1.Communication is a process of a) b) c) d) Ans:a 2. a) b) c) d) Ans:b 3. Channel is a) b) c) d) Ans:a 4. Analog signal varies with a) b) c) d) Ans:b 5.

Discrete signal is represented by a) b) c) d) Ans:d 6. Carrier signal has a) b) c) d) Ans:a constant magnitude constant frequency variable frequency variable time coding modulation demodulation sequence of samples sampling time time continuously sampling frequency none of these medium signal carrier none of these An example of communication service printer television both(a)&(b) none of these transfer of information transfer of energy transfer of channel none of these

7.Modulating signal has a) b) c) d) Ans:a 8. Modulation index is a) b) c) d) Ans:a 9. a) b) c) d) Ans:a 10. fc fm is a) b) c) d) Ans:b 11.In amplitude modulation, frequency is a) b) c) d) Ans:a 12. In amplitude modulation, amplitude is a) b) c) d) Ans:c constant zero variable none of these constant zero variable one upper band frequency lower band frequency mid band frequency none of these fc +fm is upper band frequency lower band frequency mid band frequency none of these Vm/Vc Vc/Vm Vm/Ic None of these low frequency low modulation high frequency none of these

13.In frequency modulation, frequency is a. constant b. zero c. variable d.one Ans:c 14. In frequency modulation, amplitude is a.constant b.zero c.one d.variable Ans:a 15. frequency modulation has a) b) c) d) Ans:c 16. a) b) c) d) Ans:b 17.FM signal is less affected by a) b) c) d) Ans:d 18. FSK is a) b) c) d) Ans:a frequency shift keying frequency shine keying frequency shine keyboard none of these loss temperature frequency noise Amplitude modulation has one carrier one carrier with two side band frequencies one carrier with infinite frequencies none of these one carrier one carrier with two side band frequencies one carrier with infinite frequencies none of these

19. ASK is a) b) c) d) e) Amplitude shift keying Amplitude shift keyboard Amplitude shine keying none of these Ans:a

20. HPA is a) b) c) d) Ans:c 21. Word SCANNING is used in in a) b) c) d) Ans:d 22. The frequency range of 1GHZ to 30GHZ are referred as a) b) c) d) Ans:b 23 . IF is a) b) c) d) Ans:c 24. Low pass filter attenuates a) b) c) d) Ans:a high frequencies low frequencies medium frequencies none of these interference frequency interconnection frequency intermediate frequency none of these sound waves micro waves mini waves none of these telecost telephone radio TV high power audio high port audio high power amplifier none of these

25 . high pass filter attenuates a) b) c) d) Ans:b 26. Low pass filter allows a) b) c) d) Ans:d 27. High pass filter allows a) b) c) d) Ans:a 28. Primary component of uplink section of satellite is a) b) c) d) Ans:c 29. Micro wave communication is used in a) b) c) d) Ans:b 30. Non electric signal is converted into electrical signal by a) b) c) d) Ans:a transmitter receiver line none of these TNEB telephone networks industries none of these transformer transistor earth station transmitter power station transmitter high frequencies medium frequencies zero frequency low frequencies high frequencies medium frequencies zero frequency low frequencies high frequencies low frequencies medium frequencies none of these

31. In order to reduce interference, the signal should be a) b) c) d) Ans:d 32. An example for an analog signal a) b) c) d) Ans:a 33. Messages travel from transmitter to receiver with help of a) b) c) d) Ans:c 34. Bandwidth of FM signal is than AM signal a) b) c) d) Ans:c 35. In AM modulation ,when the modulation index increases, transmitted a) b) c) d) Ans:b 36. In FM modulation ,when the modulation index increases, transmitted a) b) c) d) Ans:a constant increased decreased none of these power is constant increased decreased none of these power is lesser either lesser or larger larger none of these Transmitter Receiver channel antennas Sine wave impulse signal sample signal None of these amplified multiplied demodulated modulated

37. Sound signalsin TV are a) b) c) d) Ans:c 38. Video signals in TV are a) b) c) d) Ans:a 39. In optical communication, carrier is a) b) c) d) Ans:a 40. Optical detector is a) b) c) d) Ans:b 41.Optical fibre hasdiameter a.small b.large c.zero d.none of these Ans:a 42. Optical fibre is fabricated by a) b) c) d) Ans:a glass copper aluminium none of these diode PIN photo diode transistor none of these electromagnetic waves in optical frequency electromagnetic waves in maximum frequency electromagnetic waves in minimum frequency none of these amplitude modulated de modulated frequency modulated none of these amplitude modulated dc modulated frequency modulated a and c

43.An earth station receiver consists of a.RF to IF down converter b. IFto RF converter c.either (a)&(b) d.none of these Ans:a 44. An earth station transmitter consists of a.RF to IF down converter b. IFto RF converter c. either (a)&(b) d.none of these Ans:b 45.VHF is a.very low frequency b.very high frequency c.very hot frequency d.none of these Ans:b 46. TRF is nothing but a.TV radio frequency b.Tuned radio frequency c.Tube radio frequency d.none of these Ans:b 47.which one of the following is the type of superheterodyning a.Radio transmitter b.TV c.radio receiver d.radar Ans:c 48.AFC is nothing but a.Audio frequency control b.Automatic frequency control c.Amplitude frequency control d.none of these Ans:b

49.The maximum power in AM,when modulation index is a.0 b.0.5 c.0.7 d.1 Ans:d 50.Primary colours are a.red,blue.green b.green,white.blue c.blue,red.yellow d.none of these Ans:a

1. In a transistor when base-width decreases with increasing collector to base voltage, this phenomenon is called Early Effect Thermal Runaway Tunnelling Pinch-off

The answer is Early Effect 2. An amplifier has a voltage gain of 100. To reduce distortion, 10% negative feedback is employed. The gain of the amplifier with feedback is 1.01 9.09 90.9 101 The answer is 90.9 3. The internal impedence of an ideal current source is Zero Low High Infinity The answer is Zero 4. The condition for reciprocity of a two port network is AD - BC = 1

AD - BC = 0 A=D B=C The answer is AD - BC = 1 5. The polar radiation pattern of a loop aerial is Circle Ellipse Cardiod Figure of Eight (8) The answer is Figure of Eight (8) 6. A J-K master slave flip-flop could be converted into a T flip-flop by making J = sqrt(K) k = sqrt(J) J=K CLK = 0 The answer is CLK = 0 7. The bridge used for measurement of inductance is Wheatstone Bridge Kelvin Double Bridge Anderson Bridge Schering Bridge The answer is Anderson Bridge 8. A three and half digit voltmeter could measure a maximum voltage of 100 Volts 1000 Volts 2000 Volts 10,000 Volts The answer is 1000 Volts 9. Lissajou's figures are used in a CRO while measuring Voltage Magnitude Voltage Gain Frequency Wave Form The answer is Frequency 10. The type of transmission used for sound in TV transmission is

AM FM PCM PWM The answer is FM 11. The type of transmission used for television in India is DAB SC SSB VSB SSB-SC The answer is VSB 12. The octal number system has Two Different Digits Seven Different Digits Eight Different Digits Ten Different Digits The answer is Seven Different Digits 13. Binary multiplication is done using Two's Complement One's Complement Shift and Add Successive Subtraction The answer is Shift and Add 14. A wired AND gate uses Common Emitter Configuration Common Collector Configuration Open Emitter Configuration Open Collector Configuration The answer is Common Emitter Configuration 15. Which of the following is a universal gate? AND OR NOR XOR The answer is NOR

16. The memory unit using only gates is ROM RAM Core Disk The answer is RAM 17. The ladder network used in a D/A converter is R-C Ladder R-L Ladder R-2R Ladder R-2L Ladder The answer is R-2R Ladder 18. An AM broadcase station transmits 2 KW of carrier power and uses an index of modulation 0.5. The total transmitted power is 2 KW 2.25 KW 2.5 KW 2.75 KW The answer is 2.25 KW 19. A commercial superheterodyne radio receiver has its intermediate frequency chosen as 255 KHz 455 KHz 955 KHz 1055 KHz The answer is 455 KHz 20. The input signal to reciever is 50 mw and the internal noise at the input is 5 mw. After amplification the signal at the output is 2w and the noise output 0.4w. This noise figure is 2 0.5 10 5 The answer is 2 21. If VSWR of transmission line is 4 and its characteristic impedance is 300 ohms. The two possible resistor loads are 300 Ohms and 75 Ohms 1200 Ohms and 300 Ohms 1200 Ohms and 75 Ohms

600 Ohms and 300 Ohms The answer is 1200 Ohms and 300 Ohms 22. A Zener diode is used for Voltage Regulation Rectification Noise Suppression Blocking A.C The answer is Voltage Regulation 23. An SCR is a device having Three layers with four junctions Three layers with two junctions Four layers with three junctions Two layers with three junctions The answer is Four layers with three junctions 24. An amplifier has a gain of 10,000 expressed in decibels the gain is 10 40 80 100 The answer is 100 25. If the bandwidth of each R F amplifier is 80 KHz the bandwidth of three such stages cascaded is 800 KHz 2400 KHz 400 KHz 200 KHz The answer is 2400 KHz 26. Which of the following is not used as a R.F. oscillator Wien Bridge Hartly Colpitts Clapp The answer is Wien Bridge 27. The amplifier is which current is proportional to the signal voltage, independent of source load resistance is called Current Amplifier Voltage Amplifier

Transresistance amplifier Transconductance amplifier The answer is Transresistance amplifier 28. An emitter follows has High input impedance and high output impedance. High input inpedance and low output impedance. Low input impedance and high output impedance. Low input impedance and low output impedance. The answer is High input inpedance and low output impedance. 29. A network with impedance function 10(s + 1) / s(s + 2) could be realised using Resistors only Inductors and Capacitors only Resistors and Capacitors only Resistors, Inductors and Capacitors The answer is Resistors, Inductors and Capacitors 30. To eliminate ghosts in the picture Use longer transmission line Connect a booster Change the antenna orientation or location Twist the transmission line 1. The Laplace transform of an impulse function is 1 1/s 1 / (s * s) 0 The answer is 1 2. The effective area of isotropic radiator is L / 4P 4P / L (L * L) / 4P 4P / L * L The answer is (L * L) / 4P 3. The Q factor of a coil is can be given as wL / R RC

Sqrt(C) / L Sqrt(L) / C The answer is wL / R 4. The VSWR of a transmission line is 4, its reflection coefficient is 0.4 0.6 2 4 The answer is 0.6 5. If the load impedance connected to a transmission line of characteristic impedance 50 ohms is 150 ohms, its reflection coefficient is 0.5 2 -2 -0.5 The answer is 0.5 6. The charge contained in an electron is 9.107 x 10^-31 Coulomb -1.6 x 10^-19 Coulomb -1.76 x 10^11 Coulomb 3.2 x 10^32 Coulomb The answer is -1.6 x 10^-19 Coulomb 7. Most commonly used materials as photo cathode for the photoelectric emmission are Barium and Calcium Cesium and Ribidium Arsenic and Boron Thorium and Tungston The answer is Arsenic and Boron 8. Current through the ionized gas in gas tube Usually fluctuates Usually remains constant Usually assumes infinity Usually assumes zero value The answer is Usually assumes infinity 9. Semi-conductor diode time constant is equal to The value of majority carrier life time

The life time of minority carrier The diffussion capacitance time constant Zero The answer is The value of majority carrier life time 10. To prepare a P type semiconducting material the impurities to be added to silicon are Boron, Gallium Arsenic, Antimony Gallium, Phosphorous Gallium, Arsenic The answer is Boron, Gallium 11. FET is a good signal chopper because It exhibits no offset voltage at zero drain current It occupies less space in integrated form It is less noisy It has got high input impedance The answer is It exhibits no offset voltage at zero drain current 12. In Bipolar Junction transistors, the type of configuration which will give both voltage gain and current gain is CC CB CE None The answer is CE 13. The (V^d) - (I^d) characteristics of an FET are similar to that of Triode Pentode Tertode None of there The answer is Pentode 14. The transformer utilization factor for a bridge rectifier is given as 0.287 0.50 0.693 0.812 The answer is 0.812

15. To increase the input resistance and decrease the output resistance in negative feedback, the type used is Voltage Shunt Current Series Voltage Series Current Shunt The answer is Voltage Series 16. The coupling capacitance of a bipolar transistor amplifier must be 500 times larger than the FET amplifier 500 times lesser than the FET amplifier Equal to that the FET amplifier Negligible to that of the FET amplifier The answer is 500 times larger than the FET amplifier 17. The loop gain of an amplifier employing feedback (with feedback ratio of B) is 1/B B B^2 B/P The answer is 1 / B 18. The value of a resistor creating thermal noise is doubled. The noise power generator is therefore. Halved Quadrupled Doubled Unchanged The answer is Unchanged 19. In every practical oscillator the loop gain is Slightly larger than unity Slightly larger than ten Infinity Zero The answer is Slightly larger than unity 20. Alternatively the characteristic impedance is called Surge Impedance Match Impedance Alternative Impedance Reflected Impedance

The answer is Surge Impedance 21. For any uniform and symmetrical life the characteristic impedance is The geometric mean of the open and short circuited impedances The product of the open and the short circuited impedances Square of the product of the open and short circuited impedances The ratio of the above two impedances The answer is The geometric mean of the open and short circuited impedances 22. The gain bandwidth product of the transistor amplifier is usually denoted as f^a f^b f^y None of these The answer is f^y 23. In crystal oscillators, the valuable properties of a crystal are High Q and low L/C ratio High Q and L/C ratio Low Q and High L/C ratio Low Q and low L/C ratio The answer is High Q and L/C ratio 24. In an RL circuit after a very long time of application of step voltage the inductance L is represented in its equivalent circuit as Open Circuit Short Circuit L/2 2L The answer is Short Circuit 25. Thevenin's theorem cannot be applied to a network which contains Linear impedances Nonlinear impedances Resistances Inductances The answer is Nonlinear impedances 26. The loss produced by the insertion of the network of line is referred to as the Insertion Loss Characteristic Loss Eddy Current Loss

Hysteresis Loss The answer is Insertion Loss 27. A series capacitance used in a filter circuit represents Low-Pass Band-Pass High-Pass None The answer is High-Pass 28. Photoemission multipliers make use of Secondary Emission Thermionic Emission High Filed Emission Photoemission The answer is Secondary Emission 29. The reflection coefficient on a lossless line with a short circuit load, is given by -1 1 0 Lamda The answer is -1 30. By passing a triangular wave through a differentiating circuit the output wave shape is Spikes Squarewave Sawtooth Sinewave

1. An ideal power supply is characterized by Very large output resistance Very small output resistance Zero internal resistance Infinite internal resistance The answer is Zero internal resistance 2. Voice signal frequency lies between 0 -> 20 KHz 15 KHz -> 1 MHz

15 Hz -> 15 KHz None of these The answer is 15 Hz -> 15 KHz 3. A complex wave form made up frequency components 1 Hz, 3 Hz, 5 Hz, 7 Hz and 9 Hz. Its fundamental frequency is 9 Hz 12.5 Hz 1 Hz Indeterminate The answer is 1 Hz 4. A sawtooth waveform is made up of All odd harmonics All even harmonics All odd and even harmonics None of these The answer is All odd and even harmonics 5. A square wave form applied to a differentiator circuit gives positive and negative spikes. Is it true ? Yes No Not necessarily None of these The answer is Yes 6. Which of the following magnetic material has least value of B.H ? Carbon Steel Cobalt Steel Alnico Alcomax The answer is Carbon Steel 7. Transmission of a wave in a closed wave guide is possible only when The frequency of operation is less than a certain critical value Phase-shift is real positive Phase-shift is zero None of these The answer is The frequency of operation is less than a certain critical value 8. An intergrator circuit should have Very large time constant

very small time constant A time constant that is much smaller as compared to the time occupied by one cycle of applied input None of these The answer is Very large time constant 9. Standard Lorrn operates in which frequency range 1.8 to 2 MHz 88 to 112 MHz 108 to 118 MHz None of these The answer is None of these 10. In all Pulse Communication Systems, carrier Is necessarily a high repetition rate train of pulses Is necessarily a high frequency continous a.c. signal Is either a train of pulses or a continous a.c. wave None of these The answer is Is either a train of pulses or a continous a.c. wave 11. In amplitude modulation The time gap between adjacent maximum and minimum values of the modulate envelop is not dependent on frequency of intelligence. Maximum value of intelligence has no effect on the time seperation of modulated envelope's maximum and minimum. Seperation of successive maximum and minimum of modulated to envelope on time-axis is inversely proportional to the frequency of modulating signal. None of these The answer is The time gap between adjacent maximum and minimum values of the modulate envelop is not dependent on frequency of intelligence. 12. In DSB system with carrier when the intellignece varies between 100 Hz to 5 KHz, bandwidth is 10 KHz 9.8 KHz 200 Hz Indeterminate The answer is 200 Hz 13. Signal at the output of an AM modulator is given by e = 5.3 (1 + 0.64 sin 6280t) sin 106t. Depth of modulation for it is 0.64 % 0.80 % 64 %

80 % The answer is 0.80 % 14. In frequency modulation Frequency of the carrier remains unchanged Carrier frequency changes in accordance with the modulating signal amplitude Carrier frequency changes in accordance with the modulating signal frequency None of these The answer is Carrier frequency changes in accordance with the modulating signal frequency 15. Modulation index in Fm is given by mf = 75 / freq. deviation in KHz 75 KHz is the modulation index Freq. deviation in KHz / 75 None of these The answer is mf = 75 / freq. deviation in KHz 16. Modulation index (mf) in FM is Directly proportional to frequency deviation and inversely proportional to the modulating frequency. Given by mf = Frequency Deviation in KHz / 75 x 100 Directly proportional to modulating signal frequency and inversely proportional to frequency deviation. Given by mf = Frequency deviation / Modulating signal amplitude The answer is Directly proportional to frequency deviation and inversely proportional to the modulating frequency. 17. Polarization of an electromagnetic wave is The direction of its magnetic field component with respect to ground. The direction of its electrical field component with respect to ground The orientation of antenna that generates it None of these The answer is The direction of its electrical field component with respect to ground 18. A TM wave characterized by The absence of magnetic component in the direction of propagation The electric field component wholly transverse The absence of electric field component in the direction of propagation None of these The answer is The absence of magnetic component in the direction of propagation 19. A TEM wave cannot exist within a hollow metallic pipe. It is true Yes No

Not necessarily None of these The answer is Not necessarily 20. Which is most commonly used transmission-line with television system ? Twin-lead Open-wire with ceramic supports Coaxial Cable None of these The answer is Coaxial Cable 21. A transmission line with characteristics impedance of 300 is used to interconnect receiving antenna and receiver input. A reflection coefficient of 1/3 is observed on the line receiver input impedance is equal to 150 100 900 Indeterminate The answer is 150 22. Ionization of various gases resulting in the formaiton of Ionosphere is because of Characteristics of gases themselves Pressure variations with altitude Radiations from the sun None of these The answer is Pressure variations with altitude 23. A modulated signal (AM) is having depth of modulation equal to 80%, then feeder current under modulated conditions is greater than that under unmodulated conditions by 4% 10% 15% None of these The answer is 15% 24. Fidelity, in a communication receiver, is provided by Mixer Stage Detector Stage Various Amplifier Sections Audio Stage The answer is Audio Stage 25. Video signals have a frequency range that is spread over approximately

9 Octaves 18 Octaves 4 Octaves None of these The answer is 4 Octaves 26. Where is brightness control located in a TV ? Audio Section Video Section Grid-cathode circuit of picture tube None of these The answer is Audio Section 27. Where is fine tuning control present in television receiver ? A pre set inductance A potentiometer A variable condensor None of these The answer is A potentiometer 28. Horizontal oscillator in a TV receiver generates a sawtooth signal of 15,750 Hz in FCC Standards 15,750 Hz in CCIR Standards 15,625 Hz in FCC Standards 50 Hz in CCIR Standards and 60 Hz in FCC Standards The answer is 50 Hz in CCIR Standards and 60 Hz in FCC Standards 29. Television cameras A and B have tubes which are 3 inch and 4.5 inch long resp. When a lens of known length is used with the tubes, then Angle of view of A is greater than that of B Angle of view of B is greater than that of A Both of them have an identical angle of view None of these The answer is None of these 30. Television screen width is always greater than the screen height or in other words rastar width more than raster height because Horizontal deflection frequency is higher More detail is in the horizontal direction Picture motion is in the horizontal direction None of these

The answer is Horizontal deflection frequency is higher 31. Which of the following is not provided in a PNP transistor ? Base AB B C

1. Clipper circuits are used to obtain any one of the following waveforms Sharper Rectified Fast Rising Smaller Amplitude The answer is Smaller Amplitude 2. A pulse amplifier is basically an amplifier with Wide Band IF Narrow Band Audio Band The answer is Narrow Band 3. Linearity of time base waveforms can be improved by using Larger time constant High gain Larger value components Larger power supply voltages The answer is Larger time constant 4. For harmonic gerneration the amplifier used is Audio Amplifier Class-A Amplifier RC Amplifier Class-C Turned Amplifier The answer is Class-C Turned Amplifier 5. Zener diodes semiconductors are Lightly Doped Heavily Doped Medium Doped

Not at all Doped The answer is Heavily Doped 6. Which of the following equation represent field strength H produced by a conductor carrying current I, at a distance r ? H = 1 / (PI x r) H = 1 / (2 x PI x r x r) H = 1 / (2 x PI x r) H = 4 x PI x r x I The answer is H = 1 / (2 x PI x r) 7. The relative permeability is considered as unity for Bismuth Vacuum Air Cobalt The answer is Cobalt 8. A paralled polarized wave is incident from air to paraffin. If Er for paraffin is 2, the Brewster angle will be nearly equal to 45 Degrees 40 Degrees 60 Degrees 55 Degrees The answer is 55 Degrees 9. Absolute Permeability is equal to 4 x PI x 10^-7 H/m 4 x PI x 10^-12 H/m 8.854 x 10^7 H/m 8.854 x 10^-12 H/m The answer is 4 x PI x 10^-7 H/m 10. The absorption of radio waves by the atmosphere depends on which of the following ? The polarization of atmosphere The polarization of the waves Their frequency Their distance from the transmitter The answer is Their frequency 11. Plasma is A medium dominated by helium

A solid dielectric material A gaseous medium A ray of electrons The answer is A gaseous medium 12. Circular polarization is said to take place when The magnitude of the two waves is same. The phase of the two waves is same. The magnitude is the same and phase difference is zero. The magnitude is the same and the phase difference is 90 degs. The answer is The magnitude is the same and the phase difference is 90 degs. 13. The velocity of electromagnetic waves in a dielectric medium Er = 4 is equal to 3 x 10^8 metres / second 1.5 x 10^8 metres / second 6 x 10^8 metres / second 12 x 10^8 metres / second The answer is 1.5 x 10^8 metres / second 14. A plane wave travelling in air is normally incident on a block of paraffin with Er = 2.2. The reflection coefficient will be equal to -0.195 -0.255 -0.456 -0.557 The answer is -0.255 15. For different loads the range of the values for VSWR is 0 to 0.5 0.5 to 1 0 to 1 1 to Infinity The answer is 1 to Infinity 16. When the distance between two charges is doubled, the force between them will be equal to Four times Double Half One Fourth The answer is One Fourth

17. If the conductivity of copper is 5.8 x 10^7 mho / m and its relative permeability and permittivity is unity, then its refractive index at 10 MHz be equal to 2.27 22.7 227 2270 The answer is 227 18. A sinusoidal plane wave is transmitted through a medium whose breakdown strength is 30 KV / m and whose relative permeability is 4. The mean possible r.m.s power flow density will be 2.39 KW / metre 23.9 KW / metre 239 KW / metre 2390 KW / metre The answer is 2390 KW / metre 19. Which of the following is ferromagnetic material ? Copper Palladium Silver Cobalt The answer is Cobalt 20. Response curve of an amplifier is a graph that shows Variation of output voltage with input voltage Variation of output current with input current Variation of output voltage with frequency Variation of output current with frequency The answer is Variation of output voltage with frequency 21. In FET amplifiers, input is A current signal A voltage signal Either a current or voltage signal None of these The answer is A voltage signal 22. Decibel is defined in terms of Power Ratio Voltage Level Current Level

None The answer is Power Ratio 23. A source of 500 Kilo Ohms output impedance was to be connected to a load of 10 Ohms. The matching device or circuit to a load of 10 Ohms. The matching device or circuit could be of two types. One was by using CC stage in between and other to have a passive circuit having input and output impedances of 500 kilo ohms and 10 ohms resp. Finally, CC stage is preffered even though it demanded more component count and circuit complexity. Why ? Because, it does not introduce any noise. Because, its impedances are extremely stable and do not vary with various parameters. It does not alter circuit conditions because of its voltage gain being unity. None of these. The answer is It does not alter circuit conditions because of its voltage gain being unity. 24. Mark the reason for CB configuration having very small input impedance Because of its inherent characteristics That it has a very large resistance gain That input is applied between emitter and base and emiiter junction is always forward biased for operation That it is always fed from a low impedance source The answer is That input is applied between emitter and base and emiiter junction is always forward biased for operation 25. The power handling capability of a given transistor, is dependent upon which of the following ? Maximum junction temperature and expected ambient temperature. The maximum temperature at which the junction of the device is permitted to operate. The actual ambient temperature expected during operation. None of these The answer is Maximum junction temperature and expected ambient temperature. 26. It is desired to design an amplifier with a voltage gain of 10,000. Output should be in phase with the input. Available CB stage has a gain of 100 per stage and CE has per stage gain of 25. The designed amplifier shall have Two cascaded stages of CB configuration Four cascaded stages of CE configuration Two cascaded stages of CE configuration Three cascaded stages of CF configuration followed by an emitter follower stage The answer is Four cascaded stages of CE configuration 27. H-parameters of a transistor Are constant Vary with temperature Are dependent upon collector current

None of these The answer is Are dependent upon collector current 28. High frequency response of a transformer coupled amplifier is generally limited by Transformer's leakage inductance and distributed capacitance Transformer's primary inductance Transformer's leakage inductance only Transformer's winding capacitance only The answer is Transformer's leakage inductance and distributed capacitance 29. Low frequency response of a transformer coupled amplifier is limited by Transformer's leakage inductance Transformer's primary inductance Resistance associated with transformer windings Transformer inter winding capacitances The answer is Transformer's primary inductance 30. In a voltage series feedback Output resistance increases while input resistance decreases Output and input resistances are reduced Output and input resistances are increased Output resistance decreases while input resistance increases The answer is Output and input resistances are reduced 31. Which coupling produces the minimum interference with frequency response ? RC Coupling Transformer Coupling Direct Coupling Impedance Coupling 1. Manganin is an alloy of Copper, manganese and nickel Copper, zinc and lead Copper, aluminium and chromium Copper, chromium and cadmium The answer is Copper, manganese and nickel 2. A Ryall crest voltmeter is used to measure which one ? Peak Voltage D.C Voltage All of the above

R.M.S Voltage The answer is Peak Voltage 3. What are Helipots ? Multi-turn Potentiometers Defects in Metallic Tranducers Primary transducers for X-ray measurements None of the above The answer is None of the above 4. The guage factor for doped crystals is in the range 0.5 to 1 1 to 2 2 to 20 100 to 5000 The answer is 100 to 5000 5. A nixie tube is a display device is an a.c to d.c converter is an d.c to a.c converter is a device for reducing distortion The answer is is a display device 6. LED is A PN junction which emits light when current passes in the forward direction A gaseous discharge glow devices Photo cell device which emits light None of the above The answer is A PN junction which emits light when current passes in the forward direction 7. A three digit 0-1 V digital voltmeter will have a resolution of 0.15 V 1/3 V 0.1 V 1 mV The answer is 1 mV 8. What is the principle of working of thermocouple vacuum guage ? Variation of pressure of gases with temperature Variation of thermal conductivity of gases with pressure

Variation of kinetic energy of gases with pressure None of the above The answer is Variation of thermal conductivity of gases with pressure 9. An accelerometer has a seismic mass of 0.05kg and a spring constant of 3 x 10^3 N/m. Maximum mass displacement of 0.02m before the mass hits the stop. The maximum measurable acceleration will be equal to 400 m / s^2 600 m / s^2 800 m / s^2 1200 m / s^2 The answer is 1200 m / s^2 10. The dead zone in a certain pyrometer is 0.125 percent of span. The calibration is 4000 Degrees to 10000 Degrees. What is temperature change might occur before it is detected ? 0.075 Degrees 0.75 Degrees 4.5 Degrees 5 Degrees The answer is 0.75 Degrees 11. The transducers that convert the input physical phenomenon into an electrical output in the form of pulses are called Secondary Transducers Tuned Transducers Analogue Tranducers Digital Tranducers The answer is Digital Tranducers 12. A superheterodyne receiver with an IF of 450 KHz is tuned to a signal of 1200 KHz. The image frequency is 1750 KHz 2650 KHz 2100 KHz 2870 KHz The answer is 2100 KHz 13. If the carrier of a 100 percent modulated AM transmitter is suppressed, the percentage power saving will be 150 66.6 190 100

The answer is 66.6 14. A decade counter needs 10 Flip-Flops 4 Flip-Flops 5 Flip-Flops 2 Flip-Flops The answer is 4 Flip-Flops 15. For different loads the range of the values for VSWR is 0 to 0.5 0.5 to 1 0 to 1 1 to Infinity The answer is 0.5 to 1 16. The duty cycle of a pulse of width 2 micro sec and repetition frequency 4 KHz is 0.55 0.055 0.008 0.0006 The answer is 0.008 17. Four resistors are connected in series. Their values are 28.4 ohms, 4.25 ohms, 56.605 ohms and 0.75 ohms with an uncertainity of one unit in the last digit in each. The total series resitance will be equal to 90 Ohms 79 Ohms 78.5 Ohms 79.225 Ohms The answer is 90 Ohms 18. A low Q factor has Flat Response Peaked Response Lower Losses Higher losses and flat response The answer is Lower Losses 19. Under force-voltage analogy, velocity is analogous to which of the following ? Charge Capacitance Inductance

Current The answer is Current 20. In force-current analogy, capacitance is analogous to which of the following ? Mass Velocity Displacement Momentum The answer is Mass 21. The Laplace transform of e^-2t is given by 1 / 2s 2/s 2/s+1 1/s+2 The answer is 1 / s + 2 22. Laplace transform method of solution is applicable to equations containing Differential terms only Integral terms only Scalar terms only None of these The answer is None of these 23. If a zero appears on the first column of the Routh table, the system is Necessarily Stable Necessarily Unstable Marginally Stable None of these The answer is Necessarily Unstable 24. Which of the following informations can be concluded about the transient behaviour of the system 25 % maximum overshoot to step command 50 % maximum overshoot to step command 75 % maximum overshoot to step command None of these The answer is 25 % maximum overshoot to step command 25. The D.C gain of the system represented by the transfer function P(s) = (1 / s) + 1 is equal to 1 2

5 10 The answer is 1 26. One of the following methods can be used to determine the relative stablility of a control system Routh Stability Criterion Hurwitz Stability Criterion Root-locus Technique None of these The answer is Routh Stability Criterion 27. Routh table was constructed from the characteristic equation of a control system. The first column of the table contained the following integers, 1,4,5,6,13. The system is Stable Unstable Marginally Stable None of these The answer is None of these 28. A type system under parabolic input will have Actuating signal which will increase with time Actuating signal which will decrease with time Parabolic Output None of these The answer is Actuating signal which will increase with time 29. Which of the following best defines a transfer function ? Ratio of system response to system input Ratio of system input to system response Laplace transform of system response minus the Laplace transforms of the system input function Ratio of the Laplace transform response to the Laplace transform of the system input funtion The answer is Ratio of the Laplace transform response to the Laplace transform of the system input funtion 30. Analysis of control systems by Laplace transform technique is NOT possible for which one of the following ? Linear Systems Time-invariant Systems Discrete-time Systems Unstable Continous-time Systems The answer is Time-invariant Systems 31. In a RC-coupled amplifier for improving the low frequency response

Low RL is provided More bias is used Less gain is provided Higher Cc is used 1. In order to have the impulse response of a control system apporaching zero with the time tending to infinity The poles of the system must have position real parts The poles of the system must lie on the L.H.S of the S-plane The zero of the system must be on the L.H.S of the S-plane None of these The answer is The poles of the system must lie on the L.H.S of the S-plane 2. For an ideal noise free amplifier, the noise figure is Zero Zero dB Infinity 1 dB The answer is Zero dB 3. Wide bandwidth operation is offered by Common Emitter Amplifier Common Base Amplifier Common Collector Amplifier None of the above The answer is Common Collector Amplifier 4. When a junction is formed between a metal and a semiconductor, the depletion layer is More on the side of the metal Equal on both sides Less on the side of the metal Less on semiconductor side The answer is Less on the side of the metal 5. In the negative feedback amplifier with gain A / K, the noise generated in the amplifier is reduced by a factor of K 1-K 1/K 1 / (1 - K)

The answer is 1 / K 6. The type of negative feedback which results in the increase of both Zin and Zout of an amplifier is Voltage-Shunt Voltage-Series Current-Shunt Current-Series The answer is Current-Series 7. Zener diodes are used in Rectifiers Inverters Demodulator Voltage Regulators The answer is Voltage Regulators 8. In a saturated transistor B-E junction is forward biased with C-B junction is reverse biased Both the junctions are forward biased B-E junction is reverse biased with C-B junction is forward biased Both the junctions are reverse biased The answer is Both the junctions are forward biased 9. A good current amplifier has the following property Low Rin and high Rout Low Rin and low Rout High Rin and low Rout High Rin and high Rout The answer is Low Rin and high Rout 10. A silicon transistor at a temperature of 25 Degrees C has leakage current Icbo of 10 microamps. If the temperature rises to 55 Degrees C the leakage current would be 300 microamps 80 microamps 22 microamps 10 microamps The answer is 80 microamps 11. A lossless transmission line with characteristic load of 100 ohms. The standing wave ratio will be 2 2/3 1/2

1/3 The answer is 1 / 3 12. The oscillator that has the best frequency stability is Crystal Oscillator Hartley Oscillator Colpitt's Tuned Collector Oscillator The answer is Crystal Oscillator 13. All the components in a paralled resonant circuit are ideal. The value of Q is R / WL WL / R R / WC W / RC The answer is WL / R 14. Bootstrap sweep circuit generally employs Emitter Follower CE Amplifier CB Amplifier Tuned Amplifier The answer is Emitter Follower 15. In the design of composite filter, the end half m-derived section are included to Realize required pass band characteristics Realize required stop band characteristics Achieve equal phase characteristics Realize constant value of characteristic impedance over operating frequency The answer is Realize constant value of characteristic impedance over operating frequency 16. The condition for a distortionless transmission line is LG = RC LR = GC LC = GR LG = RC^2 The answer is LG = RC 17. Crystal oscillators are preferred to LC oscillators due to their Compact Size Temperature Stability

Frequency Stability Simple Circuitry The answer is Frequency Stability 18. In class B push pull amplifier, the cross-over distortion is eliminated by Using matched transistors Adopting class AB operation Using complementary devices Combination of the above The answer is Adopting class AB operation 19. In the hybrid parameters representing the two port network, the parameters represent Impedances only Admittances only Current and voltage gain only Combination of the above The answer is Combination of the above 20. A band pass filter is usually designed as follows Low pass filter followed by a high pass filter High pass filter followed by a low pass filter Have a paralled tuned circuit Have a series tuned circuit The answer is Have a series tuned circuit 21. The radiation resistance of a half wave dipole antenna in free space 103 Ohms 300 Ohms 73 Ohms 50 Ohms The answer is 73 Ohms 22. To transform any resistance at the termination of a transmission line to an impedance with magnitude equal to R of the line, the line length must be L/4 L/8 L L/2 The answer is L / 4 23. In the radiated far filed of a dipole antenna, electric and magnetic fields Are in the direction of propagation

Are in time phase Are out of phase Both will not exist together The answer is Both will not exist together 24. The image frequency for a standard broadcast band receiver using 455 KHz IF and tuned to a station at 620 KHz is 1530 KHz 1075 KHz 900 KHz 750 KHz The answer is 1530 KHz 25. The horizontal synchronising frequency in the TV receiver is 10500 Hz 13125 Hz 15625 Hz 15750 Hz The answer is 15625 Hz 26. Under 100% amplitude modulation of a 10 KW carrier power, the total power required is 15 KW 50 KW 100 KW 150 KW The answer is 15 KW 27. Ionospheric propagation fails beyond the operating frequency of 30 KHz 300 KHz 3000 KHz 30,000 KHz The answer is 30,000 KHz 28. Though the amount of noise is proportional to bandwidth, the wide band FM has high signal to noise ratio because Signal level is high Limited circuit is used in FM Noise level is low Noise component are uncorrelated The answer is Limited circuit is used in FM

29. If the effective length of an antenna is increased, its directive gains Becomes infinite Remains same Decreases Increases The answer is Decreases 30. An antenna that is circularly polarised is Helical Yagi Parabolic Loop The answer is Helical 31. Which of the following circuits does not require a coupling capacitor ? Resistance Loaded Transformer Coupled Impedance Coupled Single Turned

1. An antenna that radiates uniformly in all directions is called Hertzian Dipole Isotropic Antenna Half-Wave Dipole Helical Antenna The answer is Isotropic Antenna 2. Typical radar antenna has beam width of 5 Degrees 3 Degrees 2 Degrees 1 Degrees The answer is 1 Degrees 3. In Indian T.V the width of one channel is 7 MHz 5 MHz 15 MHz 8 MHz

The answer is 7 MHz 4. Interlacing is used in T.V because It ensures scanning all lines on the screen Vertical sync signals are not needed It reduces flicker Gives the feeling of picture movement The answer is It reduces flicker 5. No picture, No sound, No raster, the trouble is in Vertical Oscillator R.F Amplifier Horizontal Amplifier None of these The answer is None of these 6. As one moves away from transmitter, ground wave eventually disappears because Sky wave interferes with ground wave Of tilt in wave front Of loss of line of sight Of limitation of single hop distance The answer is Of tilt in wave front 7. UHF signals normally propagates by means of Sky Wave Space Wave Surface Wave Duct The answer is Space Wave 8. In a low level A.M transmitter, the stage following the modulator shall be Harmonic Generators Class C Amplifier Non-Linear Amplifier Linear Amplifier The answer is Linear Amplifier 9. A carrier is simultaneously modulated by two sine wave with modulation indices 0.8 and 0.6. The resultant index is 1 0.5 0.7

None of the above The answer is 1 10. The function of pre-emphasis circuit in a communication system is to boost The higher audio frequencies The modulated wave The lower audio frequencies The complete audio band The answer is The higher audio frequencies 11. Armstrong modulator generates AM PM FM Both AM and PM The answer is FM 12. Commonly employed filter in SSB generation is HP RC LC Mechanical The answer is Mechanical 13. Tropospheric scatter is used in the following range HF VHF UHF VLF The answer is VHF 14. The function of padders in radio receiver is to improve Sensitivity Rejection of Image Frequency Noise Reduction Tracking The answer is Tracking 15. The fidelity of a receiver is primarily dependent upon Local Oscillator Detector Stage

IF Amplifier Audio Amplifier The answer is Audio Amplifier 16. In communication, noise is most likely to affect the signal At transmitter Source Channel Destination The answer is Channel 17. The F.M signal is passed through frequency tripler, the resultant modulation index will change by a factor of 1 1/3 3 9 The answer is 3 18. Quantization noise occurs in PCM TDM FDM PWM The answer is PCM 19. Blind speed problem in a radar can be effectively overcome by using Monopulse Technique MTI Variable PRF Conical Scanning The answer is Variable PRF 20. If the antenna diameter in a radar system is increased by a factor of 4, the range will increase by a factor of 2 8 4 2 The answer is 4 21. To represent a decimal number 35 in binary, the minimum number of bits required are

6 5 4 10 The answer is 6 22. To add the binary number 1101 with 1111 one needs Three full adders One full adder with one half adder Three full adder with one half adder Four half adders The answer is Three full adder with one half adder 23. To measure high Q inductors, the bridge preferred is Schering Bridge Hay's Bridge Wien Bridge Maxwell Bridge The answer is Hay's Bridge 24. The voltage gain of an amplifier used with Boolstrap sweep theoretically shall be -1 +1 Infinity No such consideration The answer is +1 25. A 1000 KHz carrier is simultaneously modulated with 300 Hz, 800 Hz and 2 KHz audio sine waves. The frequencies present in the output will be 998 KHz and 1002 KHz 998 KHz, 999.2 KHz, 1000.8 KHz, 1002 KHz 998 KHz, 999.2 KHz, 999.7 KHz, 1000.3 KHz, 1000.8 KHz, and 1002 KHz None of these The answer is 998 KHz, 999.2 KHz, 999.7 KHz, 1000.3 KHz, 1000.8 KHz, and 1002 KHz 26. The percentage of modulation for 45 KHz deviation in the FM broadcast band will be 30 % 40 % 60 % 90 %

The answer is 60 % 27. For a FM wave carrier modulating frequency is 10 KHz and bandwidth is 2 MHz. If the modulating signal amplitude is doubled, the bandwidth will be 0.5 MHz 1 MHz 2 MHz 4 MHz The answer is 4 MHz 28. In AM receiver the oscillator frequency is Always equal to signal frequency Always equal to 455 KHz Always higher than signal frequency Always lower than signal frequency The answer is Always higher than signal frequency 29. Select the one in which quantization noise occurs PCM TDM FDM PWD The answer is PCM 30. In grid bias modulation system the power needed for modulating amplifier Is negligibly low since grid is negative Is large as compared to that for the plate modulation Is almost the same as compared with plate modulation Is small as compared to that for plate modulation The answer is Is small as compared to that for plate modulation 31. Which of the following is the fastest switching device ? JFET BJT MOSFET Triode The answer is MOSFET 1. The typical squelch circuit Cuts off an audio amplifier when the carrier is absent Cuts off an IF amplifier when the AGC is maximum Cuts off an IF amplifier when the AGC is minimum

Eliminates the RF interference when the signal is weak The answer is Cuts off an audio amplifier when the carrier is absent 2. For a signal amplitude modulated to a depth of 100% by sinusoidal signal, what is the power ? Same as the power of unmodulated carrier Twice as the power of unmodulated carrier Four times the power of unmodulated carrier 3/2 times the power of unmodulated carrier The answer is 3/2 times the power of unmodulated carrier 3. In FM, the frequency deviation is generally Proportional to modulating frequency Proportional to amplitude of modulating signal Constant Directly proportional to amplitude and inversely proportional to modulating frequency The answer is Proportional to amplitude of modulating signal 4. Audio frequency range lie between 20 Hz and 20 KHz 20 KHz and 200 KHz 2 MHz and 20 MHz 20 MHz and 200 MHz The answer is 20 Hz and 20 KHz 5. Maximum undistorted power output of a transmitter can be expected when its modulation is 50 % Between 50 % and 90 % 100 % More than 100 % The answer is 100 % 6. An FM signal with a deviation a is passed through a mixer, and has its frequency reduced six fold. The deviation in the output of the mixer will be equal to 6 6a a Indeterminate The answer is a 7. What is the unit of modulation index Hertz Hz^-1

Hz^-2 No unit The answer is No unit 8. In the stabilized reactance modulator AFC system The discriminator must have a time constant to prevent demodulation The higher the discriminator frequency, the better the oscillator frequency stability The discriminator frequency must not be too low, or the system will fail Phase modulation is converted into FM by the equalizer circuit The answer is The discriminator frequency must not be too low, or the system will fail 9. The percentage saving in power of 100% modulated suppressed carrier AM signal is 80 66 2/3 50 40 The answer is 66 2/3 10. The maximum I or V on the modulated carrier wave is 5 units and minimum is 3 units. The percentage of modulation will be equal to 100 80 50 25 The answer is 25 11. An oscillator at 4.2 MHz is followed by two frequency doublers and two triplers. The ouput frequency will be 84 MHz 112.4 MHz 151.2 MHz 303.4 MHz The answer is 151.2 MHz 12. Tuned voltage amplifiers are not used Radio Receivers In public address system TV Receivers None of these The answer is In public address system 13. A 3A modulation is sometimes used to

Permit the receiver to have a frequency synthesizer Reduce the bandwidth required for transmission Reduce the power that must be transmitted Simplify the frequency stability problem in reception The answer is Simplify the frequency stability problem in reception 14. The final power amplifier in an FM transmitter generally operates as Class A Class B Class C Class D The answer is Class C 15. Quantizing noise takes place in Time-Division Multiplex PCM PPM Frequency-Division Multiplex The answer is PPM 16. A pre-emphasis circuit provides extra noise immunity by Converting the phase modulation to frequency modulation Preamplifying the whole audio band Boosting the bass frequencies Amplifying the higher audio frequencies The answer is Amplifying the higher audio frequencies 17. If all three elements of a given Delta-connected network are pure inductive reactance, the three elements of the corresponding star connected network Will all be pure capacitive reactances Will all be pure inductive reactances Can be either inductive or capacitive reactances Will be inductive or capacitive reactances depending upon the delta connected inductive reactances magnitudes The answer is Will all be pure inductive reactances 18. Which of the following laws of electrical network is used in the node voltage analysis of the networks ? Kirchoff's voltage Law Faraday's Law Kirchoff's Current Law

Ohm's Law The answer is Kirchoff's Current Law 19. A sinusoidal waveform is mathematically represented by An Even Function An Odd Function A function that is even as well as half wave symmetric A function that is neither even nor odd The answer is An Odd Function 20. The trigonometric fourier series expansion of an even function that is also half-wave symmetric shall contain Odd harmonics of sine terms only Both sine and cosine terms Only cosine terms Only odd harmonics of cosine terms The answer is Only odd harmonics of cosine terms 21. If a synchronous converter is supplied with 12 phase A.C supply, the number of slip rings will be 6 9 12 15 The answer is 12 22. When a rotor converter is started by means of a small auxiliary motor, the power of motor, must be Less than the D.C output of converter Less than the D.C input of converter Half of D.C output of converter Slightly more than the value of friction and windage losses at rated speed The answer is Slightly more than the value of friction and windage losses at rated speed 23. Maximum current rating of a glass bulb mercury arc rectifier is usually restricted to 150 A 400 A 500 A 2000 A The answer is 500 A 24. In a arc rectifier the drop in voltage at the cathode is approximately 10 Volt

6 to 7 Volts 160 to 170 Volts 1.2 Volts The answer is 6 to 7 Volts 25. In a mercury arc rectifier the cathode voltage drop is because of Surface Resistance Expenditure of energy in librating electrons from mercury Expenditure of energy in ionization Expenditure of energy in overcoming the electrostatic field The answer is Expenditure of energy in librating electrons from mercury 26. The average life of the glass bulb rectifier is 80 to 1000 Hours 2000 to 2500 Hours 10,000 to 15,000 Hours 200,000 to 250,000 Hours The answer is 10,000 to 15,000 Hours 27. The vacuum inside the glass bulb of a mercury arc rectifier is of the order of 5 x 10^-3 cm of Hg 5 x 10^-4 cm of Hg 5 x 10^-5 cm of Hg 5 x 10^-6 cm of Hg The answer is 5 x 10^-5 cm of Hg 28. A 3 anode mercury arc rectifier has an anode current of overlap 300. Neglecting arc drop, the regulation will be approximately 4% 5% 7% 9% The answer is 9% 29. Which of the following is the loss within the mercury arc rectifier chamber Voltage drop at the cathode Voltage drop at the anode Voltage drop in arc All of the above The answer is All of the above 30. For single phase supply frequency of 5 Hz, ripple frequency in full wave rectifier is

250 500 100 200 The answer is 100 31. As compared to a CB amplifier, a CE amplifier has Lower Current Amplification Higher Current Amplification Lower Input Resistance Higher Input Resistance

1. In a mercury arc rectifier Ion stream moves from cathode to anode Current flows from cathode to anode Electron stream moves form anode to cathode Ion stream moves from anode to cathode The answer is Ion stream moves from anode to cathode 2. For producing cathode spot in a mercury arc rectifier An auxiliary electrode is used Tube is evacuated Low mercury vapour pressures are used Anode is heated The answer is Anode is heated 3. If the voltage of anode B is raised to 510 V Anode B will conduct but anode A will also continue to conduct Anode B will not conduct but anode A will continue to conduct Both anodes will not conduct None of these The answer is Anode B will conduct but anode A will also continue to conduct 4. Ripple frequency of full wave rectifier working on 50 Hz supply will be 25 Hz 150 Hz 6 anode rectifier with inter phase transformer All will have identical power factor The answer is 25 Hz

5. The form factor for half-wave rectifier sine wave is 1.05 1.15 1.45 1.57 The answer is 1.57 6. A silicon controlled rectifier is a Unijuction device Device with three junctions Device with four junctions None of the above The answer is Device with three junctions 7. For full-wave rectifier sine wave, form factor is 1.55 1.44 1.22 1.11 The answer is 1.11 8. At absolute zero temperature a semi-conductor behaves as An Insulator A Super-Conductor A Good Conductor A Variable Resistor The answer is An Insulator 9. An electron in the conduction band Has higher energy than the electron in the valence band Has lower energy than the electron in the valence band Loses its charge easily Jumps to the top of the crystal The answer is Has higher energy than the electron in the valence band 10. EG for silicon is 1.12 eV and for germanium is 0.72 eV thus it can be conducted that More number of electron-hole pairs will be generated in silicon than in germanium at room temperature Less number of electron hole pairs will be generated in silicon than in germanium at room temperature Equal number of electron hole pairs will be generated in both at lower temperatures

Equal number of electron hole pairs will be generated in both at higher temperatures The answer is Less number of electron hole pairs will be generated in silicon than in germanium at room temperature 11. Before doping semiconductor material is generally Dehydrated Heated Hardened Purified The answer is Purified 12. Select the one that is a acceptor impurity element Antimony Gallium Arsenic Phosphorous The answer is Gallium 13. At room temperature when a voltage is applied to an intrinsic semiconductor Most of the electrons and holes move towards negative terminal Most of the electrons and holes move towards positive terminal Electrons move towards positive terminal and holes towards negative terminal Electrons move towards negative terminal and holes towards positive terminal The answer is Electrons move towards positive terminal and holes towards negative terminal 14. Under which of the following conditions avalanche breakdown in a semiconductor diode takes place ? When potential barrier is reduced to zero When reverse bias exceeds a certain value When forward bias exceeds a certain value When forward current exceeds a certain value The answer is When reverse bias exceeds a certain value 15. Select the rectifier that needs four diodes Half wave rectifier Center-tap full wave rectifier Bridge rectifier None of the above The answer is Bridge rectifier 16. Maximum forward current in case of signal diode is in the range of 1A to 10A

0.1A to 1A Few milli amperes Few nano amperes The answer is Few milli amperes 17. In a semiconductor avalanche breakdown takes place when Reverse bias exceeds the limiting value Forward bias exceeds the limiting value Forward current exceeds the limiting value Potential barrier is reduced to zero The answer is Reverse bias exceeds the limiting value 18. The D.C output voltage from a power supply Increases with higher values of filter capacitance and decreases with more load current Decreases with higher values of filter capacitance and increases with more load current Decreases with higher values of filter capacitance as well as with more load current Increases with higher values of filter capacitance as well as with more load current The answer is Increases with higher values of filter capacitance and decreases with more load current 19. A solar cell provides a example of Photo Voltaic Cell Photo Conductive Cell Photo Emissive Cell Photo Radiation Cell The answer is Photo Voltaic Cell 20. When yellow light is incident on a surface, no electrons are emitted while green light can emit. If red light is incident on the surface, then it is expected that No electrons are emitted Hotons are emitted Electrons of higher energy are emitted Electrons of lower energy are emitted The answer is No electrons are emitted 21. An ideal diode should have Zero resistance in the forward bias as well as reverse bias Zero resistance in the forward bias and an infinitely large resistance in reverse bais Infinitely large resistance in reverse bias Infinitely large resistance in forward as well as reverse bais The answer is Zero resistance in the forward bias and an infinitely large resistance in reverse bais 22. The reverse resistance of a PN juction diode

Is always low Is always high Is given by breakdown voltage / reverse leakage current Is given by forward voltage / reverse leakage current The answer is Is given by breakdown voltage / reverse leakage current 23. In which case the temperature coefficient is positive Intrinsic Semi-Conductor Extrinsic Semi-Conductor Both intrinsic as well as extrinsic semi-conductor Neither intrinsic nor extrinsic semi-conductor The answer is Extrinsic Semi-Conductor 24. A PNP transistor is generally made of Silicon Germanium Either silicon or germanium None of the above The answer is Either silicon or germanium 25. In a transistor the region that is very lightly doped and is very thin is Emitter Base Collector None of these The answer is Base 26. In a NPN transitor, when emitter junction is forward biased and collector junction is reverse biased, the transistor will operate in Active Region Saturated Region Cut of Region Inverted Region The answer is Active Region 27. A transistor will operate in inverted region if Emitter junction is forward biased and collector junction is reverse biased Emitter junction is reverse biased and collector junction is forward biased Emitter junction as well as collector junction are forward biased Emitter junction as well as collector junction are reverse biased

The answer is Emitter junction is reverse biased and collector junction is forward biased 28. Which of the following is essential for transistor action ? The base region must be very wide The base region must be very narrow The base region must be made of some insulating material The collector region must be heavily doped The answer is The base region must be very narrow 29. In a transistor, current ICBO flows when Some D.C voltage is applied in the reverse direction to the emitter junction with the collector open circuited Some D.C voltage is applied in the forward direction to the collector junction with the emitter open circuited Some D.C voltage is applied in the reverse direction to the collector junction with the emitter open circuited Some D.C voltage is applied in the forward direction to the emitter junction with the collector open circuited The answer is Some D.C voltage is applied in the reverse direction to the collector junction with the emitter open circuited 30. The current Icbo Increases with increase in temperature Is normally greater for silicon transistors than germanium transistors Mainly depends on the emitter base junction Depends largely on the emitter doping The answer is Increases with increase in temperature 31. Thermal runway of a transitor occurs when Heat dissipation from transistor is excessive Transistor joints melt due to high temperature There is excessive leakage current due to temperature rise None of above 1. For the purpose of comparison, the steam generating capacity of a boiler is generally expressed in terms of equivalent evaporation kg/hr steam pressure thermal efficiency The answer is equivalent evaporation 2. One of the following methods is adopted for governing of steam turbines in a power plant hit and miss governing

blow off in boiler throttle governing speed control The answer is throttle governing 3. An aircraft gas turbine operates on Sterling cycle Bryton cycle Rankine cycle Otto cycle The answer is Bryton cycle 4. The output of a gas turbine is 300 KW and its efficiency is 20 percent, the heat supplied is 150 KW 6000 KW 600 KW 15 KW The answer is 15 KW 5. Which of the following is not used as a refrigerant ? carbon monoxide amonia sulphur dioxide carbon dioxide The answer is carbon monoxide 6. A refigerant used in the domestic refrigerator is Sulphur dioxide air methane freon The answer is freon 7. In Industry of the developed nations the type of production most often occurring is Mass production Batch production Single lot production Create lot production The answer is Batch production 8. Quick return motion is used in a

lathe drilling shaper grinder The answer is shaper 9. Draft on a pattern is provided for facilitating pattern making easy lifting of the casting facilitating withdrawal of the pattern from the mould providing for strinkage of the casting The answer is providing for strinkage of the casting 10. Which of the following operations cannot be performed on a lathe facing drilling thread cutting slotting The answer is slotting 11. The pump with a low initial cost and low maintenance cost is gear pump bucket pump double acting piston pump centrifugal pump The answer is centrifugal pump 12. Mandrels are used to hold cutting tools hollow work pieces face plate drill bits The answer is hollow work pieces 13. The operation of enlarging of a hole is called drilling reaming boring counter sinking The answer is boring

14. In upcut milling the work piece is fed at angle of 60 deg to the cutter against the rotating cutter at the right angle to the cutter in the direction of the cutter The answer is against the rotating cutter 15. Sprue is the passing provided for the outflow smooth flow inflow solidification of the molten material The answer is inflow 16. Feed in a lathe is expressed in mm per revolution mm per degree mm rpm The answer is mm per revolution 17. Rapping allowance is provided on a pattern to take care of shrinkage distortion machining easy withdrawl The answer is easy withdrawl 18. Upsetting is the term used in one of the following operations casting turning drilling forging The answer is forging 19. Reducing flame is obtained in oxyactetylane welding with excess oxygen equal parts of both gases excess of acetylene reduced acetylene

The answer is excess of acetylene 20. Brasses and bronzes are welded using neutral flame oxidizing flames carburising flame reducing flame The answer is neutral flame 21. One of the materials used for making surface plate is granite brass stainless steel wood The answer is granite 22. In a process chart the inverted triangle symbol indicates an operation inspection storage transport The answer is storage 23. One of the following function is not performed by coating on the welding electrodes increase the cooling rate provide protective atmosphere refuce oxidation stabilize the arc The answer is increase the cooling rate 24. Feeler gauges are used for measuring the thickness of plates clearances between mating parts pitch of screw threads radius of curvature The answer is clearances between mating parts 25. A micrometer screw has pitch of 0.5 mm and the themble has 100 equal divisions marked on it, the least count of the instrument in mm is 0.05 0.5 0.025

0.005 The answer is 0.005 26. One of the following objectives is not achieved by the process of annealing to relieve internal stress to refine grain structure to increase the yield point to soften the metal The answer is to increase the yield point 27. In oxacetylane welding, acetylene is produced using Ca (OH)2 and CO2 Ca C2 and H2O CaCO3 and H2O CH4 and H2SO4 The answer is Ca C2 and H2O 28. A product layout is generally suggested for continuous type of production jobbing work batch production efficient machine utilisation The answer is continuous type of production 29. The objective of time study is to determine the time taken by a new worker a trainee a very good worker efficient machine utilization The answer is efficient machine utilization 30. The break even point is that volume of production where no profit exists maximum profits are obtained fixed costs are less minimum losses occur The answer is no profit exists 31. The melting point of the filler material in brazing should be above 420 deg C 600 deg C

800 deg C 1000 deg C 1. Work done in a free expansion process is Zero Minimum Maximum P1 V1 - P2 V2/(n-1) The answer is Zero 2. A system absorbs 100 k J of heat and the increase in its internal energy is 100 kJ; the work done is 200kJ 0kJ -200kJ 100kJ The answer is 0kJ 3. The specific heats of the gas at constant pressure and constant volume are respectively 1.0 kJ/kg K and 0.72 kJ/kg K; the value of R for the gas is 0.272 kJ/kg K 1.71 kJ/kg K 29 Nm/kg K 290 Nm/kg K The answer is 0.272 kJ/kg K 4. he compression ratio for a petrol engine generally lies between 6 and 10 14 and 22 2 and 8 10 and 14 The answer is 10 and 14 5. The SFC of an engine is 0.25 kg/kW hr. when the fuel used has a calorific value of 36000 kJ/kg. the thermal efficiency of the engine is 50% 25% 40% 27% The answer is 40% 6. When steam condenses and becomes water at the same temperature, the specific heat for the process in kJ/kg k is infinity

0.5 1.0 0.25 The answer is 1.0 7. In vapour absorption refrigeration machine fluids used are freon and lithium bromide water and ammonia brine and sulphur dioxide air and water The answer is water and ammonia 8. In a carnot engine with an efficiency of 40%, the heat rejected to the sink at 27 C is 60 kJ, then the heat supplied in kJ to the engine by the sources is 24 56 100 50 The answer is 100 9. In a simple spur gear train, gears with 24, 48, 32, 72 and 96 teeth are in sequence. The gear with 24 teeth runs at 900 rpm. The speed in rpm of gear with 72 teeth is 450 225 2700 300 The answer is 300 10. a governer in an Ic engine controls the mean speed variation cyclic speed variation load fluctuations exhaust gas temperature The answer is load fluctuations 11. For a spring controlled governer the relation F = ar+b (F is the controlling force, r is the radius of rotation a and b are constants), indicates that the governer is unstable stable insochronous satisfactory

The answer is unstable 12. 1.25 kg of hydrogen are burnt with stiochiometric air, the mass of air in kg required is (choose the nearest value) 10.0 21.6 43.5 48.6 The answer is 43.5 13. A low wet bulb temperature indicates cool air cool air with high specific humidity cool air with high enthalpy cool air with low specific humidity The answer is cool air with high specific humidity 14. The moisture in air will condense at wet bulb temperature low point temperature saturaion temperature dry bulb temperature The answer is low point temperature 15. Air refrigeration cycle works on the Brayton cycle Bell Coleman cycle Carnot cycle Sterling cycle The answer is Bell Coleman cycle 16. A feather key is on one the following types sunk tapered parallel tangent The answer is sunk 17. A cotter joint is generally used to transmit torque shear forces tensile forces

bending forces The answer is shear forces 18. The screw thread commonly used for transmission of motion is one of the following types of threads acme vee knuckle British Association The answer is acme 19. In a flange coupling, the flange bolts are designed for fatigue shear forces compression tensile forces The answer is shear forces 20. In power transmission using open belts or horizontal shafts it is preferable to have the slack side of the belt on the top because the belt length is smaller the slip is more the angle of contact is more it is safe The answer is the angle of contact is more 21. Centrifugal tension in belts results in increased power transmission reduced power transmission increased belt velocity same power transmission The answer is reduced power transmission 22. One of the following materials is comonly used for bearings steel gun metal zinc aluminium The answer is gun metal 23. Babbitt metal is an alloy of tin, copper, antimony and lead

copper, zinc and tin iron and tungsten tin, copper, lead and phosphorous The answer is tin, copper, antimony and lead 24. A mass of 40 kg is about to slide down when placed on a plane inclined at 30 degree to horizontal. The coefficient of friction between the plane and the mass is 3/2 2/3 1/3 4/3 The answer is 1/3 25. Two forces of magnitude 30 N and 40 N act at right angles at a point, the magnitude of the resultant force is 50N 10N 70N 35N The answer is 50N 26. A simply supported beam has a uniformly distributed load on it, the bending moment diagram is triangle parabola semicircle rectangle The answer is parabola 27. A 3m long simply supported beam has a load of 60 N acting at a distance of 1m from the left hand support, the shear force at a distance 1m from the right hand support is 60 N 40 N 20Nm 20 N The answer is 20 N 28. A box of 10 kg mass is being pulled to the left by a force of 10 N and to the right by a force of 15 N, both forces acting parallel to each other. The acceleration of the box in m/s^2 is 2.0 1.5 0.5 zero

The answer is 0.5 29. An object moves on a horizontal plane at a velocity of 1 m/sec. If no external force acts ont the object, its velocity after 5 sec, is 25 m/s 5 m/s 1 m/s 125 m/s The answer is 1 m/s 30. A square block wieghtining 30N rests on the ground, the coefficient of friction between the block and the ground is 0.6. The force required to pull the block horizontally is 30 N 50 n 15 N 18 N The answer is 18 N 31. A military organisation is known as Line organisation Line and staff organisation Functional organisation Staff organisation 1. The purpose of chaplets is to Ensure directional solidification Provide efficient venting Functions as lower and upper parts of the moulding box support the cores The answer is Ensure directional solidification 2. The main constituent moulding sand is Carbon Graphite Clay Silicon The answer is Silicon 3. Shrinkage allowance is made by Adding to external and internal dimensions Subtracting from external and adding to internal dimensions Subtracting from external and internal dimensions

Adding to external and subtracting from internal dimension The answer is Adding to external and subtracting from internal dimension 4. A large intricate heavy casting weighing two tons is to be cast. The most appropriate moulding process would be Machine moulding Pit moulding Cement moulding Ceramic moulding The answer is Machine moulding 5. A force of 250 N acts for 0.5 sec on a body of mass 20 kg. which is initially at rest. The velocity attained by the body in m/sec is 6.25 5.25 52.5 62.5 The answer is 62.5 6. The potential energy of body of mass one kg placed at a height of one metre is 9800 J 980 J 9.8 J 98 J The answer is 9.8 J 7. The unit of energy is S.I. system is Newton Pascal Joule Watt The answer is Joule 8. A 98N force is sufficient to pull a 100 kg block on horizontal table at a uniforce speed. If g=9.8 m/s^2, the coefficient of friction is 0.98 0.1 0.01 0.098 The answer is 0.1 9. In a lifting machine, a load of 240 N is being raised and the velocity ratio is 20. If the efficiency of the machine is 40%, the effort is equal to

20N 25N 30N 35N The answer is 30N 10. Two masses of 10 gm and 4 gm are moving with equal kinetic energy. The ratio of their linear momentum is 1:2 3:1 4:1 1:16 The answer is 4:1 11. Centrifugal tension in belts Reduce power transmission Increase power transmission Does not effect power transmission The effect is not definite The answer is Reduce power transmission 12. In V-belts the contact between the pulley and the belt is at the Bottom only Both side and bottom Top and bottom Sides only The answer is Bottom only 13. At half load the steam, consumption in the throttle governed engine is 'S1' and in a cut off governed engine it is 'S2' under similar condition S2>S1 S2=S1 S2=S1/4 S2<S1< label> The answer is S2>S1 14. For gas turbines, the compressors used are Reciprocating type Centrifugal type Axial flow type Sliding value type

The answer is Reciprocating type 15. In vapour compression refrigeration system, compressor is used because It increases cooling effect of cycle It makes possible, to remove heat from refrigerant at atmospheric pressure It increases the coefficient of performance of the system It removes thermal properties of refrigerant The answer is It removes thermal properties of refrigerant 16. In a mechanical refrigeration system, the highest temperature of refrigerant occurs, Between condenser and evaporater In evaporator Before expansion value Between compressor and condenser The answer is Between compressor and condenser 17. A sine bar cannot be used without Angle gauge Vernier calliper Slip gauge Micrometer The answer is Angle gauge 18. Which one of the following is not part of combination set? Try square Scale Bevel Protractor Dial guage The answer is Scale 19. For machining the flange of a 90 elbow on a lathe, the following holding device is used. Lathe dog Catch plate Angle plate Face plate The answer is Face plate 20. The purpose of tumbler gears in lathe is to Cut gears Cut threads Reduce spindle speeds

Give desired direction of movement to the lathe carriage The answer is Give desired direction of movement to the lathe carriage 21. Permeability, in relation to moulding sands, is high for coarse grains fine grains round grains medium grains The answer is coarse grains 22. In a typical lathe machining, discontinuous chips are formed when machining carbon steel copper steel at high speed mild steel The answer is copper 23. Gnatt chart is used for efficient machine utilisation production scheduling manpower utilisation routing The answer is production scheduling 24. Pipes subjected to high pressures are generally made by slush casting pressure casting extrusion centrifugal casting The answer is centrifugal casting 25. Cobalt is added to high speed steel (H.S.S.) to increase ductility increase wear resistance increases hot hardness increase fatigue The answer is increases hot hardness 26. During cold working, metals are worked below their recrystalization temperature below room temperature

below their melting point below 200 degree celcius The answer is below their recrystalization temperature 27. Cores are used in a mould to make it symmetrical hollow strong smooth The answer is hollow 28. Angle plate is used for cutting tapers in a lathe cutting angles in a shaper cutting gear in a milling fixing job to cut angles is a grinder The answer is cutting angles in a shaper 29. A vent wire is used in Foundry Cold forging Hot forging Fitting The answer is Hot forging 30. The purpose of using flux in soldering is to Increase fluidity of solder material Fill up gaps in bad joint Prevent oxide formation Lower the melting temperature of the solder The answer is Increase fluidity of solder material 31. Cope in foundry practice refers to Bottom half of moulding box Top half of moulding box Middle portion of the moulding box Coating on the mould face

1. When small castings are to be produced in large numbers, the type of pattern generally used will be match plate pattern

sweep pattern solid pattern split pattern The answer is match plate pattern 2. Cylindrical bores are measured using plug gauges cylindrical gauges master gauges universal The answer is cylindrical gauges 3. The operation of finishing a drilled hole to the correct size is known reaming counter sinking counter boring spot facing The answer is reaming 4. One of the most important techniques of establishing the standard time of doing a job is through method study time study job evaluation merit rating The answer is time study 5. Hardened gears are finished by milling gear grindling gear shaping gear shaving The answer is gear grindling 6. The tool life is affected to the maximum extent by the cutting speed the feed the depth of cut the size of the tool The answer is the cutting speed 7. The centrifugal tension in belts

increase power transmission decrease power transmission doubles the power transmission does not affect the power transmission in any way The answer is decrease power transmission 8. A process in which no heat is supplied or rejected and entropy is constant is known as adiabatic process isentroic process polytropic process isothermal process The answer is isentroic process 9. Critical pressure ratio for a convergent nozzle is the ratio of the pressures at the outlet and inlet of nozzle the ratio of the pressures at the outlet of nozzle the ratio of the pressures at outlet and inlet of nozzle when the mass flow is a maximum

The answer is the ratio of the pressures at outlet and inlet of nozzle when the mass flow is a maximum 10. A belt can transmit maximum power when the total tension of the drive is equal to the centrifugal tension twice the centrifugal tension three times the centrifugal tension four times the centrifugal tension The answer is three times the centrifugal tension 11. Curtis turbine is a pressure-compounded turbine velocity-compounded turbine pressure-velocity compounded turbine reaction turbine The answer is velocity-compounded turbine 12. Newton is a unit of Mass Momentum Force Energy The answer is Force

13. Air fule ratio in a jet engine is 10:1 40:1 60:1 90:1 The answer is 60:1 14. Which one of the following is spring loaded type Watt governor Hartnel governor Porter governor Propel governor The answer is Hartnel governor 15. The part which provides simple harmonic to the D-slide valce of a steam engine is called eccentric rod valve rod piston rod fly wheel The answer is valve rod 16. The refrigerant used in vapour absorption refrigeration Freon-12 ammonia CO2 Aqua-ammonia The answer is Aqua-ammonia 17. The compression ratio of a petrol engine is approximately 3:1 7:1 18:1 25:1 The answer is 7:1 18. The dimensional formula MLT^2 represents velocity acceleration momentum force

The answer is force 19. The function of a carburettor is to supply air and diesel air only air and petrol petrol The answer is air and petrol 20. For cooling the pistons of diesel engine common fluid used is air water fuel oil lubricating oil The answer is lubricating oil 21. To produce a spark across the gap of a spark plug, the voltage used is 1000 to 2000 volts 2000 to 4000 volts 4000 to 6000 volts 6000 to 10000 volts The answer is 6000 to 10000 volts 22. For the steam which is initially saturated andflowing through a nozzle, the ratio of pressures at exit and inlet for maximum discharge is equal to 0.545 0.582 0.5 0.6 The answer is 0.582 23. A stone of mass 1 kg tied to a string of 1 metre long is rotated in a horizontal circle at a constant angular speed of 5 rad/sec, then the tension in the string will be 5N 10N 15N 25N The answer is 25N 24. A lift descends with an acceleration of 0.5 metres/sec^2 from the top floor of a multistoried building. The time required to travel a distance of 25 metres will be 5 sec 8 sec

10 sec 12 sec The answer is 10 sec 25. The coefficient of Performance for a refrigerator will be 0.001 0.10 1.00 above 1.0 The answer is above 1.0 26. If the acceleration due to gravity is doubled at any place, the weight of the body will be half double same 2g times The answer is double 27. The internal energy of a gas is a function of pressure only function of volume only function of temperature only function of pressure and volume The answer is function of temperature only 28. The unit of power is SI unit is Joule Watt Erg kg-m The answer is Watt 29. In a flow through nozzle, the steam undergoes constant pressure process constant volume process adiabatic process isothermal process The answer is constant volume process 30. Welding defect called Arc blow occurs in Arc welding using AC current

Arc welding using DC current Gas Welding MIG welding The answer is MIG welding 31. Draft on a pattern is provided for facilitating pattern making easy lifting of the casting facilitating withdrawal of the pattern from the mould providing for strinkage of the casting 1. Direct expense includes factory expenses selling costs material costs administrative expenses The answer is material costs 2. Select the proper sequence of the activities given: (i) Dispatching (ii) Routing (iii) Schedules (i), (ii), (iii) (iii), (ii), (i) (i), (iii), (ii) (iii), (i), (ii) The answer is (iii), (ii), (i) 3. Cast iron contains one of the following % of carbon 0.3 to 0.6 % 0.05 to 0.3 % 0.6 to 1.3 % 2 to 4 % The answer is 2 to 4 % 4. Rack and pinion arrangement is used for linear motion of rotary motion rotary motion to rotary motion linear to linear motion rotary to linear motion The answer is rotary to linear motion 5. Tungsten is HSS imparts corrosion resistance

red hardness ductility shock resistance The answer is red hardness 6. An error of 5% occurred ducing the measurement of the dia of a cylindrical part. The likely error in the calculated weight of the part is 10 % 5% 1% 7.5 % The answer is 10 % 7. The operation chart indicates method of assembly sequence of operation times for each operation layout of machines The answer is times for each operation 8. Standard data used in work study is a table of time required for various jobs catalogue of material properties table of cost of components catalogue of elemental time standard The answer is catalogue of elemental time standard 9. Two stroke IC engines are commonly used in 2 wheelers because the power to weight ratio is high thermal efficiency is high lube oil consumption is less cnoise is less The answer is power to weight ratio is high 10. High carbon steel has a carbon content of 1 to 3 % 0.5 to 1 % 0.8 to 2 % 2 to 4 % The answer is 0.8 to 2 %

11. The equipment used for transporting material horizontally as well as vertically which saves labour cost is trucks car dumper trailers conveyors The answer is conveyors 12. For large power production, it is economical to set up diesel plants steam power plants gas turbines hydro-electric plants The answer is hydro-electric plants 13. During tensile testing on a specimen cup and cone formation is observed with cast iron cast steel mild steel glass The answer is mild steel 14. When water at atmospheric pressure is heated from 40 deg to 80 deg, the heat absorbed is sensible heat latent heat super heat specific heat The answer is sensible heat 15. For comfort air conditioning the conditions maintained are 15 deg dbt to 20 deg Wbt 25 deg dbt to 60 % RH 40 deg dbt and 40 deg Wbt 25 deg dbt and 80 % RH The answer is 25 deg dbt to 60 % RH 16. For transmitting power without slip one of the following drives is used belt drives rope drives cone pulleys chain drives

The answer is chain drives 17. For chain drives the small sprockets should have a minimum number of teeth of 17 25 27 31 The answer is 17 18. The angular speed of watt governor, when its height is 98 mm is equal to 10 rad/s 9.8 rad/s 98 rad/s 5 rad/s The answer is 10 rad/s 19. The area under pressure volume curve of any thermodynamic process represents heat rejected only heat absorbed only heat absorbed and rejected work done The answer is heat absorbed and rejected 20. First law of the thermodynamics deals with conversation of mass heat momentum energy The answer is energy 21. The number of valves in a two stroke engine is 0 1 2 4 The answer is 0 22. A perfect gas at 27 C is heated at constant pressure as to trible its volume the temperature of the gas will be 81 deg C 270 deg C 627 deg C

900 deg C The answer is 81 deg C 23. In a pertrol engine the theoretical ratio of air to fuel is approximately 3:1 5:1 15:1 30:1 The answer is 5:1 24. Chunk used on turret lathe is Four jaw self centering chunk Collect chunk Three jaw independent chunk Magnetic chunk The answer is Three jaw independent chunk 25. Bore and stroke of a double acting steam engine cylinder are 30 cms and 50 cms respectively. If the IHP on crank end is 1% less than IHP on cover end, the diameter of piston rod is 1 cm 2 cm 3 cm 2.5 cm The answer is 3 cm 26. Kerosene is used as coolant, while machining mild steel cast iron stainless steel aluminium The answer is cast iron 27. ABC analysis deals with Analysis of process chart Flow of material Ordering schedule of job Controlling inventory costs The answer is Controlling inventory costs 28. The basic tool of work study is process chart planning chart

bar chart stop watch The answer is stop watch 29. Routing prescribes The flow of materials in the point Proper utilization of man power Proper utilization of machines Inspection of final product The answer is The flow of materials in the point 30. Bin cards are used in Machine loading Fixing targets Quality control Stores The answer is Stores 31. Quick return motion is used in a lathe drilling machine shaper grinder 1. The bed of a machine tool is normally made of C.I. Medium Carbon steel Alloy steel Mild steel The answer is C.I. 2. For transmitting power between two shafts which are at right angles but non-intersecting, the gearing used is worm and worm wheel spur gearing helical gearing beve; gearing The answer is beve; gearing 3. In a lifting machine, a load of 50 KN is moved by a distance of 10 KN which moves through a distance of 1 m, the efficincy of the machine is 20%

50% 10% 40% The answer is 50% 4. The spindles of bench vices are usually provided with Buttress threads square threads acme threads V-threads The answer is acme threads 5. Complementary shear stresses equal to 200 KN/m^2 are acting on the side of a square 1m*1m, the stress on the diagonal is 200 KN/m^2 shear 200/2 KN/m^2, tensile 200 KN/m^2, tensile 200/2 KN/m^2, shear The answer is 200 KN/m^2, tensile 6. First law of thermodynamics involves the concept of absolute temperature entropy work done internal energy The answer is internal energy 7. The kinetic energy of a body of a mass 2kg, when it falls in air from rest through a height of 5 m is 98.1 J 9.8 Nm 10 n 20 j The answer is 98.1 J 8. Indicated thermal efficiency of an engine is Brake power/Indicated power Indicated power/Mechanical efficiency Brake thermal efficiency/Mechanical efficiency Brake power/Mechanical efficiency The answer is Brake thermal efficiency/Mechanical efficiency 9. The approximate air fuel ratio in a diesel engine under rated conditions is

12 to 1 20 to 1 15 to 11 80 to 1 The answer is 20 to 1 10. A 4 cylinder 4 stroke diesel engine has 3000 power strokes per minute; its speed in RPM is 3000 6000 750 1500 The answer is 6000 11. One of the following type of pumps is used in a diesel engine jet pump reciprocating pump gear pump axial flow pump The answer is reciprocating pump 12. In a six cylinder 4 stroke petrol engine running at 2000 RPM, the cam shaft runs at 1000 RPM 2000 RPM 6000 RPM 500 RPM The answer is 2000 RPM 13. The inlet valve in a 4 stroke IC engine opens after TDC before BDC before TDC after BDC The answer is before TDC 14. The gudgeion pin connects the connecting rod and the crank piston and crank crank and connecting rod piston and the connecting rod The answer is piston and the connecting rod

15. The cost of lubricating oils in a machine shop may be classified as direct material cost prime cost factory overhead cost administrative overhead cost The answer is factory overhead cost 16. The thermo dynamic cycle used in a petrol engine is the constant pressure cycle Carnot cycle Rankine cycle constant volume cycle The answer is constant volume cycle 17. A 4 stroke 2 cylinder deisel engine has an IMEP of 4 bar and a mechanical efficiency of 80 per cent, the brake mean effective pressure is 3.2 bar 5.0 bar 6.4 bar 2.5 bar The answer is 3.2 bar 18. In an inpulse turbine the velocity of steam remains constant in the nozzles moving blades fixed blades casing The answer is moving blades 19. Parson's turbine is an example of a impulse turbine reaction turbine radial flow turbine water turbine The answer is reaction turbine 20. An example of a water tube boiler is a Locomotive boiler Lancashire boiler Babcock-Wilcox boiler Cochran boiler

The answer is Babcock-Wilcox boiler 21. Which one of the following is a boiler mounting? fusible plug super heater economiser chimney The answer is fusible plug 22. In our state a super thermal power station is located at Hyderabad Vijayawada Nellore Ramagundam The answer is Ramagundam 23. Super heated steam at 20 bar enters a nozzle, for maximum discharge the throat pressure should be 16 bar 10.92 bar 10 bar 11.6 bar The answer is 10.92 bar 24. For the purpose of comparison, the steam generating capacity of a boiler is generally expressed in terms of equivalent evaporation kg/hr steam pressure thermal efficiency The answer is equivalent evaporation 25. One of the following methods is adopted for governing of steam turbines in a power plant hit and miss governing blow off in boiler throtle governing speed control The answer is throtle governing 26. An aircraft gas turbine operates on Sterling cycle Bryton cycle

Rankine cycle Otto cycle The answer is Bryton cycle 27. The output of a gas turbine is 3000 KW and its efficiency is 20 percent, the heat supplied is 150 KW 6000 KW 600 MW 15 MW The answer is 15 MW 28. Which one of the following is not used as a refrigerant? carbon monoxide ammonia sulphur dioxide carbon dioxide The answer is carbon monoxide 29. The refrigerant used in the domestic refrigerator is sulphur dioxide air methane Freon The answer is Freon 30. In industry of developed nations the type of production most often occuring is Mass production Batch production Single lot production Create lot production The answer is Batch production 31. The operation which can not be performed on a lathe machine is facing drilling thread cutting slotting