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Objective Questions

100. The three basic cylinder arrangements for automobile engines are
a) flat, Radial, V b) In a row, in-line, opposed c) Inline, V, opposed d) V, double line, opposed

101. An engine with the camshaft in the block operates the valves through
a) valve lifters b) push rods c) rocker arms d) all of the above

102. Six cylinder engines can be


a) Inline, V or opposed b) radial, opposed, and lined c) aligned, in a row, and overhead d) adjusted to improve volumetric efficiency

103. A V-8 engine has


a) two four cylinder rows or banks b) a crankshaft with four crankpins c) two connecting rods attached to each crankpin d) all of the above

104. The cylinder banks of an engine are identified as;


a) right or left when viewed form the front of the engine b) right or left when viewed from the output end c) both a and b d) neither a nor b

105. The firing order is the


a) order in which the cylinders are numbered b) sequence in which cylinders deliver their power strokes c) sequence in which the connecting rods attach along the crankshaft. d) direction in which the crankshaft rotates.

106. In an even firing six cylinder engine, a firing impulse occurs every
a) 60o of crankshaft rotation. b) 720o of crankshaft rotation. c) 30o of crankshaft rotation. d) 120o of crankshaft rotation.

107. The two stroke cycle engine


a) b) c) d) produces a power stroke every crankshaft revolution. Is twice as powerful as a similar four stroke cycle engine. Is used in most higher priced cars Produces a power stroke every other crankshaft revolution.

108. The cylinder head from the upper end of the combustion chamber. The lower end is
formed by the. a) piston and rings

b) connecting rod and crankshaft c) valves d) cams and camshaft

109. Technician A says turbulence causes the air-fuel mixture to burn rapidly. Technician B
says turbulence slows the spread of the flame so the mixture has more time to burn. Who is right? a) A only b) B only c) both A and B d) neither A nor B

110. Technician A says that the precombustion chamber improves turbulence. Technician B
says it produces stratified charge? Who is right? a) A only b) B only c) both A and B d) neither A nor B

111. Excessive back and forth movement of the crankshaft is prevented by


a) sleeve bearing. b) shaft journal. c) thrust bearing. d) harmonic balancer.

112. Piston pins are usually either a press fit in the rod or
a) locked to the rod with a bolt. b) free floating in the rod and piston. c) locked to the piston with a bolt. d) a press fit in the piston.

113. Technician A says worn cylinder walls cause the engine to loose power. Technician B
says engine wear increases oil consumption. Who is right? a) A only b) B only d) neither A nor B c) both A and B

114. Two basic type of valve trains are


a) single overhead camshaft and double overhead camshaft b) pushrod and overhead valve c) camshaft in block and overhead camshaft d) fixed timing and variable timing.

115. When the camshaft is in the cylinder block, the parts in the valve train include the cam and
the a) lifter, pushrod, rocker arm and valve spring. b) bucket tappet, adjustment screw, push rod and rocker arm. c) roller tappet, adjustment screw, pivot and roller rocker. d) lifter, push rod, lash adjuster and valve spring.

116. The camshaft is driven by sprocket and chain or toothed belt or by


a) the distribution shaft b) an oil pump gear c) timing gears d) a timing belt

117. Technician A says in an engine with one intake and one exhaust valve, the larger valve is
the exhaust valve. Technician B says the larger valve is the inlet valve. Who is right? a) A only. b) B only c) both A and B d) neither A nor B.

118. The functions of the cylinder block are;


a) b) c) d) to provide combustion chamber to serve as bearings and guides for pistons to provide passage for cooling water circulation all of the above

119. The bearings on which the crankshaft is supported in the crankcase is called
a) b) c) d) main bearing thrust bearing sleeve bearing low friction bearing

120. The component attached at the top of the cylinder block is called
a) b) c) d) timing gear ignition distributor flywheel cylinder head

121. The advantage of monoblock cylinder construction is;


a) b) c) d) better water sealing joints more positive water circulation simpler manufacturing operations all of the above

122. The advantage of individual cylinder construction is;


a) b) c) d) less costly replacement of cylinders easier handling during repairs provision of more heat transfer area for air cooling systems. all of the above

123. The advantage associated with Cast Iron as cylinder block material is
a) b) c) d) good foundry material high machinability better retention of lubricating oil all of the above

124. Considering different properties, the material suitable for engines with higher compression
ratio is; a) Cast Iron b) Pig Iron c) Aluminium d) Copper

125. To obtain a cylinder block with light weight and less wearing surface;
a) b) c) d) Cast iron block is used aluminum block is used aluminum alloy with chromium plated cylinder bore is used none of the above

126. The cylinder head usually houses


a) b) c) d) combustion chamber spark plug holes valve openings all of the above

127. The cylinder heads cast integral with cylinder block is employed in
a) b) c) d) racing engines truck engines airplane engines heavy equipment

128. The advantage of detachable cylinder head construction over the integral construction is
a) b) c) d) more simplified production simplified decarbonizing and valve grinding possibility of changing compression ratio all of the above

129. For heavy duty engines, the cylinder head material used is
a) cast iron c) aluminum alloys b) aluminum d) copper alloys

130. The main function of the oil pan is to


a) b) c) d) store the oil for engine lubricating system. collect the impurities in the lubricating oil. both of the above none of the above

131. Baffle plates are provided in the oil pan for the purpose of
a) b) c) d) reducing oil surging to decrease the temperature to reduce the oil pressure to remove the impurities from the lubrication oil

132. The main function of pistons in an IC Engine is


a) b) c) d) to transmit the force of explosion to the crankshaft to form a seal to prevent blowby to serve as a guide and bearing for small end of the connecting rod all of the above

133. The part of the piston which remain adjacent to the combustion chamber is
a) b) c) d) piston pin boss lands skirt crown

134. A small groove cut near the top of the piston to prevent heat travel from the piston crown
to the skirt is called;

a) b) c) d)

heat dam horizontal slot vertical slot wire winding

135. The function of the piston ring is to


(a) to form a seal to prevent blowby (b) to allow heat flow from the piston crown to the cylinder walls (c) to maintain lubricating oil on the cylinder wall (d) all of the above

136. A gap is cut out at the ends of a piston ring so that


(a) it can be released into ring groove easily (b) it can provide expansion allowance due to excessive heating (c) it can accumulate solid combustion particles at the gap (d) it can enhance heat transfer

137. Differential expansion of the piston ring with respect to the cylinder is likely to occur
though they are made of same material because (a) cylinder wall is operating at higher temperature (b) heat flows from cylinder wall to the piston rings (c) piston ring is operating at higher temperature (d) the blowby gases pass over the piston rings

138. The prominent effect of the excessive piston ring end gap is
(a) blowby (b) excessive cylinder wear (c) piston rings butting at higher temperatures (d) uniform pressure on the cylinder wall

139. The piston ring end gap usually maintained is


(a) 0.15-0.20mm (b) 0.20-o.25mm (c) 0.300.35mm (d) 0.400.45mm

140. The usually employed piston ring end gap is


(a) tapered type (b) seal cut type (c) straight butt type (d) none of the above

141. All these materials are used for piston ring construction except
(a) Molybdenum filling (b) Stainless steel (c) Thermochrome (d) Copper

142. The number of rings used in automobile engine is


(a) one oil control ring only (b) one oil control ring and two compression rings

(c) two oil control rings and one compression ring (d) one compression ring only

143. The number of compression rings required in an I.C. engine is decided by the
(a) size of the piston (b) temperature difference between crankcase and combustion chamber (c) pressure difference between crankcase and combustion chamber (d) size of the combustion chamber

144. The pressure difference between combustion chamber and crankcase is usually
(a) 50 atmospheres (b) 60 atmospheres (c) 70 atmospheres (d) 80 atmospheres

145. The main function of the compression ring is


(a) gas sealing (b) heat transfer (c) assisting oil rings in controlling the oil (d) all of the above

146. The oil control ring is used to prevent excessive amount of oil from passing through
(a) between the ring face and the cylinder wall (b) through the ring end gap (c) around behind the rings (d) all of the above

147. The advantage of reduced compression ring width is


(a) lower piston height (c) decrease in ring inertia (b) resistance to ring flutter (d) all of the above

148. The stresses acting on the connecting rod is usually


(a) axial stresses only (b) bending stresses only (c) combination of axial and bending stresses (d) combination of bending and torsional stresses

149. The cross section of the connecting rod is usually made


(a) L-section (b) T-section (c) -section (d) I-section

150. The end of the connecting rod which holds the piston pin is called
(a) small end (b) big end (c) none of the above (d) both of the above

151. The lighter connecting rod is obtained when it is


(a) cast (b) forged (c) cast and machined

(d) none of the above

152. The pin which attaches the connecting rod to the piston is called
(a) piston pin (b) wrist pin (c) gudgeon pin (d) all of the above

153. Piston pin is generally


(a) solid (b) tubular (c) none of the above (d) both of the above

154. Circlips are used with piston pin so that


(a) the movement of the piston pin can be prevented (b) the expansion of the piston pin can be prevented (c) the piston pin can be protected from the lubricating oil (d) the piston pin does not heat up

155. The major parts of the crankshaft are


(a) crank pins, crank webs, counter weights, bearing journals, oil holes (b) piston pins, crank webs, counter weights, bearing journals, oil holes (c) crank webs, counter weights, bearing journals, oil holes (d) crank webs, bearing journals, oil holes

156. The major part of the crankshaft which is attached to the big end of the connecting rod is
(a) crank webs (b) counter weights (c) bearing journals (d) crank pins

157. At the front of the crankshaft, the component attached is


(a) flywheel (b) starting motor (c) fan (d) clutch

158. The device which is attached to the crankshaft and serves as energy reservoir is
(a) flywheel (b) starting motor (c) fan (d) clutch

159. The components attached at the front end of the crankshaft is


(a) timing gear (b) vibration damper (c) pulley for water pump (d) all of the above

160. For most of the car engines, the crank pin length is usually
(a) 30% of the crankshaft diameter (b) 40% of the crankshaft diameter (c) 45% of the crankshaft diameter

(d) 50% of the crankshaft diameter

161. The value of friction coefficient is least in the case of


(a) dry friction (b) hydrodynamic lubrication (c) boundary lubrication (d) none of the above

162. The objective of lubrication is


(a) to reduce friction between moving parts (b) to provide cooling effect (c) to provide cushioning effect (d) all of the above

163. The parameter which indicates the change of viscosity of a lubricating oil with respect to
temperature is called (a) viscosity (b) dynamic viscosity (c) kinematic viscosity (d) viscosity index

164. Petroleum based lubricating oils have viscosity index in the range of
(a) 70-80 (b) 80-90 (c) 90-100 (d) 100-110

165. By using additives, viscosity index can be


(a) decreased (b) increased (c) kept constant (d) none of the above

166. When the lubricating oil does not separate into solids at lower temperature and does not
vaporize at higher temperature, then it is said to be (a) chemically stable (c) having good pour point (b) physically stable (d) having good viscosity index

167. If the lubrication oil doesnot tend to form oxides at higher temperature, then it is said to be
(a) chemically stable (c) having good pour point (b) physically stable (d) having good viscosity index

168. Pour point refers to


(a) the minimum temperature at which the oil will pour (b) the temperature at which the lubricating oil ignites (c) the temperature at which the lubricating oil flashes (d) none of the above

169. To avoid flashing of oil vapour, the flash point of the lubricating oil should be
(a) equal to the engine operating temperature (b) greater than the engine operating temperature (c) less than the engine operating temperature (d) none of the above

170. Oiliness refers to the property of the lubricating oils in which the lubricating oils
(a) adhere to a metal surface (b) detaches from the metal surface (c) evaporates from the metal surface (d) none of the above 171. The most commonly used lubricating oils are derived from (a) animal oils (b) vegetable oils (c) mineral oils (d) synthetics 172. The most common material which is used as solid lubricant is (a) copper (b) aluminum (c) graphite (d) brass 173. SAE 10W/30 oil has same viscosity as (a) SAE 10W oil at 18oC and SAE 30 oil at 99oC (b) SAE 10W oil at 99oC and SAE 30 oil at 18oC (c) SAE 10W oil at 10oC and SAE 30 oil at 30oC (d) SAE 10 oil at 99oC and SAE 30W oil at 18oC

174. The multigrade oil refers to the type of lubricants in which


(a) the viscosity is different at different temperatures (b) the viscosity changes are appreciable with respect to temperature (c) the viscosity changes are minimum (d) none of the above 175. A measure used to prevent the leakage of products of combustion into the crankcase is called (a) crankcase ventilation (b) crankcase safety (c) Exhaust gas recirculation (d) none of the above 176. In case of the positive crankcase ventilations system; (a) air stream due to the motion of the vehicle is circulated in the crankcase (b) air stream due to the cooling fan is circulated in the crankcase (c) air stream due to the vehicle motion and cooling fan is circulated in the crankcase (d) filtered air from the engine air intake is circulated in the crankcase 177. The main advantage of the manifold suction type crankcase ventilation is (a) it does not cause pollution of the atmosphere (b) it decreases fuel consumption

(c) it improves vehicle speed (d) it prevents blowby 178. The lubricating system in which the lubricating oil is mixed with petrol is called (a) petrol system (b) splash system (c) pressure system (d) petroil system 179. In case of petrol system of lubrication, the ratio of lubricating oil to petrol is (a) (b) (c) 1/5 (d) 1/6 180. A lubrication system in which a scoop connected at the lowest part of the connecting rod is used to spread the lubricating oil on the cylinder wall is called (a) petroil system (b) splash system (c) pressure system (d) dry sump system 181. The most used lubrication system for modern car engine is (a) petroil system (b) splash system (c) pressure system (d) dry sump system 182. In case of V-engines employing pressure type lubrication system (a) only one main oil gallery is used (b) two main oil galleries are used (c) three main oil galleries are used (d) four main oil galleries are used 183. In case of pressure system, the usual pressure at which the lubricating oil is delivered to the main oil gallery is (a) 50-100 kPa (b) 100-150 kPa (c) 200-400 kPa (d) 500-600 kPa 184. The system of lubrication in which the oil under pressure is sent to the main bearings is called (a) petroil system (b) splash system (c) semi-pressure system (d) dry sump system 185. If the vehicle has to be operated at very steep angles, then the preferable lubrication system is

(a) petroil system (b) splash system (c) semi-pressure system (d) dry sump system 186. In case of dry sump system of lubrication, number of pumps used is (a) only one (b) two (c) three (d) four 187. In case of dry sump system, the oil pressure maintained is (a) 400-500 kPa for main bearings and 50-100kPa for timing gears (b) 550-600 kPa for big end bearings and 20-30 kPa for cam shaft bearings (c) 300 kPa for main bearings and 40 kPa for timing gears (d) 700 kPa for big end bearing and 150 kpa for cam shaft bearings 188. Incase of semi-pressure system, the oil which is sent to the main bearings is under the pressure of (a) 0.1 kg/cm2 (b) 0.2 kg/cm2 (c) 0.3 kg/cm2 (d) 0.4 kg/cm2 189. Pistons are generally lubricated and cooled by (a) splash system (b) dry sump system (c) oil jet system (d) petroil system 190. The lubricating system employed for two stroke engine is (a) petroil system (b) splash system (c) pressure system (d) dry sump system

191. Amount of energy converted into the useful work at the crankshaft is
(a) 20% of the total energy released in combustion (b) 25% of the total energy released in combustion (c) 30% of the total energy released in combustion (d) 35% of the total energy released in combustion

192. the main problem of excess cylinder heating is


(a) preignition of the charge (b) seizing of the piston (c) damage of the cylinder liner (d) all of the above

193. the burning of the charge even before the flame front has reached it is called
(a) preignition of the charge (b) autoignition (c) detonation (d) none of the above

194. Engine cooling beyond optimal limit usually results into


(a) decrease in thermal efficiency (b) decrease in combustion efficiency (c) decrease in mechanical efficiency (d) all of the above 195. Incase of overcooled engines, the thermal efficiency decreases because (a) the peak temperature is less than usual (b) the peak temperature does not change (c) the peak temperature is more

(d) none of the above 196. Incase of overcooled engines, the combustion efficiency decreases because (a) the vaporization of fuel is not sufficient (b) density of air is more (c) amount of fuel is high (d) more blowby takes place 197. The mechanical efficiency goes down in case of the overcooled engine because (a) the oil viscosity increases (b) the oil viscosity decreases (c) the oil viscosity does not change (d) the oil has more oiliness 198. In case of overcooled engine, the volumetric efficiency (a) increases (b) remains same (c) decreases (d) does not change 199. In case of air cooled engines, fins are attached to heated metal surface (a) to increase the heat transfer coefficients (b) to increase the contact area between the heated metal and air stream (c) to provide aesthetic (d) to provide more strength to the structure

200. In case of air cooled engines, the heat dissipated depends upon
(a) mass flow rate of air (b) mass flow rate of water in cooling jackets (c) power of the pump (d) none of the above 201. the most important parameter to be considered for air cooled engine is (a) surface area of metal into contact with air (b) mass flow rate of air (c) temperature difference between the heated surface and air (d) all of the above 202. The main advantage of air cooled engine is (a) light weight (b) operability at extreme conditions (c) easier maintenance (d) all of the above

203. The main defect of the air cooled engine is


(a) lack of even cooling (b) low heat transfer capability (c) more noisy (d) all of the above

204. In case of the thermosyphon system,


(a) radiator header tank must be located higher than the top of the cylinder water jackets (b) radiator header tank must be located at the same level of the cylinder water jackets (c) radiator header tank must be located lower than the top of the cylinder water jackets (d) none of the above 205. In case of thermosyphon system, the rate of water circulation in the system is proportional (a) heat output (b) engine speed (c) engine size (d) size of the radiator 206. In case of pump circulation system, the circulation of cooling water is proportional to (a) both the engine load and speed (b) both the heat output and the engine load (c) both the engine size and the size of the radiator (d) speed only 207. As compared to the thermosyphon system, in case of the pump circulation system, (a) a pump as well as a fan is used (b) a pump only is used (c) a fan only is used (d) none of the above

208. The main advantage of the pump circulation system is


(a) positive circulation of cooling water (b) no need to place the radiator header tank above the engine level (c) no need to place the radiator on the front (d) all of the above

209. In case of the pump circulation system, the radiator can be located anywhere because
(a) there is a water pump to circulate cooling water (b) there is a fan employed to assist air flow (c) road draft of the vehicle is more (d) the system is complicated

210. Incase of the pump circulation system, the pump is driven by


(a) flywheel (b) engine crankshaft (c) cam shaft (d) generator 211. In case of the pump circulation system, the cooling water circulation is proportional to both the load and speed because (a) increase in load increases thermosyphonic effect (b) increase in speed increase speed of the pump (c) both of the above (d) none of the above 212. The component of the water cooling system which exchanges heat with the outside air is called (a) radiator (b) thermostat (c) pump (d) fan 213. In case of tubular radiator core, (a) the coolant passes through the tube and the air flow over it (b) the coolant flows over the tube and the air flows in it (c) both of the above (d) none of the above 214. A fin inserted inside the radiator tube to increase the turbulence is called (a) baffle plate (b) turbulator (c) thermostat (d) none of the above 215. The material used for radiators should (a) Be resistant to corrosion (b) possess higher thermal conductivity (c) form easily (d) all of the above 216. The main function of the radiator cap is to (a) increase the boiling point of the coolant (b) release the excess pressure

(c) increase the pressure of the coolant (d) all of the above 217. Usually the radiator cap is set at (a) 5 psi (b) 10 psi (c) 15 psi (d) 20 psi

218.

In case of the Bellows type thermostat, the valve is fully open at about

(a) 75-80oC (b) 80-85oC (c) 85-89oC (d) 90-95oC

219. In case of the Wax thermostat, the plunger is usually made of


(a) plastic (b) rubber (c) aluminum (d) copper 220. In case of car overheating, all the windows are opened and the heater is run with the fan going at full blast because (a) heater mirrors the cooling system (b) heater derives heat from the hot engine coolant (c) heater is not operated electrically (d) all of the above

221. The main function of the storage battery is


a) to supply current for the starting of the vehicle b) to supply current to the electrical system c) to supply current to the ignition system d) all of the above

222. Battery containers are generally made of a) hard rubber


b) plastic c) copper plate d) ceramics

223. The bridge ribs in the battery container prevents


a) deposition of the sediments resulting from the chemical action. b) shorting of the positive and negative plates c) chemical reaction between cathode and anode d) none of the above

224. The percentage of antimony in the supporting frame of the battery plate varies between
a) 1-4 % b) 5-10% c) 11-16% d) 17-22%

225. The function of the gird in the battery is to a) to support the container

b) to carry current in the plates c) to carry the active materials d) none of the above

226. The active material in the positive plate gird is a) red lead
b) sulphuric acid c) litharge d) lead peroxide

227. The active material in the negative plate gird is a) red lead
b) sulphuric acid c) litharge d) lead peroxide

228. The number of plates in negative plate group is


a) equal to the number of plates in the positive plate group b) one less than the number of plates in the positive plate group c) one more than the number of plates in the negative plate group d) none of the above

229. Thin sheets of non-conducting negative plates inserted between positive and negative
plates is called a) active material b) separator c) container d) cell covers

230. Cell covers are provided with vents so that


a) specific gravity of the electrolyte can be measured b) gases produced during battery charging can escape to atmosphere c) topping up of the battery can be carried out easily d) none of the above

231. The usual electrolyte used in the Lead-acid battery is a) hydrochloric acid
b) nitric acid c) acetic acid d) sulphuric acid

232. While preparing the electrolyte,


a) distilled water should be added to the acid b) acid should be added to the distilled water c) there is no need to add distilled water d) there is no need for acid

233. In the fully charged condition, the specific gravity of the electrolyte is a) 1.920 at 15oC
b) 1.290 at 15oC c) 1.110 at 15oC d) 2.290 at 15oC

234. A six volt battery usually consists of a) only one cell


b) two cells c) three cells d) four cells

235. The capacity of an automotive battery depends on a) number of plates in the cell
b) area of the plates in the cell c) quality of the electrolyte d) all of the above

236. If a battery can deliver current continuously for 20 hours after which the cell voltage
does not fall below 1.75, then the battery rating is a) twenty hour rating b) twenty minute rating c) cold rate d) none of the above

237. If a battery can deliver current continuously for 20 minutes with the cell not dropping
below 1.5, the battery rating is a) twenty hour rating b) twenty minute rating c) cold rate d) none of the above

238. The number of minutes a battery can continuously deliver 300 amperes current till the cell
voltage drops to 1.0 volts is called a) twenty hour rating b) twenty minute rating c) cold rate d) none of the above

239. The main advantage of the alkaline battery is a) lightness in weight


b) rigidity c) higher rate of charging d) all of the above

240. The main advantage of zinc-air battery is a) high energy density


b) availability c) good discharge characteristics d) all of the above

241. In a 6-cylinder 4 stroke engine running at 5000 rpm, the number of sparks required per minute
will be a)10,000 b)15,000 c)20,000 d)25,000 242. The main requirement of an ignition system is a) Spark at the plug electrode must be regular and synchronously timed with respect to the cylinder piston position. b) The spark should be sufficiently strong so as to start ignition of the charge c) The system should function efficiently at the maximum and minimum speeds of the engine. d) All of the above

243. The voltage surge required for ignition system is equal to a) 15,000 Volts
b) 20,000 Volts c) 25,000 Volts d) 30,000 Volts 244. The period when the energy grows exponentially in the primary circuit is called; a) break period b) storage period c) make period d) discharge period

245. The break period is characterized by,


a) exponential growth of current in the primary circuit b) cessation of the growth of the current and projection of this onto the primary circuit. c) Continuation of the growth of the current in primary till 25,000 volts is reached. d) cessation of the growth of the current and projection of this onto the secondary circuit. 246. The main factor determining the actual voltage required is a) speed b) compression ratio c) spark plug gap width d) all of the above

247. The primary winding of the ignition coil consists of a) 300 turns of 20 S.W.G. wire
b) 400 turns of 20 S.W.G. wire c) 300 turns of 30 S.W.G. wire d) 400 turns of 30 S.W.G. wire

248. The secondary winding of the ignition coil consists of a) 5,000 turns of thin wire
b) 10,000 turns of thin wire c) 15,000 turns of thin wire d) 20,000 turns of thick wire 249. When the contact breaker points are closed a) a magnetic field is built up in the ignition coil b) a magnetic field is collapsed in the ignition coil c) current is absorbed by the condenser d) high voltage surge is induced in the secondary coil 250. In case of the core type ignition coil, a) primary is wound on the core b) secondary is wound on the core c) H.T. wire is directly connected to the core d) None of the above 251. Ballast resistance is required in the case of the core type ignition coil because, a) the primary winding has relatively long mean turn b) the secondary winding has relatively short mean turn c) battery current has to be limited in the coil d) none of the above 252. At lower speeds, overheating of the induction coil takes place because a) contact breaker points are closed for short time b) contact breaker points are closed for long time. c) secondary winding has high voltage surge d) none of the above 253. The value of ballast resistance generally varies between a) 1-4 ohms b) 5-9 ohms c) 10-14 ohms d) 15-19 ohms 254. For a four cylinder engine operating at 4,000 rpm, the number of contacts to be made and broken is equal to a) 4,000 times per minute b) 6,000 times per minute c) 8,000 times per minute d) 10,000 times per minute 255. )The essential requirement of a good contact breaker is a) opening and closing of the contacts at proper time b) closure of the contacts without bounce c) minimum corrosion of the contact points d) all of the above 256. The main function of the condenser in an ignition system is a) minimizing pitting of the contact breaker points b) to intensify the spark

c) to absorb the energy stored in the primary winding d) all of the above 257. The usual capacity of the condensers used in automobiles is a) 0.1 microfarad b) 0.2 microfarad c) 0.3 microfarad d) 0.4 microfarad 258. The main function of the distributor is to a) distribute energy between the primary and secondary windings b) distribute battery current for various electrical systems c) distribute high voltage pulses to each of the spark plugs d) none of the above 259. The most common firing order for a four cylinder engine is a) 1-2-3-4 b) 1-2-4-3 c) 2-3-4-1 d) 4-3-1-2 260. The most common firing order for a six cylinder engine is a) 1-2-3-4-5-6 b) 1-3-5-6-4-2 c) 1-5-3-6-4-2 d) 1-5-3-6-2-4 261. The most common firing order for an eight cylinder inline engine is a) 1-5-4-8-6-3-7-2 b) 1-3-4-2-8-7-6-5 c) 1-5-7-2-8-4-6-3 d) 1-4-7-3-8-5-2-6 262. The most common firing order for an eight cylinder V-engine is a) 1-5-4-8-6-3-7-2 b) 1-3-4-2-8-7-6-5 c) 1-5-7-2-8-4-6-3 d) 1-4-7-3-8-5-2-6 263. The main requirement of a spark plug is a) high resistance to current leakage b) gas tightness c) resistance to corrosion d) all of the above 264. The optimum temperature for the spark plug electrodes is a) 100oC b) 300oC c) 500oC d) 700oC 265. Sintered alumina is preferred over porcelain for the spark plug assembly because a) they are much stronger

b) they can be attacked by leaded fuel c) they are brittle d) they have low thermal conductivity 266. If the length of the threaded portion of the spark plug is less, then it is called a) short reach spark plug b) long reach spark plug c) slow reach spark plug d) quick reach spark plug 267. Hot plugs runs hotter than cold plugs because a) they are located near radiator b) they are not insulated c) they have longer path of heat dissipation in the cooling water jacket d) they have shorter path of heat dissipation in the cooling water jacket 268. The usual spark plug air gap is equal to a) 0.6 mm b) 1.2 mm c) 0.6 cm d) 1.2 cm 269. In the Magneto Ignition system, the current is supplied to the primary winding by a) battery b) alternator c) magneto d) none of the above 270. The advantage of the rotating magnet type ignition system is a) larger armature b) no centrifugal stress c) stationary contact breaker and condenser d) all of the above 271. In the semi transistorized electronic ignition system, the contact breaker adjustments are required after a) 20,000 km b) 30,000 km c) 40,000 km d) 50,000 km 272. The advantage of the semi transistorized electronic ignition system is a) less pitting of the contact points b) better performance at low speeds c) ease of maintenance d) all of the above 273. The advantage of the fully transistorized electronic ignition system is a) stable secondary voltage at high speeds b) quick cold starting c) self cleaning d) all of the above 274. A mechanism which enables the rotary motion of one shaft to another shaft at the same axis is called a) gear box b) differential c) clutch d) flywheel 275. The main advantage of a good clutch is a) good torque transmission b) rapid engagement c) large size d) high inertia 276. Hard shifting of gears would result when a) there is rapid engagement of gears b) there is less heat dissipation c) the clutch inertia is very high d) there is no clutch free pedal play 277. The torque transmitted by a clutch is given by a) T = WR b) T = /WR

c) T = W/R d) T = 1/WR 278. The coefficient of friction for the Asbestos-based materials used for clutch facing is a) 0.07 b) 0.17 c) 0.27 d) 0.37 279. The maximum amount of axial load to be applied on a clutch plate is a) 100 kN b) 200 kN c) 300 kN d) 400 kN 280. Mean effective radius of contact surfaces of a clutch plate is decided by a) coefficient of friction b) axial pressure c) space available in the vehicle d) amount of torque to be transmitted

281. Axial force to keep the clutch in engaged position is provided by a)

springs arranged

circumferentially b) pressure plate c) flywheel d) clutch pedal 282. The friction plate is always mounted on a) flywheel b) pressure plate c) internally splined hub d) clutch spring 283. The main advantage of single plate clutch over cone clutch is a) easier gear changing b) less binding of contact surfaces c) less pedal movement d) all of the above 284. The main function of transmission is a) to provide means to vary the torque ratio between the engine and the road wheels b) to provide neutral position c) to provide means to back the car d) all of the above 285. The resistance to the vehicle motion whose magnitude remain constant with respect to the vehicle speed is a) resistance due to gradient b) resistance due to the road c) resistance due to the tyre friction d) all of the above 286. The resistance to the vehicle motion whose magnitude various with the square of the vehicle speed is a) resistance due to gradient b) resistance due to road c) resistance due to the tyre friction d) resistance due to wind 287. If the tractive effort is the highest for a given velocity, then the vehicle must be in a) top gear b) third gear c) second gear d) first gear 288. The point of interaction of the tractive effort curve and the total resistance curve is called a) stabilizing speed point b) low speed point c) high speed point d) normal speed point

289. If the given tractive effort curve and the total resistance curve does not intersect, then
a) the vehicle will accelerate b) the vehicle will decelerate c) the vehicle will not be able to go at this gradient for the given gear d) none of the above 290. The main disadvantage of sliding mesh type of gear box is a) high noise level b) low mechanical efficiency c) high skill required by the driver d) all of the above 291. Double declutching is used for the engagement of gears in a) sliding mesh type of gear box b) constant mesh type of gear box c) synchromesh type of gear box d) none of the above 292. High speed gear is obtained in the case of sliding mesh gear box when a) motion is transferred through the clutch gear to lay shaft gear b) main shaft is coupled to the clutch shaft c) smallest gear on the lay shaft is engaged d) largest gear on the lay shaft is engaged

293. The Figure 1 depicts


a) b) c) d) top gear second gear first gear reverse gear Figure 1

294. In case of a constant mesh gear box, when the left dog clutch is slid to the left by means of the
selector mechanism, a) direct gear is obtained b) first gear is obtained c) second gear is obtained d) reverse gear is obtained 295. In a constant mesh gear box, when the right dog clutch is engaged with the gear on the right side of the main shaft, a) direct gear is obtained b) first gear is obtained c) second gear is obtained d) reverse gear is obtained 296. Double declutching is required in constant mesh gear box a) to equalize the speed of mainshaft gear and the sliding dog b) to provide direct gear c) to equalize the speed of countershaft gear and the sliding dog d) none of the above

297. The number of spring loaded balls provided circumferentially in a synchromesh gear box
a) b) c) d) is 3 4 5 6

298. In a synchromesh device, when members G1 and F1 are slid to left and cones M1 and
M2 are in contact, a) direct gear is obtained b) second gear is obtained c) third gear is obtained d) reverse gear is obtained 299. For the second gear in a synchromesh system, the drive transfer will be through a) U1,U2, C, F2, and splines b) U1,U2, C, F1, and splines c) U1,U3, D, F3, and splines d) U1,U4, U5,E, F2, and splines 300. Interlocking mechanism is provided in the gear box cover a) to prevent engagement of two gears simultaneously b) to prevent engagement of reverse gear c) to facilitate the gear selection d) to avoid the necessity of having neutral gear 301. Stiff spring is used in the selector mechanism a) to prevent engagement of two gears simultaneously b) to prevent engagement of reverse gear c) to facilitate the gear selection d) to avoid the necessity of having neutral gear 302. Propeller shaft is used for the purpose of a) transmitting the drive from the transmission to the bevel pinion of the final drive b) transmitting the drive from the crankshaft to the road wheels c) transmitting the drive from the transmission to the road wheels d) transmitting the drive from the crankshaft to the bevel pinion of the final drive 303. Slip joints are provided in the propeller shaft a) to adjust the inclination of the propeller shaft b) to adjust the length of the propeller shaft c) to prevent the whirling of the propeller shaft d) to adjust the up and down movement of the rear axle 304. If two shafts used for transfer of drive are inclined to each other, then a) slip joint is used b) flange coupling is used c) universal joint is used d) none of the above

305. The Hooks joint works efficiently when the propeller shaft inclination is
a) 18o b) 28o c) 38o d) 48o

306. The number of arms provided to the Cross of the Hooks joint is
a) b) c) d) 1 2 3 4

307. The function of the final drive is to


a) provide a permanent speed reduction b) to turn the drive round through 90o

c) to provide drive to the rear wheels d) all of the above

308. The permanent reduction provided by the final drive in car is


a) b) c) d) 4:1 6:1 8:1 10:1 309. The permanent reduction provided by the final drive in heavy vehicle is a) 4:1 b) 6:1 c) 8:1 d) 10:1 310. Single reduction is used in final drive when it is about a) 6:1 b) 8:1 c) 10:1 D) 12:1 311. The function of Differential is a) to prevent wheel skidding b) to reduce the speed of the inner wheels during turning c) to keep the speed of all the wheels same when going straight ahead d) all of the above 312. The crown wheel of the final drive is connected to a) cage b) spider c) cross pin d) axle half shaft 313. In a vehicle, which is going straight ahead at N rpm, if the left wheel rotates forward at n rpm, then the resultant speed of the right wheel will be a) N+n b) N-n c) N/n d) Nn

314. The requirements of a good steering system is a) accuracy


b) ease of operation c) directional stability d) all of the above 315. The front axle is usually subjected to a) bending and torque loads b) compressive and bending loads c) shear and compressive loads d) tensile and torque loads 316. The component which connects main axle beam to the stub axle is a) adjusting nut b) king pin c) thrust washer d) brake drum

317. The commonly used stub-axle is a) Elliot type


b) Reversed Elliot c) Lamoine d) Reversed Lamoine 318. If the front wheels of a vehicle is pointing inward a) they are said to toe in b) they are said to toe out c) camber is positive d) Castor is positive 319. Steering system is governed by a) Factors pertaining to wheels b) Steering linkages c) Suspension system

d) All of the above

320. Camber is defined as


a) tilt of the car wheels from the vertical b) tilt of the king pin from the vertical c) angle between the wheel center line and the king pin center line d) angle between the king pin center line and the vertical in the plane of the wheel 321. The effect of positive camber is a) more tyre wear on the middle b) more tyre wear on the inner sides c) more tyre wear on the outer sides d) none of the above 322. In right hand drive vehicles, a) more camber angle is provided on the right b) more camber angle is provide on the left c) zero camber angle is provided to both the right and left wheels d) none of the above

323. The amount of usual king pin inclination is a) 4o


b) 5o c) 6o d) 7o

324. King pin inclination usually helps in a) preventing toe-in


b) preventing toe-out c) directional stability d) none of the above 325. Combined angle is defined as a) tilt of the car wheels from the vertical b) tilt of the king pin from the vertical c) angle between the wheel center line and the king pin center line d) angle between the king pin center line and the vertical in the plane of the wheel 326. If the scrub radius is zero a) wheels tend to toe-in b) wheels tend to toe-out c) wheels remain in straight position d) wheels wear out very fast 327. Castor is defined as a) tilt of the car wheels from the vertical b) tilt of the king pin from the vertical c) angle between the wheel center line and the king pin center line d) angle between the king pin center line and the vertical in the plane of the wheel 328. If the wheel axis meets the king pin axis above the ground, then a) scrub radius is positive

b) scrub radius is negative c) scrub radius is equal to zero d) all of the above 329. The amount of camber usually provided to automobile wheels should not exceed a) 2o b) 3o c) 4o d) 5o

330. For directional stability, the castor on the car wheels must be a) negative
b) positive c) zero d) none of the above 331. Greater control on directional stability is governed by a) camber b) castor c) combined angle d) king pin inclination 332. The effect of positive castor on the wheel is to a) toe out b) toe in c) remain straight d) none of the above 333. The effect of negative castor on the wheel is to a) toe out b) toe in c) remain straight d) none of the above 334. When a wheel is turned towards the centre of the vehicle, the camber angle is reduced in direct proportion to the amount of a) combined angle provided on the wheel b) steering axis inclination provided on the wheel c) scrub radius provided on the wheel d) castor angle provided on the wheel

335. The main function of an automobile wheel is a) to take the vertical load
b) to provide cushioning effect c) to cope with steering control d) all of the above 336. The main requirements of an automobile wheel is a) must be balanced both statically and dynamically b) lightness in weight c) easier mounting and removal d) all of the above

337. The main advantage of pressed steel disc wheel is a) robust construction
b) simplicity and low cost of manufacturing c) ease in cleaning d) all of the above 338. The main disadvantage of wire wheel is a) more weight b) less heat dissipation c) difficulty in fitting and removing d) tubeless tyres can not be used 339. Aluminum and magnesium alloys are used in the construction of a) pressed steel disc wheel b) wire wheel c) light alloy cast wheel d) all of the above 340. Better road adhesion is obtained in light alloy cast steel wheel because of a) use of light alloys of aluminum and magnesium b) good heat conduction c) less corrosion d) using wider rims and low aspect ratio 341. Modern pressed disc wheels are usually swaged for a) providing better tyre mounting b) accommodating tube valve c) preventing splashing of mud d) compensating for the loss of strength due to holes 342. In a pressed disc wheel, the seat of the rim is provided with 5o taper for the purpose of a) accommodating tube valve b) making room for disc holes c) giving wedge fit to the inflated tyre d) all of the above

343. If the centre line of the rim is located inboard of the attachment face of the disc, then
a) it is zeroset wheel b) it is inset wheel c) it is outset wheel d) all of the above 344. If the centre line of the rim coincides with the attachment face of the disc, then it is called a) inset wheel b) outset wheel c) zeroset wheel d) none of the above 345. A wheel whose disc can be mounted on either face to provide inset or outset is called a) inset-outset wheel b) zeroset wheel c) reversible wheel d) divided wheel 346. A wheel constructed in two parts, which when securely fastened together combine to form a rim having two fixed flanges is called a) inset-outset wheel b) zeroset wheel c) reversible wheel d) divided wheel

347. In heavier vehicles, the wheel rims used are a) well rims
b) v-rims c) w-rims d) flat rims 348. In heavier vehicles, tubeless tyre cannot be used because a) rims are well shaped and airtightness is present b) rims are well shaped but no airtightness present c) rims are flat based and they are airtight d) rims are flat based and they are not airtight 349. In a wire wheel, wheel rim is attached to a) disc through a number of wire spokes b) hub through a number of wire spokes c) axle d) none of the above 350. The spokes of a wire wheel sustains a) vehicle weight b) driving torque c) braking force d) all of the above 351. The hub of the wire wheel is fastened to the axle shaft by means of

a) lock nut b) circlip c) wing nut d) splines 352. The advantage of wire wheel is a) light weight b) high strength c) better cooling and easier changing d) all of the above 353. Light alloy cast wheels are generally made of a) aluminum alloys b) copper alloys c) zinc alloys d) none of the above 354. The main advantage of forged wheel is a) reduced weight b) reduced unsprung weight c) better heat dissipation d) all of the above 355. For the wheel specification of 5.50B-13, B stands for a) width of the wheel b) rim type c) diameter of the wheel d) offset 356. In a wheel specification 4 J-14, 14 represents a) width of the wheel b) rim type c) diameter of the wheel d) offset 357. The main function of a tyre is a) to support the vehicle load b) to provide cushion against shocks c) to transmit driving and braking forces to the road d) all of the above 358. The main desirable property of a tyre is a) non-skidding b) uniform wear c) cushioning d) all of the above 359. Ply rating of a tyre usually refers to a) exact number of plies in the tyre b) tread pattern of the tyre c) number of beads in the tyre d) index of tyre strength and load carrying capacity

360. The part of the tyre which contacts the road surface is called a) carcass
b) bead c) tread d) ply 361. The desirable properties of side walls are a) good flexibility b) bending without deflection c) high fatigue strength d) all of the above 362. Beads usually provide a) support for tread b) support for carcass c) bearings against the rim d) all of the above 363. All plies are tied to the bead so that a) tread does not wear off quickly b) change of shape of the plies is prevented c) breaking torques are effectively carried d) driving forces are effectively carried 364. As compared to tubed tyre, the advantage of tubeless tyre is a) less unsprung weight b) better cooling c) slower leakage of air d) all of the above

365. The fuel supply system in which the fuel drops into the carburetor float chamber by
gravity is called a. pressure system b. gravity system c. vaccum system d. pump system 366. If the engine suction is used for the movement of fuel from the main tank, then it is a. pressure system b. gravity system c. vaccum system d. pump system 367. In case of Pump type of fuel system, the most suitable location for placing an electrical pump will be a. near the engine b. on the rear side of the vehicle c. on the front side of the vehicle d. none of the above 368. Use of engine exhaust to create pressure is done in a. pressure system b. gravity system c. vaccum system d. pump system 369. For front engine vehicles, the suitable location for the fuel tank is a. Next to the radiator b. around the gear box c. above the rear axle d. above the front axle 370. Dead fuel storage is always provided in a fuel tank because a. it helps in supplying fuel when the fuel tank is about to empty b. it helps in preventing vapour lock c. it helps in depositing the sediment d. it helps in priming the fuel tank 371. The fuel tank cap is vented to atmosphere for a. maintaining fuel tank pressure at the atmospheric level b. maintaining normal fuel delivery

c. preventing the collapse of the fuel tank d. all of the above 372. The main disadvantage of mechanical pump is a. they need to be located near the engine b. they are prone to vapour lock c. they operate only after the engine has started d. all of the above 373. A fuel pump used in automobile which is operated by the camshaft through an eccentric, rocker arm assembly is a. mechanical pump b. gear pump c. electrical pump d. none of the above

374. The main advantage of providing vapour return line in a fuel system is a. to prevent
vapour lock b. to keep the pump cool in operation c. to prevent the flow of vapour to carburetor d. all of the above 375. The main function of an air cleaner is a. to act as a silencer b. to act as flame arrestor c. to filter the air d. all of the above 376. The main function of a carburetor is a. to keep a small reserve of fuel at a constant head b. to prepare a homogeneous air fuel mixture c. to supply correct amount of air fuel mixture at the correct strength d. all of the above 377. The fuel mixture required at the time of engine start is a. rich mixture b. stoichiometric mixture c. lean mixture d. none of the above 378. For cruising speeds, the air fuel ratio used is around a. 5:1 b. 10:1 c. 15:1 d. 20:1 379. The main function of the float chamber of a carburetor is a. to maintain a constant head fuel b. to control the quantity of air fuel mixture c. to increase the air velocity d. to inject the fuel into the air stream

380. The main function of the venture in the carburetor is a. to maintain a constant head fuel
b. to control the quantity of air fuel mixture c. to increase the air velocity d. to inject the fuel into the air stream 381. Fuel level maintained in the float chamber is usually a. 1 mm below the nozzle outlet b. 3 mm below the nozzle outlet c. 5 mm below the nozzle outlet d. 7 mm below the nozzle outlet 382. The most commonly used carburetor is a. up draught b. horizontal c. down draught d. none of the above 383. The main advantage of the down draught carburetor is a. gravity assisted flow of mixture b. higher volumetric efficiency c. more accessible carburetor position d. all of the above 384. The main disadvantage associated with using carburetor for metering fuel supply of a multicylinder engine is a. difficulty in ensuring uniformity of mixture quality by a single carburettor b. restriction posed by the venturi throat in the flow of air c. acute problem of suitable mixture supply at low speeds d. all of the above 385. The main advantage of petrol injection system is a. high quality fuel distribution b. less fuel consumption c. rapid response of the engine to throttle control d. all of the above 386. The main disadvantage of petrol injection system is a. high initial cost b. much complicated mechanism c. increased maintenance required d. all of the above 387. The process of supercharging air fuel mixture to the engine is characterized by a. higher pressure b. higher charge density c. increased weight of the charge per stroke d. all of the above

388. According to American Society of Testing Materials (ASTM), "A dispersion of solid or liquid
particles of microscopic size in gaseous media, such as fog, smoke or mist" is called a. dust b. fly ash c. smoke d. soot 389. According to American Society of Testing Materials (ASTM), " Agglomeration of particles of carbon impregnated with 'tar' formed in the incomplete combustion of carbonaceous materials " is called a. dust b. fly ash c. soot d. smoke 390. According to American Society of Testing Materials (ASTM), " A term loosely applied to solid particles predominantly larger than colloidal, and capable of temporary suspension in air or other gases " is called a. dust b. fly ash c. soot d. smoke 391. According to American Society of Testing Materials (ASTM), " The finely divided particles of ash entrained in flue gases arising from the combustion of fuel " is called a. dust b. fly ash c. soot d. smoke 392. According to American Society of Testing Materials (ASTM), "Finely divided aerosol particles

resulting from incomplete combustion. Consists mainly of carbon and other combustible materials " is called a. dust b. fly ash c. soot d. smoke

393. The first ever ban on burning coal was imposed in


a.1300 b.1578 c.1661 d.1952

394. The first ever publication on pollution took place in the year
a.1300 b.1578 c.1661 d.1952

395. The first year pollution disaster struck a. London in 1952


b. London in 1962 c. Meuse valley in 1930 d. Donora 1948 396. The main effect of air pollution is a. reduction in visibility b. economic damage to property c. annoyance to human senses d. all of the above 397. The combination of fog and smoke is called a. smaze b. smust c. smog d. none of the above 398. The combination of haze and smoke is called a. smaze b. smust c. smog d. none of the above 399. The combination of dust and smoke is called a. smaze b. smust c. smog d. none of the above 400. The effects of various concentrations and dosages of pollutants on people is usually measured by a. experimental exposure of men and animals to the controlled environment b. clinical studies c. epidemiological studies d. all of the above 401. Photochemical smog is produced by a. complex chemical reaction between hydrocarbon and oxides of nitrogen b. complex chemical reaction between carbon monoxide and hydrocarbon c. complex chemical reaction between carbon monoxide and nitrogen d. complex chemical reaction between SOx and NOx 402. The major area of the automobile which can produce pollutant to the atmosphere is a. fuel tank and carburettor b. crankcase c. exhaust tail pipe d. all of the above

403. The main emission control measure to decrease the vehicular pollution in atmosphere
is a. redesigning engine ventilation system, carburettor and fuel tank b. improving combustion efficiency c. destroying pollutants after they are formed d. all of the above 404. Spring loaded PCV valve used in crankcase ventilation system opens a. less with more vacuum b. more with more vacuum c. does not open at all d. remains open all the time 405. Breathing refers to a. blow-off gases being recirculated into the inlet manifold b. escape of blow-off gases to the atmosphere through the crankcase c. escape of gasoline vapour from fuel tank to the atmosphere d. escape of gasoline vapour from the carburettor to the atmosphere 406. From combustion chamber design point of view, the amount of pollutants decreases for a. flat shaped combustion chamber b. hemispherical combustion chamber c. spherical combustion chamber d. none of the above 407. If the thermostat setting is maintained at higher temperature, then a. better combustion ensues which reduces pollutants b. combustion worsens and pollutant formation increases c. does not have bearing on the pollutant formation d. none of the above 408. During idling, the pollutant formation will decrease if a. stoichiometric fuel-air mixture is supplied b. too rich fuel-air mixture is supplied c. lean fuel-air mixture is supplied d. none of the above 409. The invisible emission from the engine tail pipe is a. smoke b. particulate c. aldehydes d. soot 410. More amount of NOx formation takes place when a. amount of O2 present is high and the temperature is also high b. amount of O2 present is low and the temperature is high c. amount of O2 present is high and the temperature is low d. amount of O2 present is low and the temperature is also low 411. The maximum NOx formation takes place when air-fuel ratio is a. 5:1 b. 10:1 c. 15:1 d. 20:1 412. Oxides of Nitrogen are usually measured by a. chemiluminescence method b. non-dispersive infrared analyzer c. flame ionization detection method d. obscuration method 413. The analyzer fitted in chemiluminescence method usually measures a. NO b. N2O c. NO2 d. NO3 414. The use of converter in chemiluminescence method is a. to measure the amount of NO b. to measure the amount of NO2

c. to convert all NO into NO2 d. to convert all NO2 into NO

415. Complete elimination of CO from vehicles is not possible and hence the reasonable goal of
carbon monoxide emission is a. 5% b. 1% c.0.5% d. 0.05% 416. Carbon monoxide emissions are high usually when a. vehicle is cruising b. vehicle is accelerating c. vehicle is decelerating d. vehicle is idling 417. Closure of the throttle valve during the vehicle operation results in a. more CO emission b. less CO emission c. no CO emission d. more CO2 emission 418. Carbon Monoxide measurement is usually carried out by means of a. chemiluminescence method b. non-dispersive infrared analyzer c. flame ionization detection method d. obscuration method 419. The method of selective absorption of the infrared energy of a particular wavelength peculiar to a certain gas, which will be absorbed by that gas is employed in a. chemiluminescence method b. non-dispersive infrared analyzer c. flame ionization detection method d. obscuration method 420. Main operating variable affecting the emission of unburnt hydrocarbon emission is a. speed & load b. air-fuel ratio c. mode of operation and maintenance d. all of the above 421. . Fuel quenching refers to a. termination of combustion of fuel at the cylinder walls b. continuation of fuel combustion c. initial stage of preignition d. final stage of detonation 422. Unburnt hydrocarbon emission can be lowered by a. lower compression ratio b. higher stroke to bore ratio c. larger displacement per cylinder and fewer cylinders d. all of the above 423. Hydrocarbon emissions are higher, when the air/fuel ratio is a. too lean b. too reach c. stoichiometric d. near stoichiometric 424. . Hydrocarbon emissions are usually measured by a. chemiluminescence method b. non-dispersive infrared analyzer c. flame ionization detection method d. obscuration method 425. Measurement of current flow due to electrically charged particles is usually made in a. chemiluminescence method b. non-dispersive infrared analyzer c. flame ionization detection method d. obscuration method 426. Aldehydes emission usually results from the combustion of a. leaded hydrocarbon fuel b. sulphur added hydrocarbon fuel c. oxygenated hydrocarbon fuel d. coal 427. Measurement of aldehydes are carried out by a. iodine titration technique b. chromotropic acid method c. 3-methyl 2-benzothiazolene hydrazone method d. all of the above

428. Formaldehyde is usually measured by a. iodine titration technique


b. chromotropic acid method c. 3-methyl 2-benzothiazolene hydrazone method d. 2,4 Dinitrophenyl hydrazine method 429. Total aldehydes measurement is carried out by a. chromotropic acid method

b. 3-methyl 2-benzothiazolene hydrazone method c. 2,4 Dinitrophenyl hydrazine method d. none of the above 430. Compared to invisible pollutants, visible pollutants are a. more toxic b. more irritant c. less toxic d. less irritant 431. In comparison method of smoke measurement, if the result is Ringelmann no. 5, then a. there is less smoke present in the exhaust b. there is medium amount of smoke present in the exhaust c. there is great deal of smoke present in the exhaust d. none of the above 432. Ratio of electric output from photocell when smoke sample is passed through the column to the electric output when clean air is passed through it is called a. air density b. smoke density c. smoke mass d. smoke level 433. The reduction of light beam by the smoke to measure the smoke level is used in a. Ringelmann chart method b. light extinction method c. continuous filter type method d. Spot filter type method 434. Hartridge smoke meter is based on a. Ringelmann chart method b. light extinction method c. continuous filter type method d. Spot filter type method 435. Van Brand Smokemeter is based on a. Ringelmann chart method b. light extinction method c. continuous filter type method d. Spot filter type method 436. If the measurement of smoke intensity is achieved by continuously passing exhaust gas through a moving strip of filter paper and collecting particles, then this method is a. Ringelmann chart method b. light extinction method c. continuous filter type method d. Spot filter type method 437. Bosch Smokemeter is based on a. Ringelmann chart method b. light extinction method c. continuous filter type method d. Spot filter type method