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Technical Aptitude sample paper Coal India Management Trainee exam :Civil Engg Free online Practice test

CIL MT jobs Civil Engineering Technical Aptitude Civil Engg for Management jobs in PSUs of India 1. Match -List-I with. List-II and select the correct answer using the code given below the lists: List-I (Principle) A. Here Shaw flow B. Stokes law C. Hagen-Poiseuille flow D. Pascals law Code: A B C 3 2 3 2 4 4 1 1 D 1 1 4 4 List-II (Effect) 1. Surface of equal pressure 2. Settling of fine particles 3. Laminar flow between parallel plates 4. Laminar flow in tubes

(a) 2 (b) 3 (c) 2 (d) 3 Ans. (b)

2. A fast centrifugal pump impeller has which of the following? (a) Forward facing blades (b) Radial blades (c) Backward facing blades (d) Propeller type blades Ans. (c)

3. Consider the following statements: An air vessel is fitted on the suction side of a reciprocating pump to 1. achieve higher speed without separation 2. reduce work in overcoming frictional resistance 3. avoid excessive vibration 4. have uniform discharge Which of the statements given above are correct? (a) 1, 2 and 4 (b) 1 and 2 only (c) 3 and 4 only (d) 2, 3 and 4 Ans. (a) 4. Water is supplied from a height of 2.8 m at the rate of 35 1ps to a hydraulic ram which delivers 2 1ps to a height of 28m above the ram. What is the Rankines efficiency? (a) 58% (b) 55% (c) 52% (d) 44% Ans. (a) 5. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the code given below the lists: List-I (Type of Power House) A. Tidal Plant B. Storage Plant List II (Feature) 1. Utilizes reversible turbines and improves utilization factor 2. Utilizes current flow in stream, and has poundage to

improve load factor C. Pumped Storage Plant D. Run-of-river Plant Code: A B C 4 2 2 4 1 1 3 3 D 2 4 4 2 3. Head- on turbine varies with time cyclically 4. Utilizes annually average flow with storage.

(a) 3 (b) 3 (c) 1 (d) 1 Ans. (a)

6. A pressure gauge reads 57.4 kPa and 80 kPa respectively at heights of 8 m and 5 m fitted on the side of a tank filled with liquid. What is the approximate density of the liquid in kg/m3? (a) 393 (c) 1179 (b) 768 (d) 7530 Ans. (b) 7. What is the momentum thickness of the boundary layer with velocity distribution u/ U=y/ (a) /6 (b) /2 (c) 3/2 (d) 2 Ans. (a)

8. In model similarity, if gravitational and inertial forces the only important forces, then what is the discharge ratio? (a) Lr3/2 (b) Lr1/2 (c) Lr5/2 (d) Lr1/3 Ans. (c) 9. When discussing most efficient section of flow into open channels, what is the perimeter P as a proportion of depth of flow h (i.e., P/h) for (i) a triangular section, and (ii) a trapezoidal section, respectively? V (a) 2.25, 283 (b) 2.25, 3.15 (c) 2.83, 3.15 (d) 2.83, 3.46 Ans. (d) 10. What i the V energy loss through a length of pipe from which all the charge is taken out uniformly along its length, with respect to the case when all the discharge is delivered to the end? (a) 2/3 (b) 1/3 (c) 3/2 (d) 1/2 Ans. (b) 11. The permissible tractive force in an erodible channel depends upon which of the following? 1. Angle of repose of the material

2. Particle size 3. Sediment content of water 4. Wetted perimeter of channel Select the-correct answer using the code given below: (a) 1, 2 and 4 (b) 1, 2 and 3 only (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 2 and 4 only Ans. (b) 12. Which one of the following is correct? Semi-module outlets are those outlets in which (a) discharge gets affected by the change in water level of field channel (b) discharge gets affected by the change in water level of the distributing channel but not with the change in water level of field channel (c) discharge is independent of water levels in the distributing channel and the field channel (d) none of these Ans. (b) 13. For calculating the maximum flood discharge in an alluvial stream, which is the best suited relation? (a) v R2/3 S1/3 (b) v R2/3 S1/2 (c) v R1/2 S1/2 (d) v D0.64 Ans. (d) 14. For water supply to a medium town, what is the daily variation factor?

(a) 1.5 (b) 2.5 (c) 3 (d) 3.5 Ans. (a) 15. Which one of the following factors has the maximum effect on figure of per capita demand of water supply of a given town? (a) Method of charging of the consumption (b) Quality of water (c) System of supply-intermittent continuous (d) Industrial demand Ans. (d) 16. Kilpich equation is used to determine which one of the following? (a) Run-off from a given rainfall (b) Base time V of a unit hydrograph (c) Time of concentration in run-off hydrograph (d) None of these Ans. (c) 17. From the analysis of rainfall data at a particular station, it was found that a rainfall of 400 mm had a return period, of 20 years. What is the probability of rainfall equal to or greater than 400 mm occurring at least once in 10 successive years? (a) (0.95)10 (b) 1- (0.95)10 (c) 1 (0.05)10 (d) (0.05)10

Ans. (b) 18. Inconsistency of rainfall data can. checked by which one of the following? (a) Normal Ratio method (b) Mass Curve method (c) Double-mass Curve method (d) Depth duration frequency curve Ans. (c) 19. What is the chemical symbol for ice as per UNESCO terminology? (a) H8O4 (b) H2O (c) H6O3 (d) H4O2 Ans. (b) 20. Maximum possible discharge from a small catchment corresponding to particular rainfall intensity is independent of which one of the following? (a) Soil moisture conditions (b) Drainage characteristics of catchment (c) Area of the catchment (d) Duration of the rainstorm Ans. (d) 21. Which one of the following is considered as the thermophilic range of sludge digestion? (a) 60C to 70C (b) 50C to 57C (c) 29C to 40C

(d) 20C to 30 C Ans. (b) 22. Consider the following statements: In context of sludge volume Index (SVI) 1. The SVI is expressed as the volume (in cu. cm.) of the activated sludge for one gram of dry weight of the sludge 2. a higher value of SVI indicates a light and fluffy sludge which is not easily settleable. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 Ans. (c) 23. Which one of the following can fix atmospheric nitrogen? (a) Green algae (b) Blue green algae (c) Red algae (d) Brown algae Ans. (b) 24. An industry has a sewage treatment plant which produces sludge with a moisture content of 98%. With the solid content remaining the same, the sludge is thickened so that the moisture content now is 96%. If the original quantity of sludge is P, what is the quantity of the thickened sludge? (a) 0.98 P (b) 3 P/4

(c) 2 P/3 (d) P/2 Ans. (d) 25. In a well operating activated sludge process unit, what is the value of sludge volume index? (a) < 50 (b) 100 150 (c) 200 300 (d) > 300 Ans. (b) 26. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the code given below the lists: List-I List-II (pH range)

(Predominance of Compounds) A. Monochloramie B. Dichloramine C. Nitrogen trichloride Code: A (a) 1 (b) 2 (c) 3 (d) 3 Ans. (b) B 2 3 1 2 C 3 1 2 1

1. Below pH 4.4 2. Over pH 7.5 3. Between pH5 to 6.5

27. Which of the following are the advantages of cast-iron pipe for its use in water supply? 1. Resistant to corrosion to a reasonable extent 2. very easy to join the pipes 3. Easy to transport 4.. Longer life Select the correct answer using the code given below: (a) 1, 3 and 4 (b) 1, 2 and 3 (c) 1 and 4 only (d) 2, 3 and 4 Ans. (c) 28. Which one of the following valves is se1don used in water distribution systems because of high head loss characteristics? (a) Butterfly (b) Globe (c) Plug (d) Sluice Ans. (c) 29. Sonoscope used for which one of the following? (a) Checking the accuracy of water meters (b) Regulating the fire hydrants (c) As a replacement of venturimeter for discharge measurement (d) Detection of leakage in underground water mains Ans. (d)

30. In the design consideration of sewerage system, the sewers must have which one of the following? (a) Maximum velocity of flow (b) Only 50 per cent of maximum velocity of flow (c) Minimum velocity of not less than cleansing velocity of flow. (d) High pressure at all times Ans. (c) 31. Which one of the following conditions of automobile gives maximum unburned hydrocarbons? (a) Idling (b) Cruise (c) Acceleration (d) Deceleration Ans. (a) 32. Electrostatic precipitator I1ost useful for which one of the following industries? (a) Tannery (b) Hydroelectric power generation (c) Thermal power generation (d) Textile factory Ans. (c) 33. What will be the resultant decibel level when two sources make noise of equal decibels? (a) Decibel level will be the same (b) Decibel level will increase by 3 decibels (c) Decibel level will decrease by 3 decibels

(d) Decibel level will be equal to the sum of decibels of the two sources Ans. (b) 34. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the code given below the lists. List-I (Air pollutant) A. CO B. CO2 2. Acute toxicity C. SO2 3. Ozone liberation D. NO Code: A B C D (a) 4 3 1 (b) 4 3 2 (c) 2 4 1 (d) 3 4 1 Ans. (c) 35. Biological magnification of pesticides takes place through which of the following? (a) Population pyramids (b) Hydrologic cycle (c) Food chains (d) Air cycle Ans. (c) 36. What does the presence of excess nitrates in river water indicate? 2 1 3 2 4. Greenhouse effect List- II (Effect) 1. Acid rain

(a) Recent pollution of water with sewage (b) Past pollution of water with sewage (c) Intermittent pollution of water with sewage (d) No pollution of water with sewage Ans. (a) 37. What is the depth of water seal in the traps? (a) < 2.5 cm (b) 2.5 7.5 cm (c) 7.5 12.5 cm (d) Not less than 15 cm Ans. (b) 38. Bangalore and Indore process of composting are which of the following? (a) Both anaerobic processes (b) Both aerobic processes (c) Anaerobic process and aerobic process, respectively (d) Aerobic process and anaerobic process, respectively Ans. (c) 39. A solid waste sample has been segregated and one of the components has been subjected to elemental analysis. The result of analysis in percent by mass revealed C (40%), H(6.0%), O(44%),. N (0.3%). What is the likely waste component? (a) Food waste (b) Paper and cardboard waste (c) Plastic waste (d) Leather waste

Ans. (a) 40. Pneumoconiosis is caused due to inhalation of which one of the following? . (a) Silica (b) NO (c) Lead (d) Cadmium Ans. (a) 41. Consider the following statements: 1. Pore pressure parameter A is a constant for a soil. 2. The shear strength of soil is a function of the effective stress in the soil and not of the total stress in the soil. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 Ans. (b) 42. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the code given below the lists: List I (Equipment) A. Hydrometer B. Plate load test set up C. Pyconometer List-II (Use) 1. Determination of shear parameters 2. Determination of specific gravity 3. Determination of bearing capacity of soils

D. Direct shear apparatus 4. Grain size distribution tests for clays

Code: A B C 1 3 3 1 4 2 4 2 D 3 1 1 3

(a) 2 (b) 4 (c) 2 (d) 4 Ans. (b)

43. A vertical cut is to be made in saturated clay with C=15kN/m2, ?=0,andY=20kN/m3. What is the theoretical depth to which the, clay can be excavated without side collapse? (a) 6 m (b) 2 m (c) 2.5m (d) 3 m Ans. (d) 44. In seismic exploration method, velocities V1 and V2 were 600 m/s and 4000 m/s. The distance corresponding to the break point of velocities was 30m. Based on this detail, what is the depth of overburden? (a) 1l.5 m (b) 12.5 m (c) 12.9 m (d) 13.2 m Ans. (c) 45. Consider the, following statements in respect of static cone penetration test: 1. The cone used has an apex angle of 60 and base, area of 10 cm2 2. This test gives a continuous record of cone resistance.

Which of the statements- given above is/are correct? (a) 1 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (b) 2 only (d) Neither 1 nor 2 Ans. (c) 46. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the code given below he lists: List-I (Soil Classification Symbol) A. GW B. SW C. ML D. CL Code: A B C D (a) 1 2 (b) 2 1 (c) 2 1 (d) 1 2 Ans. (b) 47. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the code given below the lists: List-I (Soil) List-II (Type) 4 3 4 3 3 4 3 4 List-II (Soil property) 1. Soil having uniformity coefficient > 6 2. Soil having uniformity coefficient > 4 3. Soil having low plasticity 4. Soil having low compressibility

A. Fine sand B. Silt C. Peat 4. Organic soil Code: A (a) (b) (c) (d) B 3 4 3 2 2 3 1 3 C 1 1 2 4

1. Expansive soil 2. Coarse grained soil 3. Fine grained soil

Ans. (d) 48. Match List-I with List II and select the correct answer using the code given below the lists: List-I (Symbol) A. ML B. SM C. Pt D. MB compressibility Code: A (a) (b) B 3 4 C 2 1 D 4 3 1 2 List-II (Soil) 1. Silty sand 2. Inorganic silt with large compressibility 3. Inorganic silt with small compressibility 4. Soil with high organic content with high

(c) (d)

3 4

1 2

4 3

2 1

Ans. (c) 49. Which one of the following is correct? In laboratory compaction tests, the optimum moisture content of soil decreases (a) with increase of compaction energy and with decrease of coarse grains in the soil (b) with decrease of compaction energy and with increase of coarse grains in the soil (c) with increase of both compaction energy and coarse grains in the soil (d) with decrease of both compaction energy and coarse grains in, the soil Ans. (c) 50. Consider the following statements: 1. Coefficient of consolidation normally increases with decreasing liquid limit of clay. 2. The larger the value of the coefficient of consolidation, the longer it takes for full consolidation to occur. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 Ans. (a)