GS Paper (Author Marish Valley Xaxa )

Q1. Which of the following is/are correct about the Task Force on an IT strategy for PDS and an implementable solution for the direct transfer of subsidy for food and kerosene? 1. It was constituted by the Planning Commission. 2. Its recommendations include end-to end computerization of PDS across the country. 3. National Population Register would be used in PDS to simplify ration card registration. a) 1 and 2 b) 2 and 3 c) Only 3 d) None of the statements Ans. Option a Explanation: Statement 1 is correct. It was constituted by the Planning Commission under the Chairmanship of Nandan Nilekani, Chairman, UIDAI. The Task Force was mandated to recommend an IT strategy for PDS reform and suggest a

solution for direct transfer of subsidies on kerosene, LPG, and fertilizer to the intended beneficiaries. Statement 2 is correct. The Task Force submitted its report in October 2011 and one of its main recommendations were an End-to end computerization of PDS across the country and provision of a token-agnostic technology solution that can accept physical coupons, smartcards, electronic coupons, and facilitate direct cash transfers. Statement 3 is wrong. Aadhaar (UIN) is to be used in PDS to simplify ration card registration.

Q2. Which of the following is not under the Negative List of services mentioned in Indian Budget 2011-12? a) Animal Husbandry b) Lottery and Gambling c) Real Estate d) None of these Ans. Option d Explanation: The negative list takes care of services the Government intends to exempt from the levy. It includes sectors comprising specified persons, social welfare and public utilities, agriculture and animal husbandry, financial sector,

transport, construction and real estate, education, health and others.

Q3. Which of the following is a not a part of Indias Forex Reserves? a) Global Depository Receipts b) Gold c) Special drawing rights (SDRs) d) Reserve tranche position (RTP) Ans. Option a Explanation: Indias foreign exchange reserves comprise foreign currency assets (FCA), gold, special drawing rights (SDRs), and reserve tranche position (RTP) in the International Monetary Fund (IMF). Global Depository Receipts is one of the ways of foreign investment in India through Portfolio Investments.

Q4. The disability affairs in India come under which ministry? 1. Ministry of social justice and empowerment 2. Ministry of Urban Development 3. Ministry of Labour and employment

a) Only 1 b) 1 and 2 c) 1, 2 and 3 d) None of these Ans. option d Explanation: The disability sector in India comes under the Ministry of Social Justice and Empowerment and Ministry of Health and Family Welfare. Though a separate Department of Disability Affairs is proposed to be set up for greater focus on addressing issues confronting persons with disabilities and the government is considering a new legislation for persons with disabilities.

Q5. The Pradhan Mantri Adarsh Gram Yojana will be transferred to the Ministry of Rural Development from which ministry? a) Ministry of Tribal Affairs b) Ministry of Labour and Employment c) Ministry of Social Justice and Empowerment d) Ministry of Micro, Small and Medium Enterprises Ans. option c Explanation:

PMAGY was launched in 2009-10 for integrated development of all villages with more than 50 percent schedule caste population. It will be transferred from the Ministry of Social Justice and Empowerment to the Ministry of Rural Development.

Q6. Which is the worlds largest holder of Forex Reserves? a) Russia b) China c) USA d) Abu Dhabi Ans. Option b Explanation: Top ten countries with largest Forex Reserves (in US$ billions) 1 China- 3181.1 2 Japan- 1326.1 3 Russia- 499.5 4 Brazil- 352.0 5 Switzerland- 340.6 6 India- 296.7 7 China P R Hong Kong- 285.5

8 Germany- 262.3 9 Singapore- 237.7 10 France- 233.6

Q7. Following step(s) is/are taken to stabilize the value of rupee. 1. External Commercial Borrowing under automatic approval route is increased. 2. Disallowing investment of rupee funds in capital market. 3. Forward contracts booked by FIIs, once cancelled, are not rebooked. a) only 2 b) 1 and 3 c) 1 and 2 d) 1, 2 and 3 Ans. Option d Explanation: Statement 1 is correct. An external commercial borrowing (ECB) is an instrument used in India to facilitate the access to foreign money by Indian corporations and public sector undertakings. To stabilize the value of money the existing ECB limit under automatic approval route has been enhanced

from US$ 500 million to US$ 750 million for eligible corporate. Statement 2 is correct. The proceeds of ECBs raised abroad for rupee expenditure in India should be brought immediately. In other words, ECB proceeds meant only for foreign currency expenditure can be retained abroad pending utilization. The rupee funds however will not be permitted to be used for investment in capital markets or real estate or for inter-corporate lending. Statement 3 is correct. According to RBI forward contracts booked by FIIs, once cancelled, cannot be rebooked. They may, however, be rolled over on or before maturity.

Q8. Which of the following statement(s) is/are not correct? 1. The Nominal Effective Exchange Rate (NEER) is defined as a weighted average of nominal exchange rates, adjusted for home and foreign country relative price differentials. 2. Real Effective Exchange Rate (REER) is the weighted average of bilateral nominal exchange rates of the home currency in terms of foreign currencies. a) Only 1 b) Only 2 c) Both 1and 2 d) Neither 1 nor 2

Ans. Option c Explanation: The NEER and REER indices are used as indicators of external competitiveness of the country over a period of time. Statement 1 is wrong. NEER is the weighted average of bilateral nominal exchange rates of the home currency in terms of foreign currencies. Statement 2 is wrong. REER is defined as a weighted average of nominal exchange rates, adjusted for home and foreign country relative price differentials. Hence both the statements are incorrect

Q9. Which of the following is/are correct? 1. India ranks sixth among the nations with largest Forex Reserves in the world. 2. The ratio of Indias external debt stock to gross national income is lower than Brazil. 3. The external debt stock of India is same as that of Turkey. a) Only 1 b) 1 and 2 c) 2 and 3 d) Only 3 Ans. Option a Explanation:

Statement 1 is correct. The six largest forex reserves of the world are China- 3181.1, Japan- 1326.1, Russia- 499.5, Brazil- 352.0, Switzerland- 340.6 and India- 296.7 (figures are in US$ million) Statement 2 is wrong. Countries with the ratio of their total debt to GNI in percent: 1 China- 9.3 2 Russian Federation- 26.9 3 Brazil- 16.9 4 Turkey- 40.4 5 India- 16.9 Statement 3 is wrong. Countries with largest external debt stock in US$ millions: 1 China- 548551 2 Russian Federation- 384740 3 Brazil- 346978 4 Turkey- 293872 5 India- 290282

Q10. Which of the following is/are not correct? 1. SEZs are exempted from service tax. 2. The main objective of SEZ is export.

a) Only 1 b) Only 2 c) Both 1 and 2 d) Neither 1 nor 2 Ans. Option b Explanation: Statement 1 is correct. The major incentives and facilities available to SEZ developers include:-Exemption from customs/excise duties for development of SEZs for authorized operations approved by the BOA. -Income Tax exemption on income derived from the business of development of the SEZ in a block of 10 years in 15 years under Section 80-IAB of the Income Tax Act. -Exemption from minimum alternate tax under Section 115 JB of the Income Tax Act. -Exemption from dividend distribution tax under Section 115O of the Income Tax Act. -Exemption from Central Sales Tax (CST). -Exemption from Service Tax (Section 7, 26 and Second Schedule of the SEZ Act). Statement 2 is wrong. The objectives of SEZs are: (a) Generation of additional economic activity (b) Promotion of exports of goods and services

(c) Promotion of investment from domestic and foreign sources (d) Creation of employment opportunities (e) Development of infrastructure facilities. Hence option b is correct.

Q11. The first Export Processing Zone (EPZ) to be opened in India was at a) Kandla Special Economic Zone Kandla, Gujarat Multi product b) SEEPZ Special Economic Zone Mumbai, Maharashtra c) Cochin Special Economic Zone Cochin, Kerala Multi product d) Falta Special Economic Zone Falta, West Bengal Multi product Ans. Option a Explanation: The first EPZ in Asia was set up in Kandla, Gujarat in 1965.

Q12. Primary deficit is a) The excess of total government expenditure over the sum of revenue receipt and non-debt creating capital receipt.

b) The excess of government fiscal deficit over interest payments. c) Net RBI credit to the government. d) None of these Ans. Option b Explanation: Primary deficit is derived after deducting the interest payments component from the fiscal deficit of any budget. The opposite of a primary deficit is a primary surplus. Q13. Which of the following statement(s) is/are incorrect? 1. POSCO India is situated at Malkangiri in Orissa 2. The head quarter of POSCO is in South Korea. 3. The Scheduled Tribes and Other Traditional Forest Dwellers (Recognition of Forest Rights) Act, 2006 is also known as Forest Rights Act. a) only 1 b) 1 and 2 c) 2 and 3 d) 1, 2 and 3 Ans. Option a Explanation:

Statement 1 is wrong. POSCO India is located in the Paradip port town in Jagatsinghpur district in Orissa. Statement 2 is correct. POSCO-India Private Limited is a planned Indian subsidiary of POSCO, an integrated steel producer with headquarters in Korea. Statement 3 is correct. Forest Rights Act concerns with the rights of forest-dwelling communities to land and other resources, denied to them over decades as a result of the continuance of colonial forest laws in India. Hence option a is correct.

Q14. Which of the following is/ are correct? 1. Core inflation is susceptible to volatile price movement. 2. Headline inflation includes non-food basket at CPI (IW). 3. Core inflation is also known as manufacturing inflation. a) 1 and 2 b) Only 3 c) 2 and 3 d) 1, 2 and 3 Ans. Option c Explanation: Statement 1 is wrong. Core inflation is a measure of inflation that excludes items that face volatile price movement like

food and energy. Therefore it is used for framing long term policy. Statement 2 is wrong. Headline inflation is the measure of average price of a standard basket of goods and services consumed by a typical family. Statement 3 is correct. Core inflation is also known as manufacturing inflation and makes up the non-food basket at WPI.

Q15. Indias has Comprehensive Economic Cooperation Agreement (CECA) with which of the following countries? a) Japan b) Singapore c) Australia d) France Ans. Option b Explanation: India had CECA with Singapore in 2005. India has Commercial Economic Partnership Agreement with South Korea and Japan. In the case of CECA, the emphasis is on reduction of tariffs or elimination of tariffs in a gradual manner of all items listed as tariff rate quota items, in the case of CEPA, it is also about trade in the fields of services and investments.

Q16. Consider the following statements. 1. Current account shows all the flows that directly affect the National Income Accounts. 2. Capital account is related with the National Balance Sheet. Which of the above is/ are true? a) only 1 b) only 2 c) Both the statements d) Neither of the statements Ans. Option c Explanation: Statement 1 is correct. The current account is the sum of the balance of trade (exports minus imports). It reflects a nation's net income. Statement 2 is correct. The capital account reflects net change in national ownership of assets.

Q17. The Worlds largest road system is present in a) China b) Argentina c) USA

d) India Ans. Option c Explanation: The United States has the world's largest network of highways, including both the Interstate Highway System and the U.S. Highway System. At least one of these networks is present in every state and they interconnect most major cities. China's highway network is the second most extensive in the world, with a total length of about 3.573 million km. China's expressway network is also the second longest in the world, and it is quickly expanding, stretching some 85,000 km at the end of 2011.

Q18. Consider the following. 1. Small savings are a burden on governments borrowings. 2. Indirect tax of government is adversely affected by small savings. 3. Fiscal deficit is increased by an increase in the number of small savings. Which of the above statement(s) is are incorrect? a) 1 and 3 b) only 1 c) 2 and 3 d) none of these

Ans. Option d Explanation: Statement 1 is correct. Greater the rate of small savings, greater is the government liabilities and greater the rate of deficit. Statement 2 is correct. Increase in small savings implies decrease in consumption in current period. A fall in demand affects the indirect tax of government. Statement 3 is correct. Small savings increase borrowings against which the government has to pay interest periodically. This increases revenue deficit and leads to fiscal deficit also. Hence option d is correct.

Q19. Consider the following statements. 1. Indias has CEPA with Japan. 2. South Korea is an OECD country. 3. Free Trade Agreement include investment, trade in goods and services, bilateral cooperation. Which of the above is/ are correct? a) 1 and 3 b) 1and 2 c) only 3 d) 1, 2 and 3

Ans. Option b Explanation: Statement 1 is correct. India also has a CEPA with South Korea. Statement 2 is correct. Organisation for Economic Cooperation and Development (OECD) is an international economic organisation of 34 countries founded in 1961 to stimulate economic progress and world trade. South Korea is a member of OECD. Statement 3 is wrong. Free Trade Agreement includes trade in goods while a CEPA includes investment, trade in goods and services, bilateral cooperation also.

Q20. Which of the following is not correct? a) BRICS is proposing for a BRICS Bank for the emerging economies. b) International Finance Corporation provides investment solutions for private sector. c) Multilateral Investment Guarantee Agency provides commercial risk insurance. d) MIGA was set up in 1988. Ans. Option c

Explanation: The Multilateral Investment Guarantee Agency (MIGA) is a member organization of the World Bank Group that offers political risk insurance.

Q21. Which of the following statement(s) is/ are incorrect about Participatory Notes (PN)? a) An entity investing through PN is not registered under SEBI. b) PN is used for investing in countries that have not signed DTAA with India. c) PN is not allowed within India. d) None of these Ans. Option b Explanation: PN are not used within India. They are used outside India for making investments in shares listed in that country. That is why they are also called offshore derivative instruments.

Q22. Which of the following is a Naphtha type jet fuel? a) Jet A b) Jet A-1 c) Jet B d) Avgas

Ans. Option c Explanation: Kerosene-type jet fuel is Jet A and Jet A-1. Naphtha-type jet fuel is Jet B. Alkylate is the main petroleum component used in blending avgas. Civilian aircraft mostly use Jet-A, JetA1 or in severely cold climates Jet-B.

Q23. Which of the following statement is not true about World Food programme? a) The head quarter of WFP is in Rome. b) It was founded by Food and Agricultural Organisation and United Nations General Assembly c) The Fast Information Technology and Telecommunications Emergency and Support Team (FITTEST) provides IT, telecommunications and electricity infrastructure to support WFP. d) FITTEST is based in Sharjah. Ans. Option d Explanation: FITTEST is based in Dubai, United Arab Emirates. The geographical location of this city facilitates the teams deployment to emergencies around the world.

Q24. Which of the following is correct about the decreasing order of HDI rank in 2011?

a) Bangladesh, India, Kenya, Pakistan b) Sri Lanka, China, India, Bangladesh c) China, Sri Lanka, Vietnam, India d) None of these Ans. Option b Explanation: Following are the countries with their HDI rank in 20111- Norway 2- Australia 39- Poland 61- Malaysia 66- Russian fed 84- Brazil 92- Turkey 97- Sri Lanka 101- China 103- Thailand 112- Philippines 113- Egypt 123- South Africa 124- Indonesia

128- Vietnam 134- India 143- Kenya 145- Pakistan 146- Bangladesh

Q25. Which is the worlds largest diamond exchange in the world? a) Shanghai Diamond Exchange b) Dubai Diamond Exchange c) Bharat Diamond Bourse d) Diamond Dealers Club of Australia Ans. Option c Explanation: Bharat Diamond Bourse (BDB) is world largest diamond bourse(exchange) based in Mumbai, Maharashtra, India.

Q26. Which of the following does not undergo polarisation? a) Light b) Acoustic waves c) Gravitational Waves

d) None of these Ans. Option b Explanation: Polarization is a property of certain types of waves that describes the orientation of their oscillations Acoustic waves (sound waves) in a gas or liquid do not have polarization because the direction of vibration and direction of propagation are the same.

Q27. Sorafenib tosylate that is used to treat the advance stages of liver and kidney cancer is sold under the brand name a) Bayer b) Nexavar c) Novartis d) none of the above Ans. option b Explanation: Sorafenib is co-developed and co-marketed by Bayer and Onyx Pharmaceuticals as Nexavar, is a drug approved for the treatment of primary kidney cancer and advanced primary liver cancer. An Indian drug maker Natco Pharma produces generic version of Nexavar and has been given compulsory licence.

Q28. Which of the following statement(s) is/ are true? 1. Low birth weight category is less than 2.5 Kg 2. Muscle mass checks the glucose uptake in the body 3. Under weight babies have low body fat at the cost of muscle mass. a) 1 and 3 b) only 2 c) 1, 2 and 3 d) only 3 Ans. option b Explanation: Statement 1 is wrong. Low birth weight refers to individuals who weighed less for a given gestational age at birth. It is less than 2.45 kg while the normal birth weight is between 3.1 kg and 3.5 kg. Statement 2 is correct. Muscles play an important role in glucose uptake and hence reduced muscle mass may probably increase the possibility of these individuals developing insulin resistance at a later stage. Statement 3 is wrong. Babies who are underweight preserve their body fat at the cost of muscle mass even at the foetal stage. As a result, the muscle mass in these individuals is less than those with normal birth weight.

Q29. Excess growth hormone is produced by which gland in the human body? a) Pineal gland b) Hypophysis c) Hypothalamus d) none of these Ans. option b Explanation: Pituitary gland is also known as hypophysis. One of the functions of pituitary gland is growth. Excess of Growth hormone (GH), which is a peptide hormone that stimulates growth, can lead to gigantism.

Q30. A boy is 1.72 metres tall. What can be his normal weight? a) 69 Kg b) 53 Kg c) Cannot be determined d) None of these Ans. Option a Explanation:

A Body Mass Index (BMI) of 18.5 to 24.9 may indicate optimal weight; a BMI lower than 18.5 suggests the person is underweight while a number above 24.9 may indicate the person is overweight; a person may have a BMI below 18.5 due to disease; a number above 30 suggests the person is obese (over 40, morbidly obese). BMI= mass/height2, where mass is in Kg and height in metres.

Q31. Consider the following statements 1. Tianhe1 is the worlds fastest supercomputer. 2. Tianhe1 is based on Linux Operating System 3. K computer is based on distributed memory. Which of the above is/are not correct? a) only 1 b) 2 and 3 c) only 3 d) 1, 2 and 3 Ans. Option a Explanation: Statement 1 is wrong. In June 2011 the Tianhe-1A was overtaken by the K computer as the world's fastest supercomputer. Statement 2 is correct. Both the original Tianhe-1 and Tianhe1A use a Linux-based operating system.

Statement 3 is correct. In June 2011, TOP500 ranked K the world's fastest supercomputer, with a rating of over 8 petaflops. The K computer is based on distributed memory architecture. In computer science, distributed memory refers to a multiple-processor computer system in which each processor has its own private memory. Computational tasks can only operate on local data, and if remote data is required, the computational task must communicate with one or more remote processors. In contrast, a shared memory multi processor offers a single memory space used by all processors. Processors do not have to be aware where data resides, except that there may be performance penalties, and that race conditions are to be avoided. Hence option a is correct.

Q32. In the process of identification, which part of the eye is scanned? a) Cornea b) Iris c) Pupil d) all of the above Ans. Option b Explanation:

Iris recognition is an automated method of biometric identification that uses mathematical patternrecognition techniques on video images of the iris of an individual's eyes, whose complex random patterns are unique and can be seen from some distance. Iris recognition uses camera technology with subtle infrared illumination to acquire images of the detail-rich, intricate structures of the. Then an encrypted digital template of that pattern is created. That encrypted template cannot be re-engineered or reproduced in any sort of visual image. Retina scanning is another ocular based technology but it is not that prevalent as iris recognition is.

Q33. What is a Krmn Line? a) It is the border line between Bangladesh and India b) It is the border line between Afghanistan and Iran c) It is the border line between Pakistan and Iran d) None of these Ans. Option d Explanation: The Krmn line lies at an altitude of 100 kilometres (62 mi) above the Earth's sea level, and is commonly used to define the boundary between the Earth's atmosphere and outer space.[2] This definition is accepted by the Fdration Aronautique Internationale (FAI), which is an international

standard setting and record-keeping body for aeronautics and astronautics. The atmosphere does not abruptly end at any given height, but becomes progressively thinner with altitude.

Q34. Consider the following statements: 1. FourStar is a powerful near-infrared camera 2. It measures accurate distances between Earth and thousands of distant galaxies at one time 3. FourStar provides a two dimensional map of the early universe. Which of the above is/are not correct? a) 1 and 2 b) 1, 2 and 3 c) only 3 d) none of the statements Ans. option c Explanation: Statement 1 is correct. The FourStar infrared camera is a 1-2.5 micron near infrared camera for the Magellan Baade Telescope. Statement 2 is correct. FourStar allows to measure accurate distances between Earth and thousands of distant galaxies at

one time, providing a 3-D map of the early universe like the most distant cluster of red galaxies ever observed using FourStar. Statement 3 is wrong. The 3-D map obtained by the camera reveals the concentration of galaxies that existed when the universe was only three billion years old.

Q35. Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct? 1. Tevatron was the world's second largest energy particle accelerator. 2. Fermilab is 27 Km in circumference. 3. Tevatron is at CERN. a) only 1 b) 2 and 3 c) 1, 2 and 3 d) none of the statements Ans. Option a Explanation: Statement 1 is correct. Fermilab's Tevatron was a landmark particle accelerator. At 3.9 miles (6.3 km) in circumference, it was the world's second largest energy particle accelerator after CERNs LHC.

Statement 2 is wrong. CERN's Large Hadron Collider is 27 km in circumference. Statement 3 is wrong. Tevatron is at Fermilabs located near Chicago.

Q36.Which of the following statement(s) is/are incorrect about Space web? 1. It will be launched from Esrange Space Centre in Sweden. 2. It is under the experiment Suaineadh. 3. Space web would act as a foundation for construction of larger structures. a) 1 and 2 b) only 2 c) only 3 d) None of the Statements Ans. Option d Explanation: Statement 1 is correct. It is to be launched from the Esrange Space Centre in Northern Sweden as part of the REXUS (Rocket-Borne Experiments for University Students) programme, a joint Swedish-German venture. Statement 2 is correct. The experiment to launch the space web in low gravity is given the name Suaineadh. The central

hub section of the Suaineadh apparatus will launch the space web in the low gravity environment. Statement 3 is correct. Web space when permanently deployed in space, will give engineers a stable and robust foundation for larger structures to be built on. It will also cut down the amount of equipment that each space mission needs to take into orbit, which will bring down the cost of space construction and help make ambitious projects more financially viable. It can also help in the development of solar sails to allow chemical-free propulsion, orbital solar panels to generate solar power more effectively, or the development of large-scale antennae to help us learn more about the universe.

Q37. A magnetosphere is caused around a planet when a) There is shift in the axis of rotation of a planet b) Charged particles from a star interact with the magnetic field of a planet c) Ionospheres magnetic field becomes weak d) None of these Ans. Option b Explanation: A magnetosphere is formed when a stream of charged particles, such as the solar wind, interacts with and is deflected by the intrinsic magnetic field of a planet. Earth, Mercury, Jupiter, Saturn, Uranus, and Neptune are

surrounded by magnetosphere. Venus and Mars are weakly magnetized planets which cause their ionosphere to partially deflect the stream of charged particles from sun and magnetosphere is not created.

Q38. Which of the following shelters the highest density of Indian rhinos in the world? a) Kahziranga National Park b) Pobitora Wildlife Sanctuary c) Way Kambas National Park d) Bukit Barisan Selatan National Park Ans. option b Explanation: Pobitora Wildlife Sanctuary is a wildlife reserve in the Marigaon district of the state of Assam in India. It has a dense population of the Great Indian one-horned rhinoceros with 84 individuals in 2009 in an area of 38.80 km2.

Q39. Gahirmatha and devi river mouth famous for nesting olive ridley turtles in India are located in a) Gujarat b) Orissa c) Andhra Pradesh

d) Puducherry Ans. Option b Explanation: Gahirmatha Beach is in Orissa. The beach separates the Bhitarkanika mangroves from the Bay of Bengal, is the world's most important nesting beach for Olive Ridley Sea Turtles. Apart from Gahirmatha rookery, two other mass nesting beaches have been located which are on the mouth of rivers Rushikulya and Devi. The Devi River is one of the principal distributaries of Mahanadhi. It flows through Jagatsinghpur district and Puri district across Orissa and joins Bay of Bengal. The mouth of the Devi River serves as a nesting ground for Olive Ridley turtles rookery during their breeding season.

Q40. Consider the following National Waterways of India. 1. Ozone depletion occurs widely in troposphere. 2. Thickness of Ozone is measured in terms of Dobson Units. 3. Chlorine atoms degrade ozone releasing molecular oxygen. Which of the following statements are correct? a. 1 & 2 only b. 1 & 3 only c. 2 & 3 only d. 1, 2 & 3 Ans. Option c Explanation: Statement 1: It is incorrect. Ozone depletion occurs in stratosphere. Bad ozone is formed in troposphere (i.e. lower atmosphere) that harms plants and animals. Good ozone is found in stratosphere (i.e. upper atmosphere) that acts as shield absorbing UV radiation from the sun. Statement 2: It is correct. The Dobson unit (DU) is a unit of measurement of atmospheric ozone columnar density, which is dominated by ozone in the stratospheric ozone layer. One Dobson unit refers to a layer of ozone that would be 10 m thick under standard temperature and pressure, sometimes referred to as a 'milli-atmo-centimeter.' Statement 3: It is correct. Many technological advances of the time included chemicals containing chlorofluorocarbons

(CFCs for short). CFCs contain a chlorine, fluorine, and carbon atoms that are bound together. CFCs are stable. This may be great in an appliance like a refrigerator, but this is disastrous for CFCs that find their way up into the atmosphere. CFCs do not react easily with other chemicals in the lower atmosphere (troposphere). But UV light can break up a CFC, making it highly reactive. In the lower atmosphere, CFCs are protected from UV light from the ozone layer in the stratosphere. But as CFCs rise, they move into the stratosphere. The UV light in the stratosphere breaks up the CFCs. They release chlorine, and these free chlorine atoms rip oxygen atoms off of ozone, leaving ordinary oxygen gas. Cl + O3 ClO + O2 Chlorine + Ozone chlorine monoxide +oxygen gas Chlorine monoxide will collide with free oxygen atoms. This oxygen atom will break apart the chlorine monoxide, releasing the chlorine atom back into the stratosphere to degrade more ozone. The chlorine atoms keep cycling through the process of breaking up ozone, and it has upset the balance of the ozone system. This reaction happens over and over again, allowing one chlorine atom to destroy many ozone molecules. Hence the correct option is c.

Q41. Polyblend is used in:

a) Road Construction b) Paper Manufacturing c) Metal Extraction & Processing d) Petroleum Industry Ans. Option c Explanation: Poly Blend (polymer blend) is made out of littered plastic bags, PET bottles and thin film grade plastics. This blend is used for modifying bitumen in the construction of roads. The plastic waste is melted and mixed with bitumen in a particular ratio. The roads laid with plastic waste mix are found to be three times better than the conventional ones. This technology results in lesser road repairs. Rainwater does not seep through because of the plastic in the tar. And as each km of road with an average width requires over two tonnes of polyblend, using plastic will help reduce non- biodegradable waste. Hence the correct option is a.

Q42. Consider the following: a. National Forest Policy (1988) of India has recommended 33% forest cover for plains and 67% for hills. b. Jhum Cultivation is practiced in central Himalayan Region. Which of the following statement is/are correct?

a. Only 1 b. Only 2 c. Both 1 & 2 d. Neither of 1 & 2 Ans. Option a Explanation : Statement 1: It is correct. The National Forest Policy 1988 acknowledges the primacy of the requirements of local communities, and advocates a sustainable management approach with maintenance of environmental stability, restoration of ecological balance, and soil and water conservation as the prime objectives of forest management. The conservation of natural heritage and genetic resources is highlighted with indicator targets of maintaining forest/tree cover (33% of the landmass and 66% in hills). The social concerns are addressed through increasing productivity of forests to meet local needs first, and creating a massive peoples movement for afforestation to reduce pressure on existing forests. Industries have been specifically advised to network with farmers for the production of industrial raw material instead of depending on subsidized supply from government forests. The economic benefits of forests have been subordinated to the principal aim of environmental stability. Statement 2: It is incorrect. Jhum cultivation is a local name for slash and burn agriculture practiced by the tribal groups in the northeastern states of India like Arunachal

Pradesh, Meghalaya, Mizoram and Nagaland and also in the districts of Bangladesh like Khagrachari and Sylhet. This system involves clearing a piece of land by setting fire or clear felling and using the area for growing crops of agricultural importance such as upland rice, vegetables or fruits. After a few cycles, the land loses fertility and a new area is chosen. Jhum cultivation is most practiced on the slopes of hills in thickly forested landscapes. The cultivators cut the treetops to allow sunlight to reach the land. They burn all the trees and grasses for clean and fresh soil. It is believed that this helps to fertilize the land, but can leave it vulnerable to erosion. Later seeds and crops are planted. Plants on the slopes survive the rainy season floods. Looking at all the effects, the government of Mizoram has launched a policy to end Jhum cultivation in the state. Hence the correct option is a.

Q43. The process where waste products from one process are cycled in as nutrients for other processes is called as: a. Eutrofication b. Integrated Organic Farming c. Recycling d. None of these Ans. Option b

Explanation :

Eutrofication: It is an increase in nutrients such as nitrogen and phosphorus that increase algal growth which degrade water quality. Integrated Organic Farming: It is a zero-waste producing method where waste products from one process are cycled in as nutrients for other processes. This allows maximum utilization of the resources and increases the efficiency of production. Recycling: It is the only solution for the treatment of e-waste. Hence the correct option is b.

Q44. Consider the following: 1. Government of India introduced Joint Forest Management to work with local communities for protecting and managing forests. 2. Government of India introduced Amrita Devi Bishnoi Wildlife Protection Award for individual or communities from rural and urban area that have shown extraordinary courage and dedication in protecting wildlife. Which of the following statement is/are correct? a. Only 1 b. Only 2 c. Both 1 & 2 d. Neither of 1 & 2 Ans. Option a

Explanation: Statement 1: It is correct. Joint Forest Management deals with partnerships in forest management involving both the state forest departments and local communities. The policies and objectives of Joint Forest Management are detailed in the Indian comprehensive National Forest Policy (1988) and the Joint Forest Management (1990) Guidelines of the Government of India. Statement 2: It is incorrect. The Government of India has recently instituted the Amrita Devi Bishnoi Wildlife Protection Award for individuals or communities from rural areas that have shown extraordinary courage and dedication in protecting wildlife. Hence the correct option is a.

Q45. Terror of Bengal refers to: a. Damodar River b. Cyclones c. Water hyacinth d. Bengal Tiger Ans. Option c Explanation : Eichorrnia or water hyacinth is called terror of bengal as it is a fast spreading weed which drains oxygen in the water and kills fishes. It spreads by the means of vegetative propagules called offsets . It grows rapidly in the rivers and lakes and take up the dissolved oxygen present in the rivers making the

aquatic living organisms starve. They eventually cause death of the river and accelerate the ageing of the same, a phenomenon called eutrophication. Hence the correct option is c.

Q46. Consider the following: 1. Domestic Sewages reduces dissolved Oxygen but increases biochemical Oxygen Demand of receiving water. 2. El Nino Effect refers to an odd climatic changes due to global warming. Which of the following statement is/are correct? a. Only 1 b. Only 2 c. Both 1 & 2 d. Neither of 1 & 2 Ans. Option c Explanation Statement 1: It is correct. Large amounts of biodegradable materials are dangerous to lakes, streams, and oceans because organisms use dissolved oxygen in the water to break down the wastes. This can reduce or deplete the supply of oxygen in the water needed by aquatic life, resulting in fish kills, odors, and overall degradation of water quality. The amount of oxygen organisms need to break down wastes in

wastewater is referred to as the biochemical oxygen demand (BOD) and thus resulting into the increase in demand for biochemical oxygen. BOD is one of the measurements used to assess overall wastewater strength. Statement 2: It is correct. The rise in temperature is leading to deleterious changes in the environment and resulting in odd climatic changes (e.g. El Nino effect) , thus leading to increased melting of polar ice caps as well as of other places like Himalayan snow caps. Hence the correct option is c.

Q47. Consider the following process: 1. Water (mercury level=0.003 ppm) 2. Zoo Plankton (mercury level=0.04 ppm) 3. Small Fish (mercury level=0.5 ppm) 4. Large Fish (mercury level=2 ppm) 5. Fish Eating Bird (mercury level=25 ppm) The above process refers to: a. Eutrophication b. Hypereutrophication c. Biomagnification d. Bioaccumulation Ans. Option c Explanation:

Biomagnification refers to the tendency of pollutants (eg: mercury or DDT level) to concentrate as they move from one trophic level to the next. This happens because a toxic substance accumulated by an organism cannot be metabolized / excreted and is thus passed on to next higher trophic level. Hence the correct option is c.

Q48. Ecosan refers to: a. Eco friendly fertilizer b. Ecological Sanctuary c. Dry Composite Toilets d. None of these Ans. Option c Explanation: Ecological sanitation, also known as ecosan coined to describe a form of sanitation that usually involves urine diversion and the recycling of water and nutrients contained within human wastes back into the local environment i.e. toilets that make compost. Ecosan offers a flexible framework, where centralised elements can be combined with decentralised ones, waterborne with dry sanitation, hightech with low-tech, etc. By considering a much larger range of options, optimal and economic solutions can be developed for each particular situation.

Q49. The Bodoland demand is for dividing which Indian state? a) Nagaland b) Manipur c) Assam d) Arunachal Pradesh Ans. option c Explanation: Bodoland is an area located in the north bank of Brahmaputra river in the state of Assam in north east region of India, by the foothills of Bhutan and Arunachal Pradesh; inhabited predominantly by the Bodo people. The map of Bodo land overlaps with the districts of Kokrajhar, Baksa, Chirang and Udalguri in the state of Assam. At present, Kokrajhar serves as the capital of Bodoland. Various Bodo political parties are demanding a separate state, called Bodoland. Q50. Who is Michael Nobbs? a) He is the defamed editor of the News of the world b) He is related with the Ganga purification project c) He was the world famous anthropologist who studied the tribes of Andhra Pradesh in India d) None of these Ans. option d

Explanation: He is the coach of Indias men's national field hockey team.

Q51. The ship Enrica Lexie, whose crewmen were allegedly responsible for shooting two Indian fisher men, belonged to which country? a) Greece b) Spain c) Italy d) Russia Ans. option c Explanation: The 2012 Italian shooting in the Arabian sea is an incident under investigation, off the coast of southern India, in which the use of lethal force by members of an Italian navy Vessel Protection Detachment (VPD) on board oil tanker MV Enrica Lexie was linked to the death of two Indian fishermen on board a fishing boat. Ajesh Pink and Valentine aka Gelastine, natives of Tamil Nadu and Kerala respectively, were allegedly shot dead by Italian marines of the Reggimento San Marco, Marina Militare.

Q52. Integrated Action plan (IAP) aims at

a) Identifying programme.

the

beneficiaries

under

food

security

b) Combating insurgency and terrorism. c) Introducing development schemes in naxal hit areas. d) None of these Ans. Option c Explanation: IAPs approach is to deal with Left Wing Extremism activities in a holistic manner, in the areas of security, development, rights of local communities, administration and public perception. Various schemes under IAP include public infrastructure and services such as school buildings, Anganwadi centres, Drinking Water supply, Village Roads, electric lights in public places and schools etc. The coordination and implementation of IAP is being carried by the Ministry of Rural Development.

Q53. Which of the following is/are correct? 1. Nirbhay is a long range supersonic cruise missile 2. Nirbhay will be adapted for Russian-made fighters Su30MKI a) only 1 b) only 2

c) both 1 and 2 d) neither 1 nor 2 Ans. Option b Explanation: Statement 1 is wrong. Nirbhay is a long range, subsonic cruise missile being developed in India. Statement 2 is correct. The missile is able to carry 24 different types of warheads and will be inducted into Indian Navy, Army, and Air Force. Nirbhay will be adapted for Russian-made fighters Su-30MKI.

Q54. LAHAT (Laser Homing Anti-tank missile) is operated by which India and which other country in the world? a) Germany b) France c) Columbia d) Israel Ans. Option Explanation: The LAHAT (Laser Homing Attack or Laser Homing AntiTank) is a third generation semi-active laser homing lowweight anti-tank guided missile developed since 1992 and

manufactured by Israel Aerospace Industries. It is operated by Israels Merkava tanks and Indias Arjun and Tank EX.

Q55. Which of the following does not have a National Waterway in India? a) River Hoogly b) River Narmada c) River Brahmani d) River Krishna Ans. Option b Explanation: National waterway 1 at AllahabadHaldia stretch of the GangesBhagirathiHooghly river system National waterway 2 at Sadiya Dhubri stretch of Brahmaputra river National waterway 3 at Kottapuram-Kollam stretch of the West Coast Canal, Champakara Canal and Udyogmandal Canal National waterway 4 at KakinadaPondicherry stretch of Canals and the Kaluvelly Tank, Bhadrachalam Rajahmundry stretch of River Godavari and Wazirabad Vijayawada stretch of River Krishna

National waterway 5 at TalcherDhamra stretch of the Brahmani River, the Geonkhali - Charbatia stretch of the East Coast Canal, the CharbatiaDhamra stretch of Matai river and the Mangalgadi - Paradip stretch of the Mahanadi River Delta. National waterway 6 is proposed for Lakhipur to Bhanga of river Barak.

Q56. Which of these statements is/are true? 1. KG-D6 is the biggest oil reserve in India 2. The basin is home to Olive Ridley turtles, an endangered species. a) only 1 b) only 2 c) both 1 and 2 d) Neither 1 nor 2 Ans. Option b Explanation: Statement 1 is wrong. Krishna-Godavari basin is a natural gas reserve. Almost 70% of Indias natural gas reserves are found in the Bombay High basin and in Gujarat. Offshore gas reserves are also located in Andhra Pradesh coast (Krishna Godavari Basin) and Tamil Nadu coast (Cauvery Basin).

Onshore reserves are located in Gujarat and the North Eastern states (Assam and Tripura). Statement 2 is correct. Olive ridley turtles are also found in this basin.

Q57. Which of the following has won the multi-billion dollar contract in 2012 to provide 126 fighter jets to India? a) Lockheed Martins F-16 Falcon b) Eurofighter Typhoon c) Dassalt Rafale d) None of these Ans. Option c Explanation: The Rafale was one of the six fighter aircraft competing for India's tender for 126 multi-role fighters. On January 2012, the Indian Air Force announced the Rafale as the preferred bidder in the competition. Under the proposed contract, 18 Rafale aircraft will be supplied to the IAF by 2015 in flyaway condition, while the remaining 108 will be manufactured in India under transfer of technology agreements. It is also speculated that at a later stage, India might increase its order by 63 more aircrafts.

Q58. Which another country than India has invoked an international trade rule allowing generic production of unaffordable cancer drug that is patented? a) Bangladesh b) Myanmar c) Nigeria d) Thailand Ans. option d Explanation: India is the second country, after Thailand, to grant a compulsory license to a cancer drug. Indian government has authorized a drug manufacturer Natco Pharma to make and sell a generic copy of a patented Bayer cancer drug, saying that Bayer charged a price that was unaffordable to most of the nation.

Q59. Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct? 1. The NATO attack in 2011took place at Shamsi airbase, Pakistan 2. The Shamsi airbase is situated at the border of Afghanistan and Pakistan. a) only 1 b) only 2

c) both the statements d) neither of the statements Ans. Option d Explanation: Statement 1 is wrong. On 26 November 2011, U.S.-led NATO forces opened fire on two Pakistani border check-posts stationed near the Pakistan-Afghanistan border in Salala, which is a ridge in the Baizai subdivision of Mohmand Agency, FATA, Pakistan on the border of Pakistan and Afghanistan. Statement 2 is wrong. Shamsi Airfield is located in Washuk District. The United States was ordered to vacate the airfield by the Pakistani Government on 26 November 2011 after the Salala Incident in which US-led NATO forces attacked two Pakistani border checkposts in Pakistan's Federally Administered Tribal Areas killing 24 Pakistan Army soldiers.

Q60. The controversial Chashma Nuclear Complex is situated in a) Iran b) Pakistan c) Baiknoor d) North Korea Ans. Option b

Explanation: The Chashma Nuclear Power Complex near Chashma city, Punjab, Pakistan, is a commercial nuclear power generation complex, consisting of Chashma Nuclear Power Plant-I (CHASNUPP-I) and Chashma Nuclear Power Plant-II (CHASNUPP-II) with CHASNUPP-III and CHASNUPP-IV are in the planning stages. Chashma Nuclear Power Plant's reactors and other facilities are being built and operated by the Pakistan Atomic Energy Commission with Chinese support.

Q61.The desert city of Palmyra, whose ruins are now a UNESCO World Heritage Site, is situated in a) Iraq b) Iran c) Jordan d) Syria Ans. Option d Explanation: Palmyra is an ancient city in central Syria. It was an important city located in an oasis 215 km northeast of Damascus and 180 km southwest of the Euphrates at Deir ez-Zor. It had long been a vital caravan stop for travellers crossing the Syrian Desert.

Q62. The East Turkestan Islamic Movement is active in which country? a) Syria b) China c) Algeria d) None of these Ans. Option b Explanation: The East Turkestan Islamic Movement (ETIM) also known as the Turkistan Islamic Movement (TIM) is a Waziri based mujahideen organization. Its stated goals are the independence of East Turkestan and the conversion of all Chinese people to Islam. ETIM has claimed responsibility for over 200 acts of terrorism, resulting in many death and injuries.

Q63. Which is the worlds busiest transshipment port? a) Dubai b) Hong Kong c) Singapore d) Shanghai Ans. Option c Explanation:

The port of Singapore is one of the five busiest ports in the world, most notable for being the busiest transshipment port in the world with 17,447 transshipment TEUs.

Q64. Which of the following statement(s) is/are true? 1. National Population Register (NPR) is under the Aadhaar project. 2. NPR is maintained by the Ministry of Home Affairs. 3. National Institute of Electronics and Information Technology will be responsible for Data Digitization activities under NPR a) only 1 b) 1 and 3 c) 2 and 3 d) 1, 2 and 3 Ans. Option c Explanation: Statement 1 is wrong. Aadhaar and NPR are separate projects. Aadhaar is under the planning Commission Statement 2 is correct. The National Population Register (NPR) is a comprehensive identity database to be maintained by the Registrar General and Census Commissioner of India , Ministry of Home Affairs.

Statement 3 is correct. National Institute of Electronics and Information Technology has also created and developed the website of NPR.

Q65. Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct? 1. The Rashtriya Lok Dal joined the UPA government in the year 2011. 2. The Lok Sabha can at most have 533 members. 3. Maximum members in Rajya Sabha could be 250. a) only 1 b) 1 and 3 c) only 3 d) 1, 2 and 3 Ans. Option b Explanation: Statement 1 is correct. The current members of UPA government are Indian National Congress, Nationalist Congress Party, Dravida Munnetra Kazhagam, All India Trinamool Congress, Indian Union Muslim League, Jammu & Kashmir National Conference, All India Majlis-e-Ittehadul Muslimeen, Kerala Congress (Mani), Viduthalai Chiruthaigal Katchi, Rashtriya Lok Dal. On 12 December 2011 the RLD formally joined the United Progressive Alliance.

Statement 2 is wrong. The Constitution limits the Lok Sabha to a maximum of 552 members, including no more than 20 members representing people from the Union Territories, and two appointed non-partisan members to represent the AngloIndian community (if the President feels that that community is not adequately represented). Statement 3 is correct. Rajya Sabha membership is limited to 250 members, 12 of whom are chosen by the President of India for their expertise in specific fields of art, literature, science, and social services. These members are known as nominated members. The remainder of the body is elected by the state and territorial legislatures. Terms of office are six years, with one third of the members retiring every two years.

Q66. Consider the following statement(s) is/are not correct? 1. Joint Parliamentary Committee is one type of Standing Committees. 2. The Lok Sabha members are double compared to Rajya Sabha in a Joint Parliamentary Committee. 3. A Standing Committee can be formed by the Chairman of the Rajya Sabha a) only 1 b) 1 and 2 c) 2 and 3 d) only 3

Ans. Option a Explanation: Statement 1 is wrong. Joint Parliamentary Committee is an ad hoc Parliamentary Committee. Joint Parliamentary Committee is formed when motion is adopted by one house and it is supported or agreed by the other house. Another way to form a Joint Parliamentary committee is that two presiding chiefs of both houses can write to each other, communicate with each other and form the joint parliamentary committee. Statement 2 is correct. In a JPC the Lok Sabha members are twice the members from the Rajya Sabha in a JPC. Statement 3 is correct. In the Parliament of India, there are two types of Parliamentary Committee, the Standing Committee and the Ad hoc Committee. Standing committees are elected or appointed every year, or periodically by the Chairman of the Rajya Sabha or the Speaker of the Lok Sabha, or as a result of consultation between them. Hence option a is correct.

Q67. The Electronic Voting Machine in India is manufactured by which of the following? a) Bharat Electronics Limited b) Defence Research and Development Organisation c) Centre for Materials for Electronics Technology

d) National Institute of Electronics and Information Technology Ans. Option a Explanation: The Electronic Voting Machine in India is manufactured by Bharat Electronics Limited, Bangalore and Electronics Corporation of India Limited, Hyderabad. Both are Public Sector undertakings

Q68. Which is the first Indian state/UT to experiment with the internet voting? a) Kerala b) Gujarat c) Puducherry d) None of these Ans. Option b Explanation: Gujarat is the first state in the country to use Internet voting using technology provided by Scytl, a Spain based firm that has recently started India operations.The State of Gujarat is using Scytls Internet voting technology with the aim to boost voter participation and avoid traditional long queues. The first binding trial was carried out in September 2010 and online voting was successfully used for the second time last month, during Gandhinagars Municipal Corporation elections, where

77,16% of registered e-voters cast their vote electronically either from home or from e-voting booths.

Q69. The Nanavati-Mehta Commission is related with a) 2002 Gujarat riots b) Mullaperiyar Dam c) Steps to put down insurgency in the north east d) Coal scam Ans. Option a Explanation: Gujarat Government constituted Nanavati- Shah Commission to probe 2002 riots which was later renamed as NanavatiMehta panel after the replacement of K.G. Shah by Akshay Mehta. Q70. Which of the following statement(s) is/are not correct about Panchayati Raj in India? 1. It is proposed in the 73rd Amendment Act 1992. 2. Panchayati raj system exists except Nagaland and Meghalaya. a) only 1 b) only 2 c) both 1 and 2 in all the states

d) Neither 1 nor 2 Ans. Option b Explanation: Statement 1 is correct. Panchayati Raj was adopted by state governments during the 1950s and 60s, as laws were passed to establish panchayats in various states. It also found backing in the Indian Constitution, with the 73rd amendment in 1992 to accommodate the idea. Statement 2 is wrong. The Panchayati Raj system exists in all states except Nagaland, Meghalaya and Mizoram and in all Union Territories except Delhi. Hence option b is correct.

Q71. To create Bundelkhand from Uttar Pradesh, which of the following schedules of the constitution of India must be amended? a) First b) Fourth c) Fifth d) Seventh Ans. Option a Explanation:

In the Indian Constitution First Schedule (Articles 1 and 4) lists the states and territories of India and lists any changes to their borders and the laws used to make that change.

Q72. Which of the following states of India come under the jurisdiction of Guwahati High Court? 1. Assam 2. Meghalaya 3. Sikkim 4. Arunachal Pradesh 5. Tripura a) 1, 2 and 3 b) 1 and 3 c) 1, 2, 4, 5 d) 1, 2, 3, 4, 5 Ans. Option c Explanation: Guwahati High Court has largest jurisdiction in terms of states, with its area covering the states of Assam, Arunachal Pradesh, Manipur, Meghalaya, Nagaland, Tripura and Mizoram. The Sikkim High Court is the High Court of the state of Sikkim.

Q73. Which of the following statement(s) is/are true about Constituent Assembly? 1. It was made up of members from various parties. 2. It was made to bring amendments in the Indian Constitution. 3. It was based on adult franchise. a) only 1 b) 1 and 2 c) 2 and 3 d) 1, 2 and 3 Ans. Option a Explanation: Statement 1 is correct. The Congress held a large majority in the Assembly, with 69 per cent of all of the seats, while the Muslim League held almost all of the seats reserved in the Assembly for Muslims. There were also some members from smaller parties, such as the Scheduled Caste Federation, the Communist Party of India, and the Unionist Party. Statement 2 is wrong. The Constituent Assembly of India was elected to write the Constitution of India. Following India's independence from Great Britain, its members served as the nation's first Parliament. Statement 3 is wrong. The Assembly was not elected on the basis of universal adult franchise and only Muslims and Sikhs

were given special representation as "minorities" but nor other religious groups.

Q.74. Consider the following with respect to August Offer: 1. Immediate expansion of the Viceroys Executive Council with a view to include a few Indians. 2. Establishment of War Advisory Council consisting of representatives of British India and Indian states to meet at regular interval. 3. Muslim League rejected the offer. Which of the following statement/s is/are true? a. 1 only b. 2 only c. 1 and 3 only d. 1,2 and 3 Ans: Option d Explanation: Statement 1: It is correct. After the German conquest of Poland, within a few weeks of the declaration of war there was a long stalemate. However, in April 1940, Hitler started a new offensive and within about two months overran the Scandinavian countries and conquered Belgium, Holland and France. This frightened the British government and fresh negotiations were started with the Congress. Ultimately the Governor General made a statement on August 8, 1940 which was intended to break the deadlock which came to be known as the August Offer. The statement made three proposals; (1) an immediate expansion of the Viceroys Executive Council

by appointing a number of Indian representatives; (2) the establishment of a War Advisory Council consisting of representatives of British India and the Indian states to meet on regular intervals; (3) the promotions of practical steps to arrive at an agreement among Indians on the form which it should arrive at its conclusion, and secondly, upon the principles and outlines of the constitution itself. Statement 2: It is also correct as it was the part of the proposals mentioned above. Statement 3: It is correct. The reaction of Muslim League was initially different from that of Congress. It was happy for being specially treated by the British as minority power and expected that this will help them to get their demand for a separate state called Pakistan. The League would then allow its members to join the war council and formally support the government. The government, on other hand, rejected the proposal for Pakistan which restricted the league members to join the war council. Hence the league also rejected the August Offer on return. Q.75 Who is known as father of revolutionary thought in India? a. Lala Lajpat Rai b. Bal Ganagadhar Tilak c. Bipin Chandra Pal d. Subhash Chandra Bose Ans: Option c Explanation:

Bipin Chandra Pal was a well-known freedom fighter of India and is considered to be one of the best and original thinkers of the country. He threw himself heart and soul into the Swadeshi movement and towards the end of 1905; he emerged as the greatest leader and architect of the National movement. He drove home the new gospel of liberty through its writings and public oration. Bipin Chandra infused into the boycott movement a dynamic and revolutionary spirit. Although initially the boycott was intended to be an instrument of retaliation of British commerce, Bipin Chandra developed it into an all comprehensive programme of non cooperation with the British government. He declared that the boycott movement was not a mere economic movement but was also a protest against the British rule. He advocated the policy of self-help in the political field for securing the natural rights of the Indians. Q.76. The sole issue of Individual Civil Disobedience Movement was not related to: a. Freedom of speech. b. To embarrass the Government. c. To register the protest and hostility to a war waged without consent of Indian. d. None of these Ans: Option b Explanation: As Second World War bursted upon the world, India against her will, was dragged into the throes of war. However, the Congress was willing to declare its whole-hearted support to

the war against Fascism if Britain declared unequivocally the grant of complete independence to India as its aim. The Government came out with what became known as the ' August Offer' which was to enlarge the executive council with a view to include a few Indians. It was summarily rejected. Gandhiji decided to start Individual Civil Disobedience and chose freedom of speech as the issue against a mass movement with a view not to embarrass the government which was already in a critical situation. Hence the correct option is b.

Q.77. Who described cripps proposal as post-dated cheque drawn on a crashing bank? a. Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel b. Maulana Azad c. Jawaharlal Nehru d. Mohandas Gandhi Ans: Option d Explanation: The major leader, Mohandas Gandhi, was opposed to Indian involvement in the war as he would not morally endorse a war and also suspected British intentions, believing that the British were not sincere about Indian aspirations for freedom. But Rajagopalachari, backed by Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel, Maulana Azad and Jawaharlal Nehru held talks with

Cripps and offered full support in return for immediate selfgovernment, and eventual independence. But due to little trust between the British and Congress, the Congress stopped talks with Cripps and, guided by Gandhi, the national leadership demanded immediate self-government in return for war support. Gandhi said that Cripp's offer of Dominion Status after the war was a "post-dated cheque drawn on a crashing bank". Hence the correct option is d.

Q.78. Through which of the following measure, the british government for the first time recognized the right of dominion for india. a. August Offer b. Cabinet Mission c. Cripps Mission d. None of these Ans: Option c Explanation: In 1941, when World War II took a new turn with the participation of Japan, the British Government in England was compelled by the circumstances to open negotiations with nationalist leaders. In fact, Japan's occupation of Singapore and Burma, not far away from India made the British anxious about the security of their Indian empire. To meet the situation the British government appointed Cripps' Mission to consider the new concessions that may be granted to the

Indian people. Through Cripps' mission for the first time the british government recognized the right of dominion for india by giving the right to frame the Dominion Constitution after the War. Hence the correct option is c.

Q.79. Who professed radical and socialist principles and supported Indias aspirations for self government? 1. Sir Winston Churchill 2. ClementAttlee 3. Sir Pethick-Lawrence Which of the following is/ are correct? a. Only 1 b. 1 & 2 only c. 2 & 3 only d. None of these Ans: Option c Explanation: The Labour Party came to power in the United Kingdom after their unexpected victory in the July 1945 general elections. Party leader Clement Attlee became Prime Minister and hastily replaced his predecessor Winston Churchill (BritishConservative politician) in late July 1945. Lord Pethick Lawrence was appointed as Secretary of State for India and Burma. The labour party professed radical and socialist principles and had supported Indias aspirations for self government.

Accordingly the Cabinet Mission consisting of Lord Pethick Lawrence, Sir Stafford Cripps and Mr. A.V. Alexander, was soon despatched to India. The Mission came to settle dual problem- the problem how to offer independence to the Indians through a peaceful transfer of power and the problem how the Indians themselves would frame their own constitution.

Q.80. Who considered world war as a moral conflict a struggle between freedom and democracy represented by one side, and bondage and dictatorship by the other? a. Mahatma Gandhi b. Jawahar Lal Nehru c. Sardar Vallabhbai Patel d. Subhash Chandra Bose Ans: Option a Explanation: In the letters to Hitler, Gandhi wrote to the German dictator inorder to prevent the second world war. For him, looking into Truth was not only essential to reveal the mystery of science but also important to remove the spiritual darkness which causes the human apathy towards morality and ethics which governs the integrity of human behaviour towards others. In his letters he expressed pre-democracy and anticolonial struggles, entailing efforts by unrepresentative or

colonized peoples to achieve freedom and democracy. He viewed the struggle of indigenous peoples a related phenomenon to gain greatest rights and autonomy. Hence the correct option is a.

Q.81. Who delivered the speech saying either free india or die in the attempt? a. Subhash Chandra Bose b. Bal Gangadhar Tilak c. Mahatma Gandhi d. Sardar Vallabhbai Patel Ans: Option c

Explanation: Under the leadership of Mahatma Gandhi, Quit India Movement was launched in August 1942 from Bombay. The purpose of the movement was to set up a series of non-violent protests hopefully leading up to independence. Mahatma Gandhi delivered his speech in All India Congress Committee Bombay Session. Gandhi said, "We shall either free India or die in the attempt. We shall not live to see the perpetuation of our slavery". The mantra Do or Die soon became popular among Indian people. As a result of this series of revolts broke out. The popular resentment that built up as a result of this movement proved to be the last nail in the coffin of British rule in India.

Hence the correct option is c.

Q.82. Which revolutionary had taken political refuge in japan in 1915? a. Subhash Chandra Bose b. Rash Behari Bose c. General Mohan Singh d. Lala Har Dayal Ans: Option b

Explanation: During World War I, Rash Behari Bose became extensively involved as one of the leading figures of the Ghadar Conspiracy that attempted to trigger a mutiny in India in February 1915. Trusted and tried Ghadrites were sent to several cantonments to infiltrate into the army. The idea was that with the war raging in Europe, most of the soldiers had gone out of India and the rest could be easily won over. The revolution failed and most of the revolutionaries were arrested. But Rash Behari managed to escape British intelligence and reached Japan in 1915. Hence the correct option is b.

Q.83. Anglo Saxon term is used for: a. Axis Alliance b. French Colonial Empire

c. British Imperialism d. Portuguese Colonial Empire Ans: Option c Explanation: The term Anglo-Saxon is used by historians to designate the Germanic tribes who invaded and settled the south and east of Britain beginning in the early 5th century. The AngloSaxon era denotes the period of English history between about 550 and 1066. The term is also used for the language, now known as Old English, that was spoken and written by the Anglo-Saxons and their descendants in England (and part of southeastern Scotland) between at least the mid-5th century and the mid-12th century. For an instance, in Anglo-Maratha war, the war fought between the British East India Company and Maratha Empire in India. Hence the correct option is c.

Q.84. Who established the provisional government of free india? a. Subhash Chandra Bose b. Bal Gangadhar Tilak c. Mahatma Gandhi d. Sardar Vallabhbai Patel Ans: Option a Expalnation:

The Provisional Government of Free India is also known as Free India or Azad Hind, was an Indian provisional government established in Singapore in 1943. It consisted of a Cabinet headed by Subhash Chandra Bose as the Head of the State. It was a part of a political movement originating in the 1940s outside of India with the purpose of allying with Axis powers to free India from British Rule. Established by Indian nationalists-in-exile during the latter part of the second world war in Singapore with monetary, military and political assistance from Imperial Japan, to fight against British Rule in India. Hence the correct option is a.

Q.85. Consider the following in context of Wavell Plan: 1. To advance towards goal for self government. 2. To set up a new executive council which would be entirely Indian. 3. Caste hindus and muslims would have equal representation. Which of the following is not the feature of Wavells Plan? a. 1 only b. 2 only c. 3 only d. 1 and 2 only Ans: Option b Expalnation:

Statement 1: It is correct because it was the part of Wavell Plan. Lord Wavell returned from London with a Wavell Plan. The Plan included: i. To ease the political situation by advancing India towards a self -government and set up a new Executive Council which would be entirely Indian except the Viceroy himself and his Commander-inchief. ii. Castes like the Hindus and the Muslims will have equal representation in the council. iii. The executive council would work like a provincial national government under the Government of India Act, 1935. iv. The formation of an interim government which will later on frame a new constitution by the Indian themselves. v. The settlement of communal issues which had been the most stumbling block for the advancement in Indian politics. Statement 2: It is incorrect because in the plan the post of Viceroy and Commander-inchief was still under British control . It further claimed that the portfolios of the members of external affairs which the viceroy was, would be transferred to the Indians. Statement 3: It is correct because it was part of the plan.

Q.86. Which is the oldest known inscription among the following? a. Hathigumpha inscription

b. Rabatak inscription c. Kannada Halmidi inscription d. Tamil copper-plate inscriptions Ans: Option c Explanation: The Edicts of Ashoka, a collection of 33 inscriptions on the Pillars of Ashoka, as well as boulders and cave walls, are the earliest written materials on the Indian subcontinent and represent the first tangible evidence of Buddhism. The edicts describe in detail the first wide expansion of Buddhism through the sponsorship of Ashoka, one of the most powerful kings of Indian history. Ashoka claims to have won several Greek kings of the third century B.C.E. over to his Buddhist doctrine of dharma. Other significant stone inscriptions include: i. Hathigumpha inscription ("Elephant Cave" inscription) written by Kharavela, the king of Kalinga in Brahmi letters during the second century B.C.E. ii. Rabatak inscription, written on a rock in Afghanistan and relating to the rule of the Kushan emperor Kanishka. iii. Halmidi inscription, the oldest known inscription in the Kannada script. iv. Tamil copper-plate inscriptions are copper-plate records grants of land or other privileges to private individuals or public institutions by the members of the various South Indian royal dynasties. Hence the correct option is c.

Q.87. Consider the following in context of Pala Empire:

1. Gopala was the first ruler from the dynasty 2. Pala Empire was the colony of Sailendra Empire. Which of the following statement is/are correct? a. Only 1 b. Only 2 c. Both 1 & 2 d. Neither of 1 & 2 Ans: Option a Explanation: Statement 1: It is correct. Gopala was the first ruler from the dynasty. He came to power in 750 b.c. in Gaur by a democratic election. This event is recognized as one of the first democratic elections in South Asia since the time of the Maha Janapadas. He reigned from 750770 b.c. and consolidated his position by extending his control over all of Bengal. Statement 2: It is incorrect because Palas came in contact with distant lands through their conquests and trades. The Sailendra Empire of Java, Sumatra and Malaya was a colony of the Palas. Devapala granted five villages at the request of the Sailendra king Balputradeva of Java for the upkeeping of the matha established at Nalanda for the scholars of that country. Hence the correct option is a.

Q.88. Consider the following:

1. Dayanand Saraswati was the first to give the call for Swarajya. 2. Among his most influential works is the book Satyarth Prakash. 3. He believed in the infallible authority of the Vedas. Which of the statements given above are correct? a. 1 & 2 only b. 1 & 3 only c. 2 & 3 only d. 1, 2 & 3 Ans. Option d Explanation: Statement 1: It is correct. Swami Dayanand was a staunch nationalist. He was the first man who used the term 'Swaraj'. He proclaimed that Hindi should be the national language of India. He insisted upon the use of Swadesi goods. These ideas of Dayanand definitely had influenced the future leaders of Indian national movement like Ball Gangadhar Tikal, Lajpat Rai and later on Mahatma Gandhi. Statement 2: It is correct. Some of his major works are Satyarth Prakash, Sanskarvidhi, Rigvedadi Bhashya Bhumika, Rigved Bhashyam and Yajurved Bhashyam. Statement 3: It is correct. The attitude of Swami Dayananda Sarasvati was more dogmatic in that he accepted the doctrine of the infallibility of the Vedic authority in Hindu philosophical speculation. Hence the correct option is d.

Q.89. Consider the following National Waterways of India. 1. AllahabadHaldia stretch 2. SaidiyaDhubri stretch 3. KollamKottapuram stretch of the West Coast Canal 4. BhadrachalamRajahmundry and WazirabadVijaywada stretch 5. MangalgadiParadeep and TalcherDhamara stretch of the East Coast Canal What is the correct descending order of the length of these: a. 1-2-4-3-5 b. 1-4-2-5-3 c. 4-1-2-5-3 d. 4-2-1-3-5 Ans : - Option b. Explanation : 1. National Waterway 1: AllahabadHaldia stretch of the Ganges - Bhagirathi - Hooghly river system with a total length of 1,620 km in October 1986. 2. National Waterway 2: SaidiyaDhubri stretch of the Brahmaputra river system with a total length of 891 km in 1988. 3. National Waterway 3: KollamKottapuram stretch of the West Coast Canal along with Champakara and

Udyogmandal canals, with a total length of 205 km in 1993. 4. National Waterway 4: BhadrachalamRajahmundry and WazirabadVijaywada stretch of the KrishnaGodavari river system along with the KakinadaPondicherry canal network, with a total length of 1,095 km in 2007. 5. National Waterway 5: MangalgadiParadeep and TalcherDhamara stretch of the MahanadiBrahmani river system along with the East Coast Canal, with a total length of 623 km in 2007. Hence the correct option is b.

Q.90.Which of the following became South West Asian countries has the shortest coastline? a. Syria b. Lebanon c. Jordan d. Iraq Ans : - Option c. Explanation: 1. The coastline of Syria measures 183 km. 2. Lebanon's coastline stretches for 140 miles (225 km). 3. The coastline of the Gulf of Aqaba, Jordan's Red Sea coast extends only 27 kms. 4. Iraq has a narrow section of coastline measuring 58 km on the northern Persian Gulf. Hence the correct option is c.

Q.91.Which among the following is not related to Fertile Crescent? a. Cyprus b. Jordan c. Turkey d. Iran Ans : - Option a. Explanation : The term "Fertile Crescent nicknamed "The Cradle of Civilization" due to the birth of various kingdoms within its borders as per Ancient Records of Egypt. The region was so named because of its rich soil and crescent shape. It includes Mesopotamia, the land in and around the Tigris and Euphrates rivers. The modern-day countries with significant territory within the Fertile Crescent are Iraq, Kuwait, Syria, Lebanon, Jordan, Israel and Palestinian territories, besides the southeastern fringe of Turkey and the western fringe of Iran. Hence the correct option is a.

Q.92. Which of the following is not the part of Great Rift Valley System: a. Jordon River b. Galilee Sea c. Dead Sea d. Suez Gulf

Ans: - Option d. Explanation : The Great Rift Valley is a vast geographical and geological feature, approximately 6,000 kilometres (3,700 mi) in length, which is caused by the geological process of rifting, it is a complex feature where several plates of the earth's crust join. The great rift system extends from Lebanon in the north to Mozambique in the south. The northernmost part of the Rift forms the Beqaa Valley in Lebanon separating the Lebanon Mountains and Anti-Lebanon Mountains. Further south it is known as the Hula Valley separating the Galilee mountains and the Golan Heights. The Jordan River begins here and flows southward through Lake Hula into the Sea of Galilee in Israel and then continues south through the Jordan Valley into the Dead Sea on the Israeli-Jordanian border. From the Dead Sea southwards, the Rift is occupied by the Wadi Arabah, then the Gulf of Aqaba, and then the Red Sea. Hence the correct option is d.

Q.93. The longest and deepest undersea operational rail tunnel in the world is; a. Gotthard Base Tunnel b. Channel Tunnel c. Seikan Tunnel d. None of these Ans: Option c

Explanation: Gotthard Base Tunnel: It is situated in Switzerland and the length is 57,072 m. Though it is the longest but under the construction and will be operational after 2017. Channel Tunnel: It is located in English Channel between UK and France. It measures to 50,450 m. Seikan Tunnel: It is both the longest and the deepest operational rail tunnel in the world. It is also the longest undersea tunnel in the world. It measures to 53,850m in length. Hence the correct option is c.

Q94. Which is the incorrect pair in the given region with their respective economic base: a. Australian Downs : Cattle Ranch b. South Africa Veld : Forest Vegetation c. Canadian Prairies : Wheat Cultivation d. Argentina Pampas : Vineyard Ans : Option-b Explanation : Australian Downs : Brunette Downs is one of Australias largest cattle stations and bigger than some countries. Its one of largest beef-producing region across Queensland .

South Africa Veld : Veld constitutes fields and bushes. Whereas mountainous peak and forests are not seen on velds. Canadian Prairies : In the prairie region of Canada the primary industries include agriculture (wheat, barley, canola, brassica, oats), and cattle and sheep ranching. Argentina Pampas : Pampas Wines are the special selected premium wines from a group of Argentinas best 'hidden' vineyards producing some of the most highly distinctive wines in the world. Hence the correct option is b.

Q.95 Which of the following Isthmus/es is/are not existing? 1. Tehuantepec 2. Suez 3. Panama 4. Kra Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct? a. Only 1 b. 1 & 2 only c. 2 & 3 only d. 1,2 & 3 only Ans: Option c Explanation :

Tehuantepec and kra isthmuses are the 2 isthmus functioning as the narrow strip of land located in mexico and Malaysian peninsular region respectively. Whereas Isthmus of Panama and suez are now converted into canals. ThePanama Canal bisects the Isthmus of Panama, thereby connecting the North Atlantic and Pacific Oceans. The Suez Canal adjoins the North Atlantic and Indian Oceans, cutting across the Isthmus of Suez to connect the Mediterranean Sea and the Gulf of Suez / Red Sea.

Q.96 Estancias is related to: a. Plantation farm in China b. Grain farm in Canada c. Livestock estate in Argentina d. Aquaculture in Mexico Ans: Option c Explanation: In Argentina, ranches are known as estancias. Estancia tourism is a business that generates a significant part of the income with livestock in southern South American grasslands

Q.97 Which of the following pair/s is/are incorrectly paired? 1. Kiel Canal : North Sea & Baltic Sea 2. Mittleland Canal : Ems & Rhine 3. Dortmund Canal : Ems & Elbe 4. Ludwig Canal : Rhine & Danube

Which of the statement/s is/are correct? a. Only 1 b. 1 & 2 only c. 2 & 3 only d. 2 , 3 & 4 only Ans: Option c Explanation : Mittleland Canal : Connects Rivers Ems, Weser & Ems. Dortmund Canal : Connects Rivers Ems with Rhine.

Q.98 Which of the following is not a navigable canal a. Cumbarjua canal b. Indira Gandhi canal c. West coast canal d. None of these Ans: Option c Explanation : Cumbarjua canal : It is in Goa used for shipping and navigation. Indira Gandhi canal : Due to blockage ratio constraints, the navigation restriction is imposed by the Govt. It allows only unladen vessel to overtake a laden vessel with caution.

West coast canal : It is also known as National Waterway-3 which has the provision of night navigation and cargo movement.

Q.99 Geothermal Power plant Manikaran is located in which state? a. Uttaranchal b. Himachal Pradesh c. Andhra Pradesh d. Karnataka Ans. Option b Explanation : Indias first geothermal pilot power plant was installed in August 1989 at Manikaran in Himachal Pradesh. The 5 KW power plant harnessed the energy contained in hot water springs. It was planned to use this power for street lighting in Manikaran. But was destroyed by landslide shortly after its set up. Currently there is no working geothermal power plant in our country.

Q.100. Electrostatic Precipitators are mostly used in: a. Exhaust of Automobiles. b. Exhaust of Thermal Power Plants c. Nuclear Reactors d. Biogas Plant System

Ans: Option b. Explanation: The air cleaning system generally consists of an electronic air cleaner sometimes referred to as an electrostatic precipitator (ESP). The technology used has been available for decades and it is currently in use not only for kitchen hoods, but also welding smoke and mist collection from machine tools in factories. Generically, an air cleaning system for a kitchen hood exhaust consists of three major components: i. Particulate filtration for smoke and mist. ii. Gas filtration for gases/odours. iii. Blower to move the air into the hood, through the air cleaning equipment, to the outdoors, usually.