GENERAL ANATOMY & PhYSIOLOGY Dr. Jhomileen C.

de Vera

1. Of the following vessels, which one plays a significant role in peripheral vascular resistance and in the regulation of blood pressure? a. Capillaries b. Arterioles c. Veins d. Venules

b. Arterioles

vascular resistance - opposition to blood flow due to friction between the blood and the walls of blood vessels.
peripheral vascular resistance - vascular resistances offered by systemic blood vessels

Blood pressure - the hydrostatic pressure exerted by blood on the walls of a blood vessel

2. Which of the following is the principal artery to the nasal cavity, supplying the conchae, meatus, and paranasal sinuses? a. Anterior tympanic artery b. Sphenopalatine artery c. Middle meningeal artery d. Lingual artery

b. Sphenopalatine artery

3. Which of the following is the most prominent functional component on the tunica media of small arteries? a. collagen fibers b. elastic fibers c. smooth muscle cells d. skeletal muscle cells

c. smooth muscle cells

4. The exchange of nutrients and wastes between blood and tissue takes place across the walls of: a. Veins b. Arteries c. Capillaries d. Venules e. Arterioles

c. Capillaries

5. Which artery listed below supplies the brain through its terminal branchesthe anterior and middle cerebral arteries? a. vertebral artery b. coronary artery c. internal carotid artery d. superior mesenteric artery

c. internal carotid artery

6. Which of the following are the two terminal branches of the internal thoracic artery? a. superior epigastric and musculophrenic arteries b. anterior and posterior intercostal arteries c. subclavian and inferior epigastric arteries d. NOTA

a. superior epigastric and musculophrenic arteries

7. Which of the following substitute for capillaries in the liver, spleen, pituitary gland, adrenal gland, carotid body, pancreas, and parathyroid glands? a. lymph nodes b. venules c. sinusoids d. lacteals

c. sinusoids

8. The liquid portion of the blood: a. formed elements b. saline c. plasma d. lymph

c. plasma

9. Which of the following arteries supply the stomach? a. Right and left gastric arteries b. Right and left gastroepiploic arteries c. Short gastric arteries d. All of the above

d. All of the above

11. The inferior mesenteric artery supplies all of the following organs, except the: a. sigmoid colon b. descending colon c. transverse colon d. rectum e. ascending colon

e. ascending colon

11. In the adult, hematopoiesis occurs in which two types of tissue listed below? a. nervous tissue b. lymphoid tissue c. muscle tissue d. myeloid tissue

b. lymphoid tissue d. myeloid tissue

13. The inferior nasal concha is part of which bone listed below? a. nasal bone b. sphenoid bone c. ethmoid bone d. NOTA

d. NOTA

14. The pterygoid processes are part of which bone listed below? a. palatine bone b. temporal bone c. sphenoid bone d. occipital bone

c. sphenoid bone

15. The middle ear cavity and the sphenoid sinus are separated by a thin layer of bone from which cranial fossa listed below? a. anterior cranial fossa b. middle cranial fossa c. posterior cranial fossa

b. middle cranial fossa

16. The os coxa or hipbone is formed by the fusion of which three structures listed below? a. ilium b. ischium c. acetabulum d. pubis

a. Ilium b. Ischium d. pubis

17. Which of the following cells are found in the seminiferous tubules of the testis? a. endothelial cells b. interstitial cells c. Sertoli cells d. Clara cells

c. Sertoli cells

18. Which cell listed below is committed to differentiate into antibodyproducing plasma cells? a. stem cell b. macrophage c. T cell d. B cell

d. B cell

19. The basophils in the circulating blood are similar to which cell listed below? a. platelet b. mast cell c. macrophage d. Kupffer cell

b. mast cell

20. The facial nerve, the retromandibular vein, the external carotid artery lie within which salivary gland listed below? a. submandibular gland b. parotid gland c. sublingual gland

b. parotid gland

21. Which anterior pituitary hormone listed below controls the production and secretion of hormones called glucocorticoids by the cortex of the adrenal gland? a. Follicle stimulating hormone (FSH) b. Luteinizing hormone (LH) c. Adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH) d. Thyroid Stimulating hormone (TSH)

c. Adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH)

22. Which gland listed below is often called the master endocrine gland? a. hypothalamus b. thymus gland c. pituitary gland d. parathyroid glands

a. hypothalamus

23. Matabolically active follicular colloid in the usual thyroid follicle stains: a. acidophilic b. basophilic

b. basophilic

24. Which duct listed below is the main excretory duct of the pancreas? a. Whartons duct b. duct of Wirsung c. Bartholins duct d. Wolffian duct

b. duct of Wirsung

25. Which structure listed below secretes hormones that are not essential to life? a. adrenal cortex b. anterior pituitary c. adrenal medulla d. pancreatic islets of Langerhans

c. adrenal medulla

26. Which part of the adrenal gland listed below behaves more like neural tissue as opposed to a typical endocrine gland? a. adrenal cortex b. adrenal medulla

b. adrenal medulla

27. A patient was in a bad car accident and received a severe blow to the head that fractured his/her optic canal. Which of the following pairs of structures are most likely tobe injured? a. ophthalmic artery and ophthalmic vein b. optic nerve (CNII) and ophthalmic vein c. optic nerve (CN II) and ophthalmic artery d. ophthalmic nerve (CN V-1) and ophthalmic artery

c. optic nerve (CN II) and ophthalmic artery

28. All of the following nerves pass through the superior orbital fissure, except: a. ophthalmic nerve (CN V-1) b. abducens nerve (CN VI) c. optic nerve (CNII) d. oculomotor nerve (CN III) e. trochlear nerve (CN IV)

c. optic nerve (CNII)

29. The point of exit from the stomach, where the stomach joins with the small intestine, is guarded by a: a. greater omentum b. pyloric sphincter c. lesser omentum d. cardiac orifice

b. pyloric sphincter

30. The nasal cavities are lined by: a. stratified squamous epithelium b. stratified cuboidal epithelium c. pseudostratified ciliated columnar epithelium d. pseudostratified cuboidal epithelium

c. pseudostratified ciliated columnar epithelium

31. The epiploic foramen (Winslows foramen) permits free communication between which two structures listed below? a. large and small intestine b. middle and inner ear c. lesser and greater peritonial sacs d. esophagus and stomach

c. lesser and greater peritonial sacs

32. Brunners glands are found in which area listed below? a. submucosa of the stomach b. submucosa of the duodenum c. submucosa of the jejenum d. submucosa of the ileum

b. submucosa of the duodenum

33. Which cells listed below secrete mucus and are abundant in the ileum of the small intestine? a. Paneth cells b. Absorptive cells c. enteroendocrine cells d. goblet cells

d. goblet cells

34. Which of the following is a small. Pear-shaped muscular sac lying on the undersurface of the liver? a. pancreas b. gallbladder c. stomach d. esophagus

b. gallbladder

35. Which organ listed below extends from the pyloric opening to the ileocecal junction and is where digestion and food absorption mainly take place? a. stomach b. liver c. small intestine d. large intestine

c. small intestine

36. All of the following comparisons between the ileum and jejunum are correct except: a. they are both suspended by mesentery b. the ileum has more plicae circulares (valves of Kerckring) and more villi c. less digestion and absorption of nutrients occur in the ileum d. the mesentery of the ileum contains more fat

b. the ileum has more plicae circulares (valves of Kerckring) and more villi

37. The thick middle muscular layer of the heart wall is called: a. epicardium b. myocardium c. endocardium d. pericardium

b. myocardium

38. Teniae coli are characteristic of which organ listed below: a. stomach b. pancreas c. large intestine d. small intestine

c. large intestine

Mucosa. The mucosa is made up of three components: the epithelium, a supporting lamina propria and a thin smooth muscle layer, the muscularis mucosae, which produces local movement and folding of the mucosa. At four points along the tract, the mucosa undergoes abrupt transition from one form to another: the gastro-oesophageal junction, the gastroduodenal junction, the ileocaecal junction and the recto-anal junction. Submucosa. This layer of loose collagenous supporting tissue supports the mucosa and contains the larger blood vessels, lymphatics and nerves.

Muscularis propria. The muscular wall proper consists of smooth muscle that is usually arranged as an inner circular layer and an outer longitudinal layer. The action of the two layers, at right angles to one another, is the basis of peristaltic contraction. Adventitia. This outer layer of loose supporting tissue conducts the major vessels, nerves and variable adipose tissue. Where the gut lies within the abdominal cavity (peritoneal cavity), the adventitia is referred to as the serosa (visceral peritoneum) and is lined by a simple squamous epithelium (mesothelium). Elsewhere, the adventitial layer merges with retroperitoneal tissues.

As in the rest of the gastrointestinal tract, the muscularis propria of the large intestine consists of inner circular and outer longitudinal layers but the longitudinal layer forms three separate longitudinal bands called teniae coli.

39. The pectinate muscles are located within the heart: a. on the interatrial septum b. in the right ventricle c. on the inner surfaces of the right atrium d. on the sinus venarum e. on the right side of the interventricular septum

c. on the inner surfaces of the right atrium

40. Which heart valve best heard over the apex of the heart? a. tricuspid valve b. mitral valve c. pulmonary valve d. aortic valve

b. mitral valve

41. The fossa ovalis and the anulis ovalis lie on the: a. SA node b. atrial (interatrial) septum c. interventricular(ventricular) septum d. AV node

b. atrial (interatrial) septum

42. The arterial blood supply of the heart is provided by: a. right and left pulmonary arteries b. right and left coronary arteries c. right and left subclavian arteries d. right and left innominate arteries

b. right and left coronary arteries

43. Which chamber of the heart listed below is associated with the apex of the heart? a. right atrium b. left atrium c. right ventricle d. left ventricle

d. left ventricle

44. Which of the following meninges that cover the spinal cord and brain is a dense, strong, fibrous sheet? a. dura mater b. arachnoid mater c. pia mater

a. dura mater

45. Three pairs of veins return most of the venous blood from the head and neck regions to the heart. Which pair listed below does not?

a. right and left internal jugular veins b. right and left external jugular veins c. right and left vertebral veins d. right and left gastric veins

d. right and left gastric veins

46. Which component of the lymphatic system listed below has the following functions: important blood reservoir, phagocytosis of undesirable particles of the blood, and manufactuure of mononuclear leukocytes? a. thymus b. spleen c. bone marrow d. lymph nodes

b. spleen

47. Which muscle of the anterior abdominal wall listed below helps form the cremaster muscle? a. external oblique b. internal oblique c. transversus d. rectus abdominis

b. internal oblique

48. Which of the following is the region where the optic nerve exits the eye? a. lens b. iris c. cornea d. optic disc

d. optic disc

49. Which of the following nerves innervates the TMJ? a. auriculotemporal nerve b. masseteric nerve c. deep temporal nerve d. all of the above

d. all of the above

50. Which opening of the diaphragm listed below transmits the aorta, thoracic duct, and azygos vein? a. aortic opening b. esophageal opening c. caval opening d. NOTA

a. aortic opening

51. The following are essential fatty acids except: a. oleic acid b. linoleic acid c. linolenic acid d. arachidonic acid

a. oleic acid

52. Which of the following nerves passes through the carpal tunnel? a. ulnar nerve b. median nerve c. radial nerve d. none of the above e. no nerve passes through the carpal tunnel

b. median nerve

MEDIAN NERVE: the only nerve inside the carpal tunnel. It innervates: -all of the flexor muscles in the anterior compartment of the forearm, except 1 ms. (flexor carpi ulnaris and median half of flexor digitorum profundus) -All thenar ms except adductor pollicis -lumbricals 1 & 2 -the thumb, index, middle,and half of the ring fingers (cutaneous)

CARPAL TUNNEL: Canal beneath the Transverse Carpal Ligament (a.k.a. flexor retinaculum). -Besides the Median nerve, it also contains 4 flexor digitorum profundus tendons, 4 flexor digitorum superficialis tendons, 1 flexor policis longus tendon.

53. It is defined as the percentage of erythrocytes to total blood volume: a. hemoglobin b. hematocrit c. none of the above

b. Hematocrit
Normal men: 45-50% Normal women: 40-45%

54. The greatest part of Carbon dioxide carried in the blood is in the form of: a. carbaminohemoglobin b. HCO 3 (bicarbonate) in plasma c. HCO 3 (bicarbonate) in erythrocytes d. simple solution in the blood plasma e. H2 CO3 (carbonic acid)

b. HCO 3 (bicarbonate) in plasma

55. Metaphase is a stage in mitotic division in which: a. chromosomes line up in the equatorial plate b. chromosomes migrate toward the polar ends of the cell c. the nuclear chromatin fibers shorten and coil into visible chromosomes d. none of the above

a. chromosomes line up in the equatorial plate

MITOSIS

Prophase

Viewed under a microscope,there are no visible chromosomes They exist,however, in the form of chromatin, the extended, thin strands of DNA.

Replicated, linked DNA strands coil and condense into 2 short, thick, rodlike structures called chromatids, attached by the centromere.

Centrioles, both located on 1 side of the nucleus, separate and move toward opposite poles of the cell, as they radiate thin, hollow proteins called microtubules.

Microtubules arrange themselves in the shape of a football, or spindle that spans the cell.

Disintegration of the nuclear membrane.

Metaphase

Spindle fibers attach to the chromatids near the centromeres, and tug and push the chromatids so that they line up in the equatorial plane.

Anaphase

Centromeres split separating the identical chromatids into single chromosomes, which then move along the spindle fibers to opposite poles of the cell.

Telophase

Two identical groups of single chromosomes congregate at opposite poles of the cell. Cells begin to pinch inward.

Cell membrane divides Spindle fibers disappears

New nuclear membrane forms around each new group of chromosomes.

Viewed under light microscope, chromosomes appear to fade away. They exist,however, in the form of chromatin, the extended, thin strands of DNA.

56. The communication between the infratemporal fossa and the pterygopalatine fossa is the: a. pterygomaxillary fissure b. pterygomaxillary foramen c. pterygopalatine canal d. none of the above

a. pterygomaxillary fissure

Pterygopalatine fossa communications: 1. Laterally with infratemporal fossa thru pterygomaxillary fissure 2. Medially with nasal cavity thru sphenopalatine foramen 3. Superiorly with skull thru foramen rotundum 4. Anteriorly with the orbit thru inferior orbital fissure

57. The temporomandibular ligament is found: a. covering the entire posterior aspect of the TMJ b. on the anterior surface of TMJ c. on the lateral surface of the temporomandibular joint d. connecting the mandibular condyle to the zygomatic bone

c. on the lateral surface of the temporomandibular joint

58. A muscle that acts to protrude the mandible is the: a. Masseter b. Mylohyoid c. Digastric d. Lateral pterygoid

d. Lateral pterygoid

59. The following are arteries that form the Circle of Willis except: a. anterior communicating artery b. anterior cerebral artery c. posterior communicating artery d. posterior cerebral artery e. internal carotid artery f. vertebral artery

f. vertebral artery

60. When a cell is dividing to form two daughter cells, the chromatin threads coil and condense to form dense, rodlike bodies. a. false b. true

b. true

61. The site of ribosome synthesis: a. nucleolus b. nucleus c. cytoplasm d. endoplasmic reticulum

a. nucleolus

62. The site of protein synthesis: a. lysosome b. mitochondria c. ribosome (attached and free) d. none of the above

c. ribosome (attached and free)

63. Which of the following is the site of protein synthesis? a. smooth ER b. rough ER c. golgi apparatus d. lysosome

b. rough ER

The specific sequence of amino acids in a chain determines the exact function of the protein

64. If the anticodon on tRNA is ACG, the codon on mRNA is: a. CGT b. GCA c. CGA d. UAG e. UGC

e. UGC

65. Sequence of protein synthesis: I. as the ribosome moves along the mRNA, a new amino acid is added to the growing protein chain II. incoming tRNA recognizes the complementary mRNA sequence (codon) calling for its amino acid by binding to it via its anticodon III. mRNA is made on DNA template IV. mRNA leaves nucleus and attaches to ribosome, and translation begins
a. I, II, III, IV b. II, III, IV, I c. IV, I, II, I d. III, IV, II, I

d. III, IV, II, I

66. Form myelin sheaths around axons, or enclose unmyelinated axons in the CNS: a. ependymal cells b. oligodentrocytes c. Schwann cells d. neurolemmocytes e. astrocytes f. microglia

b. oligodentrocytes

67. What causes repolarization of the cell membrane in a skeletal muscle action potential? a. influx of Sodium ions b. efflux of potassium ions c. none of the above

b. efflux of potassium ions

68. The visual center of the cerebral cortex is located in the: a. parietal lobe b. occipital lobe c. medulla oblongata d. none of the above

b. occipital lobe

69. Breathing ceases upon the destruction of the: a. cerebrum b. cerebellum c. medulla oblongata d. thalamus e. hypothalamus

c. medulla oblongata

Medulla Oblongata contains nuclei: 1. cardiovascular centerregulates the rate and force of heartbeat and the diameter of blood vessels 2. medullary rhythmicity area of the respiratory centeradjusts the basic rhythm of breathing 3. other nuclei control reflexes for vomiting, coughing, and sneezing

70. The primary auditory complex of the brain is a part of which lobe? a. frontal b. parietal c. occipital d. temporal

d. temporal

71. Which of the following represents the secretory product of the parafollicular cells of the thyroid gland? a. calcitonin b. thyroxine c. iodine d. none of the above

a. calcitonin

72. In human female ovulation is caused by: a. a shift in the anterior pituitary gonadotropin secretion with LH predominating in the mixture b. a sudden increase in FSH secretion by the anterior pituitary c. none of the above

a. a shift in the anterior pituitary gonadotropin secretion with LH predominating in the mixture

73. Progesterone production in the ovary is primarily by: a. corpora albicans b. mature follicles c. corpus luteum d. none of the above

c. corpus luteum

74. Which of the following hormones causes ejection of milk from the mammary glands? a. estrogen and progesterone b. prolactin c. oxytocin d. none of the above

c. oxytocin

a. estrogen and progesterone- help PREPARE mammary glands for milk secretion b. prolactin- INITIATES and MAINTAINS milk secretion c. oxytocin- EJECTION of milk

75. Infections spreading via lymphatics from the lower lip would first enter the bloodstream at the: a. brachiocephalic vein b. inferior labial vein c. inferior labial artery d. pterygoid venous plexus

a. brachiocephalic vein

76. The submental lymph nodes receive lymphatic vessels from any of the following except the: a. mandibular molars b. tip of the tongue c. middle of the lower lip d. mandibular lateral incisors e. mandibular central incisors

a. mandibular molars

77. The majority of the muscles of the of the larynx receive their innervation from the: a. cervical plexus b. laryngeal plexus c. superior laryngeal nerve d. inferior laryngeal nerve

d. inferior laryngeal nerve

78. Acetylcholine is released at all of the following junctions except: a. sympathetic ganglia b. parasympathetic ganglia c. somatic efferents to skeletal system d. terminal sympathetic fibers to the heart e. terminal sympathetic fibers to the adrenal medulla

d. terminal sympathetic fibers to the heart

The neurons that are cholinergic are: 1. all preganglionic neurons 2. anatomically parasympathetic post-ganglionic neurons 3. anatomically sympathetic post-ganglionic neurons which innervate most sweat glands 4. anatomically sympathetic neurons which end on blood vessels in some skeletal muscles and produce vasodilation when stimulated. The remaining post-ganglionic sympathetic neurons are nor-adrenergic.

79. When a patient attempts protrusion, the mandible deviates markedly to the right. Which muscle is unable to contract? a. buccinator muscle b. temporalis muscle c. right lateral pterygoid muscle d. left lateral pterygoid muscle

c. right lateral pterygoid muscle

80. Sensory to the taste buds in the posterior one-third of the tongue: a. CN VII b. CN V c. CN IX d. CN XII

c. CN IX

All muscles of the tongue, except the

palatoglossus (actually a palatine muscle supplied by the pharyngeal plexus thru CN X), receive motor innervation from CN XII, the hypoglossal nerve. For general sensation (touch and

temperature), the mucosa of the anterior two thirds of the tongue is supplied by the

lingual nerve, a branch of CN V3 (Fig. 7.42). For special sensation (taste) of the anterior two thirds of the tongue , this part of the tongue, except for the vallate papillae, is supplied through the chorda tympani nerve, a branch of CN VII. The chorda tympani joins the lingual nerve and runs anteriorly in its sheath.

The mucous membrane of the posterior third of the tongue and the vallate papillae are supplied by the lingual branch of the glossopharyngeal nerve (CN IX) for both general and special sensation. Twigs of the internal laryngeal nerve, a branch of the vagus nerve (CN X), supply mostly general but some

special sensation to a small area of the tongue just anterior to the epiglottis.

81. The following are essential amino acids EXCEPT: a. histidine b. isoleucine c. leucine d. aspartic acid

e. aspartic acid

Essential amino acids: Histidine, isoleucine, leucine, lysine, methionine, phenylalanine, tryptophan, threonine, and valine

82. The dominant adrenergic receptor in the heart is: a. alpha 1 b. alpha 2 c. beta 1 d. beta 2

c. beta 1

Symphatetic/Adrenergic Receptors: Alpha 1- vascular s.m.: vasoconstriction sphincters: contraction/closure pilomotor smooth muscle: contraction radial muscles: contraction Alpha 2- intestinal smooth muscle: relaxation Beta 1- heart: chronotropic, inotropic, dromotropic effects

Beta 2- vascular s.m.(skeletal muscles): vasodilation bronchi: bronchodilation

83. Which of the following describes the Anterior division of the divided portion of the mandibular nerve (V3):

a. gives off a branch to the masseter muscle b. gives off branches to the temporalis muscle c. gives off a branch to the external pterygoid muscle d. gives off a branch to the mucosa of the cheek e. all of the above f. none of the above

e. all of the above

Undivided Nerve: NI
Divided Nerve: Anterior Division: MELT Posterior Division: LIA

84. Innervation of the hard palate except:

a. anterior palatine nerve b. greater palatine nerve c. nasopalatine nerve d. middle palatine nerve

d. middle palatine nerve

85. Maintenance of resting state of a nerve is due to a. Na- K pump b. Na pump c. K pump d. none of the above

a. Na- K pump

86. Which of the following abdominal organs is not located retroperitoneally? a. kidneys b. aorta c. adrenal glands d. liver e. pancreas f. ureters

d. liver

87. The ductus venosus present in the fetus becomes what in the newborn? a. Ligamentum arteriosum b. Ligamentum teres c. Fossa ovalis d. ligamentum venosum

d. ligamentum venosum

88. Which mineral listed below is important in the formation of hemoglobin? a. sodium b. potassium c. iron d. magnesium

c. iron

89. Which major type of protein present in the plasma functions to provide colloid osmotic pressure in the plasma? a. globulin b. albumin c. fibrinogen d. none of the above

b. albumin

90. Which two forces listed below tend to move fluid out of a capillary membrane? a. capillary pressure b. interstitial fluid pressure c. colloid osmotic pressure of the plasma d. colloid osmotic pressure of the interstitial fluid

a. capillary pressure d. colloid osmotic pressure of the interstitial fluid

91. The proteolytic enzyme that dissolves fibrin is ? a. prothrombin b. thrombin c. fibrinogen d. plasmin

d. plasmin

92. The Bundle of His arises in the: a. SA node b. AV node c. Right ventricle d. Left ventricle

b. AV node

93. Which of the following glycoprotein hormone that is synthesized by the thyroid follicular cell and iodinated once it has been synthesized? a. glucagon b. cortisol c. thyroglobulin d. aldosterone

c. thyroglobulin

94. A reticulocyte is an immature: a. monocyte b. leukocyte c. lymphoyte] d. erythrocyte

d. erythrocyte

95. Myeloid tissue refers to a. cartilage b. muscle fibers c. nerve fiber d. bone marrow

d. bone marrow

99. Cell group responsible for humoral immunity: a. T-lymphocytes b. B- lymphocytes c. monocytes d. neutrophils

b. B- lymphocytes

97. Lining epithelium of the gastrointestinal tract from the fundus of the stomach to the rectum: a. simple squamous b. simple cuboidal c. simple columnar d. stratified columnar

c. simple columnar

98. Components of a sarcomere: 1. 2 succeeding Z lines 2. 1 whole A band 3. 2 halves of succeeding I banjds 4. 1 whole I band A. 1,2,& 3 C. 1,2, & 4 B. 1 & 2 D. 1 & 4

A. 1,2,& 3

99. Structure which anchors epithelium firmly to the underlying basement membrane: a. macula adherens b. macula densa c. desmosome d. hemidesmosome

d. hemidesmosome

100. Endocrine glands secrete their products a. thru a system of ducts b. within the local vicinity where the gland is c. to an external or internal opening d. thru the bloodstream

d. thru the bloodstream

105. Most- widely distributed nerve ending a. Vater pacinian corpuscle b. Meissners disc c. Merkels disc d. naked nerve fibers

d. naked nerve fibers

102. ABO typing is based upon an antigen -antibody reaction where the antigens A and B are found in a. serum b. red blood cell membrane c. both d. neither

b. red blood cell membrane

103. In Rh incompatibility, Hemolytic Disease of the Newborn may occur in an Rh negative mother and an Rh positive fetus in: a. any pregnancy b. first pregnancy c. second pregnancy d. all pregnancies

c. second pregnancy

104. Structure responsible for the gray color of the gray matter a. myelin b. astroglia c. Nissl bodies d. ependymal cells

c. Nissl bodies

105. Release and recapture of calcium ions during a muscular contraction is the function of: a. sarcoplasmic b. actin c. myosin d. sarcomere

a. sarcoplasmic

106. The greatest duration of contraction of muscles is observed in: a. skeletal b. smooth c. cardiac d. same in all three

b. smooth

107. The greatest speed of contraction of muscles is observed in: a. skeletal b. smooth c. cardiac d. same in all three

a. skeletal

108. The largest portion of the circulating blood volume is found in the: a. arteries b. veins c. capillaries d. arterioles

b. veins

109. In the resting adult, venous blood has a pH of approximately: a. 7.38 b. 7.4 c. 7.42 d. 8

a. 7.38

110. The desire for defecation is felt when the feces is forced into the: a. sigmoid colon b. rectum c. anal canal d. anus

b. rectum

111. This wave is caused by the spread of depolarization throughout the atria: a. P b. QRS c. T d. ST

a. P

112. In normal quiet breathing, expiration is brought about by the following except: a. recoil forces of the chest wall lung system b. contraction of expiratory muscles c. relaxation of the diaphragm d. effect of varying surface tension

b. contraction of expiratory muscles

113. Which of the following events may take place during active inspiration? a. diaphragm descends b. rib joints are active c. lateral diameter of the thorax increases bronchiole d. all of the above

d. all of the above

114. Which of the following bones form the pterygopalatine fossa? a. palatine, maxillary, vomer b. maxillary, temporal, palatine c. sphenoid, palatine, maxillary d. sphenoid, temporal, palatine

c. sphenoid, palatine, maxillary

115. Mucosa of all parts of the small intestine is chracterized by possessing: a. regae b. villi c. haustra d. teniae coli

b. villi

116. Salivary glands of the palate are located in the: a. posterolateral zone b. anterolateral zone c. gingival zone d. median raphe

a. posterolateral zone

117. The bony floor of the nasal cavity is formed by the: a. palatine process of the maxilla and the vertical part of the palatine b. palatine process of the temporal and horizontal part of the palatine c. vomer and vertical part of the palatine d. palatine process of the maxilla and the horizontal part of the palatine

d. palatine process of the maxilla and the horizontal part of the palatine

118. The respiratory diaphragm is innervated by the: a. vagus nerve b. phrenic nerves c. splanchnic nerves d. recurrent (inferior) laryngeal nerves

b. phrenic nerves

119. The tendon of the tensor veli palatine muscle curves around the: a. anular spine b. styloid process c. pterygoid hamulus d. lateral pterygoid plate

c. pterygoid hamulus

120. A sarcomere is the part of the myofibril enclosed between: a. two consecutive H bands b. two consecutive Z bands c. two consecutive I bands d. an I band and the next A band

b. two consecutive Z bands

121. The middle cranial fossa is separated from the posterior cranial fossa primarily by the: a. crista galli b. groove for the tranverse sinus c. lesser wing of the sphenoid bone d. petrous part of the temporal bone

d. petrous part of the temporal bone

122. The mandibular fossa (glenoid fossa) is a part of the: a. mandible b. sphenoid bone c. frontal bone d. temporal bone

d. temporal bone

123. As air passes from the trachea into the lungs, the first structure in which gaseous exchange through the wall of an alveolus may occur is the: a. bronchus b. bronchiole c. alveolar sac d. respiratory bronchile

d. respiratory bronchile

124. Which is not a venous sinus in the head? a. cavernous sinus b. sigmoid sinus c. straight sinus d. sphenoid sinus

d. sphenoid sinus

125. The most vascular portion of the TMJ articular disc is: a. periphery b. superior surface c. middle surface d. inferior surface

a. periphery

126. The condyle of the mandible articulates with the: a. sphenoid bone b. zygomatic bone c. temporal bone d. maxilla e. NOTA

c. temporal bone

127. The boundary separating the oral cavity from the pharynx: a. anterior palatine pillar of the fauces b. uvula c. pterygomandibular raphe d. retromolar pad

a. anterior palatine pillar of the fauces

128. The unit structure of bone is the: a. osteon b. osteophyte c. osteocyte d. osteoblast

a. osteon

129. Maintenance of the blood calcium level is by the: a. thyroid and parathyroid glands b. adrenals and gonads c. thymus d. adrenals only

a. thyroid and parathyroid glands

130. Water and electrolyte equilibrium in the body is maintained by: a. calcium and phosphate b. sodium and potassium c. flourides and chlorides d. glucose and sucrose

b. sodium and potassium

131. The purine and pyrimidine bases of the RNA molecule are, except: a. adenine b. thymine c. cytosine d. guanine

b. thymine

132. In the ribosome the amino acid sequence of a protein is determined by: a. M-RNA b. T-RNA c. DNA d. golgi complex

a. M-RNA

133. ACTH is a trophic hormone to act on: a. adrenal cortex b. piyuitary gland c. thyroid d. adrenal medulla

a. adrenal cortex

134. The pancreatic enzymes for digestion are __________ except: a. trypsin b. chymotrypsin c. amylase d. bile

d. bile

135. Which bones form the roof of the mouth: a. maxilla b. palatine c. maxilla and vomer d. maxilla and palatine

d. maxilla and palatine

136. The Antrum of Highmore can be found in: a. mandible b. maxilla c. either d. both

b. maxilla

137. The common form of peripheral paralysis of the facial nerve is known as: a. Bellss palsy b. Hubers Syndrome c. Betz disease d. Isleys palsy e. none

a. Bellss palsy

138. An amino acid that also serves as the neuro transmitter molecule serotonin is called: a. tryptohan b. tyrosine kinase c. trypsin d. triiodothyronine

150. The suture between the parietal and occipital bones: a. frontal suture b. lambdoidal suture c. medial suture d. sagittal suture e. coronal suture

b. lambdoidal suture

~ fin ~