0.1 eV (D) 0.0001 eV

100. The energy gap of silicon is 1.14 eV. The maximum wavelength at which silicon starts energy absorption, will
be
( )
34 8 1
6 62 10 3 10 h . Js c ms

= ; =
(A) 10 888 . (B) 108 88 . (C) 1088 8 . (D) 10888

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101. A sinusolul voltage of peak value 200 volt is connected to a diode
and resistor R in the circuit figure, so that halfwave rectification
occurs. If the forward resistance of the diode is negligible compared
to R, the RMS voltage (in volt) across R is approximately.
(A) 200 (B) 100
(C)
200
2
(D) 280

102. In a junction diode, the direction diffusion current is :
(A) from t -region to p-region
(B) from p-region to t -region
(C) from t -region to p-region if the junction is forward baised and vice if it is reverse baised.
(D) from p-region to t - region if the junction is forward baised and vice versa if it is reversed biased

103. The correct curve between potential (V) and distance (d) near p n junction is :




(A) (B) (C) (D)

104. If the forward voltage in a semiconductor diode is changed from 0.5V to 0.7 V, then the forward current
changes by 1.0 mA. The forward resistance of diode junction will be :
(A) 100 (B) 120 (C) 200 (D) 240

105. The value of ripple for full wave rectifier is :
(A) 40 6% . (B) 48 2% . (C) 81 2% . (D) 121%

106. The average value of output direct current in a half wave rectifier is :
(A)
0
I / t B)
0
2 I / (C)
0
2 I / t (D)
0
2I / t

107. For a junction diode the ratio of forward current (
p
I ) and reverse current (
r
I ) is :
[
e
I = electronic charge, V = voltage applied across junction
K = Boltzmann constant T = temperature in Kelvin]
(A)
V / kT
e

(B)
v / kT
e (C)
( )
1
eV / kT
e

+ (D)
( )
1
V / KT
e
108. The value of current in the following diagram will be
(A) zero
(B)
2
10 A

(C) 10A
(D) 0 025 . A

109. In case of a p-n junction diode at high value of reverse bises, the current rises sharply. The value of reverse
bias is known as :
(A) cut-off voltage (B) zener voltage (C) inverse voltage (D) critical voltage

110. In a p-n junction diode
(A) the current in the reverse biased condition is generally very small
(B) The current in the reverse biased condition is small but the forward biased current is independent of
the bias voltage
(C) The reverse biased current is strongly dependent on the applied bias voltage
(D) The forward biased current is very small in comparison to reverse biased current



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111. p-n junction is said to be forward biased, when
(A) the positive pole of the battery is joined to the p-semiconductor and negative pole to the
n-semiconductor
(B) the positive pole of the battery is joined to the n-semiconductor and negative pole to the
n-semiconductor and p-semiconductor
(C) the positive pole of the battery is connected to n-semiconductor and p-semiconductor
(D) a mechanical force is applied in the forward direction

112. The reverse bias in a junction diode is changed from 8 V to 13 V then the value of the current changes from
40 A to 60 A . The resistance of junction diode will be :
(A)
5
2 10 (B)
5
2 5 10 . (C)
5
3 10 (D)
5
4 10

113. Consider the junction diode is ideal. The value of current in the figure is :
(A) zero (B)
2
10 A

(C)
1
10 A

(C)
3
10 A

114. If the two ends p and n of a p-n diode junction are joined by a wire
(A) there will not be a steady current in the circuit
(B) there will be a steady current from n-side to p-side
(C) there will be a steady current from p-side to n-side
(D) there will not be a current depending upon the resistance of the connecting wire.

115. Current gain in common emitter configuration is more than 1 because
(A)
c b
I I < (B)
c e
I I < (C)
c e
I I > (D)
c b
I I >

116. Current gain in common base configuration is less than 1 because
(A)
e b
I I < (B)
b e
I I < (C)
c e
I I < (D)
e c
I I <

117. Three amplifier stages each with a gain of 10 are cascaded. The overall gain is :
(A) 10 (B) 30 (C) 1000 (D) 100

118. A transistor has 40 | = . A change in base current of 100 A , produces change in collector current.
(A) 40 100 A (B) ( ) 100 40 A (C) 100 40 A + (D) 100 40 A

119. Current gain
AC
| common emitter mode of transistor is
(A)

C
AC C
S
I
V
I
|
| |
= ,
|
\ .
= constant (B)
B
AC C
C
I
V
I
A
|
A
| |
= ,
|
\ .
= constant
(C)

C
AC C
E
I
V
I
|
| |
= ,
|
\ .
= constant (D)

E
AC C
C
I
V
I
|
| |
= ,
|
\ .
= constant
120. Current gain of a transistor in common base mode is 0.95. Its value in common emitter mode is :
(A) 0.95 (B) 1.5 (C) 19 (D) ( )
1
19



121. The current gain of a transistor in a common emitter configuration is 40. If the emitter current is 8.2 mA, then
base current is :
(A) 0.02 mA (B) 0.2 mA (C) 2.0 mA (D) 0.4mA

122. In a common emitter transistor amplifier
0
60 5000 R | = , = and internal resistance of a transistor if
500 . The voltage amplification of amplifier will be :
(A) 500 (B) 460 (C) 600 (D) 560

123. In a n-p-n transistor
10
10 electrons enter the emitter in
6
10 s

. 4% of the electrons are lost in base. The

current transfer ratio will be :
(A) 0.98 (B) 0.97 (C) 0.96 (D) 0.94

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124. A transistor has a base current of 1 mA and emitter current 90 mA. The collector current will be :
(A) 90mA (B) 1 mA (C) 89 mA (D) 91mA

125. In a common base transistor circuit, the current gain is 0.98. On Changing emitter current by 5.00 mA , the
change in collector current is :
(A) 0.196 mA (B) 2.45mA (C) 4.9mA (D) 5.1mA


126. The equivalent decimal number of binary number (11001.001)
2
is :
(A) 19.100 (B) 19.050 (C) 25.250 (D) 25.125

127. What is the value of A . A in Boolean algebra?
(A) zero (B) 1 (one) (C) A (D) A

128. What is the output Y of the gate circuit shown in figure ?
(A) A . B (B) A .B
(C) A . B (D) A . B

129. Which gate is represented by the symbolic diagram given here?
(A) AND gate (B) NAND gate
(C) OR gate (D) NOR gate

130. What is the name of the gate obtained by the combination shown in figure?
(A) NAND (B) NOR
(C) NOT (D) XOR

131. The following configuration of gate is equivalent to figure.
(A) NAND
(B) XOR
(C) OR
(D) None of these



132. When A is the internal stage gain of an amplifier and | is the feedback ratio, then the amplifier becomes as
oscillator if
(A) | is negative and magnitude of 2 A/ | =
(B) | is negative and magnitude 1/ A | =
(C) | is negative and magnitude of A | =
(D) | is positive and magnitude of 1/ A | =

133. For the given combination of gates, if the logic states of inputs A, B C are as follows A = B = C = 0 and
A = B = 1, C = 0, then the logic states of output D are
(A) 0, 0 (B) 0, 1
(C) 1, 0 (C) 1, 1

134. The circuit shown in the figure contains two diodes each
with a forward resistance of 50 and with infinite
backward resistance. If the battery is 6 V, the current
through the 100 resistance (in ampere) is :
(A) Zero
(B) 0.02
(C) 0.03
(D) 0.036


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135. A full wave rectifier circuit along with the input and output are shown in the figure, the contribution from the
diode I is (are)




(A) C (B) A, C (C) B, D (D) A, B, C, D

136. The combination of NAND gates shown here under
figure, are equivalent to
(A) an OR gate and an AND gate respectively
(B) An AND gate and a NOT gate respectively
(C) An AND gate and an OR gate respectively
(D) An OR gate and a NOT gate respectively

137. In p-n junction, the barrier potential offers resistance to
(A) free electrons in n-region and holes in p-region
(B) free electrons in p-region and holes in n region
(C) Only free electron in n-region
(D) only holes in p-region

138. In the case of forward biasing of p-n junction, which one of the following figures correctly depicts the
direction of flow of carriers?

(A) (B)




(C) (D)



139. In an intrinsic semiconductor, the Fermi level is
(A) nearer to valency band than conduction band
(B) equidistance from conduction band and valency band
(C) nearer to conduction band than valency band
(D) bisecting the conduction band

140. In a common base amplifier circuit, calculate the change in the base current if that in the emitter current is 2
mA and 0 98 . o =
(A) 0.04 mA (B) 1.96 mA (C) 0.98 mA (D) 2mA

141. Platinum and silicon are heated upto 250 C and after that cooled. In the process of cooling
(A) resistance of platinum will increase and that of silicon will decrease
(B) resistance of both will increase
(C) resistance of platinum will decrease and that of silicon will increase
(D) resistance of both will decrease

142. Doping of a semiconductor (with small traces of impurity atoms) generally changes the resistivity as follows
(A) does not alter
(B) increase
(C) decreases
(D) may increases or depending on the dopant

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143. A semiconductor device is connected in a series circuit with a battery and a resistance. A current is found to
pass through the circuit. If the polarity of the battery is reversed, the current drops almost to zero. The device
may be:
(A) a p type semiconductor (B) an n-type semiconductor
(C) decreases (D) an intrinsic semiconductor

144. The correct relation between the two current gains o and | in a transistor is :
(A)
1
o
|
o
=
+
(B)
1
|
o
|
=

(C)
1
|
o
|
=
+
(D)
1 |
o
|
+
=

145. The diode used in the circuit shown in the figure has a
constant voltage drop of 0.5 V at all currents and a
maximum power rating of 100 mW. What should be the
value of the resistor R, connected in series with the diode
for obtaining maximum current?
(A) 1 5 . (B) 5 (C) 6 67 . (D) 200
146. In p-type semiconductors, conduction is due to
(A) greater number of holes and less number of electrons
(B) Only electrons
(C) Only holes
(D) greater number of electrons and less number of holes.

147. In the a common emitter amplifer, using output resistance of 5000 and input resistance of 2000, if the
peak value of input singal voltage is 10mV and 50 | = , then peak value of output voltage is :
(A)
6
5 10 V

(B)
6
12 50 10 . V

(C) 125 V (D) 125.0 V

148. What is the output of the combination of the gates shown in the figure?
(A) A A. B + (B) ( )
( )
A B A . B + +
(C) ( )
( )
A B . A .B + (D) ( )
( )
A B . A B + +


149. If a zener diode (V
z
= 5V and I
z
= 10 mA) is connected in series with a resistance and 20 V is applied across
the combination, then the maximum resistance one can use without spoiling zener action is
(A) 20 k (B) 15 k (C) 10 k (D) 1 5 . k

150. If the output of a logic gate is 0 when all its inputs are at logic 1, then the gate is either.
(A) NAND or Ex-NOR (B) NOR or OR
(C) Ex-OR or NOR (D) AND or NOR

151. The circuit shown in the figure contains two diodes each
with a forward resistance of 30 and with infinite
backward resistance. If the battery is 3V, the current
through the 50 resistance (in ampere) is :
(A) zero (B) 0.01
(C) 0.02 (D) 0.03


152. In the network shown, the current flowing through the battery of negligible internal resistance is
(A) 0.10 A
(B) 0.15 A
(C) 0.20 A
(D) 0.30 A



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153. The output Y of the logic circuit shown in figure is best represented as
(A) A B . C + (B) A B . C +
(C) A B . C + (D) A B.C +


154. A p-n junction (D) shown in the figure can act as
a rectifier. An alternating current source (V) is
connected in the circuit. The current (I) in the
resistor (R) can be shown by

(A) (B) (C) (D)



155. In the circuit as shown in figure, A and B represent two inputs and C represents the
(A) OR gate
(B) NOR gate
(C) AND gate
(D) NAND gate

156. A working transistor with its three legs marked P, Q and R is tested using a multimeter. No. conduction is
found between P and Q. By connecting the common (negative terminal of the multimeter to R and the other
(positive) terminal to P or Q, some resistance is seen on the multimeter. Which of the following is true for the
transistor?
(A) It is an n-p-n transistor with R as collector
(B) It is n-p-n transistor with R as base
(C) It is p-n-p transistor with R as collector
(D) It is p-n-p transistor with R as emitter

157. Carbon, silicon and germanium have four valence electron each. At room temperature, which one of the
following statements is most appropriate?
(A) The number of free electrons for conduction is significant only in Si and Ge but small in C.
(B) The number of free conduction electrons is negligibly small in Si and Ge
(C) The number of free conduction electrons is negligibly small in all the three
(D) The number of free electrons for conduction is significant in all the three


158. In common base mode of transistor, the collector current is 5.488 Ma for an emitter current of 5.60mA. The
value of the base current amplification factor ( | ) will be
(A) 48 (B) 49 (C) 50 (D) 51

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CHEM I STRY
Theory for Purification of Compounds

Estimation of C & H
2
mass of CO 12
of 100
44 mass of organic compound
% C =
2
mass of H O 2
of 100
18 mass of organic compound
% H =

Estimation of N

(a) DUMAs method:
2
vol. of N evolved @STP 28
% of N = 100
22, 400 mass of organiccompound

(b) KJELDAHLs method:

2 4
2 4
Molarity of H SO vol. of NaOH
% of N = 1.4 2 vol. of H SO -
mass of organic compound 2
| |
|
\ .


Estimation of Halogens

35 5 wt. of AgCl
of 100
143 5 wt. of compound
.
% Cl
.
=

80 wt. of AgBr
of 100
188 wt. of compound
% Br =

127 wt. of AgI
of 100
235 wt. of compound
% I =

Estimation of Sulphur

4
wt. of BaSO 32
of 100
233 wt. of organic compound
% S =

Estimation of Phosphorus

2 2 7
wt. of Mg P O formed 62
% of P = 100
222 wt. of compound

Estimation of Oxygen
% of oxygen = 100 sum of % of all other elements.

Environment al Chemist ry
1. Which of the following is the hottest region of the atmosphere?
(A) Mesosphere (B) Stratosphere
(C) Thermosphere (D) Troposphere
2. Radioactive pollutions in caused by
(A) solid pollutants (B) liquid pollutants
(C) gaseous pollutants (D) None of these
3. The biotic and abiotic components that are affected adversely from harmful substances are called
(A) target (B) receptor (C) atmosphere (D) Both (A) and (B)
4. Which of the following is a biodegradable pollutant?
(A) Plastic (B) Sewage (C) Asbestos (D) Mercury
Vidyamandir Classes

VMC 22 AI EEE-2012
5. A secondary pollutant is.
(A) CO (B) CO
2
(C) PAN (D) Aerosol
6. Pneumoconiosis is caused by in halation of
(A) coal dust (B) silica dust (C) cotton fibre dust (D) asbestos dust
7. White lung cancer is caused by
(A) asbestos (B) silica (C) paper (D) textiles
8. Chlorofluorocarbons (CFCs) are widely used by earth conditioners, refrigerators etc because of
being.
(A) highly reactive (B) flammable
(C) non reactive (D) All of these
9. Which of the following is a viable particulate?
(A) Algae (B) Smoke (C) Mist (D) Fumes
10. Photochemical smog is caused by
(A) CO (B) CO
2
(C) O
3
(D) NO
2

11. Los Angeles smog is
(A) sulphurous smog (B) photochemical smog
(C) industrial smog (D) All of these
12. Which of the following is not a green house gas?
(A) CO
2
(B) Water vapour (C) CH
4
(D) O
2

13. What BOD
5
represent?
(A) Biological ozone depletion in five days
(B) Dissolved oxygen left after five days
(C) Dissolved oxygen consumed in five days
(D) Micro-organisms killed by ozone in sewage treatment plants in five hours
14. Drained sewage has BOD
(A) more than that of water (B) less than that of water
(C) equal to that of water (D) None of these
15. Phosphate pollution is caused by
(A) weathering of phosphate rocks only (B) agricultural fertilizers only
(C) phosphate rocks and sewage (D) sewage and agricultural fertilizers
16. Minamata disease is due to pollution of
(A) organic waste into drinking water (B) oil spill in water
(C) industrial waste mercury into fishing water (D) arsenic into the atmosphere
17. For a healthy aquatic life, the amount of dissolved oxygen in a water body must be equal to
(A) 5 ppm (B) 4 ppm (C) 3 ppm (D) 2 ppm
18. Which one of the following is not an application of green chemistry?
(A) Replacement of CFCs by CO
2
as blowing agent in the manufacture of polystyrene foam
sheets
(B) Reacting methylamine and phosgene to produce methyl isocyanate
(C) Replacement of organotins by sea-nine as anti fouling compound in sea marines
(D) Catalytic dehydrogenation of the diethanol amine without using cyanide and formaldehyde

Vidyamandir Classes

VMC 23 AI EEE-2012
19. The greatest affinity for hameoglobin is shown by
(A) NO (B) CO (C) O
2
(D) CO
2

20. When rain is accompanied by a thunderstorm, the collected rain water will have a pH value
(A) uninfluenced by occurrence of thunderstorm
(B) which depends on the amount of dust in air
(C) slightly lower than that of rain without thunderstorm
(D) slightly higher than that when the thunderstorm is not there
21. The instrument used for measuring soil salinity is.
(A) photometer (B) voltameter
(C) conductivitymeter (D) calorimeter
22. Statement-1: Photochemical smog is produced by nitrogen oxides.
Statement-2: Vehicular pollution is a major source of nitrogen oxides.
(A) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True and Statement-2 is a correct for Statement-1
(B) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True and Statement-2 is NOT correct explanation for Statement-1
(C) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is False
(D) Statement-1 is False, Statement-2 is True
23. Which of the following is responsible for depletion of the ozone layer in the upper strata of the
atmosphere?
(A) Polyhalogens (B) Ferrocenes (C) Fullerenes (D) Freons
24. Pick p the correct statement
(A) CO which is major pollutant resulting from the combustion of fuels in automobiles plays a
major role in photochemical smog
(B) Classical smog has an oxidizing character while the photochemical smog is reducing in
character
(C) Photochemical smog occurs in day time whereas the classical smog occurs in early morning
hours
(D) During formation of smog the level of ozone in the atmosphere goes down
25. In Antarctica ozone depletion is due to the formation of following compound
(A) acrolein (B) peroxyacetyl nitrate
(C) SO
2
and SO
3
(D) chlorine nitrate




Purif icat ion of Organic Compounds
26. A mixture of camphor and benzoic acid can be easily separated by
(A) sublimation (B) extraction with solvent
(C) fractional crystallisation (D) chemical method
27. Chromatography technique is used for the separation of
(A) small samples of mixture (B) plant pigments
(C) dyestuff (D) All of the above
28. Fractional distillation is useful in distillation of
(A) petroleum (B) coal-tar
(C) crude alcohol (D) All of these
Vidyamandir Classes

VMC 24 AI EEE-2012
29. Steam distillation is based on the fact that vaporization of organic liquid takes place at
(A) Lower temperature than is boiling point
(B) higher temperature than its boiling point
(C) its boiling point
(D) water and organic liquid both undergo distillation
30. Nitrogen containing organic compound when fused with sodium forms
(A) sodium azide (B) sodium cyanide
(C) sodamide (D) sodium cyanate
31. In Lassaignes test, the organic compound is fused with a piece of sodium metal in order to
(A) increased the ionization of the compound
(B) decrease the melting point of the compound
(C) increase the reactivity of the compound
(D) convert the covalent compound into a mixture of ionic compounds
32. Copper wire test of halogens is known as
(A) Liebigs test (B) Lassaignes test
(C) Fusion test (D) Beilsteins test
33. Sodium nitroprusside when added to an alkaline solution of sulphide ions produces a colouration
(A) red (B) brown (C) blue (D) purple
34. Dumas method involes the determination of nitrogen content in the organic compound in the form
of
(A) NH
3
(B) N
2
(C) NaCN (D) (NH
4
)
2
SO
4

35. In estimation of nitrogen by Dummas method 1.18 g of an organic compound gave 224 mL of N
2
at
STP. The percentage of nitrogen in the compound is.
(A) 20.0 (B) 11.8 (C) 47.7 (D) 23.7
36. In Kjeldahls method for the estimation of nitrogen, the formula used to
(A)
1.4 VW
% of N
N
= (B)
1.4 VN
% of N
W
=
(C)
VNW
% of N
1.8
= (D)
1.4WN
% of N
V
=
37. In the estimation of sulphur in an organic compound, fuming nitric acid is used to convert sulphur
into
(A) SO
2
(B) H
2
S (C) H
2
SO
3
(D) H
2
SO
4

38. In Carius method of 0.099 g organic compound gave 0.287 g AgCl. The percentage of chlorine in
the compound will be
(A) 28.6 (B) 71.7 (C) 35.4 (D) 64.2

39. 0.4 g of a silver salt of a monobasic organic acid gave 0.26 g pure silver on ignition. The molecular
weight of the acid is (atomic weight of silver = 108)
(A) 58 (B) 37 (C) 89 (D) 105
40. The silver salt of a monobasic acid on ignition gave 60% of Ag. The molecular weight of the acid is
(A) 37 (B) 57 (C) 73 (D) 88


Vidyamandir Classes

VMC 25 AI EEE-2012
41. Which of the organic compounds will give red colour in Lassaigne test?
(A) NaCNS (B)
2 2
S
||
NH C NH

(C)
2 2
NH CO NH (D) None of these
42. The Lassaignes extract is boiled with dil HNO
3
before testing for halogens because
(A) AgCN is soluble in HNO
3

(B) silver halides are soluble in HNO
3

(C) Na
2
S and NaCN are decomposed by HNO
3

(D) Ag
2
S is soluble in HNO
3

43. Which of the following elements cant be detected by direct tests?
(A) N (B) O (C) S (D) Br
*44. Which of the following common reactions occur during Dumas method and Liebigs method?
(A)
2
C 2CuO 2Cu CO
A
+ + (B)
2
N CuO N Oxides of Nitrogen
A
+ +
(C)
2
2H CuO Cu H O
A
+ + (D)
2 4 3 3 4 3
Na PO 3HNO H PO 3NaNO
A
+ +
*45. Kjeldahls method cant be used for estimation of nitrogen in
(A) pyridine (B) C
6
H
5
NO
2

(C) C
6
H
5
NHCOCH
3
(D)
6 5 6 5
C H N N C H =
46. Naphthalene can be easily purified by
(A) sublimation (B) crystallisation
(C) distillation (D) vaporisation
47. Air contains 20% O
2
by volume. How much volume of air will be required for 100 cc of acetylene?
(A) 500 cc (B) 1064 cc (C) 212.8 cc (D) 1250 cc
48. A compound contains 69.5% oxygen and 30.5% nitrogen and its molecular weight is 92 formula of
the compound is.
(A) N
2
O (B) NO
2
(C) N
2
O
4
(D) N
2
O
5

49. A mixture of o-nitrophenol and p-nitrophenol can be separated by
(A) fractional crystallization (B) sublimation
(C) chemical separation (D) steam distillation
50. How much of sulphur is present in an organic compound, if 0.53 g of the compound gave 1.158 g of
BaSO
4
on analysis?
(A) 10% (B) 15% (C) 20% (D) 30%

BI O-M OLECULES & POLYM ERS
51. The two forms of D-glucopyranose obtained from the solution of D-glucose are called
(A) isomer (B) anomer (C) epimer (D) enantiomer
52. If D glucopyranose o is reacted with acetic anhydride at 373 K, the major product is the
isomer | of the pentaacetate. It is attributed to.
(A) isomerisation of D int o D o | -glucose at 373 K
(B) opening of glucopyranose ring
(C) Both the statements are correct
(D) None of the statement is correct
Vidyamandir Classes

VMC 26 AI EEE-2012
53. Glucose molecules reacts with X number of molecules of phenylhydrazine to yield osazone. The
value of X is.
(A) three (B) two (C) one (D) four
54. An optically active compound A, gave an | |
25
D
30 o =

, while a mixture of A and its enantiomer B
gave | |
25
D
15 o = +

. The ratio of A to B in the mixture is.
(A) 1 : 3 (B) 3 : 1 (C) 1 : 2 (D) 2 : 1
55. Which enzyme is present in saliva?
(A) Urease (B) Maltase (C) Lactase (D) Amylase
56. Which of the nitrogen of histidine is first protonated?
(A) o (B) |
(C) Both (A) and (B) (D) None of these

57. In an electric field, if an amino acid migrates towards cathode, the pH of the solution is said to be
(A) less than pI (B) more than pI (C) equal to pI (D) 7
58. Vitamin B
6
is known as
(A) pyridoxin (B) thiamine (C) tocopherol (D) riboflavin
59. The deficiency of vitamin B
1
causes
(A) beri-bezi (B) dermatitis (C) scurvy (D) rickets
60. A DNA nucleotide chain has AGCTTCGA sequence. The nucleotide sequence of other chain would
be
(A) TCGAAGCT (B) GCTAAGCT
(C) TAGCATAT (D) GATCCTAG
61. DNA temple sequence of CTGATAGC is transcribed over m-RNA as.
(A) GUCTUTCG (B) GACUAUCG
(C) GAUTATUG (D) UACTATUC
62. The vector for genetic code is called
(A) messenger RNA (B) transfer RNA
(C) ribosomal RNA (D) viral DNA
63. The only vitamin with metal atom in it
(A) vitamin A (B) vitamin K
(C) vitamin B
12
(D) vitamin E
64. The reason for double helical structure of DNA is operation of
(A) van der Waals forces (B) dipole-dipole interaction
(C) hydrogen bonding (D) electrostatic attractions
65. The chemical name of vitamin C is.
(A) nicotinic acid (B) folic acid
(C) tartaric acid (D) ascorbic acid
66. The two functional groups present in a typical carbohydrate are.
(A) OH and COOH (B) CHO and COOH
(C) (D) OH and CHO

N
|

N
H
o

NH
3
|
CH CHCOO
2
+

C O and OH =
Vidyamandir Classes

VMC 27 AI EEE-2012
67. Stachyose is
(A) monosaccharide (B) disaccharide
(C) trisaccharide (D) tetrasaccharide
68. Which of the following is heterocyclic amino acid?
(A) Glycine (B) Alanine (C) Phenylalanine (D) Tryptophane
69. Which of the following indicates open chain structures of glucose?
(A) Penta-acetyl derivative of glucose (B) Cyanohydrin formation with HCN
(C) Reaction with Fehling solution (D) Reaction with Tollens reagent
70. Which of the following type of forces are present in Nylon-6, 6?
(A) van der Waals forces of attraction (B) Hydrogen bonding
(C) Three dimensional network of bonds (D) Metallic bonding
71. Low density polythene is prepared by
(A) free radical polymerisation (B) cationic polymerisation
(C) anionic polymerisation (D) Ziegler-Natta polymerisation
72. Vulcanised rubber resists
(A) wear and tear due to friction (B) high temperature
(C) action of heat (D) cryogenic temperature
73. Caprolactum is used to prepare which of the following polymer?
(A) Nylon-6, 6 (B) Malamina
(C) Nylon-6 (D) PMMA
74. Caprolactum is obtained from
(A) cyclohexane (B) hexane
(C) adipic acid (D) adipic acid and hexamethylene diamine
75. Arrange the following monomers in order of decreasing ability to undergo cationic polymerization
I.
2 6 5 2
NO C H CH CH =
II.
2 6 5 3
CH CH C H CH =
III.
2 6 5 3
CH CH C H OCH =
(A) I > II > III (B) III > II > I (C) II > I > III (D) I > III > II
*76. Which of the following fibers are made of polyamides?
(A) Wool (B) Natural rubber (C) Artificial silk (D) Butyl rubber
77. Bakelite is a
(A) natural polymer (B) addition polymer
(C) condensation polymer (D) homopolymer
78. Bakelite is obtained polymer phenol by reacting with
(A) ( )
2
2
CH OH (B) CH
3
CHO (C) CH
3
COCH
3
(D) HCHO
79. Which of the following is currently used as a true cord?
(A) Polyethylene (B) Polypropylene
(C) Bakelite (D) Nylon-6
80. Nylon threads are made of
(A) polyvinyl polymer (B) polyester polymer
(C) polyamide polymer (D) polyethylene polymer

Vidyamandir Classes

VMC 28 AI EEE-2012
Chemical in Everyday Lif e
81. Penicillin is a/an
(A) hormone (B) antibiotic (C) antipyretic (D) anagesic
82. One of the most known antiseptic, dettol is a mixture of terpineol and
(A) bithional (B) chloroxylenol (C) o-cresol (D) serotonin
83. The correct structure of the drug paracetamol is.



(A) (B) (C) (D)


84. Which of the following is not used as an antacid?
(A) Magnesium hydroxide (B) Sodium carbonate
(C) Sodium bicarbonate (D) Aluminium phosphate
85. Which of the following drugs is an analgesic?
(A) Sulphuaguanidine (B) Paludrin
(C) Analgin (D) Iodex
86. Oral contraceptive drugs contain
(A) mestranol (B) Norethindrone
(C) Both (A) and (B) (D) None of these
87. An antibiotic effective in treatment of pneumonia, bronchitis etc, is.
(A) pencillin (B) patalin (C) chloromycetin (D) tetracycline

88. Match list I with list II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists

List-I List-II
I.
II.
III.
IV.
Iodoform
Methyl salicylate
Diethyl ether
Hexachlorocyclohexane
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
Anaesthetic
Antiseptic
Insecticide
Detergent
Pain balm
Codes
(A) I-B, II-E, III-C, IV-D (B) I-D, II-B, III-A, IV-C
(C) I-B, II-E, III-A, IV-C (D) I-C, II-A, III-D, IV-B
89. Trade name of aspartame is.
(A) Alitame (B) Saccharin (C) Sucralose (D) Nutra Sweet
90. Choose the correct statement.
(A) Saccharin is 650 times sweeter than sugar
(B) Aspartame is 550 times sweeter than sugar
(C) Sucralose is 160 times sweeter than sugar
(D) Alitame is 2000 times sweeter than sugar
91. Which of the following is a germicide also?
(A) Cationic detergent (B) Anionic detergent
(C) Non-ionic detergent (D) None of the above
OH
CONH
2

OH
NHCOCH
3

Cl
CONH
2

Cl
COCH
3

Vidyamandir Classes

VMC 29 AI EEE-2012
92. Which of the following represents a synthetic detergent?
(A)
15 31
C H COOK (B) ( )
3 2
6
CH CH COONa

(C) (D) All of the above

93. Detergents obtained from LAB are biodegradable. LAB stands for.
(A) laboratory tested raw material (B) low anionic balance
(C) linear alkyl benzene (D) None of the above
94. An antibiotic contains nitro group attached to aromatic nucleus in its structure. It is
(A) pencillin (B) streptomycin
(C) tetracyclin (D) chloramphenicol
95. Aspartame is one of the good artificial sweeteners whose use is limited to cold foods and soft drinks
because.
(A) it has very low boiling point (B) it gets dissociated at cooking temperature
(C) it is sweetener at low temperature only (D) it is insoluble at higher temperatures
96. Morphine on alkylation and acetylation gives respectively.
(A) heroin, codeine (B) heroin, meperidine
(C) codeine, heroin (D) meperidine, heroin
97. Which set has different class of compounds?
(A) Tranquillizers : equanil, heroin, valium
(B) Antiseptic : bithional, dettol, boric acid
(C) Analgesics : naproxen, morphine, aspirin
(D) Bacericidal : Pencillin, aminoglycosides, ofloxacin
*98. Which of the following drugs are used for the treatment of tuberculosis?
(A) PAS (B) INH (C) Streptomycin (D) Chloromycetin
For Q-99-100
In the following set of questions, a Statement-1 is given and corresponding Statement-2 is given below it. Mark the
correct answer as:
(A) Statement-I is True, Statement-II is True and Statement-II is a correct for Statement-I
(B) Statement-I is True, Statement-II is True and Statement-2 is NOT correct explanation for Statement-I
(C) Statement-I is True, Statement-II is False
(D) Statement-I is False, Statement-II is True
99. Statement-I: Paracetamol is popular antipyretics
Satement-II: it is used to bring down the body temperature during fever.
100. Statement-I: Tertiary butyl hydroquinone is an antioxidant.
Statement-II: Antioxidants inhibit free radical reactions.
101. Match the chemicals in Column-I with their uses in Column-II.
Column-I Column-II
(I) Sodium perborate (p) Disinfectant
(II) Chlorine (q) Antiseptic
(III) Bithional (r) Milk bleaching
(IV) Potassium strearate (s) Soap

(A) I : p, II : q, III :r, IV : s (B) I : q, II : r, III : s, IV : p
(C) I : r, II : p, III : q, IV : s (D) I : s, II : p, III : q, IV : r
C
12
H
25

SO
3
Na
Vidyamandir Classes

VMC 30 AI EEE-2012
102. Bithional is added to soap as an additive to function as a/an.
(A) softner (B) hardener (C) dryer (D) antiseptic
103. The drug used to bring down fever are known as.
(A) analgesic (B) antibiotic (C) antipyretic (D) sulpha drugs
104. Which of the following is not an antibiotic?
(A) Penicillin (B) Oxytocin (C) Ofloxacin (D) Tetracycline
105. Chloramphenicol is.
(A) narrow spectrum antibiotic (B) broad spectrum analgesic
(C) broad spectrum antibiotic (D) broad spectrum antibacterial

Vidyamandir Classes

VMC 31 AI EEE-2012
M ATHEM ATI CS

1. ( )
c
A B A is equal to :
(A) B (B) A B (C) A B (D) A B
2. ( ) A B C is equal to :
(A) ( ) ( ) A B A C (B) ( ) ( ) A B A C
(C) ( ) A B C (D) None of these
3. The group of beautiful girls is :
(A) a null set (B) a finite set (C) a singleton set (D) not a set


4. If A B _ , then A A B is equal to
(A) ( ) ( ) A B B A (B) A B
(C) B A (D) None of these
5. If A = {1, 2, 3] and B = {3, 4}, then ( ) ( ) A B A B is :
(A) {3, 3} (B) {(1, 3), (2, 3), (3, 3), (1, 4), (2, 4), (3, 4)}
(C) {(1, 3), (2, 3), (3, 3)} (D) {(1, 3), (2, 3), (3, 3), (4, 3)}
6. If A = {5, 6, 7} and B = {1, 2, 3, 4}, the number of elements in set A B B is equal to :
(A) 36 (B) 48 (C) 16 (D) None of these
7. In a battle 70% of the combatants lost one eye, 80% an ear, 75% an arm, 85% a leg, x% lost all the four limbs.
The minimum value of x is :
(A) 10 (B) 12 (C) 15 (D) None of these
8. In a city 20 per cent of the population travels by car, 50 per cent travels by bus and 10 per cent travels by both
car and bus. Then persons travelling by car or bus is :
(A) 80 per cent (B) 40 per cent (C) 60 per cent (D) 70 per cent
9. R is a relation over the set of real numbers and it is given by 0 nm > . Then R is :
(A) symmetric and transitive (B) reflexive and symmetric
(C) a partial order relation (D) an equivalence relation
10. Let R = {(1, 3), (2, 2), (3, 2)} and S = {(2, 1), (3, 2), (2, 3)} be two relations on set A = {1, 2, 3}. Then RoS is
equal to :
(A) {(1, 3), (2, 2), (3, 2), (2, 1), (2, 3)} (B) {(3, 2), (1, 3)}
(C) {(2, 3), (3, 2), (2, 2)} (D) {(2, 3), (3, 2)}
11. Let N denotes the set of all natural numbers and R be the relation on N N defined by (a, b) R(c, d) if
ad (b + c) = bc (a + d), then R is :
(A) symmetric only (B) reflexive only
(C) transitive only (D) an equivalence relation
12. Let L be the set of all straight lines in the Euclidean plane. Two lines l
1
and l
2
are said to be related by the
relation R, iff l
1
is parallel to l
2
. Then the relation R is :
(A) reflexive (B) symmetric (C) transitive (D) equivalence
13. A class has 175 students. The following data shows the number of students obtaining one or more subjects,
Mathematics 100, Physics 70, Chemistry 40, Mathematics and Physics 30, Mathematics and Chemistry 28,
Physics and Chemistry 23, Mathematics, Physics and Chemistry 18. How many students have offered
Mathematics alone ?
(A) 35 (B) 48 (C) 60 (D) 22



Vidyamandir Classes

VMC 32 AI EEE-2012
14. Consider the following statements :
I. The product of two even or odd function is an even function.
II. The products of an even function and an odd function is an odd function.
III. Every function can be expressed as the sum of an even and an odd function.
Which of the statements given above is(are) correct ?
(A) Only I (B) Only II (C) Only III (D) All I, II and III
15. N is the set of natural numbers. The relation R is defined on N N as follows :
( ) ( ) a, b R c, d a d b c + = + is :
(A) reflexive (B) symmetric (C) transitive (D) all of these
16. If
1 2
2 1
A
(
=
(

and
3
1
B , AX B
(
= =
(

, then X is equal to :
(A) [0, 7] (B)
5 1
7 3
(
(

(B)
| |
1
5 7
3
(D)
5
7
(
(


17. If
1 1
1 1
A
(
=
(

, then A
100
is equal to :
(A) 2
100
A (B) 2
99
A (C) 100 A (D) 299 A
18. For the matrix
1 1 0
1 2 1
2 1 0
A
(
(
=
(
(

, which of the following is correct ?
(A)
3 2
3 0 A A I + = (B)
3 2
3 0 A A I = (C)
3 2
2 0 A A I + = (D)
3 2
0 A A I + =
19. For non-singular square matrices A, B and C of same order,
( )
1
1
AB C

is equal to :
(A)
1 1
A BC

(B)
1 1 1
C B A

(C)
1 1
CB A

(D)
1 1
C BA


20. If A and B are square matrices of size n n such that ( )( )
2 2
A B A B A B = + , then which of the following
will be always true ?
(A) AB = BA (B) either of A or B is a zero matrix
(C) either of A or B is an identity matrix (D) A = B
21. Let
1
2
3
1 1 2
2 0 1
3 2 1
x
X x , A
x
( (
( (
= =
( (
( (

and
3
1
4
B
(
(
=
(
(

. If AX = B, then X is equal to :
(A)
1
2
3
(
(
(
(

(B)
1
2
3
(
(

(
(

(C)
1
2
3
(
(

(
(

(D)
1
2
3
(
(
(
(


22. If matrix
3 2 4
1 2 1
0 1 1
A
(
(
=
(
(

and
1
1
A adj A
k

= , then k is :
(A) 7 (B) 7 (C) 1/7 (D) 11
23. If
3 4
5 7
A
(
=
(

, then A . (adj A) is equal to :
(A) A (B) | A | (C) | A | I (D) None of these
Vidyamandir Classes

VMC 33 AI EEE-2012
24. If
1 2 1
1 1 2
2 1 1
A
(
(
=
(
(

, then det [adj (adj A)] is equal to :
(A) 12
4
(B) 13
4
(C) 14
4
(D) None of these
25. If D = diagonal [d
1
, d
2
, d
3
, . . . . , d
n
], where 0
i
d =
1 2 3 i , , , . . . ., n = , then
1
D

is equal to :
(A) O (B) I
n

(C) diagonal
( )
1 1 1
1 2 n
d , d , . . . , d

(D) None of these
26. If
3 2 1 2 1 1
0 1
1 2 3 2
/ /
P , A
/ /
(
(
= = (
(
(

and
T
Q PAP = , then
2005 T
P Q P is :
(A)
1 2005
0 1
(
(

(B)
1 2005
2005 1
(
(

(C)
1 0
2005 1
(
(

(D)
1 0
0 1
(
(


27. A is any square matrix, then
( )
T
T
det A A is equal to :
(A) 0 (B) 1
(C) can be 0 or a perfect square (D) cannot be determined
28. A square matrix P satisfies
2
P I P = , where I is the identity matrix. If 5 8
n
P I P = , then n is equal to :
(A) 4 (B) 5 (C) 6 (D) 7
29. If
ij
A a ( =

is a 4 4 matrix and
ij
c is the co-factor of the element
ij
a in A , then the expression
11 11 12 12 13 13 14 14
a c a c a c a c + + + is equal to :
(A) 0 (B) 1 (C) 1 (D) | A |
30. The value of o for which the system of equations
1 x y z + + =
2 4 x y z o + + =

2
4 10 x y z o + + =
is consistent, are given by :
(A) 1 2 , (B) 1 2 , (C) 1, 2 (D) None of these
31. If P(n) is a statement ( ) n N e such that, if P(k) is true, P(k + 1) is true for k N e , then P(n) is true :
(A) for all n (B) for all n > 1 (C) for all n > 2 (D) nothing can be said
32. If P(n) is a statement such that P(3) is true. Assuming P(k) is true ( ) 1 P k + is true for all 3 k > , then P(n)
is true :
(A) for all n (B) for 3 n > (C) for 4 n > (D) None of these
33. If ( ) : 3 !,
n
P n n n N < e , then P(n) is true :
(A) for 6 n > (B) for 7 n > (C) for 3 n > (D) for all n
34. Let P(n) : n
2
+ n + 1 is an even integer. If P(k) is assumed true P(k + 1) is true. Therefore P(n) is true :
(A) for n > 1 (B) for all n N e (C) for n > 2 (D) None of these
35. The greatest positive integer, which divides (n + 2) (n + 3) (n + 4) (n + 5) (n + 6) for all n N e , is :
(A) 4 (B) 120 (C) 240 (D) 24
Vidyamandir Classes

VMC 34 AI EEE-2012
36. The smallest positive integer n for which
1
!
2
n
n
n
+ | |
<
|
\ .
holds, is :
(A) 1 (B) 2 (C) 3 (D) 4
37. If m, n are any two odd positive integer with n < m, then the largest positive integers which divides all the
numbers of the type
2 2
m n is :
(A) 4 (B) 6 (C) 8 (D) 9
38.
( )
( )
1 1
1
n n n
x x n n o o

+ is divisible by ( )
2
x o for :
(A) n > 1 (B) n > 2 (C) all n N e (D) None of these
39.
2 1 3 1
2 4 3
n n + +
+ is divisible by for all n N e :
(A) 2 (B) 9 (C) 3 (D) 11
40. The inequality
1
! 2
n
n

> is true for :
(A) n > 2 (B) n N e (C) n > 3 (D) None of these
41. In a triangle ABC, a = 5, b = 7 and
3
4
sin A = , then the number of possible triangles are :
(A) 1 (B) 0 (C) 2 (D) infinite
42. In ABC A ,
2 2
2 2 2 2
A B B A
cot cot a sin bsin
| || |
+ +
| |
\ .\ .
is equal to :
(A) cot C (B) c cot C (C)
2
C
cot (D)
2
C
ccot
43. In
2 2
2
2 2
C A
ABC, a sin c sin
| |
A +
|
\ .
is equal to :
(A) a b c + (B) c a b + (C) b c a + (D) a + b + c
44. In ABC A , if
1
2 2 2
A C
tan tan = , then a, b, c are in :
(A) AP (B) GP (C) HP (D) None of these
45. In a triangle ABC,
2
sin B
cos A
sinC
= , then the triangle is :
(A) equilateral (B) isosceles (C) right angled (D) None of these
46. In triangle ABC, if 45 75 A , B Z = Z = , then 2 a c + is equal to :
(A) 0 (B) 1 (C) b (D) 2b
47. In a triangle ABC, ( ) ( ) ( )
3 3 3
a cos B C b cos C A c cos A B + + is equal to :
(A) abc (B) 3 abc (C) a + b + c (D) None of these
48. If the area of a triangle ABC is A , then
2
2 2 a sin B b sin A
2
+ is equal to :
(A) 3A (B) 2A (C) 4A (D) 4A
49. If
2 2 2
a , b , c are in AP, then which of the following are also in AP ?
(A) sin A, sin B, sin C (B) tan A, tan B, tan C
(C) cot A, cot B, cot C (D) None of these
50. In ABC, acos A bcos B c cos C A + + is equal to :
(A) 4 R sin A sin B sin C (B) 3R sin A sin B sin C
(C) sin A sin B sin C (D) 4R cos A cos B cos C
Vidyamandir Classes

VMC 35 AI EEE-2012
51. If in a triangle PQR, sin P, sin Q, sin R are in AP, then :
(A) the altitude are in AP (B) the altitude are in HP
(C) the medians are in GP (D) the medians are in AP
52. In triangle ABC,
b c
a
+
is equal to :
(A)
( )
1
2
1
2
cos B C
sin A

(B)
( )
1
2
1
2
sin B C
cos A

(C)
( )
1
2
1
2
cos B C
sin A
+
(D)
( )
1
2
1
2
cos B C
cos A
+

53. In triangle ABC, (b + c) cos A + (c + a) cos B + (a + b) cos C is :
(A) 0 (B) 1 (C) a + b + c (D) 2 (a + b + c)
54. In triangle ABC, if
cos A cos B cos C
a b c
= = , then the triangle is :
(A) right angled (B) obtuse angled (C) equilateral (D) isosceles
55. In ABC A , if
2 2 2
2 2 2
A B C
sin , sin , sin be in HP, then a, b, c will be in :
(A) AP (B) GP (C) HP (D) None of these
56. In ABC A , if sin A : sin C = ( ) ( ) : sin A B sin B C , then :
(A) a, b, c are in AP (B) a
2
, b
2
, c
2
are in AP
(C) a
2
, b
2
, c
2
are in GP (D) None of these
57. The sides of a triangle are three consecutive natural numbers and its largest angle is twice the smallest one.
Then the sides of the triangle are :
(A) 1, 2, 3 (B) 2, 3, 4 (C) 3, 4, 5 (D) 4, 5, 6
58. In a ABC A , among the following which one is true ?
(A) ( )
2 2
A B C
b c cos a sin
+ | |
+ =
|
\ .
(B) ( )
2 2
B C A
b c cos a sin
+ | |
+ =
|
\ .

(C) ( )
2 2
B C A
b c cos acos
| |
=
|
\ .
(D) ( )
2 2
A B C
b c cos a sin
| |
=
|
\ .

59. If in a triangle ABC, CD is the angle bisector of the angle ACB, then CD is equal to :
(A)
2 2
a b C
cos
ab
+
(B)
2
a b C
cos
ab
+
(C)
2
2
ab C
cos
a b +
(D) None of these
60. In a triangle ABC, if D s middle point of BC and AD is perpendicular to AC, then cos B is equal to :
(A)
2b
a
(B)
b
a
(C)
2 2
b c
ca
+
(D)
2 2
c a
ca
+

61. Mean of 100 items is 49. It was discovered that three items which should have been 60, 70, 80 were wrongly
read as 40, 20, 50 respectively. The correct mean is :
(A) 48 (B) 82 (C) 50 (D) 80
62. The mean of the values of 1, 2, 3, . . . . ., n with respectively frequencies x, 2x, 3x, . . . . , nx is :
(A)
2
n
(B) ( )
1
2 1
3
n + (C) ( )
1
2 1
6
n + (D)
2
n

63. The mean of n items is X . If the first term is increased by 1, second by 2 and so on, then the new mean is:
(A) X n + (B)
2
n
X + (C)
1
2
n
X
+
+ (D) None of these

Vidyamandir Classes

VMC 36 AI EEE-2012
64. The AM of the series 1, 2, 4, 8, 16, . . . . , 2
n
is :
(A)
2 1
n
n

(B)
1
2 1
1
n
n
+

+
(C)
2 1
n
n
+
(D)
2 1
1
n
n

+

65. In a class of 100 students there are 70 boys whose average marks in a subject are 75. If the average marks of
the complete class is 72, then what is the average of the girls :
(A) 73 (B) 65 (C) 68 (D) 74
66. The median of a set of 9 distinct observations is 20.5. If each of the largest 4 observations of the set is
increased by 2, then the median of the new set :
(A) is increased by 2 (B) is decreased by 2
(C) is two times the original median (D) remains the same as that of the original set
67. If in a frequency distribution, the mean and median are 21 and 22 respectively, then its mode is approximately:
(A) 24.0 (B) 25.5 (C) 20.5 (D) 22.0
68. Let x
1
, x
2
, . . . . . , x
n
be n observations such that
2
400
i
x = and 80
i
x = . Then a possible value of n among
the following is :
(A) 12 (B) 9 (C) 18 (D) 15
69. In a series of 2n observations, half of them equal a and remaining half equal a . If the standard deviation of
the observations is 2, then | a | equal to :
(A)
1
n
(B) 2 (C) 2 (D)
2
n

70. In a class of 100 students, the average amount of pocket money is Rs.35 per student. If the average is Rs.25 for
girls and Rs.50 per boys, then the number of girls in the class is :
(A) 20 (B) 40 (C) 60 (D) 80
71. The AM of n observations is M. If the sum of ( ) 4 n observation is a, then the mean of remaining four
observations is :
(A)
4
nM a
(B)
2
nM a +
(C)
2
nM a
(D) nM + a
72. If
1
X and
2
X are the means of two distributions, such that
1 2
X X < and X is the mean of the combined
distribution, then :
(A)
1
X X < (B)
2
X X > (C)
1 2
2
X X
X
+
= (D)
1 2
X X X < <
73. The first of two samples has 100 items with mean 15 and SD = 3. If the whole group has 250 items with mean
15.6 and 13 44 SD . = the SD of the second group is :
(A) 5 (B) 4 (C) 6 (D) 3.52
74. The marks of some students were listed out of 75. The SD of marks was found to be 9. Subsequently the
marks were raised to a maximum of 100 and variance of new marks was calculated. The new variance is :
(A) 144 (B) 122 (C) 81 (D) None of these
75. Suppose a population A has 100 observations 101, 102, . . . . . , 200 and another population B has 100
observations 151, 152, . . . . ., 250. If V
A
and V
B
represent the variances of the two population respectively,
then V
A
/V
B
is :
(A) 9/4 (B) 4/9 (C) 2/3 (D) 1
76. If p = He is intelligent, q = He is strong.
Then, symbolic form of statement
It is wrong that he intelligent or strong, is :
(A) ~ p ~ q v (B) ( ) ~ p q . (C) ( ) ~ p q v (D) p ~ q v
Vidyamandir Classes

VMC 37 AI EEE-2012
77. The switching function for the following network is :
(A) ( ) p q r t . v .
(B) ( ) p q r t . v v
(C) p r q t v . v
(D) None of these

78. If p and q are two statements, then ( ) ( ) ~ p q ~ q p . v is :
(A) tautology (B) contradiction
(C) neither tautology nor contradiction (D) either tautology nor contradiction
79. A compound sentence formed by two simple statements p and q using connective and is called
(A) conjunction (B) disjunction (C) implication (D) None of these
80. If statements p and r are false and q is true, then truth value of ( ) ~ p q r r . v is a :
(A) tautology (B) contradiction
(C) neither tautology nor contradiction (D) both tautology and contradiction
81. Let p and q be two statements. Then, p q v is false, if :
(A) p is false and q is true (B) Both p and q are false
(C) Both p and q are true (D) None of these
82. Let ( ) ( ) ( ) p q r p q p r . v = . v . . Then, this law is known as :
(A) Commutative law (B) Associative law
(C) De-Morgans law (D) Distributive law
83. The switching function for switching network is :

(A) ( ) ( ) ( ) x y y z z x ' ' ' . v . v . (B) ( ) ( ) x y z x y z ' ' ' . . v . .
(C) ( ) ( ) ( ) x y y z z x ' ' ' v . v . v (D) None of these
84. Switching function of the network is :

(A) ( ) ( ) a b c a b c ' ' ' . v v . . (B) ( ) ( ) a b c a b c ' ' ' . v v . .
(C) ( ) ( ) a b c a b c ' ' ' v . . v v (D) None of these
85. The statement p ~ p v is :
(A) Tautology (B) Contradiction
(C) Neither a tautology nor a contradiction (D) None of these
86. If ( ) p q r v is false, then truth values of p, q, r are respectively :
(A) F, T, T (B) T, T, F (C) T, F, F (D) F, F, F

Vidyamandir Classes

VMC 38 AI EEE-2012
87. If ( ) p ~ p q v is false, the truth values of p and q are respectively :
(A) F, T (B) F, F (C) T, T (D) T, F
88. H : Set of holidays.
S : Set of Sundays.
U : Set of days
Then, the Venn diagram of statement, Every Sunday implies holidays is :

(A) (B) (C) (D)
89. If p : A man is happy.
q : A man is rich.
Then, the statement, If a man is not happy, then he is not rich is written as :
(A) ~ p ~ q (B) ~ q p (C) ~ q ~ p (D) q ~ p
90. If p : Ram is smart.
q : Ram is intelligent.
Then, the symbolic form Ram is smart and intelligent, is :
(A) ( ) p q . (B) ( ) p q v (C) ( ) p ~ q . (D) ( ) p ~ q v
Vidyamandir Classes

VMC 39 AI EEE-2012
Answ ers

PHYSICS:

1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
A C A C D B B A D C
11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
C B D C C C B C A A
21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
B D D B C D B A A A
31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
D D B C D B B B A B
41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50
B B B C C C B D B B
51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60
D A A A D B B D A D
61 62 63 64 65 66 67 68 69 70
C A C A C A A A B A
71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80
A B A A C A A A A D
81 82 83 84 85 86 87 88 89 90
C D B B A D C B C C
91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100
B B B D A A B D C D
101 102 103 104 105 106 107 108 109 110
C B A C B A D B B A
111 112 113 114 115 116 117 118 119 120
A B B C D C C A A C
121 122 123 124 125 126 127 128 129 130
B C C C C D A B D A
131 132 133 134 135 136 137 138 139 140
B D D B C A A D B A
141 142 143 144 145 146 147 148 149 150
B C C C B A C A D A
151 152 153 154 155 156 157 158
C B D B A B A B




Vidyamandir Classes

VMC 40 AI EEE-2012
CHEMISTRY:

1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
C D D B C D B C A D
11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
B D C A D C A B A C
21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
C B D D A D D D A B
31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
D D D B D B D B A C
41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50
B C B AB ABD A D C D D
51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60
B A A B D B A A A A
61 62 63 64 65 66 67 68 69 70
B B C C D C D D A B
71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80
A A C A B ABD C D D C
81 82 83 84 85 86 87 88 89 90
B B B B C C C C D D
91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100
A C C D B C A ABC A A
101 102 103 104 105
C D C B C


MATHEMATICS:

1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
D A B C D B A C D C
11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
D D C D D B B B D A
21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
D D C C C A C C D C
31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
D B B D B B C C D C
41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50
B D B D B D B C C A
51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60
B A C C C B D D D C
Vidyamandir Classes

VMC 41 AI EEE-2012
61 62 63 64 65 66 67 68 69 70
C B D B B D A C C C
71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80
A D B A D C B C A B
81 82 83 84 85 86 87 88 89 90
B D A A A C D C A A