Obstetric Nursing

1. Which of the following terms refers to

the tissue lying between the vaginal orifice
and the anus?
a. Mons pubis c. Hymen
b. Perineum d. Vestibule
2. Which of the following reproductive
organs contains the perimetrium,
myometrium and endometrium?
a. Decidua c. Uterus
b. Ovaries d. Vagina
3. Which of the following breast structures
is responsible for milk production?
a. Acini cells c. Lactiferous ducts
b. Areola d. Nipple
4. A client asks, How much blood do I lose
during menstruation? Which of the following
would be the nurses best response?
a. Normal blood loss can be little or a lot.
b. Normal blood loss is about 1 cup.
c. Normal blood loss is about cup.
d. Normal blood loss is about 1/8 cup.
5. Which of the following hormones stimulates
the ovary to produce estrogen during the
menstrual cycle?
a. Follicle stimulating hormone (FSH)
b. Gonadotropin releasing hormone (GnRH)
c. Luteinizing hormone (LH)
d. Human chorionic gonadotropia (HCG)
6. Days 6 through 14 of the menstrual
cycle constitute which of the following
phases?
a. Estrogen c. Luteal
b. Proliferative d. Luteal
7. Variations in the length of the menstrual
cycle are due to variations in the number
of days in which of the following phases?
a. Proliferative phase c. Ischemic phase
b. Luteal phase d. Secretory phase
8. During the menstrual cycle, ovulation generally
occurs at which of the following times?
a. 7 days after the last day of menstruation
b. 14 days after the last day of the menstrual
cycle
c. 7 days before the end of menstruation
d. 14 days before the end of the menstrual
cycle
9. When providing sexual care to clients, the nurse
knows
that the most common nursing diagnosis is which of
the
following:
a. sexual dysfunction related to physiological factors
b. Self-esteem disturbance related to guilt
c. Body image disturbance related to negative feelings
d. Knowledge deficit related to altered sexual function
10. When taking a sexual history which of
the following denotes the correct manner
from which the nurse would proceed?
a. Specific to general problems
b. Common to unusual problems
c. Physical to physiological problems
d. Simple to complex problems

11. When reviewing contraceptive methods before
teaching a class, the nurse would keep in mind
which of the following methods most likely
would be the least effective for most couples?
a. Cervical cap c. Subdermal implant
b. Coitus interruptus d. Condom and foam
12. Which of the following would the nurse use as
the basis for explaining on how an IUID
prevents conception?
a. alteration in the fallopian tubes
b. change in the endometrial environment
c. alteration in the tubal transport of sperm
d. direct destruction of the sperm cell membrane
13. A client who is using diaphragm for
contraception who is currently
participating in a weight loss program asks
the nurse about the need to refit the
diaphragm. The nurse should instruct the
client to have the diaphragm refitted
after a weight loss of at least which of the
following amounts?
a. 5 lb c. 15 lb
b. 10 lb d. 20 lb
14. When using the basal body temperature (BBT) for
contraception, the nurse would instruct the couple to abstain
from intercourse during which of the following times?
a. From the first day of temperature elevation until the
temperature returns to normal
b. From the first days of menses to the third day of
temperature elevation
c. Once cervical mucus becomes thick and yellowish until
it becomes slippery
d. From the first day of menses until the woman
experiences mittelschemerz
15. Which of the following methods would be
avoided to a woman who is 38 years old, has
three children, and smokes 1 pack of cigarettes
per day?
a. Oral contraceptive c. Diaphragm
b. Cervical cap d. Intrauterine device
16. A woman is using a diaphragm for
contraception should be instructed to
leave it in place for at least how long after
intercourse?
a. 1 hour c. 12 hours
b. 6 hours d. 28 hours
17. A client pregnant with her third child is deciding about having
tubal ligation after she delivers. When evaluating a clients
teaching plans about tubal ligation, which of the following
clients statements would indicate the need for additional
teaching?
a. I can have the procedure reversed if we change our mind
and want more children.
b. The procedure requires a small surgical incision in my
abdomen.
c. I can have the procedure done immediately after I deliver
my baby.
d. I still have to be careful about sexually transmitted diseases
even after procedure.
18. After teaching a couple about contraceptive
methods, the couple is asked to identify fertility
awareness methods. Which of the following identified
by the couple would indicate the need for additional
instruction?
a. Calendar method c. Cervical mucus method
b. Symptothermal method d. Female condom method
19. Which of the following would the nurse
identify as an advantage to using a cervical cap
for contraception?
a. Provides continuous protection for 48 hours
b. Is disposable and available over the counter
c. Allows spermicide application 2 hours before
intercourse
d. Minimizes risk for allergic reaction to plastic
20. Which of the following urinary
symptoms does the pregnant woman most
frequently experience during the first
trimester?
a. Dysuria c. Incontinence
b. Frequency d. Burning
21. Which of the following is an expected outcome of
antepartum care?
a. Trimester-specific physiologic and psychosocial
assessment
b. Increased expectant mothers and familys
knowledge of pregnancy
c. Education and counseling for the pregnant woman
and
her family
d. Assessment of the clients previous experiences and
cultural expectations
22. Which of the following would cause a false-positive
result on a pregnancy test?
a. The test was performed less than 10 days after an
abortion
b. The test was performed too early or too late in the
pregnancy
c. The urine sample was stored too long at room
temperature
d. A spontaneous abortion or a missed abortion is
impending
23. FHR can be auscultated with a fetoscope as
early as which of the following?
a. 5 weeks gestation c. 15 weeks gestation
b. 10 weeks gestation d. 20 weeks gestation
24. An ultrasound is typically performed during the third
trimester for which of the following reasons?
a. To evaluate the fetus for possible congenital
anomalies
b. To determine the fetal position and estimate fetal
size
c. To confirm the suspicion of possible multiple
gestation
d. To enhance prenatal testing and evaluation of
pelvic
mass
25. Quickening in primagravidas usually can
be detected during which of the following
weeks of gestation?
a. 10 14 weeks c. 18 20 weeks
b. 15 17 weeks d. 20 22 weeks
26. Which of the following best characterizes the CST?
a. The fetus typically is monitored at least 40 minutes
then the entire monitoring strip (or tracting) is
analyzed
b. Any abnormal or nonreactive stress test results
require further evaluation that same day
c. It is the least invasive test of fetal well-being that
involve using an electronic fetal monitor
d. Three contractions within 10 minutes must be
evaluated. Ideally each contraction should last from
40 to 60 seconds
27. A clients LMP began July 5, her EDD
should be which of the following?
a. January 2 c. April 12
b. March 28 d. October 12
28. Which of the following fundamental
heights indicates less than 12 weeks
gestation when the date of the LMP is
unknown?
a. Uterus in the pelvis
b. Uterus at the xyphoid
c. Uterus in the abdomen
d. Uterus at the umbilicus
29. Which of the following danger signs should
be reported promptly during the antepartum
period?
a. constipation c. nasal stuffiness
b. breast tenderness d. leaking amniotic fluid
30. Which of the following prenatal
laboratory test values would the nurse
consider as significant?
a. Hematocrit 33.5%
b. Rubella titer less than 1:8
c. White blood cells 8,000/mm3
d. One hour glucose challenge test 110g/dL