1.

What law gave birth to the

Revised Penal Code and
when did it took effect?
a. RA 3518 Jan 1, 1932
b. RA 3815 Jan 1, 1923
c. Act 3815 Jan 1, 1932
d. Act 3185 Jan 1, 1932
2. Which of the following is not a
source of Philippine Penal Laws?

a. Revised Penal Code

b. Special Penal Laws
c. Penal Presidential Decrees
d. Legislative Decrees
3. One who while advance in age
has a mental development
comparable of that at child
between 2 and 7 years old

a. imbecile
b. insane
c. abnormal
d. mentally retarded
 4. The principle that sovereign
and head of states are exempted
from criminal liability is covered
by.

a. Law of Foreign Affairs

b. Law of Preferential Applications
c. Law of Preferred Head of States
d. Law of Preferential Treatment
 5. A chronic nervous disease
characterized by fits occurring at
intervals and attended by
conclusive motion of muscles.
a. malaria
b. schizophrenia
c. somnabulism
d. epilepsy
6. Phil. Penal Law is applicable
within Phil. Territory to include
a. its atmosphere
b. its interior waters
c. its maritime
d. all of the above
 7. Members of the Royal
Family in England are called.
a. Reverend
b. Royalties
c. Head of States
d. Diplomatic Corps
8. What age is considered of total
irresponsibility or without criminal
liability?

a. 8
b. 16
c. 18
d. 21
9. Obligation and securities of
the Phil government refers to
a. Letter of Credit
b. Foreign Investment
c. Government Bond
d. Foreign Currencies
10. Characteristics of criminal law
wherein undertakes to punish all
offenses committed within Phil
territory
a. Prospectivity
b. Territoriality
c. Generality
d. Totality
11. The condition sine-quanon or
indispensable element in self
defense

a. Provocation
b. unlawful aggression
c. reasonable necessity
d. irresistible force
12. Another word that means
deceit?
a. Dolo
b. Culpa
c. fault
d. negligence
13. Felonies punishable only
when they are consummated.
a. consumable felonies
b. less grave felonies
c. grave felonies
d. light felonies
14. Primary source of Phil.
Penal laws?
a. Revised Penal Code
b. Special Penal Laws
c. Penal Pres. Decrees
d. Penal Batas Pambansa
 15. If the offense is committed
on board a Philippine ship
traveling at the China Sea, what
law will apply?
a. China Law
b. Maritime Law
c. International Law
d. Philippine Law
16. Rebellion, sedition and
coup d etat are crime
against?
a. public order
b. public and government service
c. national security
d. national government
17. A policeman is considered
as what kind of person?
a. public official
b. public authority
c. agents of person in authority
d. person in authority
18. Power of the state to
define and punish crime
a. police power
b. penal power
c. execution power
d. judicial power
19. The word culpa means

a. lack of skill
b. lack of foresight
c. negligence
d. all of the above
20. Which of the following is
not place of worship?

a. chapel
b. mosque
c. mortuary
d. synanogue
 21. It is committed when a
person who decided to commit a
felony proposes its execution to
another person.
a. inducement
b. proposal
c. conspiracy
d. instigation
 22. It is incurred by a person
committing a felony although the
wrongful act done be different
from what he intended to do
a. felonious act
b. offense
c. criminal liability
d. civil liability
 23. The simpliest meaning of
the term evident premeditation
a. deliberate intent
b. deliberate planning
c. treachery
d. uninhabited place
24. Stage in the commission of a
felony when all the elements
necessary for its accomplishment
and execution are present.
a. attempted
b. frustrated
c. consummated
d. enumerated
25. Circumstance that could be
either mitigating or aggravating.

a. exempting
b. mitigating
c. alternative
d. aggravating
26. Medical term for homicidal
tendency.
a. somnabulism
b. dementia praecox
c. epilepsy
d. kleptomania
 27. Select the persons not
exempted from criminal liability

a. charges-de-affairs
b. ministers
c. consul
d. none of them
28. The criminal acts punished
by the Revised Penal Code
a. felonies
b. crimes
c. offenses
d. misdemeanor
 29. In what offense is
ignominy appreciated?

a. Parricide
b. Rape
c. Abduction
d. Seduction
 30. Infractions of law, the
commission of which carries the
penalty of Arresto Menor
a. felony
b. grave felony
c. less grace felony
d. light felony
 31. What will the judge do if the
acts done by the person accused
and being tried in his court is not
covered by a law?
a. convict the accused
b. acquit the accused
c. give the accused probation
d. send the accused to the DSWD
 32. A building or structure
exclusively used for rest and
comfort
a. residence
b. apartelle
c. dwelling
d. hostel
 33. It exists when two or more
person comes to an agreement
to commit a felony and decided
to do it
a. proposal
b. conspiracy
c. confederation
d. insurrection
 34. A swift attack on a military
camp by elements of the PNP or
AFP.
a. sedition
b. rebellion
c. coup-de-etat
d. insurrection
 35. Committed by a married
woman who shall have sexual
intercourse with another man not
her husband.
a. bigamy
b. infidelity
c. concubinage
d. adultery
 36. Offense covered by Phil
Penal Laws even if committed
outside the Phil.

a. Treason
b. Espionage
c. Piracy
d. all of these
37. Legal term for Treachery?

a. nocturnity
b. alevosia
c. solitude
d. planning
38. What is the legal term for
nighttime?

a. sanctuary
b. ephitomy
c. absurdity
d. nocturnity
 39. A person who forces or
induces another to perform the
criminal act is referred to as

a. mastermind
b. accomplice
c. seducer
d. principal
40. The employment of means of
execution that gave the person
attacked no opportunity to defend
himself or retaliate.

a. ignominy
b. superior strength
c. treachery
d. cruelty
41. It is a legislative enactment
that inflicts punishment for a
crime without judicial trial.

a. Ex post facto law

b. Bill of attainder
c. Enrolled bill
d. Expose facto law
42. These are the rights of an
accused that are derived from
special laws enacted by
Congress.
a. Constitutional rights
b. Statutory rights
c. Civil rights
d. Natural rights
 43. These are agreements
between independent states
entered into by their authorized
representatives and ratified by
their legislature in accordance
with their respective laws
a. Executive agreements
b. Treaties
c. Treatises
d. Memoranda
44. The following are exceptions
to the general application of
criminal laws, except:

a. laws of preferential application

b. treatise
c. principles of international law
d. treaty stipulations
 45. The legal term for felonies
punished by the Revised Penal
Code.

a. dolo
b. culpa
c. delito
d. None of these
46. The following felonies do not
admit of a frustrated stage,
except:

a. rape
b. physical injuries
c. adultery
d. theft
 47. The following are the
classifications of felonies
according to gravity, except:

a. grave felonies
b. light felonies
c. less grave felonies
d. slight felonies
48. These are acts or omissions
not expressly punished by a
penal law but are nevertheless
considered and punished as
crimes
a. Common crimes
b. Common crimes law
c. Common law crimes
d. Commonly crimes
 49. This branch of government
has the power to punish crimes.
a. executive branch
b. legislative branch
c. judicial branch
d. none of the above
 50. It is a law that partially or
totally modifies or changes an
existing law.
a. Repealed law
b. Repealing law
c. Repelled law
d. Repelling law
 51. It is one of the basic
characteristics of criminal laws.

a. Perspective
b. Prospective
c. Proactive
d. Retroactive
 52. It is a characteristic of
criminal laws that requires that
they be applied to all persons
who live or sojourn in the
Philippine territory.
a. Generality
b. Territoriality
c. Territorially
d. Generally
 53. A proposal to commit the
following felonies is punishable,
except:
a. treason
b. rebellion
c. Espionage
d. Coup d etat
 54. The evil intent in impossible
crime cannot be accomplished
because of the following reasons,
except:

a. inherent impossibility
b. employment of ineffectual means
c. employment of inadequate means
d. none of the above
 55. It is a crime in which the
accomplishment of the evil intent
was by reason of cause or
accident other than the offenders
spontaneous desistance
a. Attempted felony
b. Frustrated felony
c. Impossible crime
d. Indeterminate offense
 56. It is a crime in which the specific or
particular criminal intent of the offender
cannot be determined such that he/she
will only be charged with the crime that
his/her acts constituted at the time he/she
was stopped while committing an unlawful
act:
a. Attempted felony
b. Frustrated felony
c. Impossible crime
d. Indeterminate offense
 57. The following are light
felonies punishable by the
Revised Penal Code, except:

a. maltreatment
b. alteration of boundary
c. malicious mischief
d. intriguing against honor
58. It is the rule followed by the
Philippines whenever a crime is
committed inside a Philippine
ship or airship while in a foreign
territory.
a. French Rule
b. Spanish Rule
c. English Rule
d. General Rule
59. The offender performs all acts of
execution, that would produce the
felony as a consequence, but the
felony was not produced, by reason
of causes independent of the will of
the perpetrator are the requisites of:
a. attempted felony
b. frustrated felony
c. consummated felony
d. impossible crime
60. When there is doubt as to the identity
of the assailant, if evidence is merely
circumstantial, and when there are no
eyewitnesses to a crime are some of the
instances when it becomes useful and
necessary to show evidence of:

a. intent
b. motive
c. conspiracy
d. proposal
61. The following are the forms of
civil liability or civil indemnity that
a person convicted of a crime
pays to the victim, EXCEPT:
a. reparation
b. restitution
c. indemnification
d. commutation
 62. The following are
accessory penalties, EXCEPT

a. fine
b. suspension
c. temporary absolute disqualification
d. perpetual special disqualification
63. The following are the kinds of
penalties according to their
gravity, EXCEPT:

a. capital punishment
b. light penalties
c. correctional penalties
d. afflictive penalties
64. The following are principal
penalties, EXCEPT:
a. Reclusion temporal
b. bond to keep peace
c. Fine
d. suspension
65. The law known as the Access
Device Law.

a. RA 9208
b. RA 9344
c. RA 8484
d. RA 7438
 66. The person, who is
authorized by law to give pardon
after an accused is convicted by
final judgment of a felony, is:

a. President of the Philippines

b. Director of Prisons
c. Offended party
d. Offender
 67. The following are instances
when criminal liability of an
accused or convicted person are
totally extinguished, except:

a. Amnesty
b. Probation
c. Absolute Pardon
d. Death of convict/accused
 68. The following are instances
when criminal liability of an
accused or convicted person are
partially extinguished, except:

a. Parole
b. Conditional Pardon
c. Commutation of sentence
d. Allowance for good conduct
69. Fine is an afflictive penalty
if the amount thereof is:

a. more than P6,000

b. more than P2,000
c. P200 to P6,000
d. P200 to P2,000
 70. The person, who is
authorized by law to give
allowance for good conduct to a
convict serving sentence, is:
a. President of the Philippines
b. Director of Prisons
c. Trial Court Judge
d. Jail Warden
 71. The person, who is
authorized by law to grant
probation to an accused
convicted of a crime, is:
a. President of the Philippines
b. Director of Prisons
c. Trial Court Judge
d. Jail Warden
72. Fine is a correctional penalty
if the amount thereof is:

a. more than P6,000

b. more than 12,000
c. P200 to P6,000
d. P200 to 12,000
73. The following are instances
when death penalty cannot be
imposed, except

a. accused is 71 years old

b. accused is 70 years old
c. accused is a minor
d. accused is pregnant
 74. A crime punishable by
reclusion temporal prescribes in:

a. 20 years
b. 15 years
c. 10 years
d. 5 years
 75. A crime punishable by
arresto mayor prescribes in:

a. 20 years
b. 15 years
c. 10 years
d. 5 years
 76. A crime punishable by
correctional penalty prescribes in:

a. 20 years
b. 15 years
c. 10 years
d. 5 years
77. The penalty of prison
mayor prescribes in:
a. 20 years
b. 15 years
c. 10 years
d. 5 years
78. A correctional penalty
prescribes in:

a. 20 years
b. 15 years
c. 10 years
d. 5 years
79. A light offense prescribes
in:
a. 5 years
b. 2 years
c. 1 year
d. 2 months
80. Libel prescribes in:

a. 10 years
b. 5 years
c. 1 year
d. 6 months
81. The following are crimes
against chastity, EXCEPT

a. Adultery
b. concubinage
c. rape
d. seduction
82. The following are crimes
committed by public officers ,
EXCEPT:

a. direct bribery
b. Illegal detention
c. Violation of domicile
d. malversation of public funds
83. The following are crimes
against property, EXCEPT
a. robbery
b. arson
c. malicious mischief
d. estafa
84. Whenever allowed by law or rules, the
court may release an accused in custody
of the law upon himself or that of a
responsible person in the community at
the discretion of the court is known as:

a. Bail
b. Recognizance
c. Promise to appear
d. House Arrest
 85. The law that punishes the
illegal selling or donation of vital
body organ.

a. RA 7438
b. RA 9344
c. RA 9208
d. RA 8484
 86. It refers to the improper
performance of some act which
might lawfully be done.

a. Nonfeasance
b. Misfeasance
c. Malfeasance
d. Unfeasance
 87. It refers to the failure to
perform an act that is required to
be done
a. Nonfeasance
b. Misfeasance
c. Malfeasance
d. Unfeasance
88. It refers to the performance of
an act that ought not to be done

a. Nonfeasance
b. Misfeasance
c. Malfeasance
d. Unfeasance
89. Felonies which has with it
3 stages in it commission.
a. formal crimes
b. material crimes
c. consumated crimes
d. complete crimes
90. It refers to the final determination by a
Court of competent jurisdiction of the
issues submitted to in a case such that
after it is issued, the case ends if the
losing party does not appeal.

a. interlocutory order
b. summons
c. subpoena
d. judgment
91. It refers to a resolution of the Court on
collateral or incidental matters while a
case is being heard; it is not a final
determination of the main issue in the
case.

a. interlocutory order
b. summons
c. subpoena
d. judgment
 92. What is committed when A,
driving truck, runs over and killed
a girl crossing the street during a
torrential rain?

a. Homicide
b. Infanticide
c. Murder
d. Reckless Imprudence
93, It is also known as crime of the giver
when a private person gives money to a
public officer so that he will do something
favorable to the giver

a. direct bribery
b. indirect bribery
c. corruption of a public official
d. accused is pregnant
 94, It is also known as crime of the
receiver when a private person gives
money to a public officer so that he will do
something favorable to the giver and the
public officer accepts it.

a. direct bribery
b. indirect bribery
c. corruption of a public official
d. qualified bribery
95. It is a crime of giving a public
officer money or any gift in
consideration of his position or
office
a. direct bribery
b. indirect bribery
c. corruption of a public official
d. qualified bribery
96, It is the special law that
punishes plunder.

a. R.A. No. 7080

b. R.A. No. 3019
c. R.A. No. 7610
d. R.A. No. 1379
 97, It is the crime committed when a
public officer uses public funds for his
own personal benefit or for the benefit of
another person.

a. illegal use of public funds

b. malversation of public funds
c. plunder
d. none of the above
 98, It is the crime committed when a
public officer uses public funds for
another public use other than the purpose
for which the fund is intended.

a. illegal use of public funds

b. malversation of public funds
c. plunder
d. none of the above
99. It is a crime committed when
a woman is taken away against
her will with lewd design

a. forcible abduction
b. consented abduction
c. forcible seduction
d. qualified seduction
 100. It is the felony committed when a
person takes away a minor, over 12 but
under 18 years of age, with her consent,
after solicitation or cajolery from the
offender, committed with lewd design.

a. forcible abduction
b. consented abduction
c. forcible seduction
d. qualified seduction
101. The court on its own initiative or
on motion of the accused may
dismiss the case after the
prosecution shall have presented its
evidence and rested its case on the
ground of:
a. The allegations constitute a legal excuse
or justification
b. The facts charged do not constitute an
offense
c. There is duplicity if the offenses charged
d. Insufficiency of evidences
 102. The felony punishable under the
Revised Penal Code which cannot be
prosecuted by the public prosecutor
unless upon the complaint of the ofended
wife is-

a. Marital Rape
b. Bigamy
c. adultery
d. concubinage
103. Criminal Procedure is

a. Remedial Law
b. Substantive Law
c. Constitutional Law
d. Administrative Law
 104. Cases where the penalty does not exceed
an imprisonment of 6 years regardless of the
impossible amount of fine is within the exclusive
original jurisdiction of this court

a. Regional Trial Court

b. First Level Court
c. Family Court
d. Appellate Court
105. The law reorganizing the
judiciary and prescribing or
allocating the jurisdiction of the
courts is otherwise known as
a. BP Blg. 22
b. RA No. 8492
c. BP Blg. 129, as ammended
d. RA No. 7438
106. Before arraignment, if the
offense charged is vague to the
accused, he may move for a

a. Motion to dismiss
b. Bill of particular
c. Motion to Quash
d. Suspension of the preceding
107. The venue in case the subject of the
dispute if a case governed by the
Katarungang Pambarangay Law is a real
property shall be in the barangay of the:

a. Complainant
b. Respondent
c. Where the property is located
d. Punong Barangay
 108. Offenses involving criminal
negligence where the amount of the
damage cause exceeds P20,000.00 is
within the exclusive original jurisdiction of
the:

a. Regional Trial Court

b. First Level Court
c. Family Court
d. Appellate Court
109. The venue in a case covered by the
Katarungang Pambarangay involving
parties residing in different barangay
within a city or municipality shall be:

a. Bgy.of the complainant

b. Bgy.of the respondent
c. Bgy. of the witness
d. None of these
110. The law that established the
Barangay Justice Law.

a. BP 129
b. PD 1602
c. BP 22
d. PD 1508
111. What kind of motion may be availed
of anytime before arraignment?

a. Motion to Dismiss
b. Motion to Review
c. Motion for Reconsideration
d. Motion to Quash
112. What investigation is conducted after
a person is arrested without a valid
Warrant of Arrest ?

a. criminal investigation
b. inquest investigation
c. preliminary investigation
d. custodial investigation
 113. In what stage of a criminal
proceeding is an accused informed of the
nature and cause of the accusation
against him ?
a. arrest
b. custodial investigation
c. preliminary investigation
d. arraignment
114. In Metro Manila and other chartered cities,
where shall the offended party file his
complaint?

a. Metropolitan Trial Court

b. Office of the City Prosecutor
c. Regional Trial Court
d. Municipal Circuit Trial Court
 115. Who may conduct preliminary
investigation of ill-gotten wealth cases?

a. Provincial Prosecutors
b. City Prosecutors
c. Presidential Commission on
Good Government
d. Office of the Ombudsman
 116. Within what period
should the Warrant of Arrest
be served of enforced
a. Within 10 days
b. Within 15 days
c. Within 30 days
d. None of these
 117. The peril in which a person is
put when he is charged with a crime
before any tribunal properly
organized and competent to try him

a. Jeopardy
b. Imprisonment
c. Detention
d. Fine
118. What may be taken up in
the pre-trial conference?
a. Plea Bargaining
b. Stipulation of Facts
c. Admission and Marking of
Evidence
d. All of these
 119. A kind of aggravating
circumstance that changes the
nature of the crime
a. generic
b. specific
c. qualifying
d. inherent
120. A kind of aggravating circumstance
that must necessary accompany the
commission of the crime

a. generic
b. specific
c. qualifying
d. inherent
121. Which is not a crime
against public order?

a. Alarms and Scandals

b. Direct Assault
c. Sedition
d. Violation of domicile
122. Is an order in writing issued in the name of
the people of the Philippines, signed by a judge
directing a law enforcement officer to locate for
personal property described therein and bring it
before the court.

a. Warrant of Arrest
b. Subpoena
c. Search warrant
d. Exclusionary rules
123. Also known as but for
or taint doctrine.
a. Exclusionary Rules
b. Search Warrant
c. Doctrine of fruit of poisonous
tree
d. Warrant of Arrest
124. is more than a mere scintilla. It
means such relevant evidence as a
reasonable mind might accept as
adequate to support a conclusion.

a. Circumstantial evidence
b. Preponderance of evidence
c. Substantial evidence
d. Corpus delicti
 125. Is the proof of facts from which,
taken collectively, the existence of the
particular fact in dispute may be inferred
as a necessary or probable consequence.

a. Substantial evidence
b. Preponderance evidence
c. Circumstantial evidence
d. Corpus delicti
126. Are admissions, made out of
court, or in a judicial proceeding
other than the one under
consideration.

a. Extra-Judicial Admission
b. Judicial Admission
c. Admission
d. Confession
 127. Is a voluntary acknowledgment in
express terms or by implication, by a
party interest or by another by whose
statement he is legally bound, against his
interest, of the existence or truth of a fact
in dispute material to issue.

a. Admission
b. Judicial Admission
c. Extra-Judicial Admission
d. Confession
 128. Is the declaration of an accused
acknowledging his guilt of the offense
charged, or of any offense necessarily
included therein, may be given in
evidence against him.

a. Confession
b. Extra-Judicial Confession
c. Admission
d. Extra-judicial Admission
129. is the document whose
contents are to be proved

a. Original of a document
b. Documentary evidence
c. Best Evidence
d. Secondary evidence
130. That which consists of writings or
any material containing letters, words,
numbers, figures, symbols or other
modes of written expressions offered as
proof of their contents.

a. Documentary evidence
b. Best evidence
c. Original of a document
d. Secondary evidence
 131. Rule which requires the highest
grade of evidence obtainable to prove a
disputed fact is the original of a
document.

a. Parole Evidence Rule

b. Best Evidence Rule
c. Original of a document
d. Secondary Evidence
 132. Is that which shows that
better, or primary evidence exists
as to the proof of a fact in
question.

a. Parole evidence
b. Secondary evidence
c. Original of a document
d. Best evidence rule
 133. Is a rule which forbids any addition to or
contradiction of the terms of a written
instrument by testimony purporting to show that,
at or, before the signing, of the document, other
or different terms were orally agreed upon by
the parties.

a. Best Evidence Rule

b. Parole Evidence Rule
c. Original of a Document
d. Secondary evidence
134. is meant the legal fitness or
ability of a witness to be heard on
the trial of a cause.

a. Qualification of a witness
b. Competency of witness
c. Marital Disqualification
d. Dead Mans Statute Rule
135. A rule which forbids husband and wife,
during their marriage, from testifying for or
against the other without the consent of the
affected spouses except in some
circumstances.

a. Disqualification of witness
b. Marital Disqualification
c. Dead Mans Statute Rule
d. Privilege Communication rule
136. Parties or assignors of parties to a case, or persons in whose
behalf a case is prosecuted, against an executor or administrator
or other representative of a deceased person, or against a person
of unsound mind, upon a claim or demand against the estate of
such deceased person or against such person of unsound mind,
cannot testify as to any matter of fact accruing before the death of
such deceased person or before such person became of unsound
mind.

a. Marital Disqualification
b. Privilege Communication Rule
c. Parental and filial privilege
d. Dead Mans Statute Rule
137. Rule which provides that a communication made in good faith
on any subject matter in which the communicator has an interest,
or concerning which he has a duty, is privileged if made to a person
having a corresponding interest or duty, although it contains
incriminatory matter which, without the privilege, would be libelous
and actionable.

a. Parental and filial privilege rule

b. Dead Mans Statute Rule
c. Marital Disqualification
d. Privilege Communication Rule
 138. Is an agreement made
between two or more parties as a
settlement of matters in dispute.

a. Conspiracy
b. Settlement
c. Res Inter Alios Acta Rule
d. Compromise
 139. Provides that the right of a party
cannot be prejudiced by an act,
declaration, or omission of another unless
it falls under the exceptional
circumstances.

a. Privies
b. Conspiracy
c. Compromise
d. Res Inter Alios Acta Rule
140. Requisite before recall of
a witness.

a. Leading Question
b. Misleading Question
c. Impeachment
d. Leave of Court
141. Jurisdiction of courts is
conferred by the

a. Rules of Court,
b. Constitution and the Law
c. parties of the case,
d. the Revised Penal Code.
 142. If a person in authority or his
agent accepted a challenge to fight,
what crime do we sue the attacker?

a. Duel
b. Indirect Assault
c. Direct Assault
d. None
 143. The illegality of an arrest or the
validity of the warrant issued can be
questioned by the person arrested before
the court at any time

a. before posting his bail

b. before entering a plea
c. before pre- trial
d. during the trial proper
144. The warrant of arrest may
be executed by the Barangay
Tanod

a. wholly correct
b. wholly incorrect
c. partly correct
d. partly incorrect
 145. Under the law, what agency that is
empowered to order the change of venue
or place of trial in order to prevent the
miscarriage of justice

a. DOJ
b. Supreme Court
c. Executive Judge
d. Regional state Prosecutor
146. Jurisdiction over the subject
matter is determined by the

a. nature of the offense

b. gravity of the offense
c. investigating officer
d. presiding judge
 147. The offender who is still
under investigation by the police

a. respondent
b. suspect
c. accused
d. plaintiff
148. Refers to facts and circumstances that would lead
a reasonably discreet and prudent man to believed that
an offense ha been committed and that an object
sought in connection with the offense are in the place to
be searched is

a. probable cause
b. search warrant
c. plain view doctrine
d. arrest warrant
 149. The method prescribed by law for
the apprehension and prosecution of a
person who might have committed a
crime and for his punishment in case of
conviction of acquittal in case he is found
innocent is

a. criminal jurisprudence
b. criminal law
c. criminal procedure
d. criminal jurisdiction
150. What is the liability of a witness
who has knowledge of legal
impediments in the subsequent
marriage?

a. principal
b. accomplice
c. accessory
d. No liability
 151. The court can validly
exercise its jurisdiction over the
criminal action if it has acquired
jurisdiction
a. over the subject matter
b. over then territory of the place
where the crime was committed
c. over the person of the accused
d. all of these
 152. The illegality of an arrest
can be questioned by the person
arrested before the court ay any
time

a. during the trial

b. even after posting bail but
before entering a plea
c. during the pre-trial conference
d. before posting bail
 153. If the accused is lawfully arrested
without a warrant of arrest for a grave
offense, he can only be detained within
this period, otherwise he will be released

a. 36 hrs
b. 18 hrs
c. 12 hrs
d. 72 hrs
154. Jurisdiction over the subject
matter is determined by the law
enforced at the time of the

a. discovery of the crime

b. commission of the crime
c. filing of the case
d. trial of the case
155. The constitutional rights of
an individual under custodial
investigation must be invoke by
such person before he/she can
avail of it
a. absolutely true
b. absolutely false
c. partly true
d. partly false.
 156. As a rule, bail shall no
longer be allowed after finality of
judgment of conviction, except

a. if he applies for probation

b. if he commenced to serve
his sentence
c. if he absconded before
promulgation of judgment
d. none of these
 157. The lapse of the 10-day period for
the police to execute the warrant of arrest
makes the warrant null and void and of no
effect

a. wholly true
b. wholly false
c. partly true
d. partly false
 158. There are three types of
systems of criminal procedure:
the inquisitorial, the accusatorial
and the third type is

a. secular
b. directional
c. mixed
d. peculiar
159. Which if the following does
not justify arrest without a
warrant

a. arrest based on police

suspicion
b. emergency doctrine
c. hot pursuit
d. continuing crime
 160. Offenses involving criminal
negligence where the penalty of fines
does not exceed a fine of P10,000.00 is
within the coverage of this rule

a. regular procedure,
b. ordinary procedure
c. summary procedure
d. any of this
161. Criminal actions requires preliminary
investigation by the proper officers where
the prescribed penalty at least

a. 6 months and 2 days

b. 4 yrs. 2 mos. And 1 day
c. 6 yrs. 2 mos. And 1 day
d. 4 yrs. And 1 day
162. Warrantless arrest may
be effected by:
a. police officers only
b. private individuals only
c. police officers or private
individuals
d. only any peace officer
authorized by law
 163. The absence of a
preliminary investigation affects
only the

a. substantial rights of the accused

b. jurisdiction of the court
c. authority of the court
d. jurisdiction of the court over the
subject matter
 164. What is the effect if the
search warrant was effected after
the lapse of the 10-day period
from its date

a. still valid
b. null and void
c. voidable
d. incomplete
165. Any amendment before plea, which
downgrades the nature of the offense
charged in or to excludes an accused
from the information, can be made only
on condition that

a. There must be motion filed by the

prosecutor
b. There must be notice of the motion
upon the offended party
c. The motion must be by leave of court
d. all of these
166. It is not necessary to state in the complaint
or information the precise time at which the
offense was committed. However, in one of the
following crimes time of the commission is an
essential element, and therefore, must be
alleged in the complaint or information

a. parricide
b. infanticide
c. abortion
d. malicious mischief
167. It is defined as an evaluation made by the
presiding judge personally within ten(10) days
from the filing of the case to determine the
existence of a probable cause whether or not to
cause the issuance of a warrant of arrest
against the accused

a. preliminary examination
b. preliminary investigation
c. preliminary conference
d. pre-trial conference
168. The constitutional right of an
accused to be presumed
innocent can

a. not be waived by the accused

b. be waived by the accused,
c. partly waivable
d. none of these
169. When a person is lawfully arrested without
a warrant of arrest involving an offense, which
requires a preliminary investigation, the
complaint or information may be filed without
need of such investigation, provided an
_______ has been conducted in accordance
with existing law or procedure

a. preliminary investigation,
b. preliminary examination
c. inquest
d. fact finding investigation
 170. A peace officer or a private
individual may, without a warrant,
effect an arrest of person
a. When, in the presence, the person to be
arrested has just committed, is committing, or
attempting to commit an offense
b. an offense has in fact been committed and he
has probable cause to believe based on
personal knowledge of fact and circumstances
that the person to be arrested has committed it,
c. When the person to be arrested is a prisoner
who escaped from his place of confinement
d. all of these
171. Under what procedure the affidavit
or sworn statement of the affiant of
declarant submitted in court be
considered as the direct oral testimonies
of said affiant or declarant

a. summary procedure
b. regular procedure
c. ordinary procedure
d. criminal procedure
172. The kind of evidence addressed to
the senses of the court, which is also
known as the evidence of the highest
probative value

a. oral testimony
b. object evidence
c. documentary evidence
d. testimonial evidence
 173. An application for a search
warrant can be made in any court of
the Philippines which has jurisdiction
over the subject matter

a. wholly true
b. partly true
c. wholly false
d. partly false
174. The following are exceptions of the
rule that there must be a valid warrant
before a search may be made, except

a. buy-bust operation
b. plain view search
c. consented search
d. extensive bodily search at a
check point
175. Who are liable for
treason?

a. Filipino Citizens
b. Resident Aliens
c. All of these
d. None of these
176. The amount of reasonable evidence,
which a reasonable mind of a prudent
person requires so that he might accept
as adequate to justify a conclusion is
called

a. proof beyond reasonable doubt

b. preponderance of evidence
c. substantial evidence
d. irrelevant evidence.
 177. Within what period the
warrant of arrest be executed by
the police officer

a. 10 days from its date

b. 10 days from its issuance
c. 10 days from receipt
d. 10 days application
178. In what court the Rule on
Summary Procedures is
applicable?

a. Regional Trial Court

b. Family Court
c. Any regular court
d. First Level Court
 179. What are those circumstances that
affect criminal liability because of the
conditions which make the act involuntary
or that negligence is present as an agent
of the crime?

a. mitigating
b. alternative
c. aggravating
d. justifying
 180. Which if the following is
among the rights of an accused?
a. to be presumed innocent until the
contrary is proved beyond
reasonable doubt
b. to have a speedy, impartial and
public trail
c. to be informed of the nature and
cause of the accusation against him
d. all of the above.
181. It has reference to a person
who testifies to a cause or gives
before a judicial tribunal

a. party litigant
b. judge
c. proponent
d. witness
 182. It is the mere acknowledgement of
facts or circumstances from which guilt
may be inferred but not sufficient in itself
to establish guilt made by him during the
pendency of the trial of his case

a. admission
b. confession
c. fact in issue
d. testimony
183. What is the period of validity
of a search warrant?

a. 10 days
b. 20 days
c. 40 days
d. 60 days
 184. The constitutional right to
consider a speedy, impartial and
public trail is available to

a. both parties
b. accused
c. offended party
d. none of these
185. Which is not a purpose of
the offender in using fictious
names?

a. To conceal identity
b. To conceal a crime
c. To evade execution
d. To cause damage to public
interest
186. The period within which the police
officer will make his report stating the
action taken by him whether the warrant
of arrest was enforced or not is within

a. 10 days from receipt

b. 10 days date
c. 10 days from its issuance
d. 10 days after the lapse of the period
to execute the warrant
187. This kind of a warrant of
arrest is null and void
a. alias warrant of arrest
b. General Warrant of Arrest
c. Bench Warrant of Arrest
d. Order of arrest in a direct
contempt
188. The constitutional rights of
an individual under custodial
investigation must be invoke by
said person before he can avail
of it
a. wholly true
b. wholly false
c. partly true
d. partly false
189. After the police officers seized the shabu
by virtue of search warrant, they immediately
delivered it to the PNP Crime Laboratory for
examination, instead of the court issuing the
search warrant. Is the procedure proper?

a. it is the proper procedure

b. it is improper
c. partly proper
d. it is irregular
 190. A complaint should be filed by the
offended party in order for the prosecutor
to conduct a preliminary investigation

a. yes
b. No
c. it depends
d. sometimes
191. The penalty for the offense
charged also determines venue

a. yes
b. no
c. it depends
d. sometimes
A sworn statement in writing; especially, a
declaration in writing, made upon oath an
authorized magistrate officer

a. oath
b. Relevant matter
c. Pertinent matter
d. Complaint
193. The prosecution of criminal
actions may be delegated with
the

a. State Prosecutor
b. Public Prosecutor
c. Private Prosecutor
d. Defense Counsel.
194. A place wherein the opium is
habitually dispensed for use by the
customers and addicts.

a. market
b. Opium dive or resort
c. casa
d. None of these
195. Jurisdiction over the subject
matter is determined by the

a. nature of the offense

b. gravity of the offense
c. Investigating officer
d. presiding judge
196. The offender who is still undergoing
preliminary investigation at the
prosecutors office is referred to as

a. respondent
b. suspect
c. accused,
d. defendant
 197. Refers to facts and circumstances that
would lead a reasonably discreet and prudent
man to believe that an offense has been
committed and that the object sought in
connection with the offense are in the place
searched is

a. probable cause
b. search warrant
c. plain view doctrine
d. arrest warrant
198. In criminal cases, can the
proceeding be held even if the
accused is not yet arraigned?

a. yes
b. sometimes
c. it depends
d. no
199. Which is not an
element of Lottery

a. Consideration
b. Chance
c. Prize or some advantage
or inequality
d. Design
200. Criminal Procedure as one of the
required subject in Criminology, is
designed to acquaint the students as
witnesses in

a. law enforcement
b. criminal investigation
c. court proceedings
d. d.school activities
201. As a rule, trial shall commence within
this period _____ from receipt of the pre-
trial order issued by the court

a. 5 days
b. 10 days
c. 15 days
d. 30 days
 202. If the accused is lawfully
arrested without a warrant of arrest
for a grave offense, he can only be
detained within this period, otherwise
he will be released
a. 36 hrs
b. 18 hrs
c. 12 hrs
d. 72 hrs
203. If the foreign elements are
all present, what is the crime
committed?

a. Direct bribery
b. Indirect bribery
c. Corruption of public official
d. None of these
 204. It is said that in search of house,
room, or premise, it should be made in
the presence of two witnesses. Who are
these 2 witnesses?

a. Those witnesses of sufficient age and

discretion on the same locality
b. Two members of the family
c. Two lawful occupants thereof
d. None of these
 205. Which is not an element of
conditional pardon?
a. Intent to imitate
b. Attempt to imitate
c. Two signatures of handwriting, the genuine and the
forged, bear some resemblance to each other.
d. The imitation of the two signatures or handwriting must
be perfect
206. The pre-marking of evidence of the
parties for identification purposes are
suppose to be made during this stage of
the proceedings

a. arraignment
b. trial proper
c. pre-trial conference
d. direct examination
207. Of the three types of systems of
criminal procedure, the one applied
in the Philippine jurisdiction is the

a. inquisitorial
b. accusatorial
c. mixed
d. adversarial
 208. It is a characteristic of a
Criminal Law that is binding on all
persons who live or sojourn in
Philippine territory.

a. territorial
b. general
c. prospective
d. preferential
 209. If the accuse dies before
arraignment what will happen to the
civil action which is deemed
instituted with the criminal action?

a. terminated
b. dissolved
c. dismissed
d. absolved
 210. If the judge finds probable cause
after conducting preliminary examination
what will he issue as mentioned in
Section 6, Rule 112

a. summons
b. search warrant
c. subpoena
d. warrant of arrest
 212. A private person who comes in
the aid of a person and authority was
himself assaulted. What crime is
committed?

a. Indirect assault
b. Direct assault
c. Assault upon an agent in authority
d. Assault upon a special agent
 211. The provisional dismissal of offenses
punishable by imprisonment not exceeding six
months or a fine of any amount or both, shall
become permanent after the lapse of this period
______ from the issuance of the order without
the case having been revived

a. 6 mos.
b. 2 yrs.
c. 1yr.
d. None of these
 213. A Bill of Particulars can be
availed by the accused any time

a. before his arrest

b. after his arrest
c. before plea
d. during arraignment
214. Any amendment before plea, which
downgrades the nature of the offense
charged in or to excludes an accused
from the information, can be made only
on condition that

a. There must be motion filed by the

prosecutor
b. There must be notice of the motion upon
the offended party
c. The motion must be by leave of court
d. all of these
 215. A kind aggravating
circumstance that changes the
nature of the crime.

a. generic
b. specific
c. qualifying
d. inherent
216. A kind of aggravating circumstance
that must, of necessary, accompany the
commission of the crime.

a. generic
b. specific
c. qualifying
d. inherent
217. The effect of a demurrer to
evidence with leave of court but
which was denied by the court is

a. accused may appeal the order of denial
b. the accused may file a motion for
reconsideration
c. the accused may present his evidence
d. the accused will submit the case for
decision
218. When a person is lawfully arrested without
a warrant of arrest involving an offense, which
requires a preliminary investigation, the
complaint or information may be filed without
need of such investigation, provided an
_______ has been conducted in accordance
with existing law or procedure

a. preliminary investigation
b. preliminary examination
c. Inquest
d. fact finding investigation
219. Of these grounds for a motion to
quash a complaint or in formation if
granted by the court, the accused
can still be prosecuted for the same
offense, except in this one

a. no cause of action
b. lack of jurisdiction
c. the officer who filed the information
has no authority to do so
d. prescription
220. Under what procedure the affidavit
or sworn statement of the affiant or
declarant submitted in court be
considered as the direct oral testimonies
of said affiant or declarant

a. summary procedure
b. regular procedure
c. ordinary procedure
d. criminal procedure.
221. What will happen to the criminal
liability of the accused if he died after
arraignment but during the trial?
a. Suspended
b. Extinguished
c. Dismissed
d. terminated.
 222. An extra-judicial confession
made by an accused shall not be
sufficient and admissible unless it is
in

a. Writing
b. voluntarily given
c. presence of his counsel
d. all of these
223. The following are exceptions of
the rule that there must be a valid
warrant before a search may be
made, except
a. buy-bust operation
b. plain view doctrine
c. consented search
d. extensive bodily search at a check
point
 224. The Revised Rule on
Criminal Procedure took effect on

a. August 1, 1983
b. November 15, 1991
c. January 17, 1983
d. December 1, 2000.
 225. The presiding judge can
motu propio quash an information
even without any motion from the
accused
a. Yes
b. it depends
c. No
d. maybe.
 226. Within what period the
warrant of arrest be executed by
the police officer

a. 10 days from its date

b. 10 days from its issuance
c. 10 days from receipt
d. 10 days application.
227. In what court the Rule on
Summary Procedures is
applicable?

a. Regional Trial Court

b. Family Court
c. Any regular court
d. First Level Court.
 228. Whenever a counsel de oficio is
appointed by the court to defend the
accused at the arraignment, he shall be
given this period ____ to consult with the
accused as to his plea before proceeding
with the arraignment
a. reasonable time
b. One (1) hour
c. five (5) days
d. ten (10) days.
229. A court personnel who assist the
court in all its administrative functions
and other auxiliary services to the
general public

a. Stenographer
b. Clerk
c. legal researcher
d. clerk of court.
230. If the accused during arraignment for
a crime of murder with the assistance of
his counsel of his own choice pleaded
guilty, and thereafter the court rendered
an order convicting him of the offense
charged. Is the order of conviction
proper?

a. of course
b. Maybe
c. it depends
d. no
231. Evidence adduced in support of the
discharge of an accused shall
automatically form part of the trial. If the
court denies the motion for discharge of
the accused as state witness, his sworn
statement shall be inadmissible in
evidence
a. No
b. it depends
c. Yes
d. maybe
232. It exists when two

a. presiding judge
b. executive judge
c. Secretary of Justice
d. Supreme Court
233. The conduct of preliminary
investigation is an

a. administrative function
b. executive function
c. judicial function
d. legislative function.
234. What do you call the part of the
record of a case taken down by the
stenographer in his/her short hand or
stenotype
a. transcript of stenographic notes
b. stenographic notes
c. Transcript
d. record
235. A person under custody but who
was not yet formally charged can
post bail in the court of the
municipality, city or territory where he
is being held
a. of course
b. not yet
c. it depends
d. sometimes.
 236. It is the quality by which an act may be
ascribed to a person as its author or owner. It
implies that the committed has been freely and
consciously done and may, therefore, be put
down to the doer as his very own.

a. responsibility
b. imputability
c. intent
d. intelligence
237. This kind of warrant of arrest issued
by the court while in session against an
accused who failed to appear without
justifiable cause

a. alias warrant of arrest

b. General warrant of arrest
c. Bench warrant of arrest
d. Order of arrest in a direct contempt
 238. What do you call the record of the
court where the proceedings of the court
or the judgment of the court is recorded in
case the accused failed to appear for the
promulgation of judgment despite notice

a. log book
b. record book
c. criminal docket book
d. folio of the case.
239. Rule 110 of the Rules of Court
is known as prosecution of

a. criminal offender
b. criminal offenses
c. Offenses
d. crimes.
240. What crime is committed if the
offender who seize the vessel by
violence are members of the crew?

a. Piracy
b. Piracy in the high seas
c. Mutiny
d. Robbery in the high seas
241. The penalty for the offense
charged also determines
jurisdiction

a. Yes
b. No
c. it depends
d. sometimes
242. The illegality of an arrest or the
validity of the warrant issued can be
questioned by the person arrested
before the court at any time

a. before posting his bail

b. before entering a plea
c. before pre- trial
d. during the trial proper.
243. The prosecution of criminal
actions may be delegated with
the
a. State Prosecutor
b. Public Prosecutor
c. Private Prosecutor
d. Defense Counsel
244. Trial in absentia is allowed
only under those circumstances
provided by the rules after the
accused
a. has been arrested
b. has posted bail
c. has surrendered
d. has been arraigned.
 245. What is the effect if the perfected
appeal of the accused pending before the
appellate court is withdrawn and granted
by the said court

a. case dismissed
b. appealed decision becomes final
c. accused is acquitted
d. case will be decided by the court
 246. The offender who was
formally charged in court is called

a. suspect
b. respondent
c. accused
d. defendant
 247. The process or method of settling
dispute in the Barangay where the
Punong Barangay or Pangkat as the case
maybe shall encourage the parties to find
a solution to settle their dispute amicably
is

a. confrontation
b. arbitration, mediation
c. conciliation
d. compromise.
 248. In a criminal cases, can the
proceeding be held even if the accused is
not yet arraigned?

a. yes
b. sometimes
c. it depends
d. no
 249. Which of these relatives can be
defended in accordance with paragraph 2
of article11 of the Revised Penal Code

a. spouse
b. ascendants
c. Relatives by consanguity
within the 4th civil degree
d. All of these
250.The age of conditional
responsibility

a. Nine (9) years old and

below
b. 18 years old or over to 70
c. Between 9 and 15 years
old
d. None of these
251. As a rule, trial shall commence
within this period _____ from receipt
of the pre-trial order issued by the
court

a. 5 days
b. 10 days
c. 15 days
d. 30 days
 252. The remedy available to the
offended party during the pendency of the
case to ensure the recovery of his/her
claim for civil liability arising from the
offense in the same criminal case

a. separate civil action

b. attachment
c. garnishment
d. levy
253. It is something that happens outside
the sway of our will, and although it
comes about through some act of our will,
lies beyond bounds of humanity
foreseeable consequences.

a. negligence
b. accident
c. Force majeure
d. All of these
 254. A circumstance where the
offender uses violence or physical
force to compel another person to
commit a crime.

a. Uncontrollable fear
b. Irresistible fear
c. Passion or obfuscation
d. None of these
255. A circumstance where the
offender employs intimidation or
threat in compelling another to
commit a crime

a. Uncontrollable fear
b. Irresistible force
c. Passion or obfuscation
d. None of these
256. The idea and resolve to commit the
crime comes from criminal and the officer
resorts ways and means to trap and
capture a lawbreaker while executing his
criminal plan

a. instigation
b. entrapment
c. compulsion
d. All of these
257. Of the three types of systems of
criminal procedure, the one applied
in the Philippine jurisdiction is the

a. inquisitorial
b. accusatorial
c. mixed
d. adversarial.
258. It is understood as any unjust or
improper conduct or act of the
offended party capable of exciting,
inciting, or irritating anyone.

a. instigation
b. provocation
c. threat
d. inducement
 259. If the accuse dies before
arraignment what will happen to the
civil action which is deemed
instituted with the criminal action?

a. terminated
b. dissolved,
c. dismissed
d. absolved
 260. If the judge finds probable cause
after conducting preliminary examination
what will he issue as mentioned in
Section 6, Rule 112

a. summons
b. search warrant
c. subpoena
d. warrant of arrest
261. It involves intellectual trickery
and cunning on the part of the
accused.

a. fraud
b. craft
c. disguise
d. none of these
 262. Insidious words or machinations
used to induce the victim to act in a
manner which would enable the offender
to carry out his design

a. fraud
b. craft
c. disguise
d. none of these
263. It is resorting to any device
to conceal identity.

a. fraud
b. craft
c. disguise
d. none of these
264. When the culprit enjoys and delights
in making his victims suffer slowly and
gradually, causing him unnecessary
physical pain in the consummation of the
criminal act.

a. alevosia
b. ognominy
c. treachery
d. cruelty
 265. One who cooperates in the
commission in the offense by another act
would, without which, it would not have
been accomplished.

a. accessory
b. accomplice
c. Co-conspirator
d. None of these
266. It is defined as an evaluation made by the
presiding judge personally within ten(10) days
from the filing of the case to determine the
existence of a probable cause whether or not to
cause the issuance of a warrant of arrest
against the accused

a. preliminary examination
b. preliminary investigation
c. preliminary conference
d. pre-trial conference
267. The effect of a demurrer to
evidence with leave of court but
which was denied by the court is

a. accused may appeal the order of denial

b. the accused may file a motion for
reconsideration
c. the accused may present his evidence
d. the accused will submit the case for
decision.
268. The submission of evidence for
the consideration of the court is
called

a. presentation of evidence
b. expunge the evidence
c. striking out of an evidence
d. formal offer of evidence
 269. Of these grounds for a motion to
quash a complaint or information if
granted by the court, the accused can still
be prosecuted for the same offense,
except in this one

a. no cause of action
b. lack of jurisdiction
c. the officer who filed the information
has no authority to do so
d. prescription
270. The kind of evidence addressed to
the senses of the court, which is also
known as the evidence of the highest
probative value

a. oral testimony,
b. object evidence
c. documentary evidence
d. testimonial evidence.
271. What will happen to the criminal
liability of the accused if he died after
arraignment but during the trial?

a. suspended
b. extinguished
c. dismissed
d. terminated.
 272. An extra-judicial confession
made by an accused shall not be
sufficient and admissible unless it is
in

a. writing
b. voluntarily given
c. presence of his counsel
d. all of these
273. Which is not an invisible penalty?

a. Public censure
b. Reclusion
c. consented search
d. extensive bodily search at a check
point.
 274. The Revised Rule on
Criminal Procedure took effect on

a. August 1, 1983
b. November 15, 1991
c. January 17, 1983
d. December 1, 2000.
275. The presiding judge can motu propio
quash an information even without any
motion from the accused

a. yes
b. it depends
c. no
d. maybe
 276. Within what period the
warrant of arrest be executed by
the police officer

a. 10 days from its date

b. 10 days from its issuance
c. 10 days from receipt
d. 10 days application.
277. In what court the Rule on
Summary Procedures is
applicable?

a. Regional Trial Court

b. Family Court
c. Any regular court
d. First Level Court.
278. Whenever a counsel de oficio is appointed
by the court to defend the accused at the
arraignment, he shall be given this period ____
to consult with the accused as to his plea before
proceeding with the arraignment

a. reasonable time
b. 0ne (1) hour
c. five (5) days
d. ten (10) days
279. A court personnel who assist
the court in its judicial function of
summarizing the facts of cases
submitted for resolution/decision

a. stenographer
b. clerk,
c. legal researcher
d. clerk of court
 280. If the accused during arraignment for a
crime of murder with the assistance of his
counsel of his own choice pleaded guilty, and
thereafter the court rendered an order
convicting him of the offense charged. Is the
order of conviction proper?

a. of course
b. maybe,
c. it depends
d. no.
 281. Evidence adduced in support of the
discharge of an accused shall automatically
form part of the trial. If the court denies the
motion for discharge of the accused as state
witness, his sworn statement shall be
inadmissible in evidence

a. no
b. it depends
c. yes,
d. maybe
 282. The venue for the trial of a criminal
action can only be transferred in order not
to frustrate the ends of justice by the

a. presiding judge
b. executive judge
c. Secretary of Justice
d. Supreme Court.
 283. The conduct of
preliminary investigation is an

a. administrative function
b. executive function
c. judicial function
d. legislative function.
284. What do you call the part of the
record of a case taken down by the
stenographer in his/her short hand or
stenotype

a. transcript of stenographic notes

b. stenographic notes
c. Transcript
d. record
285. A person under custody but who was
not yet formally charged can post bail in
the court of the municipality, city or
territory where he is being held

a. of course,
b. not yet,
c. it depends
d. sometimes
286. In adultery or Concubinage, the
instances where the offended party
cannot institute criminal prosecution,
except

a. if he/she does not include both the guilty

parties
b. if he/she has consented to the offense,
c. if he/she pardoned the offenders
d. if he/she charged both accused.
287. This kind of warrant of arrest issued
by the court while in session against an
accused who failed to appear without
justifiable cause

a. alias warrant of arrest

b. General warrant of arrest
c. Bench warrant of arrest
d. Order of arrest in a direct contempt
 288. What do you call the record of the
court where the proceedings of the court
or the judgment of the court is recorded in
case the accused failed to appear for the
promulgation of judgment despite notice

a. log book
b. record book
c. criminal docket book
d. folio of the case.
289. The kind of circumstances that must
be specifically alleged or stated in the
complain or information, otherwise the
court will not consider in imposing the
proper penalty even if proven during the
trial

a. mitigating
b. qualifying/aggravating
c. alternative
d. justifying