DPWH Reviewer

1.
What is the dividing line between

course and fine aggregates:
a. 4.75mm sieve
b. 2.00mm sieve
c. 9.50mm sieve
1. What is the dividing line between
course and fine aggregates:
a. 4.75mm sieve
b. 2.00mm sieve
c. 9.50mm sieve
2. The depth of the weakened plain joint
should at all times not less than:
a. 60mm
b. 55mm
c. 50mm
2. The depth of the weakened plain joint
should at all times not less than:
a. 60mm
b. 55mm
c. 50mm
3. Serves as load transfer devised and are
held in position parallel to the surface the
line of the slab by a metal device:
a. Tie bar
b. Dowel
c. Reinforcing bar
3. Serves as load transfer devised and are
held in position parallel to the surface the
line of the slab by a metal device:
a. Tie bar
b. Dowel
c. Reinforcing bar
4. The depth of the corrugation in the
service pavement after blooming:
a. 2.0mm
b. 1.5mm
c. 1.6mm
4. The depth of the corrugation in the
service pavement after blooming:
a. 2.0mm
b. 1.5mm
c. 1.6mm
5. The width of the weakened plain joint
should be more than:
a. 15mm
b. 14mm
c. 6mm
5. The width of the weakened plain joint
should be more than:
a. 15mm
b. 14mm
c. 6mm
6. The flexural strength of the concrete
beam sample 14 days when tested at third
point method:
a. 4.5Mpa
b. 3.8Mpa
c. 5.5Mpa
6. The flexural strength of the concrete
beam sample 14 days when tested at third
point method:
a. 4.5Mpa
b. 3.8Mpa
c. 5.5Mpa
7. What is the weight of class “A” Riprap
stones:
a. 20kgs to a maximum of 35kgs w/ at least 50%

weighing 30kgs
b. 15kgs to a maximum of 25kgs w/ at least 50%
weighing 20kgs
c. 15kgs to a maximum of 30kgs w/ at least 50%
weighing 25kgs
7. What is the weight of class “A” Riprap
stones:
a. 20kgs to a maximum of 35kgs w/ at least 50%

weighing 30kgs
b. 15kgs to a maximum of 25kgs w/ at least 50%
weighing 20kgs
c. 15kgs to a maximum of 30kgs w/ at least 50%
weighing 25kgs
8. The proportion mix of mortar for
grouted riprap shall:
a. one part of cement to 2 parts of sand
b. one part of cement to 2.5 parts of sand
c. one part of cement to 3 parts sand
8. The proportion mix of mortar for
grouted riprap shall:
a. one part of cement to 2 parts of sand
b. one part of cement to 2.5 parts of sand
c. one part of cement to 3 parts sand
9. The practice of artificially densifying and
incorporating definite density into the
soil mass rolling, tampering or other
means:
a. Consolidation
b. Compaction
c. Settlement
9. The practice of artificially densifying and
incorporating definite density into the
soil mass rolling, tampering or other
means:
a. Consolidation
b. Compaction
c. Settlement
10. The unit pressure greater than which
progressive settlement will occurs
leading to failure:
a. Bearing value
b. Bearing capacity
c. Bearing formula
10. The unit pressure greater than which
progressive settlement will occurs
leading to failure:
a. Bearing value
b. Bearing capacity
c. Bearing formula
11. Specified or selected materials of
designed thickness placed as
foundation for pavement:
a. Embankment
b. Subbase
c. Base
12. The materials in excavation (cuts)
embankment (fills) and embankment
foundation immediately below the
layer of Subbase, base or pavement
and to such depth as may affect the
structural design:
a. Embankment foundation
b. Subgrade materials
c. Filling materials
12. The materials in excavation (cuts)
embankment (fills) and embankment
foundation immediately below the
layer of Subbase, base or pavement
and to such depth as may affect the
structural design:
a. Embankment foundation
b. Subgrade materials
c. Filling materials
13. Specified or materials of design
thickness placed as a foundation for
base:
a. Base
b. Subbase
c. Subgrade
13. Specified or materials of design
thickness placed as a foundation for
base:
a. Base
b. Subbase
c. Subgrade
14. A widely used as a control test in
embankment construction to ensure
adequate compaction:
a. Laboratory compaction
b. Field Density Test
c. Liquid and Plastic limit
14. A widely used as a control test in
embankment construction to ensure
adequate compaction:
a. Laboratory compaction
b. Field Density Test
c. Liquid and Plastic limit
15. A sand used to measure the volume
of test hole in field density test:
a. Coarse sand
b. Fine sand
c. Calibrated sand
15. A sand used to measure the volume
of test hole in field density test:
a. Coarse sand
b. Fine sand
c. Calibrated sand
16. What item number is Portland
cement Concrete pavement:
a. Item 403
b. Item 405
c. Item 311
16. What item number is Portland
cement Concrete pavement:
a. Item 403
b. Item 405
c. Item 311
17. What are the essential laboratory
test for soil classification:
a. Liquid and Plastic limit

b. Grading test
c. All of the above
17. What are the essential laboratory
test for soil classification:
a. Liquid and Plastic limit

b. Grading test
c. All of the above
18. Provided along the slopes of high
embankments as in an erosion
control measure and to improve the
stability of the side slopes:
a. Freeboard
b. Berm
c. Revetments
18. Provided along the slopes of high
embankments as in an erosion
control measure and to improve the
stability of the side slopes:
a. Freeboard
b. Berm
c. Revetments
19. What is the oven drying temperature
for moisture content determination:
a. 160°C+ 10
b. 119° C+ 5
c. 110°C + 5
19. What is the oven drying temperature
for moisture content determination:
a. 160°C+ 10
b. 119° C+ 5
c. 110°C + 5
20. What is the air drying temperature:
a. Not to exceed 110°C

b. Not to exceed 60°C
c. Not to exceed 120°C
20. What is the air drying temperature:
a. Not to exceed 110°C

b. Not to exceed 60°C
c. Not to exceed 120°C
21. The primary quality control
mechanism for the production of
asphalt mixture:
a. Asphalt cement
b. Job mix formula
c. Asphalt content
21. The primary quality control
mechanism for the production of
asphalt mixture:
a. Asphalt cement
b. Job mix formula
c. Asphalt content
22. The most commonly used method in
the design and evaluation of
bituminous concrete mixes:
a. Marshall Stability method

b. Plant mix method
c. None of the above
22. The most commonly used method in
the design and evaluation of
bituminous concrete mixes:
a. Marshall Stability method

b. Plant mix method
23. The most common method in
determining the consistency of
concrete mix:
a. Sample Method
b. Visual method
c. Slump Test
23. The most common method in
determining the consistency of
concrete mix:
a. Sample Method
b. Visual method
c. Slump Test
24. A Department Memorandum
Circular, a revised method on Field
Density Test:
a. DM No. 48
b. DM No. 40
c. DM No. 39
24. A Department Memorandum
Circular, a revised method on Field
Density Test:
a. DM No. 48
b. DM No. 40
c. DM No. 39
25. Interconnected cracks forming a
series of small blocks resembling an
alligator skin or chicken wire:
a. Alligator cracks
b. Hairline cracks
c. Transverse cracks
25. Interconnected cracks forming a
series of small blocks resembling an
alligator skin or chicken wire:
a. Alligator cracks
b. Hairline cracks
c. Transverse cracks
26. A layer of an asphalt aggregate
mixture of variable thickness used to
eliminate irregularities in the content
of an existing surface prior to
placement of an overlay:
a. Asphalt Cement
b. Asphalt Surface Treatment
c. Asphalt Leveling Course
26. A layer of an asphalt aggregate
mixture of variable thickness used to
eliminate irregularities in the content
of an existing surface prior to
placement of an overlay:
a. Asphalt Cement
27. An application of low-viscosity
cutback to an absorbent surface, or a
mixed-in application of emulsified
asphalt. It is used only on a treated
base prior to placement of an
asphalt pavement:
a. Asphalt Seal Coat

b. Asphalt Prime Coat
c. Asphalt Tack Coat
27. An application of low-viscosity
cutback to an absorbent surface, or a
mixed-in application of emulsified
asphalt. It is used only on a treated
base prior to placement of an
asphalt pavement:

b. Asphalt Prime Coat
c. Asphalt Tack Coat
28. A thin asphalt surface treatment
used to waterproof and improve
texture of an asphalt wearing
surface:
a. Asphalt Tack Coat

b. Asphalt Seal Coat
c. Asphalt Surface Treatment
28. A thin asphalt surface treatment
used to waterproof and improve
texture of an asphalt wearing
surface:
a. Asphalt Tack Coat

c. Asphalt Surface Treatment
29. The upward movement of asphalt in
an asphalt pavement resulting in the
formation of a film of asphalt on the
surface:
a. Blow-up
c. Bleeding or Flushing Asphalt
29. The upward movement of asphalt in
an asphalt pavement resulting in the
formation of a film of asphalt on the
surface:
a. Blow-up
c. Bleeding or Flushing Asphalt
30. An application of asphalt materials
to any type of road or pavement
surface with or without a cover of
mineral aggregates that produce an
increase in thickness of less than
25mm or 1inch:
a. Asphalt Overlay
c. Macadam Asphalt
30. An application of asphalt materials
to any type of road or pavement
surface with or without a cover of
mineral aggregates that produce an
increase in thickness of less than
25mm or 1inch:
a. Asphalt Overlay
c. Macadam Asphalt
31. The localized buckling or shattering
of a rigid-type pavement, occurring
usually at transverse crack or joint:
a. Longitudinal crack
b. Blow up
c. Alligator crack
31. The localized buckling or shattering
of a rigid-type pavement, occurring
usually at transverse crack or joint:
a. Longitudinal crack
b. Blow up
c. Alligator crack
32. A very light application of asphalt
applied to an existing asphalt or
Portland cement surface, used to
ensure a bond between the surface of
being paved and the overlaying
course:

b. Asphalt Tack Coat
32. A very light application of asphalt
applied to an existing asphalt or
Portland cement surface, used to
ensure a bond between the surface of
being paved and the overlaying
course:

b. Asphalt Tack Coat
33. A mixture of slow-setting emulsified
asphalt, water, aggregate, and
mineral filler produced to a slurry
consistency and placed on pavement
surface:

b. Asphalt Emulsion Slurry Seal
c. All of the above
33. A mixture of slow-setting emulsified
asphalt, water, aggregate, and
mineral filler produced to a slurry
consistency and placed on pavement
surface:

b. Asphalt Emulsion Slurry Seal
c. All of the above
34. The separation of the pavement due
to natural causes, traffic action, or
reflections from an underlying
pavement:
a. Construction joint
b. Crack
c. Bleeding
34. The separation of the pavement due
to natural causes, traffic action, or
reflections from an underlying
pavement:
a. Construction joint
b. Crack
c. Bleeding
35. The bowl-shaped holes of varying
sizes in the pavement, resulting from
localized disintegration
a. potholes
b. cracks
c. raveling
35. The bowl-shaped holes of varying
sizes in the pavement, resulting from
localized disintegration
a. potholes
b. cracks
c. raveling
36. A crack in asphalt overlays that
reflects the crack pattern in the
pavement structure underneath
a. Reflective cracks
b. Transverse cracks
c. Hairline cracks
36. A crack in asphalt overlays that
reflects the crack pattern in the
pavement structure underneath
a. Reflective cracks
b. Transverse cracks
c. Hairline cracks
37. A cracks sometimes crescent shaped,
that point in the direction of the
trust of the wheels on the pavement
surface, caused by lack of bond
between two pavement layers
a. Slippage cracks
b. Reflection cracks
c. Longitudinal cracks
37. A cracks sometimes crescent shaped,
that point in the direction of the
trust of the wheels on the pavement
surface, caused by lack of bond
between two pavement layers
a. Slippage cracks
b. Reflection cracks
c. Longitudinal cracks
38. Any condition that might contribute
to making a pavement slippery:
a. Skid resistance
b. Skid hazard
38. Any condition that might contribute
to making a pavement slippery:
a. Skid resistance
b. Skid hazard
39. The uniform rate of flow of concrete
a. 15 to 25 mᶾ per hour
b. 15 to 20 mᶾ per hour
c. 10 to 25mᶾ per hour
39. The uniform rate of flow of concrete
a. 15 to 25 mᶾ per hour
b. 15 to 20 mᶾ per hour
c. 10 to 25mᶾ per hour
40. Use to evaluate the potetential
strength of soil/aggregate
a. Liquid Limit
b. Compaction
c. CBR
40. Use to evaluate the potetential
strength of soil/aggregate
a. Liquid Limit
b. Compaction
c. CBR
41. Test used to determine the hardness
property of course aggregate
a. Penetration Test
b. Ductility Test
c. Abrasion Test
41. Test used to determine the hardness
property of course aggregate
a. Penetration Test
b. Ductility Test
c. Abrasion Test
42. Test which gives an indication of clay
content in soil
a. Plasticity index
b. Group index
c. Liquid Limit
42. Test which gives an indication of clay
content in soil
a. Plasticity index
b. Group index
c. Liquid Limit
43. The soaked CBR value for item 200
Subbase at maximum dry density is
a. Not less than 45%

b. Not less than 25%
c. Not less than 80%
44. The soaked CBR value for item 201-
Base Course at maximum dry density
is

44. The soaked CBR value for item 201-
Base Course at maximum dry density
is

45. The mass percent of wear of course
aggregate for base materials by Los
Angeles Abrasion Test
a. Not more than 80%

b. Not more than 50%
c. Not more than 40%
45. The mass percent of wear of course
aggregate for base materials by Los
Angeles Abrasion Test
a. Not more than 80%

b. Not more than 50%
c. Not more than 40%
46. The stones used for Stone Masonry
shall have a thickness of not less
than:
a. 200mm
b. 100mm
c. 150mm
46. The stones used for Stone Masonry
shall have a thickness of not less
than:
a. 200mm
b. 100mm
c. 150mm
47. The rate of loading for compressive
strength
a. 20-60 psi/sec
b. 20-40 psi/sec
c. 20-50 psi/sec
47. The rate of loading for compressive
strength
a. 20-60 psi/sec
b. 20-40 psi/sec
c. 20-50 psi/sec
48. The temperature for moist curing of
specimen that gives the best results
a. 159°C to 17°C
b. 15.5°C to 37.5°C
c. 18°C to 24°C
48. The temperature for moist curing of
specimen that gives the best results
a. 159°C to 17°C
b. 15.5°C to 37.5°C
c. 18°C to 24°C
49. The maximum size of course
aggregates required for item 311-
PCCP
a. 3 inches (75mm)
b. 2 ½ inches (63mm)
c. 2 inches (50mm)
49. The maximum size of course
aggregates required for item 311-
PCCP
a. 3 inches (75mm)
b. 2 ½ inches (63mm)
c. 2 inches (50mm)
50. A program of quality control works
to be compiled by the contractor is
prepared by DPWH
a. Minimum Testing Requirements

b. Quality Control Program
c. Logbook
50. A program of quality control works
to be compiled by the contractor is
prepared by DPWH
a. Minimum Testing Requirements

b. Quality Control Program
c. Logbook
51. Prescribed in each project based on
estimated quantities. The
requirements specify the kind and
number of test for each item of
works
a. Materials Logbook
b. Minimum Testing requirements
c. Monthly materials Report
51. Prescribed in each project based on
estimated quantities. The
requirements specify the kind and
number of test for each item of
works
a. Materials Logbook
b. Minimum Testing requirements
c. Monthly materials Report
52. Memorandum Circular no. hereby
directed that all materials men in
charge in a said project keep
a. MC #55
b. MC #79
c. MC #80
52. Memorandum Circular no. hereby
directed that all materials men in
charge in a said project keep
a. MC #55
b. MC #79
c. MC #80
53. A department Order, hereby directed that
only test report issued by the
regional/District Laboratories of the
Department and order testing
laboratories accredited by the DPWH
shall be allowed to be used in the
acceptance or rejection of construction
materials
a. DO #50
b. DO #135
c. DO #155
53. A department Order, hereby directed that
only test report issued by the
regional/District Laboratories of the
Department and order testing
laboratories accredited by the DPWH
shall be allowed to be used in the
acceptance or rejection of construction
materials
a. DO #50
b. DO #135
c. DO #155
54. A Department Order, hereby
directed, No acceptance and final
payment shall be made on
completed concrete and asphalt
pavement unless core test for
thickness determination is
conducted
a. DO #119
b. DO #55
c. DO #100
54. A Department Order, hereby
directed, No acceptance and final
payment shall be made on
completed concrete and asphalt
pavement unless core test for
thickness determination is
conducted
a. DO #119
b. DO #55
c. DO #100
55. A number of measurements for
asphalt core specimen
a. 3
b. 8
c. 9
a. 3
b. 8
c. 9
a. 2
b. 4
c. 6
a. 2
b. 4
c. 6
57. A test covers the quantitative
determination of bitumen in hot
mixed paving mixtures and
pavement samples for specification
acceptance, service evaluation,
control and research
a. Extraction Test
b. Spot Test
c. Hot-mixed Temperature Test
57. A test covers the quantitative
determination of bitumen in hot
mixed paving mixtures and
pavement samples for specification
acceptance, service evaluation,
control and research
a. Extraction Test
b. Spot Test
c. Hot-mixed Temperature Test
58. The permitted variances in design
requirements of aggregate base
materials for thickness of layer
a. ±10mm
b. ±5mm
c. ±20mm
58. The permitted variances in design
materials for thickness of layer
a. ±10mm
b. ±5mm
c. ±20mm
60. The permitted variations in design
materials on crossfall or camber
a. ±0.3%
b. ±0.2%
c. ±0.4%
60. The permitted variations in design
materials on crossfall or camber
a. ±0.3%
b. ±0.2%
c. ±0.4%
61. If the required thickness of Subbase
or base is 150mm or less, this maybe
be spread and compacted in
a. 2 layers
b. one layer
c. all of the above
61. If the required thickness of Subbase
or base is 150mm or less, this maybe
be spread and compacted in
a. 2 layers
b. one layer
c. all of the above
62. The in-place density (tested by
AASHTOT 191) of each layer should
consistently
a. at least 95% of the MDD

b. at least 100% of the MDD
62. The in-place density (tested by
AASHTOT 191) of each layer should
consistently
a. at least 95% of the MDD

b. at least 100% of the MDD
63. The maximum sieve opening for
grading requirement of aggregate
base course (item201)
a. 65mm
b. 50mm
c. 75mm
63. The maximum sieve opening for
grading requirement of aggregate
base course (item201)
a. 65mm
b. 50mm
c. 75mm
64. The bituminous Prime Coat materials
should be applied by a pressure
distributor at specified temperature
and at an application rate ranging
from:
a. 1 to 2 liters/m²
b. 1 to 2 ½ liters/m²
c. 1 to 4 liters/m²
64. The bituminous Prime Coat materials
should be applied by a pressure
distributor at specified temperature
and at an application rate ranging
from:
a. 1 to 2 liters/m²
b. 1 to 2 ½ liters/m²
c. 1 to 4 liters/m²
65. The rate of application for
Bituminous Tack Coat materials
(item302) ranging from:
a. 0.2 to 0.7 liters/m²

b. 0.2 to 0.9 liters/m²
c. 0.1 to 0.7 liters/m²
65. The rate of application for
Bituminous Tack Coat materials
(item302) ranging from:
a. 0.2 to 0.7 liters/m²

b. 0.2 to 0.9 liters/m²
c. 0.1 to 0.7 liters/m²
66. The Plasticity index for mineral filler
used in Bituminous Concrete Surface
Course Hot laid
a. Not greater than 5

b. Not greater than 6
c. Not greater than 4
66. The Plasticity index for mineral filler
used in Bituminous Concrete Surface
Course Hot laid

67. The gradation requirement used for
Hot plant mix Bituminous pavement
a. Grading A
b. Grading C
c. Grading D
67. The gradation requirement used for
Hot plant mix Bituminous pavement
a. Grading A
b. Grading C
c. Grading D
68. The placing temperature for
Bituminous mixture measured in the
truck prior to dumping
a. Should not be less than 107°C

b. Should not be less than 100°C
c. Should not be less than 105°C
68. The placing temperature for
Bituminous mixture measured in the
truck prior to dumping
a. Should not be less than 107°C

b. Should not be less than 100°C
c. Should not be less than 105°C
69. How many samples or core drilled
samples be taken for each full
operation
a. at least one, but more than 3

b. at least two, but more than 5
c. at least 3
69. How many samples or core drilled
samples be taken for each full
operation
a. at least one, but more than 3

b. at least two, but more than 5
c. at least 3
70. Unsuitable materials are soils with
Liquid Limit exceeding
a. 35
b. 55
c. 80
70. Unsuitable materials are soils with
Liquid Limit exceeding
a. 35
b. 55
c. 80
71. Unsuitable materials are soil with a
natural water content exceeding
a. 55
b. 80
c. 100
71. Unsuitable materials are soil with a
natural water content exceeding
a. 55
b. 80
c. 100
72. Materials containing detrimental
quantities of organic material such
as grass, roots, and sewage, highly
organic soils such as peat and muck
a. suitable materials
b. unsuitable materials
c. Embankment
72. Materials containing detrimental
quantities of organic material such
as grass, roots, and sewage, highly
organic soils such as peat and muck
a. suitable materials
b. unsuitable materials
c. Embankment
73. The fraction passing the
0.42mm(No.40) sieves for item 200-
Aggregate Subbase course shall have
a liquid limit of

b. Not less than 35
73. The fraction passing the
0.42mm(No.40) sieves for item 200-
a liquid limit of

b. Not less than 35
74. The fraction passing the 0.425mm
(No. 40) sieves fro item104-
Embankment shall have a liquid limit
a. Liquid Limit than 25

(No. 40) sieves fro item104-
Embankment shall have a liquid limit
a. Liquid Limit than 25

(no.40) sieves for item 201
Aggregate base course shall have a
liquid limit of

(no.40) sieves for item 201
Aggregate base course shall have a
liquid limit of

(No. 40) sieves for item 202 Crushed
Aggregate Base Course shall have a
liquid limit as determined by
AASHTO T89

(No. 40) sieves for item 202 Crushed
liquid limit as determined by
AASHTO T89

77. The fraction passing the 0.425
(No.40) sieves for item 200-
aggregate Subbase course shall have
a plasticity index of
a. not greater than 12

b. not greater than 6
c. none of the above
(No.40) sieves for item 200-
aggregate Subbase course shall have
a plasticity index of

78. The fraction passing the 0.425 (No.
40) sieves for item 201-aggregate
base course shall have plasticity
index of

c. not greater than 25
78. The fraction passing the 0.425 (No.
40) sieves for item 201-aggregate
base course shall have plasticity
index of

(no.40) sieves for item 202-
plasticity index of

(no.40) sieves for item 202-
plasticity index of

80. The coarse portion, retained on a
2.00mm (No.10) sieves for item 200
a mass percent of wear by the Los
Angeles Abrasion tests determined
by AASHTO T96
a. not exceeding 40
b. Not exceeding 45
c. Not exceeding 50
2.00mm (No.10) sieves for item 200
a mass percent of wear by the Los
Angeles Abrasion tests determined
by AASHTO T96
a. not exceeding 40
b. Not exceeding 45
c. Not exceeding 50
2.00mm (No.10)sieves for Item 201 ABC
shall have a mass percent of wear by the
Los Angeles Abrasion Test
a. Not exceeding 40
b. Not exceeding 45
c. Not exceeding 50
2.00mm (No.10)sieves for Item 201 ABC
shall have a mass percent of wear by the
Los Angeles Abrasion Test
a. Not exceeding 40
b. Not exceeding 45
c. Not exceeding 50
82. The materials passing the 19mm
sieves for item200-ASC shall have a
soaked CBR value tested according
to AASHTO T193
a. 25% minimum
b. 80% minimum
c. 55% minimum
82. The materials passing the 19mm
sieves for item200-ASC shall have a
soaked CBR value tested according
to AASHTO T193
a. 25% minimum
b. 80% minimum
c. 55% minimum
83. The materials passing the 19mm (3/4
inch) sieve for item 201-
ABC shall have a soaked CBR value
tested according to AASHTO T193
a. 25% minimum
b. 80% minimum
c. 55% minimum
inch) sieve for item 201-
ABC shall have a soaked CBR value
tested according to AASHTO T193
a. 25% minimum
b. 80% minimum
c. 55% minimum
inch) sieves for item 202-crushed
ABC shall have a soaked CBR value of
a. 25% minimum
b. 80% minimum
c. 55% minimum
inch) sieves for item 202-crushed
ABC shall have a soaked CBR value of
a. 25% minimum
b. 80% minimum
c. 55% minimum
85. The coarse portion retained on a
2.00mm (No. 10) sieves for item 202-
Crushed ABC shall have a mass
percent of wear by Los Angeles
Abrasion Test of
a. Not exceeding 50
b. Not exceeding 45
c. Not exceeding 40
85. The coarse portion retained on a
2.00mm (No. 10) sieves for item 202-
Crushed ABC shall have a mass
percent of wear by Los Angeles
Abrasion Test of
a. Not exceeding 50
b. Not exceeding 45
c. Not exceeding 40
86. On super elevated curves, the rolling
shall begin at the ____ and progress
to the ____ overlapping of
longitudinal trips parallel to the
center
a. low sight, high sight

b. high sight, low sight
c. all of the above
86. On super elevated curves, the rolling
shall begin at the ____ and progress
to the ____ overlapping of
longitudinal trips parallel to the
center
a. low sight, high sight

b. high sight, low sight
c. all of the above
87. The solvent used to test on residue
from Distillation at 288°C of asphalt
materials
a. Carbon Disulphide
b. Hydrochloride
c. Trichlocloride
87. The solvent used to test on residue
from Distillation at 288°C of asphalt
materials
a. Carbon Disulphide
b. Hydrochloride
c. Trichlocloride
88. Coarse aggregate is the materials
_________ on the 2.00mm (No.10)
sieves
a. retained
b. passing
c. all of the above
88. Coarse aggregate is the materials
_________ on the 2.00mm (No.10)
sieves
a. retained
b. passing
c. all of the above
89. Fine aggregate is the materials
______ on the 2.00mm (no. 10)
sieve
a. retained
b. passing
c. all of the above
89. Fine aggregate is the materials
______ on the 2.00mm (no. 10)
sieve
a. retained
b. passing
c. all of the above
90. At least three (3) weeks prior to
production, the contractor shall
submit in writing a ____ for each
mixture supported by laboratory test
data
a. job-mix formula
b. Design of concrete mix
90. At least three (3) weeks prior to
production, the contractor shall
submit in writing a ____ for each
mixture supported by laboratory test
data
a. job-mix formula
b. Design of concrete mix
91. What sample to be taken from a
structural concrete, and how many?
A. core sample, one set three pieces

b. beam sample, one set three
pieces
c. cylinder sample, one set three
pieces
91. What sample to be taken from a
structural concrete, and how many?
A. core sample, one set three pieces

pieces
pieces
92. What sample to be taken from
pavement and how many?
a. Core sample, one set three pieces

pieces
pieces
92. What sample to be taken from
pavement and how many?
a. Core sample, one set three pieces

pieces
pieces
93. In making cylinder sample, how
many layers a concrete to be placed
and how many blows per layer
a. three layers at 25 blows/layer

b. three layers at 15 blows/layer
c. two layers at 20 blows/layer
93. In making cylinder sample, how
many layers a concrete to be placed
and how many blows per layer
a. three layers at 25 blows/layer

b. three layers at 15 blows/layer
c. two layers at 20 blows/layer
94. How many layers are concrete to be
placed, and how many blows
a. three layers at one blow per 2 sq.

inch
b. three layers at one blow per 3 sq.
inch
94. How many layers are concrete to be
placed, and how many blows
a. three layers at one blow per 2 sq.

inch
b. three layers at one blow per 3 sq.
inch
95. How many days minimum for curing
concrete
a. 3 days
b. 7days
c. 14 days
95. How many days minimum for curing
concrete
a. 3 days
b. 7days
c. 14 days
96. What test to perform to determine
the consistency of concrete
a. workability test
b. slump test
c. consistency test
96. What test to perform to determine
the consistency of concrete
a. workability test
b. slump test
c. consistency test
97. Forms shall remain in place for
_____ after concrete pouring
a. not less than 48 hours

b. not less than 12 hours
c. not less than 24 hours
97. Forms shall remain in place for
_____ after concrete pouring
a. not less than 48 hours

b. not less than 12 hours
c. not less than 24 hours
98. What is the item number for
Portland Cement Concrete
Pavement?
A. 310
b. 311
c. 314
98. What is the item number for
Portland Cement Concrete
Pavement?
A. 310
b. 311
c. 314
99. What is the main factor that affects
the strength of concrete
a. cement content
b. sizes of fine and course aggregates
c. water cement ratio
d. all of the above
99. What is the main factor that affects
the strength of concrete
a. cement content
b. sizes of fine and course aggregates
c. water cement ratio
d. all of the above
100. Which if the following is not included in
the method of curing concrete pavement
a. by covering the concrete with amts

and saturated with water
b. by thoroughly wetting the pavement
and covering its top surface and sides
with waterproof paper
c. by spraying plasticizer compound on
top of the pavement after the concrete
has been broom finished
100. Which if the following is not included in
the method of curing concrete pavement
a. by covering the concrete with amts

and saturated with water
b. by thoroughly wetting the pavement
and covering its top surface and sides
with waterproof paper
c. by spraying plasticizer compound on
top of the pavement after the concrete
has been broom finished
101. A moisture content present in an air
dried sample
a. natural moisture content

b. hygroscopic moisture content
101. A moisture content present in an air
dried sample

b. hygroscopic moisture content
102. Which of the engineering
properties of soils does not belong
to granular soil?
A. good load bearing quality

b. permeable
c. subject to changes in strength and
volume due to variation in water
content
102. Which of the engineering
properties of soils does not belong
to granular soil?
A. good load bearing quality

b. permeable
c. subject to changes in strength and
volume due to variation in water
content
103. A moisture content present in
undisturbed sample

b. artificial moisture content
c. hygroscopic moisture content
103. A moisture content present in
undisturbed sample

b. artificial moisture content
c. hygroscopic moisture content
104. The lowest moisture content in
which soil flow upon the application
of a very small shearing force
a. plastic limit test

b. shrinkage limit test
c. liquid limit test
which soil flow upon the application
of a very small shearing force
a. plastic limit test

b. shrinkage limit test
c. liquid limit test
which further loss of water due to
evaporation does not result in the
reduction of volume
a. liquid limit
b. plasticity index
c. shrinkage limit
which further loss of water due to
evaporation does not result in the
reduction of volume
a. liquid limit
b. plasticity index
c. shrinkage limit
which the soil can be rolled into
threads 1/8” in diameter without
crumbling
a. plastic limit
b. group index
c. liquid limit
which the soil can be rolled into
threads 1/8” in diameter without
crumbling
a. plastic limit
b. group index
c. liquid limit
107. Unless otherwise specified in the
design drawings or specifications,
the compressive strength of concrete
shall be based on:
a. 7 day test
b. 14 day test
c. 28 day test
107. Unless otherwise specified in the
design drawings or specifications,
the compressive strength of concrete
shall be based on:
a. 7 day test
b. 14 day test
c. 28 day test
108. In hydrographic survey, sounding
points should be made at maximum
intervals of
a. 10m
b. 20m
c. 50m
108. In hydrographic survey, sounding
points should be made at maximum
intervals of
a. 10m
b. 20m
c. 50m
109. The dividing line between gravel
and sand in serial number:
a. 4 (4.75mm)
b. 40 (0.425mm)
c. 200 (0.075mm)
d. 10(2.00mm)
109. The dividing line between gravel
and sand in serial number:
a. 4 (4.75mm)
b. 40 (0.425mm)
c. 200 (0.075mm)
d. 10(2.00mm)
110. The dividing line between sand and
silt is sieve number:
a. 200 (0.075mm)
b. 100 90.150mm)
c. 0.01mm
d. 0.05mm
110. The dividing line between sand and
silt is sieve number:
a. 200 (0.075mm)
b. 100 90.150mm)
c. 0.01mm
d. 0.05mm
111. What is the basis for acceptance or
rejection of any construction
materials?
A. quality control program

b. minimum testing requirements
c. materials test report
111. What is the basis for acceptance or
rejection of any construction
materials?
A. quality control program

b. minimum testing requirements
c. materials test report
112. Adequate compaction of item 201
will result to which of the ff:
a. greater stability
b. greater resistance to water
absorption
c. a decrease in the thickness of the
course
d. a & b
112. Adequate compaction of item 201
will result to which of the ff:
a. greater stability
b. greater resistance to water
absorption
c. a decrease in the thickness of the
course
d. a & b
113. The type of asphaltic materials that
is being referred to by penetration
grade
a. emulsified asphalt
b. cutback asphalt
c. asphalt cement
113. The type of asphaltic materials that
is being referred to by penetration
grade
a. emulsified asphalt
b. cutback asphalt
c. asphalt cement
114. Soil classification is determined by:
a. Atterberg limits test

b. Hydrometer test
c. Sieve analysis test
114. Soil classification is determined by:
a. Atterberg limits test

b. Hydrometer test
c. Sieve analysis test
115. The item no. for Portland cement
concrete pavement in the DPWH
Standard Specification is
a. item 200
b. item 311
c. item 310
115. The item no. for Portland cement
concrete pavement in the DPWH
Standard Specification is
a. item 200
b. item 311
c. item 310
116. What class of stones for riprap has
the largest dimension?
A. class A
b. class B
c. class C
d. class D
116. What class of stones for riprap has
the largest dimension?
A. class A
b. class B
c. class C
d. class D
117. In the DPWH standard
Specification, what is the item no of
excavation?
A. 100
b. 102
c. 104
d. 106
117. In the DPWH standard
Specification, what is the item no of
excavation?
A. 100
b. 102
c. 104
d. 106
118. A monthly status report is required
to be submitted to the monitoring
and information service(MIS) DPWH
central office on or before:
a. cost day of the month

b. 25th day of the month
c. 15th day of the month
d. 5th day of the following month
118. A monthly status report is required
to be submitted to the monitoring
and information service(MIS) DPWH
central office on or before:
a. cost day of the month

b. 25th day of the month
c. 15th day of the month
d. 5th day of the following month
119. Among the three types of soil, what
is the most inferior as to its
engineering properties?
A. coarse grained soil

b. organic soil
c. fine-grained soil
119. Among the three types of soil, what
is the most inferior as to its
engineering properties?
A. coarse grained soil

b. organic soil
c. fine-grained soil
120. For an embankment layer for each
500 sq.m of each layer compacted
fill or fraction thereof at least how
many group of three in-situ density
is needed?
A. two groups
b. one group
c. one and a half group
120. For an embankment layer for each
500 sq.m of each layer compacted
fill or fraction thereof at least how
many group of three in-situ density
is needed?
A. two groups
b. one group
c. one and a half group
121. How many cubic meters or fraction
thereof that will represent one
grading test and one plasticity test
for item 200 or 201?
A. every 75mᶾ
b. every 300mᶾ
c. every 1500mᶾ
121. How many cubic meters or fraction
thereof that will represent one
grading test and one plasticity test
for item 200 or 201?
A. every 75mᶾ
b. every 300mᶾ
c. every 1500mᶾ
122. How many cubic meter or fraction
thereof to represent one quality test
for aggregates base course
(item201)?
A. 2500mᶾ
b. 1500mᶾ
c. 2000mᶾ
thereof to represent one quality test
for aggregates base course
(item201)?
A. 2500mᶾ
b. 1500mᶾ
c. 2000mᶾ
thereof to represent one test for
soak CBR for item 201?
A. 3000mᶾ
b. 2500mᶾ
c. 2000mᶾ
thereof to represent one test for
soak CBR for item 201?
A. 3000mᶾ
b. 2500mᶾ
c. 2000mᶾ
124. How many bags of Portland cement
or fraction thereof to represent one
quality test?
A. 2500 bags
b. 3000 bags
c. 1500 bags
d. 2000 bags
124. How many bags of Portland cement
or fraction thereof to represent one
quality test?
A. 2500 bags
b. 3000 bags
c. 1500 bags
d. 2000 bags
125. As materials man at site a delivery
of 2 truck loads of Portland cement
intended for your project and has a
total of 2,010 bags, how many
quality test should you
recommend?
A. 2 samples for quality

b. 1 sample
c. 3 samples
125. As materials man at site a delivery
of 2 truck loads of Portland cement
intended for your project and has a
total of 2,010 bags, how many
quality test should you
recommend?
A. 2 samples for quality

b. 1 sample
c. 3 samples
126. How many kgs. Or fraction thereof
for each size of steel bars that will
represent 1 quality test for bending
tension and chemical analysis?
A. 2000kgs
b. 10,000 kgs
c. 20,00kgs
126. How many kgs. Or fraction thereof
for each size of steel bars that will
represent 1 quality test for bending
tension and chemical analysis?
A. 2000kgs
b. 10,000 kgs
c. 20,00kgs
127. At least how many sets of concrete
beam samples will you set and shall
represent a 330m² of pavement
230mm depth, or fraction thereof
placed each day? Volume of
concrete not more than 75mᶾ
a. 2 sets
b. 3 sets
c. 1 set
127. At least how many sets of concrete
beam samples will you set and shall
represent a 330m² of pavement
230mm depth, or fraction thereof
placed each day? Volume of
concrete not more than 75mᶾ
a. 2 sets
b. 3 sets
c. 1 set
128. If the volume of coarse aggregate
intended in your project is 85mᶾ how
many grading test will you perform?
A. 1-grading test
b. 2-grading test
c. 3-grading test
128. If the volume of coarse aggregate
intended in your project is 85mᶾ how
many grading test will you perform?
A. 1-grading test
b. 2-grading test
c. 3-grading test
129. What is the most common method
adopted by DPWH in the
determination of the density of soil
in place
a. nuclear method
b. balloon type method
c. sand-cone method
129. What is the most common method
adopted by DPWH in the
determination of the density of soil
in place
a. nuclear method
b. balloon type method
c. sand-cone method
130. What is the minimum sample for
moisture content determination if
the maximum size of particles is
50mm(2”)
a. 100g
b. 500g
c. 1000g
130. What is the minimum sample for
moisture content determination if
the maximum size of particles is
50mm(2”)
a. 100g
b. 500g
c. 1000g
131. What is the minimum mass of filed
samples for a maximum size of fine
aggregate @4.75mm (no.4)?
A. 5kg
b. 10kg
c. 20kg
131. What is the minimum mass of filed
samples for a maximum size of fine
aggregate @4.75mm (no.4)?
A. 5kg
b. 10kg
c. 20kg
132. What is the minimum mass of field
samples for coarse aggregate with a
maximum minimal size of aggregate
of 50mm(2”)
a. 50kgs
b. 100kgs
c. 75kgs
maximum minimal size of aggregate
of 50mm(2”)
a. 50kgs
b. 100kgs
c. 75kgs
133. What is the minimum
mass/quantity of samples for
Portland cement to be tested for
quality test in the laboratory?
a. 5kgs
b. 10kgs
c. 4kgs
Portland cement to be tested for
quality test in the laboratory?
a. 5kgs
b. 10kgs
c. 4kgs
asphaltic materials?
a. 2 liters
b. 3 liters
c. 5 liters
asphaltic materials?
a. 2 liters
b. 3 liters
c. 5 liters
135. The minimum mass/quantity of
samples for asphalt mix
a. 5 kgs
b. 6 kgs
c. 10 kgs
135. The minimum mass/quantity of
samples for asphalt mix
a. 5 kgs
b. 6 kgs
c. 10 kgs
136. The submission of any type of
sample in the laboratory what
should you accomplish and to be
submitted together with the
samples?
a. sample report
b. sample card
c. strength of sample
136. The submission of any type of
sample in the laboratory what
should you accomplish and to be
submitted together with the
samples?
a. sample report
b. sample card
c. strength of sample
137. If the minimum yield strength of a
grade 40 steel bars is 4000psi, what
is the equivalent in MN/m²
a. 280 Mpa
b. 276 Mpa
c. 200 Mpa
grade 40 steel bars is 4000psi, what
is the equivalent in MN/m²
a. 280 Mpa
b. 276 Mpa
c. 200 Mpa
grade 60 steel bars 414 Mpa, what is
the equivalent in psi?
a. 6000 psi
b. 60,000 psi
c. 50,000 psi
grade 60 steel bars 414 Mpa, what is
the equivalent in psi?
a. 6000 psi
b. 60,000 psi
c. 50,000 psi
139. How many samples for quality of
steel bars grade 40 if there are
15,500kgs of steel bars all 25mm
diameter at site?
A. 1 sample @ 1 meter long

b. 3 samples @ 1 meter long
c. 2 samples @ 1 meter long
139. How many samples for quality of
steel bars grade 40 if there are
15,500kgs of steel bars all 25mm
diameter at site?
A. 1 sample @ 1 meter long

b. 3 samples @ 1 meter long
c. 2 samples @ 1 meter long
maximum nominal size of aggregate
of 75mm(3”)
a. 100 kgs
b. 150 kgs
c. 200 kgs
maximum nominal size of aggregate
of 75mm(3”)
a. 100 kgs
b. 150 kgs
c. 200 kgs
141. What is the minimum mass of
coarse aggregates retained on the
2.00mm sieve shall be set aside for
sieve analysis for 50mm(2”) particle
size?
A. 2.0kgs
b. 4.0kgs
c. 5.0kgs
141. What is the minimum mass of
coarse aggregates retained on the
2.00mm sieve shall be set aside for
sieve analysis for 50mm(2”) particle
size?
A. 2.0kgs
b. 4.0kgs
c. 5.0kgs
142. What is the minimum average
strength requirement for a non load
bearing concrete hollow blocks?
A. 3.50Mpa
b. 4.14Mpa
c. 6.00Mpa
strength requirement for a non load
bearing concrete hollow blocks?
A. 3.50Mpa
b. 4.14Mpa
c. 6.00Mpa
strength requirement for a load
bearing hollow blocks?
A. 6.0Mpa
b. 6.9Mpa
c. 7.0Mpa
strength requirement for a load
bearing hollow blocks?
A. 6.0Mpa
b. 6.9Mpa
c. 7.0Mpa
144. What is the average deficient
thickness per lot of core specimen
where no payment is recommended
on the project?
A. more than 20mm

b. more than 25mm
c. more than 15mm
144. What is the average deficient
thickness per lot of core specimen
where no payment is recommended
on the project?
A. more than 20mm

b. more than 25mm
c. more than 15mm
145. What is the maximum average
deficient thickness per lot of core
specimens where 100% payment is
recommended?
A. 6mm max
b. 5mm max
c. 10mm max
145. What is the maximum average
deficient thickness per lot of core
specimens where 100% payment is
recommended?
A. 6mm max
b. 5mm max
c. 10mm max
146. Concrete in the area represented by
the cores will be considered
adequate if the average strength of
the cores is equal to at least ____ of
the specified, fc and no single core is
less than 75% of fc.
A. 95% of fc
b. 90% of fc
c. 85% of fc
146. Concrete in the area represented by
the cores will be considered
adequate if the average strength of
the cores is equal to at least ____ of
the specified, fc and no single core is
less than 75% of fc.
A. 95% of fc
b. 90% of fc
c. 85% of fc
147. The weighted loss of fine
aggregates subjected to 5 cycles of
the sodium sulfate soundness test
should not exceed:
a. 12 mass%
b. 10 mass%
c. 6 mass%
147. The weighted loss of fine
aggregates subjected to 5 cycles of
the sodium sulfate soundness test
should not exceed:
a. 12 mass%
b. 10 mass%
c. 6 mass%
148. The recommended type of Portland
cement to be used in concerning
unless otherwise provided for in the
special provision
a. type 1-P
b. type 1
c. type II & V
148. The recommended type of Portland
cement to be used in concerning
unless otherwise provided for in the
special provision
a. type 1-P
b. type 1
c. type II & V
149. Portland cement may be/shall be
rejected if:
a. It has partially set

b. it contains lumps of cake cement
c. it comes from a discarded or used
bag
d. all of the above
149. Portland cement may be/shall be
rejected if:
a. It has partially set

b. it contains lumps of cake cement
c. it comes from a discarded or used
bag
d. all of the above
150. Fine aggregates shall be rejected
when it falls in the _____ for organic
impurities
a. specific gravity
b. colormatic test
c. grading test
150. Fine aggregates shall be rejected
when it falls in the _____ for organic
impurities
a. specific gravity
b. colormatic test
c. grading test
151. Fine aggregate used for PCCP
contain more than _____ of
materials passing the 0.075mm (no.
200 sieve) by washing
a. 10 mass percent
b. 3 mass percent
c. 5 mass percent
151. Fine aggregate used for PCCP
contain more than _____ of
materials passing the 0.075mm (no.
200 sieve) by washing
a. 10 mass percent
b. 3 mass percent
c. 5 mass percent
152. The coarse aggregate used for PCCP
shall not contain more than ____ of
materials passing the 0.075mm
(no.200 sieve) by washing
a. 2 mass percent
b. 1 mass percent
c. 3.5 mass percent
152. The coarse aggregate used for PCCP
shall not contain more than ____ of
materials passing the 0.075mm
(no.200 sieve) by washing
a. 2 mass percent
b. 1 mass percent
c. 3.5 mass percent
153. The mass percent of wear or
abrasion loss of coarse aggregate
used for when tested by AASHTO T-
96 should not exceed
a. 50%
b. 40%
c. 35%
d. 30%
153. The mass percent of wear or
abrasion loss of coarse aggregate
used for when tested by AASHTO T-
96 should not exceed
a. 50%
b. 40%
c. 35%
d. 30%
154. The weighted loss of coarse
aggregate when subjected to five (5)
cycle of the sodium sulfate
soundness test should not exceed:
a. 10 mass percent
b. 5 mass percent
c. 12 mass percent
d. 15 mass percent
154. The weighted loss of coarse
aggregate when subjected to five (5)
cycle of the sodium sulfate
soundness test should not exceed:
a. 10 mass percent
b. 5 mass percent
c. 12 mass percent
d. 15 mass percent
155. The used dowel bars used in PCCP is
a. deformed bar
b. plain round bar
c. square bar
155. The used dowel bars used in PCCP is
a. deformed bar
b. plain round bar
c. square bar
156. A department order series of 1997
give supplemental guidelines on the
conduct of Project assessment by
the Quality assurance units-Regional
Office (QAU-RO):
a. D.O # 50
b. D.O # 52
c. D.O # 60
d. D.O # 55
156. A department order series of 1997
give supplemental guidelines on the
conduct of Project assessment by
the Quality assurance units-Regional
Office (QAU-RO):
a. D.O # 50
b. D.O # 52
c. D.O # 60
d. D.O # 55
157. A department order series of
revised DPWH Standards
specification for Electrometric
bearing pads for bridge structures.
a. D.O # 30
b. D.O # 25
c. D.O # 20
d. D.O # 50
157. A department order series of
revised DPWH Standards
specification for Electrometric
bearing pads for bridge structures.
a. D.O # 30
b. D.O # 25
c. D.O # 20
d. D.O # 50
158. What is the minimum compressie
strength of 150m x 300mm concrete
cylinder specimen at 28 days for
class P concrete?
a. 4000 Psi (27.60Mpa)

b. 3000 Psi (20.7Mpa)
c. 5000 Psi (37.7Mpa)
158. What is the minimum compressie
strength of 150m x 300mm concrete
cylinder specimen at 28 days for
class P concrete?
a. 4000 Psi (27.60Mpa)

b. 3000 Psi (20.7Mpa)
c. 5000 Psi (37.7Mpa)
159. What is the maximum compressive
strength of 150mm x 300mm
concrete cylinder specimen at 28
days for class C concrete?
a. 3000 Psi (20. 70Mpa)

b. 4000 Psi (27.60Mpa)
c. 2400 Psi (16.5Mpa)
159. What is the maximum compressive
strength of 150mm x 300mm
concrete cylinder specimen at 28
days for class C concrete?
a. 3000 Psi (20. 70Mpa)

b. 4000 Psi (27.60Mpa)
c. 2400 Psi (16.5Mpa)
160. The weep holes shall be placed
at the lowest points where free
outlets for water can be obtained
and shall be spread not more
than:
a. 3 m center to center
b. 1 m center to center
c. 2 ½ m center to center
d. 2 m center to center
160. The weep holes shall be placed
at the lowest points where free
outlets for water can be obtained
and shall be spread not more
than:
a. 3 m center to center
b. 1 m center to center
c. 2 ½ m center to center
d. 2 m center to center
161. One of the most common methods
used in compaction test/moisture
density relation test of soil is:
a. AASHTO T-90
b. AASHTO T-180
c. AASHTO T-100
d. AASHTO T-95
161. One of the most common methods
used in compaction test/moisture
density relation test of soil is:
a. AASHTO T-90
b. AASHTO T-180
c. AASHTO T-100
d. AASHTO T-95
162. Which of the following common
method used in compaction
test/moisture density relation test of
soil adopted by DPWH
a. AASHTO T-99
b. AASHTO T-180
c. AASHTO T-90
d. A & B
162. Which of the following common
method used in compaction
test/moisture density relation test of
soil adopted by DPWH
a. AASHTO T-99
b. AASHTO T-180
c. AASHTO T-90
d. A & B
163. If you are to use AASHTO T-99
method (standard proctor test) in
compaction test, what is the weight
of Rammer to be used?
A. 2.5 kgs (5.5 lb)

b. 4.54 kgs (10 lb)
c. 3.0 kgs (6.6 lb)
d. 5.9 kgs (11 lb)
163. If you are to use AASHTO T-99
method (standard proctor test) in
compaction test, what is the weight
of Rammer to be used?
A. 2.5 kgs (5.5 lb)

b. 4.54 kgs (10 lb)
c. 3.0 kgs (6.6 lb)
d. 5.9 kgs (11 lb)
164. Using the standard proctor test or
AASHTO T-99, what is the height of
drop to a free fall above the
elevation of the soil and uniformly
distributes such drop to the soil
surface?
a. 305 mm (12”)
b. 457 mm (18”)
c. 381 mm (15”)
AASHTO T-99, what is the height of
drop to a free fall above the
surface?
a. 305 mm (12”)
b. 457 mm (18”)
c. 381 mm (15”)
AASHTO T-99 for moisture density
relation test, what is the
recommended no. of blows per
layer?
a. 30 blows
b. 75 blows
c. 25 blows
d. 56 blows
AASHTO T-99 for moisture density
relation test, what is the
recommended no. of blows per
layer?
a. 30 blows
b. 75 blows
c. 25 blows
d. 56 blows
166. Using the modified Proctor test
(AASHTO T-180) method for
moisture density relation test of soil,
what is the recommended no. of
blows per layer?
a. 60 blows
b. 56 blows
c. 75 blows
d. 25 blows
166. Using the modified Proctor test
(AASHTO T-180) method for
moisture density relation test of soil,
what is the recommended no. of
blows per layer?
a. 60 blows
b. 56 blows
c. 75 blows
d. 25 blows
167. Using again the modified proctor test
or AASHTO T-180 method for moisture
density relation test of soil, what is the
height of drop to a free fall above the
surface?
a. 381 mm (15”)
b. 305 mm (12”)
c. 457 mm (18”)
d. 254 mm (10’)
167. Using again the modified proctor test
or AASHTO T-180 method for moisture
density relation test of soil, what is the
height of drop to a free fall above the
surface?
a. 381 mm (15”)
b. 305 mm (12”)
c. 457 mm (18”)
d. 254 mm (10’)
168. What is the capacity or the
compound volume of mold using 6”
(152mm) mold for both AASHTO T-
99 & AASHTO T-180 method?
a. 0.000943 m3
b. 0.002124 m3
c. 0.002150 m3
d. 0.002160 m3
168. What is the capacity or the
compound volume of mold using 6”
(152mm) mold for both AASHTO T-
99 & AASHTO T-180 method?
a. 0.000943 m3
b. 0.002124 m3
c. 0.002150 m3
d. 0.002160 m3
169. What are the datas needed in the
moisture density relation test of soil
using 2 most common method?
a. graph of the curve

b. maximum dry density
c. optimum moisture content (OMC)
d. B & C
169. What are the datas needed in the
moisture density relation test of soil
using 2 most common method?
a. graph of the curve

b. maximum dry density
c. optimum moisture content (OMC)
d. B & C
170. The prime coat shall be left
undisturbed for a period of at least
___hrs and shall not be opened to
traffic until it has penetrated and cured
sufficiently so that it will not be picked
up by the wheels for passing vehicles.
a. 12 hrs
b. 24 hrs
c. 5 hrs
170. The prime coat shall be left
undisturbed for a period of at least
___hrs and shall not be opened to
traffic until it has penetrated and cured
sufficiently so that it will not be picked
up by the wheels for passing vehicles.
a. 12 hrs
b. 24 hrs
c. 5 hrs
171. Concrete vibrators shall operate at
maximum spacing of?
a. 60 mm
b. 60 in
c. 60 cm
171. Concrete vibrators shall operate at
maximum spacing of?
a. 60 mm
b. 60 in
c. 60 cm
172. Stockpiles of concrete aggregates
shall be built up in layers of not more
than in thickness
a. one (1) meter

b. two (2) meter
c. three (3) meter
172. Stockpiles of concrete aggregates
shall be built up in layers of not more
than in thickness
a. one (1) meter

b. two (2) meter
c. three (3) meter
173. All washed aggregates shall be
stockpiled or binned for draining at
least ___hrs before being batched
a. 12 hrs
b. 5 hrs
c. 24 hrs
173. All washed aggregates shall be
stockpiled or binned for draining at
least ___hrs before being batched
a. 12 hrs
b. 5 hrs
c. 24 hrs
174. Concrete not in place within __
from the time the ingredients were
charged into the mixing drum or that
has developed initial set shall not be
used
a. 30 sec
b. 30 min
c. 90 min
d. 90 sec
174. Concrete not in place within __
from the time the ingredients were
charged into the mixing drum or that
has developed initial set shall not be
used
a. 30 sec
b. 30 min
c. 90 min
d. 90 sec
175. Shall not be painted or coated with
asphalt or other materials or
enclosed in tubes or sleeves
a. dowel bars
b. tie bars
c. square bars
175. Shall not be painted or coated with
asphalt or other materials or
enclosed in tubes or sleeves
a. dowel bars
b. tie bars
c. square bars
176. Mortar that is not in used within
___ after the water has been added
shall be discarded
a. 30 mins
b. 90 min
c. 1 hr
176. Mortar that is not in used within
___ after the water has been added
shall be discarded
a. 30 mins
b. 90 min
c. 1 hr
177. Rock gabions shall be generally
uniformly graded in sizes ranging
from 100-200 mm.
177. Rock gabions shall be generally
uniformly graded in sizes ranging
from 100-200 mm.
178. The maximum tensile strength of
the wire mesh for Gabions shall be
a. 581.1 Mpa
b. 486.1 Mpa
c. 276.1 Mpa
178. The maximum tensile strength of
the wire mesh for Gabions shall be
a. 581.1 Mpa
b. 486.1 Mpa
c. 276.1 Mpa
179. A wire mesh made of galvanized
steel used as a protection works.
A. Tire wires
b. Galvanized iron sheet
c. Gabions
179. A wire mesh made of galvanized
steel used as a protection works.
A. Tire wires
b. Galvanized iron sheet
c. Gabions
180. Minimum diameter of Gabions per
standard specification requirements.
a. 2.70mm
b. 3.00mm
c. 2.50mm
180. Minimum diameter of Gabions per
standard specification requirements.
a. 2.70mm
b. 3.00mm
c. 2.50mm
181. Determine the thickness and
density of the compacted asphalt
pavement
a. Field density test

b. Compaction test
c. Core test
181. Determine the thickness and
density of the compacted asphalt
pavement
a. Field density test

b. Compaction test
c. Core test
182. Sampling of PCCP/asphalt core
specimens shall be taken from the
pavement using:
a. Auger boring
b. Core drill
c. Subsurface exploration
182. Sampling of PCCP/asphalt core
specimens shall be taken from the
pavement using:
a. Auger boring
b. Core drill
c. Subsurface exploration
183. Size of asphalt core specimen
for thickness and density
determination
a. at least 150mm x 150mm

b. 100 mm diameter full depth
c. all of the above
d. none of the above
183. Size of asphalt core specimen
for thickness and density
determination
a. at least 150mm x 150mm

b. 100 mm diameter full depth
c. all of the above
184. The diameter of asphalt core
specimens shall be at least equal to:
a. four (4) times the maximum size

of aggregates
b. a. two (2) times the maximum size
of aggregates
c. one and one-half times the
maximum size of aggregates
184. The diameter of asphalt core
specimens shall be at least equal to:

of aggregates
of aggregates
185. The thickness of asphalt core
specimens shall be at least:

of aggregates
of aggregates
185. The thickness of asphalt core
specimens shall be at least:

of aggregates
of aggregates
186. Obtaining asphalt core specimens
for each full day’s operation shall be:
a. at least one, but more than three

(3) core samples
b. at least one, but not more than
three (3) core samples
c. at least three (3) but not more
than three (3) core samples
186. Obtaining asphalt core specimens
for each full day’s operation shall be:
a. at least one, but more than three

(3) core samples
b. at least one, but not more than
three (3) core samples
c. at least three (3) but not more
than three (3) core samples
187. Determining the thickness of
asphalt core specimen is by:
a. averaging the two or three core

samples
b. averaging the four core samples
c. averaging the four sides of the
core samples
187. Determining the thickness of
asphalt core specimen is by:
a. averaging the two or three core

samples
b. averaging the four core samples
c. averaging the four sides of the
core samples
188. Bituminous mixture will be
measured by:
a. Linear meter
b. Tones
c. gm/cm3
d. square meters
188. Bituminous mixture will be
measured by:
a. Linear meter
b. Tones
c. gm/cm3
d. square meters
189. The average of measures is made
on the asphalt core specimen in
determining the thickness
a. 4
b. 9
c. 6
189. The average of measures is made
on the asphalt core specimen in
determining the thickness
a. 4
b. 9
c. 6
190. In bituminous mixture ____ will not
be permitted as a method of
measurement
a. actual density
b. w = lwtd/106
c. Batch weights
190. In bituminous mixture ____ will not
be permitted as a method of
measurement
a. actual density
b. w = lwtd/106
c. Batch weights
191. 191. A core shall be taken for every
___ if no core was taken at the end
of each day’s operation.
a. 100 lm per lane

b. 100 Lm full width
c. 100 Lm per lane or fraction
thereof
191. 191. A core shall be taken for every
___ if no core was taken at the end
of each day’s operation.
a. 100 lm per lane

b. 100 Lm full width
c. 100 Lm per lane or fraction
thereof
192. The average of four (4)
measurements on the asphalt core
specimen is to determine the
a. density
b. thickness
c. asphalt mixture
192. The average of four (4)
measurements on the asphalt core
specimen is to determine the
a. density
b. thickness
c. asphalt mixture
193. The computation for the quantity of
bituminous mixture, are the following:
Given:
Paving length represented, m= 120
Thickness, cm = 5.0
Width, m= 3.05
Total length of pavement, m = 380
Density, gm/cm3 = 2.221
a. 50.33 tonnes
b. 40.64 tonnes
c. 43.88 tonnes
193. The computation for the quantity of
bituminous mixture, are the following:
Given:
Paving length represented, m= 120
Thickness, cm = 5.0
Width, m= 3.05
Total length of pavement, m = 380
Density, gm/cm3 = 2.221
a. 50.33 tonnes
b. 40.64 tonnes
c. 43.88 tonnes
194. Main constituents of asphalt which
is found in nature or as a residue in
petroleum refining.
a. cut-back
b. alkaline
c. bitumen
194. Main constituents of asphalt which
is found in nature or as a residue in
petroleum refining.
a. cut-back
b. alkaline
c. bitumen
195. Asphalt is a dark ___ cementations
material, solid or semi-solid
consistency.
a. brown
b. black
c. brown to black
d. all of the above
195. Asphalt is a dark ___ cementations
material, solid or semi-solid
consistency.
a. brown
b. black
c. brown to black
d. all of the above
196. Sampling bituminous mixes is one
sample for every:
a. 85 m3 or 140 m. t
b. 75 m3 or 120 m. t
c. 65 m3 or 120 m. t
196. Sampling bituminous mixes is one
sample for every:
a. 85 m3 or 140 m. t
b. 75 m3 or 120 m. t
c. 65 m3 or 120 m. t
197. Sampling of asphalt is one sample
for every:
a. 200 drums or 40 m. t
b. 100 drums or 20 m. t
c. 20 drums or 4 m. t
197. Sampling of asphalt is one sample
for every:
a. 200 drums or 40 m. t
b. 100 drums or 20 m. t
c. 20 drums or 4 m. t
198. Sampling of solid asphalt is one
sample for every:
a. 5 lbs
b. 10 lbs
c. 15 lbs
198. Sampling of solid asphalt is one
sample for every:
a. 5 lbs
b. 10 lbs
c. 15 lbs
199. Representative quantity of one
sample in sampling liquid asphalt is
___ sample for every:
a. 2 quarts to 2 gallons
b. 3 quarts to 3 gallons
c. 1 quart to 1 gallon
199. Representative quantity of one
sample in sampling liquid asphalt is
___ sample for every:
a. 2 quarts to 2 gallons
b. 3 quarts to 3 gallons
c. 1 quart to 1 gallon
200. During the breakdown rolling of
asphalting mix, it is carried out by:
a. Pneumatic rolling
b. Steel wheeled roller
c. all of the above
200. During the breakdown rolling of
asphalting mix, it is carried out by:
a. Pneumatic rolling
b. Steel wheeled roller
c. all of the above
201. In rolling asphalt mix, what phase
of rolling is to remove the marks by
the other rollers:
a. breakdown rolling
b. intermediate rolling
c. final rolling
the other rollers:
c. final rolling
the other rollers:
c. final rolling
the other rollers:
c. final rolling
203. Ideal composition of bituminous
aggregates in the asphalt mix
a. 92% to 98%
b. 95% to 98%
c. 92% to 96%
203. Ideal composition of bituminous
aggregates in the asphalt mix
a. 92% to 98%
b. 95% to 98%
c. 92% to 96%
204. The proportion of hydrated lime
added to the mixture by aggregate
basis
a. 0.50 to 1.0 mass percent

b. 0.55 to 1.0 mass percent
c. 0.05 to 0.50 mass percent
204. The proportion of hydrated lime
added to the mixture by aggregate
basis
a. 0.50 to 1.0 mass percent

b. 0.55 to 1.0 mass percent
c. 0.05 to 0.50 mass percent
205. The mixture of item 231 shall hae a
mass percent air oids with the range
of ___
a. 3 to 5
b. 3 to 6
c. 2 to 5
205. The mixture of item 231 shall hae a
mass percent air oids with the range
of ___
a. 3 to 5
b. 3 to 6
c. 2 to 5
206. A consistency test for solid asphalt
that determines the hardness of
asphalt
a. Ductility
b. Penetration
c. Solubility
206. A consistency test for solid asphalt
that determines the hardness of
asphalt
a. Ductility
b. Penetration
c. Solubility
207. Determines the purity of asphalt on
how much bitumen is in the asphalt
a. asphaltene
b. petrolene
c. all of the above
d. solubilty
207. Determines the purity of asphalt on
how much bitumen is in the asphalt
a. asphaltene
b. petrolene
c. all of the above
d. solubilty
208. The properties of asphalt depend
upon this ____ substance which is
soluble in petroleum solents as N-
pentanes.
a. asphaltane
b. petrolene
c. all of the above
208. The properties of asphalt depend
upon this ____ substance which is
soluble in petroleum solents as N-
pentanes.
a. asphaltane
b. petrolene
c. all of the above
209. Imparts ductility and high break point
a. Alkaline
b. resins
c. asphaltene
209. Imparts ductility and high break point
a. Alkaline
b. resins
c. asphaltene
210. Apparatus used in the penetration
Test of Asphalt
a. Cleveland Open Cup

b. Penetrometer
c. Ductility machine
210. Apparatus used in the penetration
Test of Asphalt

b. Penetrometer
211. Apparatus used in the Ductility Test
of Asphalt

b. Penetrometer
211. Apparatus used in the Ductility Test
of Asphalt

b. Penetrometer
212. Apparatus use in Flash Point Test of
asphalt

b. Penetrometer
212. Apparatus use in Flash Point Test of
asphalt

b. Penetrometer
213. The objective is to determine as
economical blend between graded
aggregates and asphalt in order to
produce a payment that would meet
the required specification.
a. Job-mix formula
b. Design of concrete mixes
c. Design of bituminous mixes
213. The objective is to determine as
economical blend between graded
aggregates and asphalt in order to
produce a payment that would meet
the required specification.
a. Job-mix formula
b. Design of concrete mixes
c. Design of bituminous mixes
214. Asphalt cement with water and a
little amount of emulsifier, usually
derivatives of salt.
a. Emulsified asphalt
b. Medium curing cutback asphalt
c. Rapid curing cutback asphalt
214. Asphalt cement with water and a
little amount of emulsifier, usually
derivatives of salt.
215. Asphalt cement mixed with
kerosene, black in color and liquid
and room temperature.
215. Asphalt cement mixed with
kerosene, black in color and liquid
and room temperature.
216. Test specimen required for items
311-PCCP
a. Concrete mold
b. Concrete cylinder
c. Concrete beam
216. Test specimen required for items
311-PCCP
a. Concrete mold
b. Concrete cylinder
c. Concrete beam
217. Required slump for PCCP, if vibrated
a. 40 to 75 mm
b. 10 to 40 mm
c. 10 to 40 cm
217. Required slump for PCCP, if vibrated
a. 40 to 75 mm
b. 10 to 40 mm
c. 10 to 40 cm
218. Forms for PCCP shall remain in
place undisturbed for not less than
__hours after concrete pouring
a. 24
b. 12
c. 48
218. Forms for PCCP shall remain in
place undisturbed for not less than
__hours after concrete pouring
a. 24
b. 12
c. 48
219. Concrete shall be thoroughly
consolidated by means of:
a. tamper
b. vibrator
c. plate compactor
219. Concrete shall be thoroughly
consolidated by means of:
a. tamper
b. vibrator
c. plate compactor
220. Flexural strength of PCCP when
tested at third point.
a. 24.1 Mpa
b. 4.50 Mpa
c. 3.80 Mpa
tested at third point.
a. 24.1 Mpa
b. 4.50 Mpa
c. 3.80 Mpa
221. Transverse construction joint is also
called as __, is constructed when
there is an interruption of more than
30 minuets in the concreting works.
a. contraction joint
b. cold joint
c. expansion joint
221. Transverse construction joint is also
called as __, is constructed when
there is an interruption of more than
30 minuets in the concreting works.
a. contraction joint
b. cold joint
c. expansion joint
222. Mixing time of PCCP shall not be
less than __or more than __
a. 1 hr, 1 ½ hr
b. 50 minutes, 90 minutes
c. 50 seconds, 90 seconds
222. Mixing time of PCCP shall not be
less than __or more than __
a. 1 hr, 1 ½ hr
b. 50 minutes, 90 minutes
c. 50 seconds, 90 seconds
223. Compressive strength of PCCP
tested at 14 days
a. 24.1 Mpa
b. 4.50 Mpa
c. 3.80 Mpa
223. Compressive strength of PCCP
tested at 14 days
a. 24.1 Mpa
b. 4.50 Mpa
c. 3.80 Mpa
224. Slump for a workable PCCP if not
vibrated
a. 40 to 70 mm
b. 10 to 40 mm
c. 40 to 75 cm
224. Slump for a workable PCCP if not
vibrated
a. 40 to 70 mm
b. 10 to 40 mm
c. 40 to 75 cm
225. Depth of weakened plane joints
should at all times not be less than
__
a. 50 cm
b. 50 in
c. 50 mm
225. Depth of weakened plane joints
should at all times not be less than
__
a. 50 cm
b. 50 in
c. 50 mm
226. Bars placed perpendicular to the
longitudinal joint of PCCP,
a. tie bars
b. dowel bars
c. square bars
226. Bars placed perpendicular to the
longitudinal joint of PCCP,
a. tie bars
b. dowel bars
c. square bars
227. Vibrator shall not be operated
longer than __ in any one location.
a. 10 seconds
b. 15 minutes
c. 15 seconds
227. Vibrator shall not be operated
longer than __ in any one location.
a. 10 seconds
b. 15 minutes
c. 15 seconds
tested at midpoint.
a. 24.1 Mpa
b. 4.50 Mpa
c. 3.80 Mpa
tested at midpoint.
a. 24.1 Mpa
b. 4.50 Mpa
c. 3.80 Mpa
229. Sawing of joints of PCCP shall
commence as soon as the concrete
has hardened sufficiently, usually__
a. within 48 hrs
b. within 12 hrs
c. within 24 hrs
229. Sawing of joints of PCCP shall
commence as soon as the concrete
has hardened sufficiently, usually__
a. within 48 hrs
b. within 12 hrs
c. within 24 hrs
230. The surface of the newly placed
PCCP shall be cured for a period of
__
a. 24 hrs
b. 12 hrs
c. 72 hrs
230. The surface of the newly placed
PCCP shall be cured for a period of
__
a. 24 hrs
b. 12 hrs
c. 72 hrs
231. Used as load transfer device and
are held in position parallel to the
centerline of the slab.
a. tie bars
b. dowels
c. expansion bar
231. Used as load transfer device and
are held in position parallel to the
centerline of the slab.
a. tie bars
b. dowels
c. expansion bar
232. Curing compound shall not be
applied during__
a. Cloudy
b. rain
c. hot
232. Curing compound shall not be
applied during__
a. Cloudy
b. rain
c. hot
233. Straw curing on PCCP shall be at
least __ thick which is measured
after wetting.
a. 20 in
b. 20 cm
c. 20 mm
233. Straw curing on PCCP shall be at
least __ thick which is measured
after wetting.
a. 20 in
b. 20 cm
c. 20 mm
234. The finished product of mixing
aggregates with cement and water.
a. asphalt
b. concrete
c. grout
234. The finished product of mixing
aggregates with cement and water.
a. asphalt
b. concrete
c. grout
235. Rate of increase in strength is __ at
high temperature than at low
temperature.
a. lower
b. break even
c. higher
235. Rate of increase in strength is __ at
high temperature than at low
temperature.
a. lower
b. break even
c. higher
236. Most specifications for concrete
exposed to weathering require that
water-cement ratio be __ by weight.
a. 0.55
b. 0.53
c. 0.58
236. Most specifications for concrete
exposed to weathering require that
water-cement ratio be __ by weight.
a. 0.55
b. 0.53
c. 0.58
237. Physical property of concrete that
withstand deterioration due to
exposure to weathering action.
a. durability
b. workability
c. impermeability
237. Physical property of concrete that
withstand deterioration due to
exposure to weathering action.
a. durability
b. workability
c. impermeability
238. Over sanded and under mixtures
require more water in order to be
workable, but making it so will only
result in sacrifice in:
a. workability
b. durability
c. strength
238. Over sanded and under mixtures
require more water in order to be
workable, but making it so will only
result in sacrifice in:
a. workability
b. durability
c. strength
239. The method commonly used to test
on workability of concrete.
a. slump test
b. ball penetration test
c. consistence test
239. The method commonly used to test
on workability of concrete.
a. slump test
c. consistence test
240. The new method used to test on
workability of concrete and these
test are readily made in the fields.
a. slump test
c. consistence test
240. The new method used to test on
workability of concrete and these
test are readily made in the fields.
a. slump test
c. consistence test
241. For rich mixes, the strength of – is
the controlling factor.
a. concrete
b. cement
c. aggregates
241. For rich mixes, the strength of – is
the controlling factor.
a. concrete
b. cement
c. aggregates
242. Strength of concrete is principally
depend on the__
a. aggregates
b. water-cement ratio
c. cement
242. Strength of concrete is principally
depend on the__
a. aggregates
b. water-cement ratio
c. cement
243. Class of concrete that is deposited
in water.
a. Class A
b. Class B
c. Class P
d. seal
243. Class of concrete that is deposited
in water.
a. Class A
b. Class B
c. Class P
d. seal
244. Class of concrete used for pre-
stressed concrete structure and its
member.
a. Class A
b. Class B
c. Class P
d. seal
244. Class of concrete used for pre-
stressed concrete structure and its
member.
a. Class A
b. Class B
c. Class P
d. seal
245. Class of concrete used in footings,
massive pier shafts and unreinforced
or with only a small amount of
reinforcement.
a. class A
b. class B
c. class C
d. class P
245. Class of concrete used in footings,
massive pier shafts and unreinforced
or with only a small amount of
reinforcement.
a. class A
b. class B
c. class C
d. class P
246. Class of concrete used in thin
reinforced sections like railings.
a. class A
b. class B
c. class C
d. class P
246. Class of concrete used in thin
reinforced sections like railings.
a. class A
b. class B
c. class C
d. class P
247. Sampling of Portland Cement
should be done in accordance with
AASHTO:
a. T-127
b. T- 27
c. T- 11
247. Sampling of Portland Cement
should be done in accordance with
AASHTO:
a. T-127
b. T- 27
c. T- 11
248. One sieve analysis for every __ of
concrete aggregates or a fraction
therof
a. 300 m3
b. 1500m3
c. 75 m3
248. One sieve analysis for every __ of
concrete aggregates or a fraction
therof
a. 300 m3
b. 1500m3
c. 75 m3
249. A minimum weight of __ sample
shall be taken from each 2000 bags
of cement or fraction thereof.
a. 10g
b. 10 kg
c. 10 lbs
249. A minimum weight of __ sample
shall be taken from each 2000 bags
of cement or fraction thereof.
a. 10g
b. 10 kg
c. 10 lbs
250. Class of concrete used to all
superstructures and heavily
reinforced substructures.
a. class A
b. class B
c. class c
250. Class of concrete used to all
superstructures and heavily
reinforced substructures.
a. class A
b. class B
c. class c
251. For sub-base courses, laboratory
compaction test is done for every:
a. 1000 m3
b. 300 m3
c. 1500 m3
d. 150 m3
251. For sub-base courses, laboratory
compaction test is done for every:
a. 1000 m3
b. 300 m3
c. 1500 m3
d. 150 m3
252. Field density test of at least one
group of three is conducted for
every:
a. 200 m3
b. 300 m3
c. 500 m3
d. 150 m3
252. Field density test of at least one
group of three is conducted for
every:
a. 200 m3
b. 300 m3
c. 500 m3
d. 150 m3
253. In item 203, amount of lime added
to dry soil aggregate is:
a. 2-14 mass percent

b. 3-14 mass percent
c. 2-12 mass percent
d. 3-12 mass percent
253. In item 203, amount of lime added
to dry soil aggregate is:

254. Rate of application for item 302 is
a. 0.2 to 0.8 li/m3

b. 0.2 to 0.7 li/m3
c. 0.2 to 0.7 li/m3
254. Rate of application for item 302 is
a. 0.2 to 0.8 li/m3

b. 0.2 to 0.7 li/m3
c. 0.2 to 0.7 li/m3
255. In items 206, the amount of cement
added to dry soil aggregates is.

255. In items 206, the amount of cement
added to dry soil aggregates is.

256. CHB is tested to determine its
moisture content and__
a. chemical properties
b. strength
c. dimension
d. cement content
256. CHB is tested to determine its
moisture content and__
a. chemical properties
b. strength
c. dimension
d. cement content
257. Quantity of Portland cement sent
to the laboratory for testing.
a. 40 kg
b. 10 kg
c. 50 kg
d. 30 kg
257. Quantity of Portland cement sent
to the laboratory for testing.
a. 40 kg
b. 10 kg
c. 50 kg
d. 30 kg
258. A set of three beam sample is
conducted representing__ m3 of
concrete
a. 300
b. 75
c. 500
d. 1500
258. A set of three beam sample is
conducted representing__ m3 of
concrete
a. 300
b. 75
c. 500
d. 1500
259. Sample of paint sent to the
laboratory for testing
a. 1 gallon
b. 1-10 li can
c. 1-5 li
d. 1-4 li can
259. Sample of paint sent to the
laboratory for testing
a. 1 gallon
b. 1-10 li can
c. 1-5 li
d. 1-4 li can
260. Two major components of
concrete: Select two answer.
a. course aggregate
b. lime
c. paste
d. water
c. mineral aggregate
260. Two major components of
concrete: Select two answer.
a. course aggregate
b. lime
c. paste
d. water
c. mineral aggregate
261. Is the process of maintaining
sufficient moisture and favorable
temperature in concrete during
hardening process.
a. evaporation
b. curing
c. hydration
d. mixing
261. Is the process of maintaining
sufficient moisture and favorable
temperature in concrete during
hardening process.
a. evaporation
b. curing
c. hydration
d. mixing
262. The higher the paste content of the
concrete, the __ the shrinkage.
a. lesser
b. greater
262. The higher the paste content of the
concrete, the __ the shrinkage.
a. lesser
b. greater
263. Regardless of use, the grading of
aggregate should be:
a. blended
b. uniform
c. clean
263. Regardless of use, the grading of
aggregate should be:
a. blended
b. uniform
c. clean
264. The type of Portland Cement used
in DPWH project.
a. Type II
b. Type I
c. Type IV
264. The type of Portland Cement used
in DPWH project.
a. Type II
b. Type I
c. Type IV
265. Determines the proportion of the
ingredients that will produce
concrete of proper workability when
fresh and the desired strength after
it has hardened
a. job mix
b. Marshall stability test
c. Design mix
d. Index of retained strength
265. Determines the proportion of the
ingredients that will produce
concrete of proper workability when
fresh and the desired strength after
it has hardened
a. job mix
b. Marshall stability test
c. Design mix
d. Index of retained strength
266. The maximum permissible water-
cement ratio for a strength of 3000
psi
a. 0.50
b. 0.45
c. 0.55
d. 0.58
266. The maximum permissible water-
cement ratio for a strength of 3000
psi
a. 0.50
b. 0.45
c. 0.55
d. 0.58
267. The consistency of concrete
mixture is determined in the field by
a. measuring
b. slump test
c. design mix
d. cylinder samples
267. The consistency of concrete
mixture is determined in the field by
a. measuring
b. slump test
c. design mix
d. cylinder samples
268. For every 75 m3 of concrete
poured, a minimum of __ cylinder
samples are taken in each day of
pouring.
a. 6
b. 3
c. 1
268. For every 75 m3 of concrete
poured, a minimum of __ cylinder
samples are taken in each day of
pouring.
a. 6
b. 3
c. 1
269. When tested 14 days, the
compressive strength of concrete is
a. 3000 psi
b. 4000 psi
c. 3500 psi
269. When tested 14 days, the
compressive strength of concrete is
a. 3000 psi
b. 4000 psi
c. 3500 psi
270. Preparation of base or grade in
concrete pavement construction
extend beyond __ cm each edge of
proposed concrete pavement.
a. 50 cm
b. 100 cm
c. 60 cm
d. 75 cm
270. Preparation of base or grade in
concrete pavement construction
extend beyond __ cm each edge of
proposed concrete pavement.
a. 50 cm
b. 100 cm
c. 60 cm
d. 75 cm
271. Forms of concrete pavement shall
not deviate from true line by more
than __ at any point.
a. 5 cm
b. 2 cm
c. 6 cm
d. 1 cm
271. Forms of concrete pavement shall
not deviate from true line by more
than __ at any point.
a. 5 cm
b. 2 cm
c. 6 cm
d. 1 cm
272. When hauled in agitating trucks,
from the time water is added to the
mix until the concrete is deposited in
place shall not exceed __
a. 50 mins max
b. 90 mins max
c. 45 mins max
c. 1 hr max
272. When hauled in agitating trucks,
from the time water is added to the
mix until the concrete is deposited in
place shall not exceed __
a. 50 mins max
b. 90 mins max
c. 45 mins max
c. 1 hr max
273. The depth of the weakened plane
joint should at all times not less than
a. 60 mm
b. 45 mm
c. 35 mm
d. 50 mm
273. The depth of the weakened plane
joint should at all times not less than
a. 60 mm
b. 45 mm
c. 35 mm
d. 50 mm
274. Minimum compressive strength of
econocrete
a. 2800 psi
b. 2400 psi
c. 2500 psi
d. 2000 psi
274. Minimum compressive strength of
econocrete
a. 2800 psi
b. 2400 psi
c. 2500 psi
d. 2000 psi
275. Transverse contraction joint is also
called
a. construction joint
b. cold joint
c. weakened plane joint
d. expansion joint
275. Transverse contraction joint is also
called
a. construction joint
b. cold joint
c. weakened plane joint
d. expansion joint
276. Vibrators shall not be operated
longer than __ in any one location
a. 30 sec
b. 50 sec
c. 15 sec
d. 25 sec
276. Vibrators shall not be operated
longer than __ in any one location
a. 30 sec
b. 50 sec
c. 15 sec
d. 25 sec
277. Contract is mutual agreement
between two parties for the purpose
of undertaking clearly specified
works.
277. Contract is mutual agreement
between two parties for the purpose
of undertaking clearly specified
works.
TRUE
278. Public bidding refers to a method of
procurement which is open to
participation by any interested party
and which consists of the following
processes: advertisement, pre-bid
conference, eligibility screening of
prospective bidders, receipt and
opening of bids, evaluation of bids,
post- qualification, and award of
contract.
278. Public bidding refers to a method of
procurement which is open to
participation by any interested party
and which consists of the following
processes: advertisement, pre-bid
conference, eligibility screening of
prospective bidders, receipt and
opening of bids, evaluation of bids,
post- qualification, and award of
contract.
TRUE
279. Negotiated contract procurement is
a method of procurement of
infrastructure projects, whereby the
DPWH directly negotiates a contract
with a technically, legally and
financially capable supplier/contract.
279. Negotiated contract procurement is
a method of procurement of
infrastructure projects, whereby the
DPWH directly negotiates a contract
with a technically, legally and
financially capable supplier/contract.
TRUE
280. The updated checklist of
requirement for processing of public
bidding contract and negotiated
contract can be found in Department
Order No. 41, Series of 2009
280. The updated checklist of
requirement for processing of public
bidding contract and negotiated
contract can be found in Department
Order No. 41, Series of 2009
FALSE
281. Performance Bond is used to
guarantee the faithful performance by
the contract of its obligation under the
contract, contractor shall post a
performance security in favor of the
DPWH, which shall be forfeited in favor
of the DPWH in the event it is
established that the contractor is in
default in any of its obligation under
the contract.
281. Performance Bond is used to
guarantee the faithful performance by
the contract of its obligation under the
contract, contractor shall post a
performance security in favor of the
DPWH, which shall be forfeited in favor
of the DPWH in the event it is
established that the contractor is in
default in any of its obligation under
the contract.
TRUE
282. Procedural flow guidelines and time
frame of contract processing in the
central office can be found in D.O
No. 41, Series of 2009.
282. Procedural flow guidelines and time
frame of contract processing in the
central office can be found in D.O
No. 41, Series of 2009.
FALSE
283. Incomplete/deficient provisions in
the contract agreement, defect in
the submitted performance
security/insurance and other
lacking/deficient documents are the
common problems of contract
processing.
283. Incomplete/deficient provisions in
the contract agreement, defect in
the submitted performance
security/insurance and other
lacking/deficient documents are the
common problems of contract
processing.
TRUE
284. In order to expedite processing of
contract the implementing office
should submit the document
although it is incomplete so that the
processing office can find the
additional requirement for the
contract/defects in the contract to
complete the requirements and
rectify the defects.
284. In order to expedite processing of
contract the implementing office
should submit the document
although it is incomplete so that the
processing office can find the
additional requirement for the
contract/defects in the contract to
complete the requirements and
rectify the defects.
FALSE
285. In forwarding the contract
documents for approval, it will be
more productive to know
beforehand what documents can be
immediately submitted, in order to
comply with the deficiency to avoid
return of the whole documents,
which will only delay the processing.
285. In forwarding the contract
documents for approval, it will be
more productive to know
beforehand what documents can be
immediately submitted, in order to
comply with the deficiency to avoid
return of the whole documents,
which will only delay the processing.
TRUE
286. The implementing office should not
only observe the requirements
under the D.O. No. 41, Series 2009
but also exert additional effort of
coordinating with the assigned
processing office such as the BOC.
286. The implementing office should not
only observe the requirements
under the D.O. No. 41, Series 2009
but also exert additional effort of
coordinating with the assigned
processing office such as the BOC.
TRUE
287. A Change Order covers the
introduction of new work necessary
for the completion/improvement or
protection of the project which are
not included as items of work in the
original contract.
287. A Change Order covers the
not included as items of work in the
original contract.
FALSE
288. Under the IRR – A, Annex E of R.A.
9184, Extra Work Order may be
allowed up to 25% of the adjusted
contract cost.
contract cost.
FALSE
289. The timeframe for the processing of
Variation Order from preparation up
to the approval by the procuring
entity concerned shall not exceed
thirty (30) calendar days.
TRUE
290. A pay item which represents at
least 20% of the total estimated cost
of the contract can be considered as
major pay item.
major pay item.
TRUE
291. Under the FIDIC General Condition
of Contract, the Engineer may
instruct the Contractor to ormit any
such work to be carried out by the
Employee or by another contractor.
of Contract, the Engineer may
instruct the Contractor to ormit any
such work to be carried out by the
Employee or by another contractor.
FALSE
of contract any change in specified
sequence or timing of construction
of any part of the works may be
considered a Variation Order.
of contract any change in specified
sequence or timing of construction
of any part of the works may be
considered a Variation Order.
TRUE
293. Under the IRR of PD 1594 as amended
12 August 2000, for a unit price contract
quantity overruns or under runs of not
more that fifteen percent (15%) of the
estimates per major pay items and
twenty fie percent (25%) per minor pay
item in the Bill of Quantities need not be
covered by Change Order provided that
the same is authorized by the approving
Authority for the contract.
293. Under the IRR of PD 1594 as amended
12 August 2000, for a unit price contract
quantity overruns or under runs of not
more that fifteen percent (15%) of the
estimates per major pay items and
twenty fie percent (25%) per minor pay
item in the Bill of Quantities need not be
covered by Change Order provided that
the same is authorized by the approving
Authority for the contract.
FALSE
294. In claiming for any Variation Order, the
contractor only needs to submit within
twenty eight (28) calendar days, written
communication giving full and detailed
particulars of any extra cost after the
contractor discovers that there is a need
for a variation order.
294. In claiming for any Variation Order, the
contractor only needs to submit within
twenty eight (28) calendar days, written
communication giving full and detailed
particulars of any extra cost after the
contractor discovers that there is a need
for a variation order.
TRUE
295. Under the IRR of RA 9184, the Regional
Director or equivalent official. Without the
availability of funds, may authorize the
immediate start of work under Change Order or
Extra Work Order up to 5% of the adjusted
Original Contract price in the event of
emergency where prosecution of the work is
urgent to avoid determine to public service, or
damage to life and property; and/or when time
is of the essence, for works in the critical path
based on the approved PERT/CPM
295. Under the IRR of RA 9184, the Regional
Director or equivalent official. Without the
availability of funds, may authorize the
immediate start of work under Change Order or
Extra Work Order up to 5% of the adjusted
Original Contract price in the event of
emergency where prosecution of the work is
urgent to avoid determine to public service, or
damage to life and property; and/or when time
is of the essence, for works in the critical path
based on the approved PERT/CPM
FALSE
296. Per Department Order No. 204, dated
28 October 2004, the cumulative
amount of Variation Order shall not
exceed ten percent (10%) of the
original cost. The sum of the
cumulative amount of variation orders
and the original cost can exceed the
Approved Budget for the Contract.
296. Per Department Order No. 204, dated
28 October 2004, the cumulative
amount of Variation Order shall not
exceed ten percent (10%) of the
original cost. The sum of the
cumulative amount of variation orders
and the original cost can exceed the
Approved Budget for the Contract.
FALSE
297. A Extra Order covers the
not included as items of works in the
original contract.
297. A Extra Order covers the
not included as items of works in the
original contract.
FALSE
contract cost.
contract cost.
FALSE
TRUE
major pay item.
major pay item.
TRUE

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1.

What is the dividing line between

a. 20kgs to a maximum of 35kgs w/ at least 50%

a. 20kgs to a maximum of 35kgs w/ at least 50%

a. Liquid and Plastic limit

a. Liquid and Plastic limit

a. Not to exceed 110°C

a. Not to exceed 110°C

a. Marshall Stability method

a. Marshall Stability method

a. Asphalt Seal Coat

a. Asphalt Seal Coat

a. Asphalt Tack Coat

a. Asphalt Tack Coat

a. Asphalt Seal Coat

a. Asphalt Seal Coat

a. Asphalt Seal Coat

a. Asphalt Seal Coat

a. Not less than 45%

a. Not less than 80%

a. Not less than 80%

a. Not more than 80%

a. Not more than 80%

a. Minimum Testing Requirements

a. Minimum Testing Requirements

a. at least 95% of the MDD

a. at least 95% of the MDD

a. 0.2 to 0.7 liters/m²

a. 0.2 to 0.7 liters/m²

a. Not greater than 5

a. Not greater than 5

a. Should not be less than 107°C

a. Should not be less than 107°C

a. at least one, but more than 3

a. at least one, but more than 3

a. Not greater than 25

a. Not greater than 25

a. Liquid Limit than 25

a. Liquid Limit than 25

a. Not greater than 25

a. Not greater than 25

a. Not greater than 25

a. Not greater than 25

a. not greater than 12

a. not greater than 12

a. not greater than 12

a. not greater than 12

a. Not greater than 12

a. Not greater than 12

a. low sight, high sight

a. low sight, high sight

A. core sample, one set three pieces

A. core sample, one set three pieces

a. Core sample, one set three pieces

a. Core sample, one set three pieces

a. three layers at 25 blows/layer

a. three layers at 25 blows/layer

a. three layers at one blow per 2 sq.

a. three layers at one blow per 2 sq.

a. not less than 48 hours

a. not less than 48 hours

a. by covering the concrete with amts