THE MANCHESTER METROPOLITAN UNIVERSITY FACULTY OF SCIENCE AND ENGINEERING DEPARTMENT OF BIOLOGICAL SCIENCES SESSION 2004/2005

Examination for the BSc (HONS) BIOLOGICAL SCIENCES UNDERGRADUATE DEGREE SCHEME (FULL-TIME/PART-TIME) BSc (HONS) BIOMEDICAL SCIENCE (FULL-TIME/PART-TIME) BSc (HONS) CLINICAL PHYSIOLOGY BSc (HONS) BIOMEDICAL SCIENCE WITH FORENSIC BIOLOGY HNC APPLIED BIOLOGICAL SCIENCES STAGE ONE

UNIT 61BL1205 : PHYSIOLOGICAL SYSTEMS

Wednesday 4 May 2005

2:00 pm to 4:00 pm

Instructions to Candidates Answer ALL questions on the sheet provided. Answer in pencil and ensure that any errors are completely erased. Each question has ONE correct answer.

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1 1. The skeletal muscle complex known as the triad consists of: (a) (b) (c) (d) (e) actin, myosin, and myofilaments; transverse tubule and terminal cisternae; myofilaments, myofibrils, and sarcomeres; A bands, H bands, and I bands; actin, myosin, and sarcomeres.

2.

Cross-bridges are portions of: (a) (b) (c) (d) (e) actin molecules; myosin molecules; troponin molecules; tropomyosin molecules; calcium ions.

3.

Active sites on the actin become available for binding when: (a) (b) (c) (d) (e) actin binds to troponin; troponin binds to tropomyosin; calcium binds to troponin; calcium binds to tropomyosin; myosin binds to troponin.

4.

When calcium ion binds to troponin: (a) (b) (c) (d) (e) tropomyosin moves out of the groove between the actin molecules; active sites on the myosin are exposed; actin heads will bind to myosin; muscle relaxation occurs; myosin shortens.

5.

Physical evidence that supports the sliding filament theory of muscle contraction includes: (a) (b) (c) (d) (e) decreased distance between Z lines during contraction; increased width of the H band during contraction; increased width of the I band during contraction; decreased width of the A band during contraction; an increased distance between Z lines during contraction.

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2 6. The following is a list of the events that occur during a muscle contraction: 1. 2. 3. 4. 5. 6. myosin cross-bridges bind to the actin; the free myosin head splits ATP; calcium ion is released from the sarcoplasmic reticulum; the myosin head pivots towards the center of the sarcomere; calcium ion binds to troponin; the myosin head binds an ATP molecule and detaches from the actin.

The correct sequence of these events is: (a) (b) (c) (d) (e) 1, 3, 5, 4, 6, 2; 5, 1, 4, 6, 2, 3; 3, 5, 1, 2, 4, 6; 3, 5, 1, 4, 6, 2; 1, 4, 6, 2, 3, 5.

7.

Depolarization of the motor end plate occurs when: (a) (b) (c) (d) (e) acetylcholine opens gates to receptors on the motor end plate; acetylcholinesterase binds to receptors on the motor end plate; calcium ions bind to receptors on the motor end plate; a motor neuron directly stimulates the motor end plate; none of the above.

8.

The series of membranous channels that surround each myofibril is the: (a) (b) (c) (d) (e) sarcolemma; sarcoplasmic reticulum; myolemma; sarcoplasm; transverse tubule

9.

Each of the following is a function of the nervous system, EXCEPT: (a) (b) (c) (d) (e) providing sensation of the internal and external environments; integrating sensory information; coordinating voluntary and involuntary activities; directing activities that continue for extended periods such as growth and pregnancy; regulating or controlling peripheral structures and systems.

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3 10. The following are the main steps in the generation of an action potential: 1. sodium channels are inactivated; 2. voltage-regulated potassium channels open and potassium moves out of the cell initiating repolarization; 3. sodium channels regain their normal properties; 4. a graded depolarization brings an area of an excitable membrane to threshold; 5. a temporary hyperpolarization occurs; 6. sodium channel activation occurs; 7. sodium ions enter the cell and depolarization occurs. The proper sequence of these events is: (a) (b) (c) (d) (e) 4, 6, 7, 3, 2, 5, 1; 4, 6, 7, 1, 2, 3, 5; 6, 7, 4, 1, 2, 3, 5; 2, 4, 6, 7, 1, 3, 5; 4, 2, 5, 6, 7, 3, 1.

11.

The all-or-none principle states that: (a) (b) (c) (d) (e) all stimuli will produce identical action potentials; all stimuli great enough to bring the membrane to threshold will produce identical action potentials; the greater the magnitude of the stimuli, the greater the intensity of the action potential; only sensory stimuli can activate action potentials; only motor stimuli can activate action potentials.

12.

Which of the following does NOT influence the time necessary for a nerve impulse to be transmitted? (a) (b) (c) (d) (e) length of the axon; presence or absence of a myelin sheath; diameter of the axon; presence or absence of nodes; whether the axon is sensory or motor.

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4 13. The following are the steps involved in transmission at a cholinergic synapse: 1. 2. 3. 4. 5. 6. 7. 8. chemically regulated sodium channels on the postsynaptic membrane are activated; calcium ions enter the synaptic knob; acetylcholine is degraded by acetylcholinesterase; an action potential depolarizes the synaptic knob at the presynaptic membrane; the synaptic knob reabsorbs choline; acetylcholine is released from storage vesicles by exocytosis; acetylcholine binds to receptors on the postsynaptic membrane; calcium ions are removed from the cytoplasm of the synaptic knob.

The correct sequence for these events is: (a) (b) (c) (d) (e) 4, 6, 7, 2, 1, 8, 3, 5; 4, 2, 6, 7, 1, 8, 3, 5; 2, 4, 6, 7, 1, 8, 3, 5; 2, 5, 4, 6, 7, 1, 8, 3; 6, 4, 2, 7, 1, 8, 3, 5.

14.

IPSPs (inhibitory postsynaptic potentials): (a) (b) (c) (d) (e) result in local depolarizations; result in local hyperpolarizations; increase membrane permeability to sodium ions; prevent the efflux of potassium ions; prevent the efflux of calcium ions.

15.

When a second EPSP arrives at a single synapse before the effects of the first have disappeared, what occurs? (a) (b) (c) (d) (e) spatial summation; temporal summation; inhibition of the impulse; hyperpolarization; decrease in speed of impulse transmission.

16.

If the axonal membrane becomes more permeable to potassium ion: (a) (b) (c) (d) (e) the inside of the membrane will become more positively charged; the membrane will depolarize more rapidly; it will take a stimulus of larger magnitude to initiate an action potential; The membrane will become hypopolarized; the hyperpolarization at the end of the action potential will not occur.

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5 17. In which of the following would the rate of impulse conduction be the GREATEST: (a) (b) (c) (d) (e) a myelinated fiber 20 microns in diameter; a nonmyelinated fiber 20 microns in diameter; a myelinated fiber 2 microns in diameter; a nonmyelinated fiber 2 microns in diameter; a nonmyelinated fiber 25 cm long.

18.

The following is a list of vessels and structures that are associated with the heart: 1. 2. 3. 4. 5. 6. 7. 8. right atrium; left atrium; right ventricle; left ventricle; vena cavae; aorta; pulmonary trunk; pulmonary veins.

What is the correct order for the flow of blood entering from the systemic circulation? (a) (b) (c) (d) (e) 1, 2, 7, 8, 3, 4, 6, 5; 1, 7, 3, 8, 2, 4, 6, 5; 5, 1, 3, 7, 8, 2, 4, 6; 5, 3, 1, 7, 8, 4, 2, 6; 5, 1, 3, 8, 7, 2, 4, 6.

19.

According to Starling's 'law of the heart', the cardiac output is directly related to the: (a) (b) (c) (d) (e) size of the ventricle; heart rate; venous return; thickness of the myocardium; end-systolic volume.

20.

The cardiac output is equal to the: (a) (b) (c) (d) (e) difference between the end-diastolic volume and the end-systolic volume; product of heart rate and stroke volume; difference between the stroke volume at rest and the stroke volume during exercise; stroke volume less the end-systolic volume; product of heart rate and blood pressure.

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6 21. Each of the following factors will increase cardiac output, EXCEPT: (a) (b) (c) (d) (e) increased venous return; increased parasympathetic stimulation; increased sympathetic stimulation; increased heart rate; both a and d.

22.

The following is a list of the vessels that blood passes through from the heart back to the heart: 1. 2. 3. 4. 5. 6. 7. venules; arterioles; capillaries; elastic arteries; medium veins; large veins; muscular arteries.

The correct order in which blood passes through these structures from leaving the heart until its return is: (a) (b) (c) (d) (e) 7, 4, 2, 3, 1, 5, 6; 6, 5, 1, 3, 2, 7, 4; 5, 6, 1, 3, 2, 7, 4; 2, 7, 6, 3, 1, 5, 6; 4, 7, 2, 3, 1, 5, 6.

23.

The blood vessels that play the most important role in the regulation of blood flow to a tissue and blood pressure are the: (a) (b) (c) (d) (e) arteries; arterioles; veins; venules; capillaries.

24.

Blood pressure increases with all of the following, EXCEPT increased: (a) (b) (c) (d) (e) cardiac output; peripheral resistance; blood volume; parasympathetic innervation; force of cardiac contraction.

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7 25. When renin is released from the juxtaglomerular cells: (a) (b) (c) (d) (e) angiotensin I is converted to angiotensin II; angiotensinogen is converted into angiotensin I; angiotensin I increases salt reabsorption at the kidneys; blood pressure goes down; blood flow to the kidneys decreases.

26.

Which factor maximizes the rate of gas exchange in mammals? (a) (b) (c) (d) (e) exceedingly high partial pressures of oxygen in the blood; the larynx (voice box) opening into the trachea; enormous surface area for gas exchange; the small increase in size during inhalation; production of mucus and surfactants.

27.

What part of the blood is most efficient at carrying oxygen? (a) (b) (c) (d) (e) blood plasma solution; blood plasma proteins; blood platelets; membrane molecules of red blood cells; haemoglobin molecules of red blood cells.

28.

Why do humans have difficulty breathing at high altitude? (a) (b) (c) (d) (e) oxygen makes up a lower percentage of the air there; the temperature is lower there; the barometric pressure is higher there; the partial pressure of oxygen is lower there; the air is dryer there.

29.

How is carbon dioxide (CO2) mainly carried in the blood? (a) (b) (c) (d) (e) bound to haemoglobin; as carbon monoxide (CO) in solution; as bicarbonate (HCO3-) and hydrogen ions (H+); as carbon dioxide (CO2) in solution; bound to plasma proteins such as albumin.

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8 30. When an individual holds their breath, which of the following blood gas changes first leads to the urge to breathe: (a) (b) (c) (d) (e) rising O2; falling O2; rising CO2; falling CO2; a combined fall in O2 and CO2.

31.

Which of the following stimulates smooth muscle contraction in asthma? (a) (b) (c) (d) (e) adrenalin; noradrenalin; dopamine; acetylcholine; histamine.

32.

Which structure prevents food entering the lungs when food is swallowed? (a) (b) (c) (d) (e) larynx; glottis; epiglottis; esophageal sphincter; tongue.

33.

Which of the following enzymes works best at a low pH? (a) (b) (c) (d) (e) amylase; trypsin; pepsin; lipase; nuclease.

34.

Which of the following enzymes helps to digest fat molecules? (a) (b) (c) (d) (e) amylase; trypsin; pepsin; lipase; nuclease.

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9 35. Why is the lining of the intestine not usually attacked by digestive enzymes? (a) (b) (c) (d) (e) It is covered with mucus; Enzymes there are in their inactive form; The pH there is close to neutral; A layer of dead cells lines the intestine; Digestive enzymes are in low concentration.

36.

Which of the following is the most common site for the development of an ulcer? (a) (b) (c) (d) (e) esophagus; stomach; duodenum; small intestine; colon.

37.

Which of the following organs produces bile? (a) (b) (c) (d) (e) gall bladder; duodenum; pancreas; kidney; liver.

38.

Which of the following does NOT increase the surface area of the small intestine? (a) (b) (c) (d) (e) large blood supply; mucosal folds; villi; microvilli; tubular structure.

39.

The symbiotic microbes that help nourish a ruminant live mainly in specialised regions of the: (a) (b) (c) (d) (e) stomach; small intestine; large intestine; rectum; appendix.

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10 40. Which of the following enzymes digests DNA molecules? (a) (b) (c) (d) (e) amylase; trypsin; pepsin; lipase; nuclease.

41.

Which of the following organs stores bile before it is released into the duodenum? (a) (b) (c) (d) (e) gall bladder; salivary glands; pancreas; kidney; liver.

42.

In the human digestive system microbes are mainly found in the: (a) (b) (c) (d) (e) stomach; small intestine; large intestine; mouth; appendix.

43.

What is the main function of the Bowmans capsule? (a) (b) (c) (d) (e) to filter fluid from the blood; to form an osmotic gradient ; to reabsorb solutes and water; to concentrate the urine; to secrete waste products in to the urine.

44.

How does alcohol increase urine production? (a) (b) (c) (d) (e) stimulate contraction of the bladder; stimulates production of atrial naturetic factor; increases the blood pressure causing more filtration; inhibits the renin-angiotensin-aldosterone system; inhibits the production of antidiuretic hormone (ADH).

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11 45. What does the term hypertonic urine mean? (a) (b) (c) (d) (e) the urine is more concentrated than blood plasma; the urine is less concentrated than blood plasma; the urine is the same concentration as blood plasma; the urine is produced in large volumes and is light in colour; the urine is released from the body at a high pressures due to the contraction of muscles in the wall of the bladder.

46.

Which part of the kidney nephron is regulated by antidiuretic hormone? (a) (b) (c) (d) (e) glomerulus; proximal tubule; loop of Henle; distal tubule; collecting duct.

47.

Which of the following is the main site of fluid reabsorption in the kidney nephron? (a) (b) (c) (d) (e) glomerulus; proximal tubule; loop of Henle; distal tubule; collecting duct.

48.

The vasa recta capillary system serves which part of the kidney nephron? (a) (b) (c) (d) (e) glomerulus; proximal tubule; loop of Henl; distal tubule; collecting duct.

49.

Which tissue secretes antidiuretic hormone (ADH) ? (a) (b) (c) (d) (e) adrenal cortex; adrenal medulla; anterior pituitary gland; posterior pituitary gland; hypothalamus.

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12 50. Which of the following compounds is mainly used by humans to excrete excess nitrogen? (a) (b) (c) (d) (e) ammonia; urea; amino acids; uric acid; peptides.

51.

When body temperature rises, a centre in the brain initiates physiological changes to decrease the body temperature. This is an example of: (a) (b) (c) (d) (e) negative feedback; positive feedback; non-homeostatic regulation; diagnostic regulation; disease.

52.

The increasingly forceful labour contractions that lead to childbirth are an example of: (a) (b) (c) (d) (e) receptor activation; effector shutdown; negative feedback; positive feedback; integration.

53.

A cut through the body that passes parallel to the long axis of the body and divides the body into equal left and right halves is known as a: (a) (b) (c) (d) (e) frontal section; coronal section; transverse section; midsagittal section; parasagittal section.

54.

The muscle known as the diaphragm separates the __________ from the __________. (a) (b) (c) (d) (e) pleural cavity; mediastinum. thoracic cavity; abdominopelvic cavity. pericardial cavity; pleural cavity. abdominal cavity; pelvic cavity. pericardial sac; pericardial cavity.

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13 55. Each of the following is an example of negative feedback, EXCEPT: (a) (b) (c) (d) (e) Increased pressure in the aorta triggers mechanisms to lower blood pressure; A rise in blood calcium levels triggers the release of a hormone that lowers blood calcium levels; A rise in oestrogen during the menstrual cycle increases the number of progesterone receptors in the uterus; Increased blood sugar stimulates the release of a hormone from the pancreas that stimulates the liver to store blood sugar; A decrease in body temperature triggers a neural response that initiates physiological changes to increase body temperature.

56.

All of the following are true of the endocrine system, EXCEPT: (a) (b) (c) (d) (e) it releases chemicals into the bloodstream for distribution throughout the body; it releases hormones that alter the metabolic activities of many different tissues and organs simultaneously; it produces effects that can last for hours, days and even longer; it produces specific responses to internal stimuli; it functions to control ongoing metabolic processes.

57.

All of the following are true of steroid hormones, EXCEPT: (a) (b) (c) (d) (e) they are produced by the adrenal medulla; they are structurally similar to cholesterol; they are produced by reproductive glands; they bind to receptors within the cell; they are lipids.

58.

Steroid hormones: (a) (b) (c) (d) (e) are proteins; cannot diffuse through cell membranes; bind to receptors in the cytoplasm of their target cells; remain in circulation for relatively short periods of time; are transported in the blood dissolved in the plasma.

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14 59. When a catecholamine or peptide hormone binds to receptors on the surface of a cell: (a) (b) (c) (d) (e) the hormone receptor complex moves into the cytoplasm; the cell membrane becomes depolarized; a second messenger appears in the cytoplasm; the cell becomes inactive; the hormone is transported to the nucleus where it alters the activity of DNA.

60.

Steroid hormones: (a) (b) (c) (d) (e) bind to receptors on the surface of the cell; function by way of a second messenger system; cannot diffuse through the cell membrane; bind to intracellular receptors; function by activating cAMP.

61.

Hormones can alter cellular operations by changing all of the following, EXCEPT the: (a) (b) (c) (d) (e) quantities of enzymes in a cell; activities of enzymes in a cell; identities of enzymes in a cell; permeability of the nuclear membrane; properties of important enzymes in a cell.

62.

A cell's hormonal sensitivities are determined by the: (a) (b) (c) (d) (e) chemical nature of the hormone; quantity of circulating hormone; shape of the hormone molecules; presence or absence of appropriate receptors; thickness of the cell membrane.

63.

The link between a first messenger and a second messenger in a cell that responds to peptide hormones is usually: (a) (b) (c) (d) (e) cAMP; cGMP; adenyl cyclase; G protein; calcium.

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15 64. When adenyl cyclase is activated: (a) (b) (c) (d) (e) calcium ions are released from intracellular stores; cAMP is formed; cAMP is broken down; protein kinases are metabolized; steroids are produced.

65.

The final effect of steroid hormones binding to their receptors is that: (a) (b) (c) (d) (e) adenyl cyclase is activated; cyclic nucleotides are formed; G proteins are inhibited; gene transcription occurs; protein kinases are activated.

66.

The hypothalamus controls secretions of the anterior pituitary by way of : (a) (b) (c) (d) (e) direct neural stimulation; direct mechanical control; releasing and inhibiting hormones; altering ion concentrations in the anterior pituitary; gap junctions.

67.

When blood glucose levels rise: (a) (b) (c) (d) (e) insulin is released; glucagon is released; peripheral cells take up less glucose; protein synthesis decreases; peripheral cells begin storing glucose as glycogen.

68.

The posterior pituitary gland secretes: (a) (b) (c) (d) (e) FSH; TSH; ACTH; ADH; MSH.

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16 69. A haemoglobin molecule is composed of: (a) (b) (c) (d) (e) two protein chains ; three protein chains; four protein chains and nothing else; four protein chains and four haem groups; four haem groups but no protein.

70.

Which of the following is NOT a function of smooth muscle tissue? (a) (b) (c) (d) (e) altering the diameter of the respiratory passageways; elevating hairs on the arm; forcing blood from the heart into the major arteries; moving food materials along the digestive tract; forcing urine out of the urinary tract.

71.

Sperm production occurs in the: (a) (b) (c) (d) (e) vas deferens; seminiferous tubules; epididymis; seminal vesicles; rete testis.

72.

The role of the pituitary hormone 'follicle stimulating hormone' in males is to: (a) (b) (c) (d) (e) stimulate the interstitial cells to produce testosterone; stimulate the sustentacular cells to produce inhibin; initiate sperm production in the testes; develop and maintain secondary sex characteristics; influence sexual behaviors and sex drive.

73.

The surge in 'luteinizing hormone' that occurs during the middle of the ovarian cycle triggers: (a) (b) (c) (d) (e) follicle maturation; menstruation; ovulation; menopause; atresia.

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17 74. During the 'proliferative phase' of the menstrual cycle: (a) (b) (c) (d) (e) ovulation occurs; a new functional layer is formed in the uterus; secretory glands and blood vessels develop in the endometrium; the old functional layer is sloughed off; the corpus luteum is formed.

75.

An ECG is recorded on a chart recorder. The paper speed is set at 25mm/sec, and the mean distance between QRS complexes is 20mm. The heart rate of the person whose ECG is being recorded is: (a) (b) (c) (d) (e) 75 beats per minute; 80 beats per minute; 65 beats per minute; 70 beats per minute; 60 beats per minute.

76.

Which of the following statements is NOT true of T cells: (a) (b) (c) (d) (e) they are the cells associated with cytotoxic and helper function; they mature in the thymus; they respond specifically to stimulation by an immunogen; they form the basis of cell mediated immunity; they secrete antibodies upon stimulation.

77.

For a successful organ transplantation, the following are typed to minimise chances of rejection: (a) (b) (c) (d) (e) B cells; T cells; antibodies; interferons; major histocompatibility complex proteins.

78.

Which of the following is NOT part of the non-specific defence against microorganisms? (a) (b) (c) (d) (e) antibodies; lactic acid; intact skin; mucus in the airways; lysozyme.

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18 79. Which of the following best describes complement? (a) (b) (c) (d) (e) an antibody which lyses bacteria; a protein found in the cell wall of bacteria; a series of proteins unique to the specific immune response; a series of proteins stimulating lysis of bacteria; a defence protein found in sweat.

80.

Which of the following statements is TRUE: (a) (b) (c) (d) (e) IgM is the only antibody that crosses the placenta; IgE is involved in allergic reactions; IgG is the least abundant antibody in the blood; IgD is also known as the secretory antibody; IgA is a pentamer.

81.

B cell deficiency leads to: (a) (b) (c) (d) (e) repeated bacterial infections; persistent viral/fungal infections; T cell deficiency; hypersensitivity reactions; persistent parasitic infections.

82.

The following are involved in non-specific immune responses EXCEPT: (a) (b) (c) (d) (e) the complement system; interferons; antibodies; hydrogen peroxide; lysozyme.

83.

Which of the following statements about Human B lymphocytes is NOT true? (a) (b) (c) (d) (e) they originate and mature in the bone marrow; they have antibodies on their surface; they differentiate into plasma cells; they express MHC class II molecules on their surface; they are essential to combat viral infections.

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19 84. The basis of immunological memory is: (a) (b) (c) (d) (e) increased numbers of macrophages; increased numbers of monocytes; increased numbers of immunogen sensitive B and T cells; increased capacity to phagocytose immunogen; none of the above.

85.

Which of the following statements is NOT true about inflammation: (a) (b) (c) (d) (e) inflammation is a specific immune response; inflammation is a localised response; blood vessels dilate during inflammation; histamine and prostaglandin are released during an inflammatory response; phagocytes move into an inflamed area.

86.

Which of the following statements is FALSE? (a) (b) (c) (d) (e) helper T cells function in cell-mediated but not humoral immune responses; helper T cells are CD4+; HIV infects helper T cells; the interaction between an antigen presenting cell and a helper T cell is necessary for the T cells activation; T cells respond specifically to immunogen stimulation.

87.

Which of the following statements is FALSE? Specific immune defences are: (a) (b) (c) (d) (e) acquired; against anything foreign; display immunological memory; recognise individual microorganisms; only found in vertebrates.

88.

Which of the following class of antibodies is normally transmitted from mother to foetus across the placenta? (a) (b) (c) (d) (e) IgE; IgM; IgG; IgA; IgD.

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20 89. Which of the following antibody classes contain a J chain in their structure? (a) (b) (c) (d) (e) IgA and IgM; IgG and IgD; IgD and IgE; IgE and IgG; IgG and IgM.

90.

Which of the following is NOT a function of the complement system? (a) (b) (c) (d) (e) cell lysis; chemotaxis; opsonisation; capillary permeability; antigen presentation.

91.

Which of the following statements is NOT TRUE? (a) (b) (c) (d) (e) The immune system distinguishes between harmful and harmless immunogens; Cell mediated immunity is a specific immune mechanism; Humoral immunity involves the production of antibodies; Complement can be activated by both the specific and non-specific immune systems; Inflammation is a localised response.

92.

Which of the following cells are NOT involved in phagocytosis? (a) (b) (c) (d) (e) macrophages; neutrophils; basophils; kupffer cells; microglial cells;

93.

Which of the following is NOT part of the lymphoid system? (a) (b) (c) (d) (e) spleen; Peyers Patches; thymus; adrenal glands; lymph nodes.

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21 94. Which of the following statements is NOT true; Antibodies produced on second exposure to an immunogen: (a) (b) (c) (d) (e) appear faster and persist longer than those produced during primary exposure to an immunogen; appear in higher concentrations than those produced during primary exposure to an immunogen; are predominantly IgM; have greater affinity for antigen than those produced during primary exposure to an immunogen; are due to immunological memory.

95.

Which of the following statements is FALSE? (a) (b) (c) (d) (e) MHC class II molecules are found on neutrophils; MHC class I molecules are found on most nucleated cells; MHC class II molecules are found on macrophages; MHC class II molecules are found on B cells; MHC class II molecules are found on activated T cells.

96.

Which of the following statements about neutrophils is NOT TRUE? (a) (b) (c) (d) (e) They are the first cells to arrive at a site of inflammation. They have a life span of no more than a day. They make up constitute 60-70% of all leucocytes. They require T cell help to function effectively. They have a multi-lobed nucleus.

97.

Which of the following statements is FALSE? (a) (b) (c) (d) (e) An immunogen is a foreign molecule which evokes a specific immune response. Antibodies produced from a single clone of B cells are termed Polyclonal antibodies All antibody classes have 2 identical light chains. All antibody classes have 2 identical heavy chains. B cells are able to present specific immunogen.

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22 98. Which of the following statements is CORRECT? (a) (b) (c) (d) (e) The role of cytotoxic T cells is to attack foreign protein in body fluids. Humoral immunity is directed towards intracellular parasites. Antibodies are specific for an epitope (antigenic determinant). Memory cells are responsible for the primary immune response. T lymphocytes mature in the spleen.

99.

Which of the following statements is FALSE? (a) (b) (c) (d) (e) Stimulated macrophages release Interleukin 1. Stimulated T helper cells release Interleukin 2. Interleukin 2 has no effect on T helper cells. Interleukin 2 helps stimulated B cells differentiate into plasma cells. Interleukin 2 helps cytotoxic T cells become active killer cells.

100.

Which of the following statements is FALSE? (a) (b) (c) (d) (e) Germinal centres can be found in lymph nodes. Immunity can be achieved naturally or artificially. NK cells are part of the bodys non-specific defences. Immune responses are shown towards anything foreign (non-self). Eosinophil granules contain cationic proteins which are toxic against virally infected cells.

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